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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old female attends your clinic on a Monday afternoon with a complaint of a worsening cough that produces green sputum and a sore throat that has been present for 2 days. She denies experiencing any other symptoms. Upon examination, there is a mild wheeze but no focal respiratory signs. The patient's observations, peak flow, and the rest of her examination are normal. She is currently taking salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma and has an intrauterine system for contraception.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Prescribe oral doxycycline
Explanation:For this patient with pre-existing asthma, an immediate or delayed antibiotic prescription should be considered due to the higher risk of complications. The first-line antibiotic for acute bronchitis is oral doxycycline, unless the patient is pregnant or a child. As this patient has normal observations and no focal respiratory signs, same-day admission is not necessary, and treatment can be provided in the community without intravenous antibiotics or oxygen.
Reassuring the patient and prescribing carbocisteine is not recommended as mucolytics are not effective for managing acute cough caused by acute bronchitis. Administering IM amoxicillin is also not appropriate as doxycycline is the recommended first-choice antibiotic for this condition, and IM is an invasive route that is unnecessary for this patient who can swallow.
Understanding Acute Bronchitis
Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that is typically self-limiting and caused by inflammation of the trachea and major bronchi. This results in swollen airways and the production of sputum. The condition usually resolves within three weeks, but some patients may experience a cough for longer. Viral infections are the leading cause of acute bronchitis, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter.
Symptoms of acute bronchitis include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which may present with sputum, wheezing, and breathlessness.
Acute bronchitis is typically diagnosed based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to guide antibiotic therapy. Management of acute bronchitis includes analgesia, good fluid intake, and consideration of antibiotic therapy for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing co-morbidities, or have a CRP level indicating the need for antibiotics. Doxycycline is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries/BNF, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 29-year-old female complains of a chronic cough and sensation of wheezing following physical activity. What factor would increase the likelihood of an asthma diagnosis?
Your Answer: Symptoms worsen after taking aspirin
Explanation:A cough that produces sputum, symptoms only after an upper respiratory tract infection, and peripheral pins and needles are all factors that make a diagnosis of asthma less likely.
When considering asthma, it is important to take into account recurrent episodes of symptoms that may be triggered by viral infections, exposure to allergens, NSAIDs/beta-blockers, and exacerbated by exercise, cold air, and emotions/laughter in children. It is also important to note recorded observations of wheezing, which should be documented by a clinician due to varying use of language. Symptom variability is another factor to consider, as asthma is typically worse at night or early in the morning. A personal history of atopy, such as eczema or allergic rhinitis, should also be taken into account. Additionally, the absence of symptoms of alternative diagnoses, such as COPD, dysfunctional breathing, or obesity, should be considered. Finally, a historical record of variable peak flows or FEV1 can also be helpful in diagnosing asthma.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman visits the clinic to discuss the findings of his recent spirometry test. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath for the past six months. Previously, he could walk comfortably to the pub at the far end of the village to meet his old friends from the steelworks, but he has been struggling to keep up with them for some time. He quit smoking four years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day since his 20s. He occasionally uses a salbutamol inhaler, which he has been prescribed for the past two years.
What is the recommended course of action for this patient's treatment, as per the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries guidelines?Your Answer: Budesonide 200 micrograms, formoterol fumarate 6 micrograms/metered inhalation 2 puffs BD
Correct Answer: Formoterol 12 micrograms 1 puff BD
Explanation:Spirometry and Management of COPD
In spirometry, a ratio of FEV1/FVC less than 0.7 indicates the presence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A diagnosis of stage 3 (severe) COPD is made when FEV1 is between 30-49% predicted. Smoking cessation is crucial in managing COPD. If a person prescribed with a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) or short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) remains breathless or experiences exacerbations, a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) or long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be offered. It is recommended to discontinue treatment with a SAMA if prescribing a LAMA. A regular LAMA is preferred over a regular SAMA four times daily. It is important to note that this approach differs from the PCRS approach, which categorizes treatment based on phenotypic groups for patients with predominant breathlessness, exacerbations, or COPD with asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 46-year-old patient with multiple health problems has undergone a medication review at his GP surgery. He has a history of asthma and hypertension. He presents to the Emergency department with an episode of bronchospasm.
Which one of the following medications is most likely to be responsible?Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Most Likely Cause of Bronchospasm in a Patient with Asthma
Examiners often use terms like most likely to test a candidate’s ability to reason. In primary care, where there may be multiple causes, prioritizing treatment options is crucial. In a patient with a history of asthma experiencing bronchospasm, propranolol is the most likely cause, and its use should be avoided. While bronchospasm is reported in aspirin-sensitive patients and paradoxical bronchospasm in some patients treated with salmeterol, beta-blockers like propranolol can precipitate bronchospasm and should be avoided in patients with asthma.
According to the British National Formulary, beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma. However, in some cases, a cardioselective beta-blocker may be necessary for a co-existing condition like heart failure or following a myocardial infarction. In such situations, a specialist should initiate treatment with a low dose of a cardioselective beta-blocker like atenolol, bisoprolol fumarate, metoprolol tartrate, nebivolol, or acebutolol. These drugs have a lesser effect on airways resistance but are not free of this side-effect.
ACE inhibitors like ramipril are inhibitors of the metabolism of bradykinin and can cause cough. Bronchospasm is also reported as an adverse event associated with ACE inhibition, although it is very rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 5
Correct
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During a home visit to a 58-year-old patient with a lower respiratory tract infection, who is also housebound due to motor neurone disease, you review her medications. What regular medication/s should you consider initiating?
Your Answer: Vitamin D
Explanation:It is recommended to provide daily vitamin D supplements to all patients who are confined to their homes.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old gentleman with known bronchiectasis. Over the past 3 days, his cough has become increasingly productive and the sputum has become more thick and green than usual. He is slightly more short of breath than usual.
On examination, he is apyrexial, has a respiratory rate of 20, coarse crackles in both lung bases and doesn't appear cyanosed. He has no drug allergies.
What would be the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Sputum culture then amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 7-14 days
Correct Answer: Sputum culture then amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5-7 days
Explanation:Treating Infective Exacerbation of Bronchiectasis
When managing a suspected infective exacerbation of bronchiectasis, it is crucial to obtain a sputum culture before initiating antibiotics. However, treatment should not be delayed until the culture results are available. It is also recommended to administer a more extended course of antibiotics than what is typically prescribed for a lower respiratory tract infection.
NICE provides specific guidance on the selection and duration of antibiotics based on the identified organism. Additionally, hospital admission should be considered if there are indications of a more severe illness, such as cyanosis, confusion, respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, significant breathlessness, or a temperature of 38°C or higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You come across a 60-year-old woman who is feeling under the weather. She has been experiencing a productive cough for the past 3 days and is coughing up brown-green sputum. She feels feverish and lethargic. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis, which she has been dealing with for over 30 years. She has been taking etanercept for the past 3 years, and her condition is well controlled.
During the examination, her temperature is recorded at 37.5 degrees Celsius, her respiratory rate is 17 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation levels are at 98%. Slight crackles are heard in the base of her left lung.
You prescribe a 7-day course of amoxicillin for her lower respiratory tract infection and provide her with advice on how to manage her worsening condition.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: A patient who is stable on etanercept needs blood monitoring every 3 months
Correct Answer: A patient with RA taking etanercept who develops an infection needs to stop the etanercept until the infection is cleared
Explanation:Patients with RA who are taking etanercept are at a higher risk of developing infections, including chest infections and sepsis. If an infection does occur, it is important to discontinue the use of etanercept until the infection has been cleared. Additionally, biologic therapy can increase the risk of TB or reactivation of latent TB, and patients on this type of therapy require regular blood monitoring. This includes a full blood count, urea and electrolytes (with creatinine), and liver function tests initially, followed by monitoring every 6 months once stable, unless there is a clinical need for more frequent monitoring.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.
In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).
Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.
TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.
Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old ex-smoker presents with worsening shortness of breath. You can see from his records that over the last couple of months, he has had three courses of antibiotics for chest infections. He confirms that despite the recent treatments his symptoms have persisted and he continues to bring up sputum. He tells you that he has come to see you today because over the last week he has felt more unwell with increased shortness of breath, headache and dizziness.
On examination, he has obvious oedema of the face and upper body with facial plethora. There is marked venous distention affecting the upper chest and face. Soft stridor is audible.
What is the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)
Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is a blockage of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.
The typical features of SVCO include facial and upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Other symptoms may include dizziness, syncope, and headache due to pressure effect. This gentleman is an ex-smoker and has a persistent productive cough that has not responded to repeated antibiotic use, which is suspicious of an underlying lung malignancy.
Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds is crucial, and immediate referral for specialist assessment is necessary. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO becomes a medical emergency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with asthma presents with a 4-day history of increasing wheeze, dry cough and chest tightness. She has been needing to use her salbutamol up to 5 times a day to relieve her symptoms.
She is alert and able to complete full sentences at rest. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2ºC, pulse rate 120/min, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 26/min, oxygen saturation 94% in room air. On auscultation, she has polyphonic wheeze throughout. Her peak expiratory flow reading is 380 L/min (best 550 L/min).
How many features of acute severe asthma does she have?Your Answer: 4
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:To alleviate his symptoms, the patient is taking his medication three times daily. Despite his condition, he remains alert and capable of speaking in complete sentences while at rest. His vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37.1ºC, pulse rate of 116/min, blood pressure of 118/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate of 2.
Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who is elderly, should be provided with long-term oxygen therapy?
Your Answer: Two arterial blood gases measurements with pO2 < 7.3 kPa
Correct Answer:
Explanation:If a person with COPD has two measurements of pO2 below 7.3 kPa, they should receive LTOT.
Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients
Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.
To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.
Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).
Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 67-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up on his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), despite not experiencing any exacerbations in the past year. During the appointment, the GP orders some routine blood tests.
What alterations could be observed on the full blood count as a chronic effect of this man's condition?Your Answer: Increased concentration of haematocrit
Explanation:Polycythaemia can be a long-term complication of COPD that may be detected through a full blood count. This condition is caused by chronic hypoxia, which triggers the kidneys to produce more erythropoietin and increase haemoglobin levels. Thrombocytopenia, on the other hand, is a reduction in platelet count that can be caused by various factors such as medication side effects, vitamin deficiencies, or disseminated intravascular coagulation. Conversely, thrombocythemia, or an elevated platelet count, can be caused by inflammation, malignancy, or infection. Leukopenia, or a decrease in white blood cells, can be a result of acute infection or serious conditions like HIV or cancer. Finally, anaemia, or a decrease in haemoglobin concentration, can be caused by deficiencies in iron, vitamin B12, or folic acid.
Understanding COPD: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common medical condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Smoking is the leading cause of COPD, and patients with mild disease may only need occasional use of a bronchodilator, while severe cases may result in frequent hospital admissions due to exacerbations. Symptoms of COPD include a productive cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and in severe cases, right-sided heart failure leading to peripheral edema.
To diagnose COPD, doctors may recommend post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to check for hyperinflation, bullae, and flat hemidiaphragm, and to exclude lung cancer. A full blood count may also be necessary to exclude secondary polycythemia, and body mass index (BMI) calculation is important. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with a ratio of less than 70% indicating airflow obstruction. The grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 – mild now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but with a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.7. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction.
In summary, COPD is a common condition caused by smoking that can result in a range of symptoms and severity. Diagnosis involves various tests to check for airflow obstruction, exclude lung cancer, and determine the severity of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a firm swelling at the base of his neck on the right hand side, just above the clavicle. He noticed it about two weeks ago. It is not painful. He is an ex-smoker who stopped smoking three years ago (before that he smoked 10 roll-up cigarettes per day for 35 years). On further questioning he has noticed a loss of appetite and weight loss of 8 lbs.
On examination he is apyrexial and has a firm non-mobile lymph node 3 cm in diameter in the right supraclavicular fossa. There are no abnormalities on examination of the respiratory system and there is no organomegaly on abdominal examination.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer: Arrange an urgent chest x ray (report within five days)
Correct Answer: Routine referral to an ear nose and throat specialist
Explanation:Supraclavicular Lymph Node Enlargement and Malignancy
The right supraclavicular lymph node drains the mid-section of the chest, oesophagus, and lungs. An enlarged and fixed node in this area can indicate malignancy, with the lungs being a common primary site. While glandular fever is a possibility, it is less common in this age group, and the patient is presenting with several alarm symptoms.
Empirically treating with antibiotics is not recommended, as there are no signs of an infected sebaceous cyst, the patient is not feverish, and there is no identified focus for infection. According to NICE guidance, patients with cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy should undergo an urgent chest x-ray.
The NPSA’s thematic review of delayed cancer diagnosis found that 23% of lung cancer cases had diagnostic delays, although not all of these were directly attributable to general practitioners’ actions. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate any supraclavicular lymph node enlargement promptly to rule out malignancy and ensure timely treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen.
Her spirometry shows an FEV1 of 42% predicted with an FEV1:FVC ratio of 64%. Her current treatment consists of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) used as required which was started when a clinical diagnosis was made two to three months ago prior to her having had the spirometry performed. A chest x Ray was normal and she gave up cigarettes a few weeks ago. Her home peak flow measurments show a 30% diurnal variation.
On reviewing her symptoms she needs to use the SABA at least four times a day and despite this still feels persistently breathless. In addition, she tells you that over the last few years she gets attacks of 'bronchitis' two to three times a year. You can see from her notes that she has received at least two courses of antibiotics each year for the last three years for acute episodes of productive cough and shortness of breath.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in her pharmacological management?Your Answer: Add in a LABA and ICS in a combination inhaler
Explanation:Management of COPD with Persistent Breathlessness
Patients with COPD who experience persistent breathlessness despite regular SABA use require additional inhaled treatment to improve symptom control and prevent exacerbations. Spirometry results confirming an obstructive picture, frequent exacerbations, and an FEV1 of less than 50% are useful in determining the next step in management.
The two options for add-on inhaled treatment are a LABA+ICS combination inhaler or a LAMA. The choice depends on the presence of asthmatic features, such as a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher eosinophil count, substantial variation on FEV1 over time, or a substantial diurnal variation in peak flow. If asthmatic features are present, a LABA & ICS combination inhaler is preferred.
Adding a regular ICS on its own has no role in the COPD treatment ladder, while a regular SAMA can be used instead of a SABA but is not an option for add-in treatment. Adding a LABA may improve symptoms, but the combination of ICS/LABA is more beneficial for patients with a history of frequent exacerbations.
In addition to inhaled treatment, it may be necessary to issue an emergency supply of antibiotics and oral steroids for patients with persistent breathlessness and frequent exacerbations. For more information on managing stable COPD, refer to the NICE Visual Summary guide and NICE NG115 guidelines.
Overall, the management of COPD with persistent breathlessness requires a tailored approach based on individual patient characteristics and the presence of asthmatic features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as she is desperate to stop smoking. She has had a number of unsuccessful attempts to stop smoking over the years and has tried nicotine patches.
Which of the following would be an appropriate choice to assist in her attempts at smoking cessation?Your Answer: Varenicline
Explanation:Varenicline: An Effective Anti-Smoking Agent
Varenicline, also known as Champix, is an oral medication that helps individuals quit smoking. It has a dual action, reducing the craving for cigarettes and making smoking less pleasurable. Clinical trials have shown that Varenicline is more effective than both bupropion and placebo.
The medication is prescribed for 12 weeks initially, and if cravings persist, a further 12-week course may be prescribed. Varenicline has been proven to be an effective tool in helping individuals quit smoking and can be a valuable addition to a comprehensive smoking cessation program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children?
Your Answer: Persistent nocturnal cough
Correct Answer: Finger clubbing
Explanation:Common Pediatric Respiratory Issues and Diagnostic Considerations
Abnormal cry and stridor are indicative of potential laryngeal issues in children. When assessing for asthma, it is important to note that it is predominantly extrinsic in nature. During acute asthma episodes, relying on peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) may be unreliable due to poor technique. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses when a child presents with failure to thrive and clubbing, as these symptoms may suggest underlying health issues beyond respiratory concerns. By keeping these diagnostic considerations in mind, healthcare providers can more effectively identify and treat common pediatric respiratory issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 59-year-old gentleman with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
His spirometry shows an FEV1 of 58% predicted. His current treatment consists of a short-acting beta-2 agonist used as required.
On reviewing his symptoms he has not had any significant exacerbations over the past 12 months but he needs to use his inhaler at least four times a day and despite this he still feels persistently breathless.
As per NICE guidance, what would be the next most appropriate step in his pharmacological management?Your Answer: Add in a long-acting beta agonist and inhaled corticosteroid in a combination inhaler
Correct Answer: Add in a regular inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Treatment Algorithm for COPD Patients
Page 9 of the NICE reference guide on Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (CG101) provides an overview of the treatment algorithm for patients with COPD. If a patient has inadequately controlled symptoms despite using a regular short-acting beta agonist and an FEV1 of greater or equal to 50%, the next options are to add in a long-acting beta agonist or a long-acting muscarinic antagonist. In both cases, the short-acting beta agonist can continue to be used as required. Therefore, the correct answer from the list of options is to add in a regular long-acting muscarinic antagonist.
If the patient has an FEV1 <50%, the treatment choice would alter again with the option of using a long-acting beta agonist/inhaled corticosteroid combination inhaler. It is important to follow the treatment algorithm to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment for their COPD symptoms. Proper management of COPD can improve a patient's quality of life and reduce the risk of exacerbations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 17
Correct
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A 42-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with a complaint of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. He seldom attends asthma clinic and you observe that his previous best peak flow readings were 400 L/min. What is the threshold that indicates acute severe asthma in this patient?
Your Answer: Respiratory rate >25
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
Assessment and severity of acute asthma are common topics in exams. The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma, which should be familiar to healthcare professionals.
Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of best or predicted, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or an inability to complete sentences in one breath. The aim of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 94-98%.
In the case of this man, the only indicator of an acute severe asthma attack is a respiratory rate of >25. If any of these features persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these indicators and to follow the appropriate management guidelines to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity that has been going on for two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. On examination, there are no abnormalities, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What is the most useful test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Spirometry before and after exercise
Correct Answer: Refer for arterial blood studies before and after exercise
Explanation:Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma
This patient is showing signs of exercise-induced asthma. To confirm this diagnosis, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This is because exercise is the trigger for his asthma symptoms, and spirometry can measure any changes in lung function before and after physical activity. By comparing the results, doctors can determine if the patient has exercise-induced asthma and develop an appropriate treatment plan. It is important to confirm the diagnosis to ensure the patient receives the correct treatment and can continue to participate in physical activity safely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He reports feeling breathless and his heart racing late at night. These episodes are causing him significant worry. His wife notes that he snores loudly and sometimes stops if he changes position. Additionally, he has been taking short naps during the day which is impacting his work as an IT technician. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and obesity.
What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT)
Correct Answer: Polysomnography (PSG)
Explanation:Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.
To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.
Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 20
Correct
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A 65-year-old heavy smoker complains of morning cough and difficulty in breathing. Upon conducting a chest x-ray, hyperinflated lung fields are observed. Spirometry is arranged. Which of the following spirometry results would be indicative of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
Your Answer: FEV1 - reduced, FEV1/FVC - reduced
Explanation:The spirometry results indicate an obstructive pattern, which strongly suggests a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
To determine airflow obstruction, the FEV1/FVC ratio must be less than 0.7.
NICE utilizes the FEV1 (compared to the expected value based on age, height, and gender) to classify the severity of COPD.
Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.
In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.
It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 21
Correct
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Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual review. Until around two years ago they used just a salbutamol inhaler as required. Following a series of exacerbations, they were started on a corticosteroid inhaler and currently takes Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) 400mcg bd. The patient reports that their asthma control has been 'good' for the past six months or so. They have had to use their asthma inhaler twice over the past six months, both times after going for a long jog. Their peak flow today is 520 l/min which is 90% of the best value recorded 5 years ago but up from the 510 l/min recorded 12 months ago. Their inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Decrease the Clenil dose to 200mcg bd
Explanation:If asthma is well controlled, it is advisable to reduce the treatment, as per the guidelines of the British Thoracic Society.
Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines
The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.
Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 22
Correct
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What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids?
Your Answer: Hoarseness is a side-effect
Explanation:Understanding Inhaled Corticosteroids: Uses, Benefits, and Side Effects
Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used to manage reversible and irreversible airways disease. They can also help distinguish between asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) when used for 3-4 weeks. If there is clear improvement over this period, it suggests asthma. In COPD, inhaled corticosteroids can reduce exacerbations when combined with an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist. However, it’s important to use corticosteroid inhalers regularly for maximum benefit, and improvement of symptoms usually occurs within 3-7 days.
While inhaled corticosteroids are generally safe, high doses used for prolonged periods can induce adrenal suppression. However, in children, growth restriction associated with systemic corticosteroid therapy and high dose inhaled corticosteroids doesn’t seem to occur with recommended doses. Although initial growth velocity may be reduced, there appears to be no effect on achieving normal adult height. The most common side-effects are hoarseness, throat irritation, and candidiasis of the mouth or throat. Candidiasis can be reduced by using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water or cleaning a child’s teeth after taking a dose. Paradoxical bronchospasm is a rare occurrence.
In summary, inhaled corticosteroids are a valuable tool in managing airways disease, but it’s important to use them as directed and be aware of potential side-effects. With proper use, they can provide significant relief and improve quality of life for those with asthma and COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 23
Correct
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You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient attends for follow-up. He has a diagnosis of COPD (FEV1/FVC= 0.68, FEV1=46% predicted) and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. He has noted progressive ankle swelling over last year but has not suffered any exacerbations in this time. He currently takes a tiotropium inhaler as well as a combination inhaler of salmeterol/fluticasone with a salbutamol inhaler when required, his inhaler technique has been assessed as good. In the clinic, his arterial blood gas results on air give a pO2 of 7.3kPa and 7.8kPa respectively from today and from clinic two months ago. He continues to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation therapy.
The patient would like to be considered for home oxygen therapy. According to current NICE guidelines, what advice should you give him?Your Answer: Home oxygen is contraindicated as she is a current smoker
Explanation:What are the indications for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in COPD patients?
In COPD patients, LTOT is typically indicated when their PaO2 is less than 7.3kPa when stable. However, this threshold is increased to less than 8kPa if they have secondary polycythemia, pulmonary hypertension, or peripheral edema. Arterial oxygen concentration should be assessed when stable and with at least two readings taken at least three weeks apart. To achieve the greatest effect, supplementary oxygen should be used for more than 20 hours per day, but a minimum of 15 hours per day is required.
Maintenance oral corticosteroid use is not routinely recommended and should only be considered when it is not possible to fully wean steroids between exacerbations.
As per the 2018 NICE update to the COPD guidelines, LTOT is no longer recommended for current smokers.
Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients
Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.
To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.
Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).
Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the suggested starting dosage of oral prednisolone for the treatment of acute severe asthma in adults?
Your Answer: 40-50 mg daily for at least five days
Correct Answer: 60 mg daily for at least 10 days
Explanation:Effective Treatment for Acute Asthma
When it comes to treating acute asthma, steroid tablets and injected steroids are equally effective. A dose of oral prednisolone of 40-50 mg per day for at least five days or intravenous hydrocortisone 400 mg can be used. It is important to continue taking prednisolone until recovery, which should be a minimum of five days. Additionally, it is important to not stop inhaled corticosteroids during the prescription of oral corticosteroids. By following these key points, patients can effectively manage their acute asthma symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 25
Correct
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A 27-year-old man presents with sudden difficulty breathing and a known history of asthma. You are evaluating the severity of his asthma attack and suspect it may be classified as acute severe. What is a characteristic of this classification?
Your Answer: Inability to complete full sentences
Explanation:Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 26
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman with a history of myasthenia gravis and COPD presents with increasing fatigue and shortness of breath despite inhaled therapies. She denies chest pain or cough and has a 20-pack-year smoking history. There are no notable occupational exposures. On examination, her cardiorespiratory system appears normal. Blood tests and chest x-ray are unremarkable, but spirometry reveals the following results:
FEV1 (L): 3.5 (predicted 4.5)
FVC (L): 3.8 (predicted 5.4)
FEV1/FVC (%): 92
What is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Neuromuscular disorder
Explanation:Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.
In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.
It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 27
Correct
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You see a 50-year-old lady who complains of a chronic cough, often with yellow sputum that has persisted months. She thinks she is more breathless than her previous baseline. She reports no weight loss, no night sweats and is a non-smoker.
On examination, she has coarse crackles in the lower lung zones. A trial of amoxicillin was started but did not improve her symptoms so a sputum sample was sent which grew Pseudomonas aeruginosa. A chest X ray was normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Bronchiectasis as a Possible Diagnosis for Chronic Non-Productive Cough
Consider bronchiectasis as a possible diagnosis for a patient with a chronic non-productive cough, especially if the patient is a non-smoker. While other diagnoses are also possible, bronchiectasis is more likely if the patient doesn’t exhibit symptoms such as night sweats, weight loss, or the growth of Pseudomonas. It is important to note that a chest X-ray may not always show abnormalities in patients with bronchiectasis, and a CT-scan is often necessary for an accurate diagnosis. Therefore, if a patient presents with a chronic non-productive cough, bronchiectasis should be considered as a possible diagnosis, particularly in non-smokers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath when exerting himself and lying flat at night. He reports no weight loss or coughing up blood and feels generally healthy. His medical records indicate that he had a normal chest X-ray three months ago and had a heart attack three years ago. During the examination, the doctor detects mild crepitations in both lung bases. What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Check natriuretic peptide levels
Explanation:According to the updated NICE guidelines in 2018, all individuals who are suspected to have chronic heart failure should undergo an NT-proBNP test as the initial diagnostic test, irrespective of their history of myocardial infarction.
Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.
Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.
BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.
It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. During the examination, her peak flow is measured at 300 l/min (normally 450 l/min) and she is able to speak in full sentences. Her pulse is 90 bpm and her respiratory rate is 18 / min. Upon chest examination, bilateral expiratory wheezing is detected, but there are no other notable findings. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Oxygen + nebulised salbutamol + prednisolone + immediate admission
Correct Answer: Nebulised salbutamol + prednisolone + allow home if settles with follow-up review
Explanation:Asthma Assessment and Management in Primary Care
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. In primary care, patients with acute asthma are stratified into moderate, severe, or life-threatening categories based on their symptoms. For moderate asthma, treatment involves the use of beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer. If the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is between 50-75%, prednisolone 40-50 mg may also be prescribed.
For severe asthma, admission may be necessary, and oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%. Beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer, and prednisolone 40-50 mg should also be administered. If there is no response to treatment, admission is recommended.
In life-threatening asthma cases, immediate admission should be arranged through a 999 call. Oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%, and nebulized beta 2 agonists (e.g. Salbutamol) + ipratropium should be administered. Prednisolone 40-50 mg or IV hydrocortisone 100 mg may also be prescribed.
In summary, the management of asthma in primary care involves stratifying patients based on their symptoms and administering appropriate treatment based on their category. It is important to closely monitor patients and adjust treatment as necessary to prevent exacerbations and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 30
Correct
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During a routine annual COPD review, a 50-year-old gentleman reports that he requires the use of his salbutamol inhaler three times daily, most days for breathlessness. He could not tolerate a LAMA inhaler due to side effects. His most recent FEV1 was 45% predicted. He stopped smoking several years ago and tries to keep active. He reports no weight loss, no haemoptysis, no leg swelling and is otherwise well. Examination is unremarkable.
SABA = short-acting beta agonist
LABA = long-acting beta agonist
SAMA = short-acting muscarinic antagonist
LAMA = long-acting muscarinic antagonist
ICS = inhaled corticosteroid.
What would be the most appropriate change to his treatment regime?Your Answer: Add a regular LABA+ICS inhaler
Explanation:Step-Up Treatment for COPD Patients
When a patient with COPD is only taking salbutamol inhalers and their FEV1 is less than 50%, it may be necessary to step up their treatment. One option is to add a LABA+ICS, which can help improve lung function and reduce symptoms. However, it’s important to note that a LAMA should not be used in combination with an ICS. While adding a regular ICS may be considered in asthma treatment, it is not typically part of the step-up approach for COPD. Additionally, a SAMA can be an alternative to salbutamol inhalers, but it is not intended as a step-up treatment. By carefully considering the best options for each patient, healthcare providers can help manage COPD symptoms and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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