00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman has episodes of depression secondary to a heavy consumption of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has episodes of depression secondary to a heavy consumption of alcohol. She had never felt her drinking to be a problem.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic term to describe this?

      Your Answer: Hazardous drinking

      Correct Answer: Harmful use

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Use: Categories and Definitions

      Alcohol use can have varying degrees of impact on a person’s health and well-being. To better understand these impacts, different categories and definitions have been established.

      Harmful use refers to a pattern of alcohol consumption that is already causing harm to a person’s health, but doesn’t necessarily involve dependence. This can include acute or chronic damage, such as depression or cirrhosis. Brief interventions may be effective in addressing harmful use.

      Dependence syndrome, on the other hand, involves a compulsion to drink, inability to control drinking, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, neglect of normal activities, and persistent drinking despite evidence of harm.

      Acute intoxication is a transient condition resulting from the administration of alcohol, causing disturbances in consciousness, cognition, perception, affect, or behavior. It is only diagnosed when intoxication occurs without more persistent alcohol-related problems.

      Binge drinking is defined as drinking more than double the lower risk guidelines for alcohol in one session, and is considered a more risky type of hazardous drinking.

      Hazardous drinking is the regular consumption of a certain amount of ethanol per day, as determined by population studies and the associated risk of harm. It is not a diagnostic term in ICD-10, but is often used to describe drinking that may lead to harm.

      Understanding these categories and definitions can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify and address problematic alcohol use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      69.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old alcoholic man is brought to the Emergency Department because of tremor,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old alcoholic man is brought to the Emergency Department because of tremor, agitation, confusion, visual and auditory hallucinations, fever, sweating, and tachycardia and hypertension. His partner reports that he has not had any alcohol for about four days.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Major alcohol withdrawal symptoms (hallucinosis)

      Correct Answer: Delirium tremens

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Withdrawal and Related Complications

      Alcohol withdrawal can lead to various complications, including delirium tremens, major alcohol withdrawal symptoms (hallucinosis), Korsakoff psychosis, and Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Delirium tremens is the most severe manifestation of alcohol withdrawal, characterized by agitation, confusion, disorientation, hallucinations, fever, hypertension, perspiration, and autonomic hyperactivity. Major alcohol withdrawal symptoms, also known as alcoholic hallucinosis, include visual and auditory hallucinations, whole body tremor, vomiting, perspiration, and hypertension. Korsakoff psychosis is a permanent brain damage caused by untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is a neuropsychiatric complication resulting from thiamine deficiency that occurs frequently in people with chronic alcohol dependence. It is crucial to have a high index of suspicion for Wernicke’s encephalopathy as the classic triad of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia is only present in about 10% of cases. While some of these features may be present in a patient with pneumonia, a cough and chest signs are typically present in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking opioid substitution therapy to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking opioid substitution therapy to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and ultimately quit illicit drug use, including opioids. The GP conducts an initial evaluation.
      What is the initial step to take in managing this patient?
      Select ONE choice only.

      Your Answer: Prescribe an opioid substitute

      Correct Answer: Check liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Managing Opioid Substitution Treatment: Key Considerations

      Opioid substitution treatment (OST) is a crucial component of managing opioid addiction. However, there are several important considerations that healthcare providers must keep in mind when prescribing and managing OST. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      1. Check liver function tests: Before prescribing methadone or buprenorphine, it is important to check liver function tests to ensure that the patient doesn’t have decompensated liver failure, which is a relative contraindication to OST.

      2. Advise against alcohol use: Patients should be advised that they cannot have opioid substitution until they have stopped drinking alcohol. However, maintenance or detoxification from illicit substances and alcohol can occur concurrently.

      3. Don’t stop medication abruptly: If a dosage is missed, prescribing should not be stopped immediately. Instead, the patient should be informed that missed doses will be reported to the pharmacist, and that abrupt cessation of medication can lead to withdrawal and a return to illicit substance use.

      4. Address illicit drug use: Patients should be informed that the OST programme will be stopped if they continue to use illicit drugs. However, healthcare providers should continue to work with patients on other drug use, alcohol use, psychological interventions, and any health and social needs, even if a relapse into illicit drugs occurs while on a reduction regimen.

      5. Initiate medication as soon as possible: Starting medication (methadone or buprenorphine) is important and occasionally urgent, and it needs to be initiated as rapidly as it can safely be done to avoid patients dropping out of treatment. However, starting substitute medication on the first presentation is often not possible, as results of investigations such as a toxicology screen often take several days to return.

      By keeping these considerations in mind, healthcare providers can effectively manage OST and help patients on the path to recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A middle-aged woman arrives unannounced at your surgery and has been slotted in...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman arrives unannounced at your surgery and has been slotted in to an appointment cancellation by one of your receptionists.

      She doesn't appear to be registered with a GP and is of no fixed abode. She says that she has been living rough for the past few years since the break up of a tempestuous marriage due to her alcoholism.

      She claims to have no friends or relatives but has come to see you because her health is deteriorating due to her drinking. She has had several episodes of loss of consciousness and others have noticed convulsions. She is unable to give an accurate description of her consumption other than to say that she drinks extra strong lager all day long and a bottle of whiskey or vodka every day if she can get hold of it.

      On examination, she appears dishevelled, very anxious and has a resting tremor.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate way to intervene with a view to reducing her alcohol dependency?

      Your Answer: Replacing his benefits with access to food stamps

      Correct Answer: Inpatient detoxification

      Explanation:

      Inpatient Admission for Severe Alcohol Withdrawal

      This individual has a severe alcohol dependency and requires inpatient admission during alcohol withdrawal to prevent delirium tremens and further fits. To reduce withdrawal symptoms and lower the risk of fits, a 5-7 day reducing course of Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, may be necessary. Due to cross-tolerance with alcohol, high doses of Chlordiazepoxide may be required. Additionally, parenteral multivitamins, such as parentrovite, should be administered.

      For patients with milder alcohol dependency and strong social support, detoxification can be completed successfully at home without the need for admission. However, in cases where there is a history of seizures and a high degree of physiological dependency, behavioural modification or the use of disulfiram is unlikely to be effective.

      In summary, inpatient admission is necessary for individuals with severe alcohol dependency during withdrawal to prevent serious complications. A benzodiazepine such as Chlordiazepoxide can be used to reduce withdrawal symptoms, and parenteral multivitamins should also be given. For those with milder dependency and good social support, detoxification can be completed at home, but for those with a high degree of physiological dependency, other treatment options may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of his illicit opioid use, it becomes apparent that he is extremely anxious about quitting drugs completely but is interested in attempting a maintenance program. He also abuses alcohol and consumes up to 40 units per week. He has been referred to a community treatment program to assist with his decreased use of drugs and alcohol.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient next?

      Your Answer: Negotiate a strict timeline for him to stop the use of illicit drugs and alcohol

      Correct Answer: Offer a harm-reduction programme but advise that complete detoxification remains the goal of treatment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Substance Abuse

      Substance abuse can have harmful effects on a person’s health, and reducing the use of alcohol and illicit drugs is an appropriate treatment goal. While maintenance can be an important step towards detoxification and abstinence, complete detoxification should always be the main goal of a reduction programme. It is important to discuss this with the patient when treatment is commenced.

      When it comes to opioid reduction, it is recommended to achieve complete detoxification from alcohol before attempting to reduce opioid use. Withdrawal effects can be managed with appropriate medical care, and patients should not be penalised for using illicit substances. However, it is important to discuss the impact of continued drug use on the treatment programme.

      While there doesn’t need to be a strict timeline imposed at the start of treatment, it is important to work towards reducing drug and alcohol use. Buprenorphine and methadone are both recommended for substitute prescribing, but methadone is typically prescribed as the first choice. The choice of drug may depend on patient preference or experience with the medication. Overall, the goal of treatment should be to achieve complete detoxification and abstinence from substance abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a regular check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a regular check-up. During the consultation, she reveals that she smokes around 12 cigarettes per day and has made two attempts in the past to quit smoking. What is the most effective intervention for achieving smoking cessation?

      Your Answer: Hypnotherapy

      Correct Answer: Brief advice from a physician

      Explanation:

      Effective Interventions for Smoking Cessation: Brief Advice and Lifestyle Changes

      Brief advice from a physician can be a powerful tool in helping people quit smoking. In less than 30 seconds, a physician can ask a person if they smoke and if they have considered quitting, while also offering help. This type of intervention has been proven effective for lifestyle changes, such as smoking cessation and weight loss. However, acupuncture and hypnotherapy have little evidence to support their effectiveness in smoking cessation. While a prescribed exercise program may not be effective, short bouts of moderate exercise can help distract from cravings. Additionally, a low-calorie diet doesn’t impact a person’s ability to quit smoking successfully. By incorporating brief advice and lifestyle changes, physicians can help their patients successfully quit smoking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old cocaine user, Sarah, visits the clinic and asks for a prescription...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old cocaine user, Sarah, visits the clinic and asks for a prescription for methadone. She had taken methadone at 30 mg once a day last year. Sarah is currently using the same amount of cocaine as she did last year and wants to resume taking 30 mg of methadone to manage withdrawal symptoms. However, you have no experience prescribing methadone and feel unsure about doing so. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Ask the patient to provide evidence of heroin use before prescribing methadone

      Correct Answer: Not prescribe methadone

      Explanation:

      Prescribing methadone is a serious matter that requires an experienced and competent prescriber. It is important that the prescriber doesn’t feel pressured to prescribe the drug due to patient demands. As you are not confident in prescribing methadone, it would be unsafe for you to do so.

      Before prescribing methadone, it is essential to confirm opioid dependence through a thorough history, examination, and toxicology screening using urine or oral fluid swabs. The prescribing process should involve a multidisciplinary team, including the patient’s drug team or local drug worker and pharmacist.

      Methadone should be prescribed at a low dose and titrated upwards. The standard concentration is 1 mg/ml oral solution, with higher concentrations rarely used. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, depending on the amount and method of heroin or other opioids being used. Methadone is typically taken once daily.

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.

      Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 58-year-old retired male visits your clinic concerned about his alcohol consumption after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old retired male visits your clinic concerned about his alcohol consumption after watching a show about 'functioning alcoholics'. He confesses to drinking a 750ml bottle of beer every night - to a total of 4 bottles per week. You check the label and find out that the beer is 5% alcohol by volume (abv). What is the total number of units of alcohol this patient consumes in a week?

      Your Answer: 25 units

      Correct Answer: 27 units

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Units

      Alcohol consumption can have negative effects on our health, which is why it is important to understand the recommended guidelines for safe drinking. In 2016, the Chief Medical Officer proposed new guidelines that recommend men and women should drink no more than 14 units of alcohol per week. To put this into perspective, one unit of alcohol is equal to 10 mL of pure ethanol. The strength of an alcoholic drink is determined by the alcohol by volume (ABV), which can vary depending on the type of drink. For example, a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40% is equal to one unit of alcohol.

      To calculate the number of units in a drink, you can multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000. For instance, half a 175ml ‘standard’ glass of red wine with an ABV of 12% is equal to 1.05 units. It is important to note that pregnant women should not drink alcohol at all, as it can lead to long-term harm to the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner due to abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner due to abdominal pain. She discloses that she drinks upward of 100 units a week and had alcohol withdrawal seizures in the past. She has had periods of abstinence of up to six months but has been daily drinking again for two years.
      Which of the following is the best assessment tool for a dependent drinker?

      Your Answer: Cut, Annoyed, Guilty, and Eye (CAGE) questionnaire

      Correct Answer: Severity of Alcohol Dependence Questionnaire (SADQ)

      Explanation:

      Assessment Tools for Alcohol Dependence: SADQ, AUDIT-C, CAGE, Full AUDIT, and GGT Blood Test

      Assessing the severity of alcohol dependence is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment for individuals struggling with alcohol misuse. There are several assessment tools available, each with its own strengths and limitations.

      The Severity of Alcohol Dependence Questionnaire (SADQ) is a recommended tool by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. It consists of 20 questions and takes 5-10 minutes to complete. A score of >30 indicates severe alcohol dependence requiring assisted withdrawal, while a score of 15-30 indicates moderate dependence that can be managed in a community setting.

      The Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT-C) is an abridged version of the full AUDIT questionnaire, consisting of three questions. It is appropriate as an initial screen for alcohol misuse if time is limited.

      The Cut, Annoyed, Guilty, and Eye (CAGE) questionnaire is a quick screening test with four questions. However, it is not the best assessment tool for known dependent drinkers.

      The Full AUDIT questionnaire is recommended when there is ambiguity about the severity of alcohol misuse. However, it is not the best assessment tool for known dependent drinkers.

      The Gamma Glutamyl Transferase (GGT) blood test is often used to detect heavy drinking, but it is not sensitive and only detects a third of patients who drink >16 units daily.

      In conclusion, choosing the appropriate assessment tool for alcohol dependence depends on the individual’s situation and needs. It is important to consider the strengths and limitations of each tool to make an informed decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A man in his 40s presents with very severe and widespread seborrhoeic dermatitis....

    Incorrect

    • A man in his 40s presents with very severe and widespread seborrhoeic dermatitis.

      It has been present for over three months and is not responding well to treatment. He has only had very mild episodes in the past.

      He has a history of heroin addiction in his twenties but has been off drugs for more than five years.

      Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: HIV infection

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions and HIV

      Skin conditions are a common occurrence in individuals with HIV, affecting over 90% of those infected. These conditions can either exacerbate pre-existing conditions or lead to new skin problems. One such condition is seborrhoeic dermatitis, which can be particularly severe or difficult to treat in those with HIV. It is important for individuals with HIV to be aware of the potential for skin conditions and to seek medical attention if any issues arise. Proper management and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You see a 56-year-old man with a medical background of hypertension and alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 56-year-old man with a medical background of hypertension and alcohol dependency. An alcohol history reveals he consumes 60 units of alcohol per week. He presents with feelings of unsteadiness while walking, for 2 weeks. You believe he may have developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
      Which of the following potential features is most suggestive of the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: Anxiety

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Alcohol Withdrawal vs. Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Alcohol withdrawal and Wernicke’s encephalopathy can both present with various symptoms, but it is important to differentiate between the two. Ataxia, confusion, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma are all classic symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which requires urgent admission for parenteral thiamine. Excessive sweating and anxiety are common symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, but not typically associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Headache can occur in both conditions, but a thorough history and examination are necessary to determine the cause. Tremor is also common in alcohol withdrawal, but a resting tremor is not the same as the ataxic features seen in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Proper recognition and diagnosis of these conditions is crucial for appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The husband of one of your elderly patients attends surgery because she is...

    Incorrect

    • The husband of one of your elderly patients attends surgery because she is concerned about her husband's heavy alcohol consumption.

      She explains that he drinks himself to a stupor every day and probably consumes at least a bottle of wine a day, although she suspects that he supplements that secretly when she is not around because his breath often smells of alcohol in the morning. This has been happening for many years and he refuses to see you about it.

      Following an argument the previous night, when she threatened to leave him unless he recognised the problem, he has agreed to stop drinking completely. His wife is worried about him having the DTs and asks you about this.

      On average, how long does it take for delirium tremens (DTs) to develop following complete cessation of drinking?

      Your Answer: 3-6 hours

      Correct Answer: 48-96 hours

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms

      Alcohol withdrawal symptoms can manifest in different ways depending on the severity of the addiction. DTs or delirium tremens usually occur 2-4 days after stopping drinking and are characterized by severe agitation, confusion, and hallucinations. On the other hand, tremulousness or withdrawal convulsions can occur during a drinking spree or within a few hours of cessation. Alcoholic hallucinosis, which is characterized by auditory hallucinations, can occur over days or weeks. However, it is less severe than DTs.

      Admission to a medical facility for appropriate sedation, nursing support, and thiamine replacement is necessary to manage the symptoms and prevent complications. Understanding the different alcohol withdrawal symptoms can help you identify when someone needs medical attention and provide the necessary support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the most significant reason to avoid initiating an SSRI? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most significant reason to avoid initiating an SSRI?

      Your Answer: Epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Acute mania

      Explanation:

      Caution with SSRIs in Bipolar Patients

      Acute mania is a contraindication for SSRIs, and caution should be exercised when using them in other conditions. However, this can be a problem for bipolar patients who have not yet been diagnosed. Often, these patients present with depression in primary care and are given SSRIs as a first-line treatment. Unfortunately, this can worsen their condition if they are actually experiencing a manic episode.

      If a person taking an antidepressant as monotherapy develops mania or hypomania, it is important to consider stopping the medication. This is especially true for bipolar patients who may be more susceptible to these adverse effects. By being cautious and aware of the risks, healthcare providers can help ensure that their patients receive the appropriate treatment for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A young adult presents with bradycardia of 40 beats per minute and small...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult presents with bradycardia of 40 beats per minute and small pupils.

      Which of the following substances could be responsible for these clinical signs?

      Your Answer: Cannabis

      Correct Answer: Methadone

      Explanation:

      Common Drugs and Their Effects

      Methadone, a synthetic compound similar to morphine and heroin, is often used as a substitute for an abused opiate. However, it has almost equal addiction liability. Opiates cause pinpoint pupils and bradycardia. Cannabis, on the other hand, affects motor control and impairs balance, tracking ability, hand-eye coordination, reaction time, and physical strength. It also produces a fast heart rate at low doses, but larger doses can slow the heart and lower blood pressure, leading to sudden death in some cases. Cocaine powerfully constricts blood vessels, leading to a massive rise in blood pressure and a risk of stroke. Khat, a leaf chewed mostly in Africa, has stimulant properties similar to amphetamine and causes tachycardia. LSD, when taken orally, induces perceptual changes, particularly visual hallucinations, accompanied by mild hypertension, tachycardia, mydriasis, flushing, salivation, lacrimation, and mild ataxia. The effects may last eight to 12 hours, and mood changes range from ecstatic euphoria to terrifying gloom and despair. While accidental death or suicide under the influence of LSD is reported, dependence is not recognized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 23-year-old bus driver is brought to see you by his girlfriend to...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old bus driver is brought to see you by his girlfriend to discuss his mood swings.

      In the course of the consultation it becomes clear that he has been using ketamine regularly for over a year, although he tells you that he only uses at weekends when he is not working.

      You have no evidence from him or his girlfriend that his driving is impaired. You tell him that he has a duty to inform DVLA. He wants to know if this will have any implications for him.

      What advice should you give him?

      Your Answer: He may continue to drive his car but not a bus or other Group two entitlement vehicle

      Correct Answer: He will not be allowed to drive a bus until he has attained a twelve month period free of ketamine usage

      Explanation:

      DVLA Restrictions on Driving with Substance Misuse

      In this scenario, it is important to consider several pieces of information. Firstly, the patient is a regular user of a substance, and the DVLA restrictions apply to those who have a persistent use or dependency on such substances, confirmed by medical enquiry. Secondly, the substance in question is ketamine, which has been added to the DVLA list of drugs considered under Drug misuse and dependency. It is in the same category as cannabis, ecstasy, amphetamines, LSD, and hallucinogens. Thirdly, the DVLA guidance for Group one entitlement is different from Group two entitlement.

      In this case, the patient is driving a bus and must hold a Group two entitlement license. If a Group two holder is using ketamine regularly, the revised guidance from DVLA is that persistent use or dependency on these substances will lead to refusal or revocation of a vocational license for a minimum one-year period free of such has been attained. Independent medical assessment by DVLA will normally be required. If the patient only held a Group one entitlement, the minimum time their license would have been revoked would have been six months. If they had been regularly using opiates or misusing benzodiazepines, their Group two license would have been revoked for a minimum of three years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is a common symptom of delirium tremens? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common symptom of delirium tremens?

      Your Answer: Cough

      Correct Answer: Dyspnoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Visual Hallucinations

      Visual hallucinations are a common symptom that individuals may experience. These hallucinations involve seeing things that are not actually present in the environment. While visual hallucinations are typical, experiencing other symptoms alongside them would be unusual. It is important to seek medical attention if you are experiencing visual hallucinations or any other unusual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old woman is looking to discontinue her lorazepam 0.5 mg twice daily...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman is looking to discontinue her lorazepam 0.5 mg twice daily dosage. She has been taking it for severe anxiety symptoms since a traumatic event five years ago. She attempted to stop taking it on her own but experienced intense anxiety symptoms. What is the recommended approach for tapering off lorazepam?

      Your Answer: Change from lorazepam to diazepam in stages, then slowly reduce the dose of diazepam in very small stages over about three months.

      Explanation:

      Switching from Short-Acting to Long-Acting Benzodiazepines

      Short-acting benzodiazepines should be replaced with longer-acting preparations to minimize the risk of withdrawal symptoms. The process of withdrawal should be gradual and guided by the patient. To begin, patients should be gradually switched to diazepam, with the reduction process taking between three months and a year. The details of withdrawal will vary depending on the drugs and doses used, but the general principle remains the same. By taking these steps, patients can safely transition to longer-acting benzodiazepines and avoid the negative effects of withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her father, who is concerned as she has trouble sleeping. Her weight, length, and head circumference are all below the 5th centile. She has a flat nasal bridge, microcephaly, and retrognathia.
      What additional feature would support the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Recurrent regurgitation after feeding

      Correct Answer: Speech and language delay

      Explanation:

      The presence of speech and language delay, along with growth failure and craniofacial abnormalities, is indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). FAS is caused by alcohol consumption during pregnancy and can also result in low IQ, hyperactivity, feeding difficulties, and problems with memory, coordination, problem-solving, and judgement. However, not all heavy drinking during pregnancy leads to FAS, as other factors such as the mother’s health, age, stress levels, and nutritional status may also play a role. Recurrent regurgitation after feeding is a common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which can cause feeding difficulties and failure to thrive, but is not associated with the physical abnormalities seen in FAS. Preterm delivery and small for gestational age babies with microcephaly are typical of infants born to mothers who use cocaine during pregnancy, but this is less common than FAS. Rocker bottom feet are a distinguishing feature of Edward’s syndrome (Trisomy 18), which also presents with low birth weight, micrognathia, microphthalmia, microstomia, low set ears, cleft palate, a short sternum, and thumb aplasia, but not with a flat philtrum or posteriorly rotated ears. Sensorineural deafness is associated with congenital rubella infection, which is the most common cause of congenital deafness in the developed world. Congenital rubella infection can also cause intrauterine growth restriction, microcephaly, microphthalmia, jaundice, learning disability, congenital heart disease, congenital cataracts, and congenital glaucoma, but is not associated with a flat philtrum, retrognathia, or posterior rotation of the ears.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner with his partner for a check-up....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner with his partner for a check-up. His partner is worried about the patient's alcohol consumption, stating that they can drink a few bottles of spirits over the weekend. What is the most probable finding in a patient who excessively uses alcohol?

      Your Answer: Psychotic symptoms

      Explanation:

      Alcohol and its Effects on the Body

      Alcohol consumption can lead to a variety of physical and mental health issues. One such issue is alcohol-related psychosis, which can cause hallucinations and delusions. Another is Korsakoff syndrome, which is caused by a deficiency in thiamine and can result in amnesia. While an increase in carbohydrate-deficient transferrin (CDT) is a sign of excessive alcohol use, red blood cell macrocytosis is also a common finding. Additionally, alcohol use is strongly associated with violent crime. It is important to be aware of the potential risks and consequences of alcohol consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 52-year-old homeless woman with an illicit drug use problem requests detoxification in...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old homeless woman with an illicit drug use problem requests detoxification in the community.
      Which of the following factors would make community detoxification difficult in this case?

      Your Answer: A previous community detoxification attempt failed

      Explanation:

      Community Detoxification: Considerations and Options

      Community detoxification is often the preferred option for patients seeking to reduce or eliminate their use of illicit drugs. However, there are certain factors that may make inpatient detoxification more appropriate, such as previous failed attempts at community detoxification, significant social problems, complex drug use, or physical comorbidities. Concurrent abuse of alcohol is a common issue, but it doesn’t necessarily prevent a patient from entering an opioid-reduction program. While complete detoxification should be the ultimate goal, any reduction in drug or alcohol use is a positive step. Homelessness can present challenges, but it is not a barrier to community detoxification, as pharmacies can work with detoxification teams to provide prescriptions. When it comes to medication-assisted detoxification, both methadone and buprenorphine are effective options. Ultimately, the choice between community and inpatient detoxification, as well as the specific treatment approach, should be based on the individual patient’s needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 31-year-old man persistently misuses alcohol. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA)...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man persistently misuses alcohol. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) require driving licence (Group 1) revocation or refusal until a minimum 6-month period of controlled drinking or abstinence has been attained.
      Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the DVLA regulations in these circumstances?

      Your Answer: A consultant’s opinion is needed

      Correct Answer: Seeking medical or other advice is a prerequisite of regaining his licence

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Misuse and Driving: DVLA Guidelines

      The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) defines alcohol misuse as a state that results in disturbed behavior, related diseases, or other consequences due to alcohol consumption. This state is likely to cause harm to the patient, their family, or society, and may or may not be associated with dependence. A diagnosis by a General Practitioner is enough to confirm persistent alcohol misuse, which is also indicated by abnormal blood markers.

      It is the patient’s duty to inform the DVLA and seek advice from medical or other sources during the period off the road. A minimum of one year of controlled drinking or abstinence is required, and any abnormal blood parameters must return to normal. For drivers of Group 2 vehicles, the required period of abstinence is three years. These guidelines aim to ensure the safety of all road users and prevent accidents caused by alcohol misuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - After a prolonged episode of binge drinking, a young patient is prepared to...

    Incorrect

    • After a prolonged episode of binge drinking, a young patient is prepared to stop. You are concerned about withdrawal symptoms. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that vulnerable people in acute withdrawal be considered for hospital admission.
      Select from the list the feature that would LEAST SUGGEST vulnerability in this patient.

      Your Answer: Lives alone

      Correct Answer: Age 65 years

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Medically Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that individuals who require medically assisted alcohol withdrawal should receive treatment in the most appropriate setting based on their age, severity of alcohol dependence, social support, and any physical or psychiatric comorbidities. Hospital admission should be considered for vulnerable individuals, such as those who are frail, have cognitive impairment or multiple comorbidities, lack social support, or have learning difficulties. Frailty, which includes loss of muscle mass, muscle weakness, and osteoporosis, is a geriatric syndrome that may require hospitalization. However, being 65 years of age doesn’t necessarily imply vulnerability. On the other hand, individuals aged 16 or 17 years are considered vulnerable according to NICE.

      Hospital admission is recommended for individuals with a history of withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens. Urgent admission is necessary for patients suspected of having Wernicke’s encephalopathy, who require intravenous thiamine treatment. Individuals younger than 16 years should also be admitted.

      In summary, NICE guidelines emphasize the importance of individualized treatment for medically assisted alcohol withdrawal, taking into account various factors such as age, severity of dependence, and comorbidities. Hospital admission should be considered for vulnerable individuals and those with a history of severe withdrawal symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, nausea and mild jaundice. He admits...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, nausea and mild jaundice. He admits to a long history of regular alcohol consumption, drinking two 330ml bottles of lager per day (3% ABV) as well as a 75cl bottle of 12% ABV wine per week.

      What is this man's weekly alcohol consumption in units (to the nearest unit of alcohol)?

      Your Answer: 13 units

      Correct Answer: 23 units

      Explanation:

      Calculating Units of Alcohol

      To calculate the number of units of alcohol in a drink, you need to multiply the percentage of alcohol (ABV) by the volume in millilitres and then divide by 1000. However, there are potential pitfalls to watch out for, such as converting volumes from centilitres to millilitres and adjusting for daily or weekly consumption.

      For example, if a person drinks two 330ml bottles of lager per day with a 3% ABV, the calculation would be 3% x 330ml = 9.9ml, divided by 1000 = 0.99 units per bottle, rounded up to 1 unit. This equates to 14 units per week. If they also drink one 750ml bottle of wine per week with a 12% ABV, the calculation would be 12% x 750ml = 90ml, divided by 1000 = 9 units per bottle. Therefore, the total amount of units consumed per week would be 23 units.

      It is important to check the units of volume and duration when calculating units of alcohol. The UK recommendations are for no more than 14 units per week for both sexes. While these calculations may seem simple, it is important to be prepared for any eventuality in an exam setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are contemplating prescribing varenicline to a 42-year-old man who wants to quit...

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating prescribing varenicline to a 42-year-old man who wants to quit smoking. What is the most probable condition that would contraindicate the use of varenicline?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Correct Answer: Past history of deliberate self-harm

      Explanation:

      Patients with a history of depression should use varenicline with caution due to ongoing studies investigating the risk of suicidal behavior. The MHRA/CHM advises patients to seek medical attention immediately if they experience agitation, depressed mood, or suicidal thoughts while taking varenicline. Patients with a history of psychiatric illness should be closely monitored during treatment. Additionally, varenicline may exacerbate underlying illnesses, including depression, and should be used with caution in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease or predisposition to seizures. Upon completion of a 12-week course, dose tapering should be considered to minimize the risk of relapse, irritability, depression, and insomnia.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - One option that is typically not acknowledged as a disorder related to cannabis...

    Incorrect

    • One option that is typically not acknowledged as a disorder related to cannabis use is:

      Your Answer: Psychosis

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder

      Explanation:

      Cannabis-Related Disorders Recognized by DSM-5

      The DSM-5 acknowledges various cannabis-related disorders, including anxiety, delirium, psychosis, and sleep disorder. To qualify as a cannabis-induced disorder, there must be a clear temporal connection to cannabis use, and the disturbance cannot be attributed to a non-substance-induced disorder. Interestingly, some research suggests that non-psychoactive cannabis may have therapeutic benefits for individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are helping a 29-year-old woman quit smoking. She has multiple medical conditions...

    Incorrect

    • You are helping a 29-year-old woman quit smoking. She has multiple medical conditions and takes various medications for them. Which of the following health issues would not prevent the prescription of bupropion (Zyban)?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Stable angina

      Explanation:

      Although there is no concrete evidence to support this, it is recommended to avoid using bupropion during pregnancy. The BNF states that bupropion should not be used in cases of acute alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal, severe hepatic cirrhosis, CNS tumor, history of seizures, eating disorders, or bipolar disorder.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which one of the following statements regarding retirement planning is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding retirement planning is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Varenicline should be started 1 week before stopping smoking

      Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy and varenicline may be combined if patients have failed monotherapy

      Explanation:

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP for a consultation. He is addicted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP for a consultation. He is addicted to intravenous heroin and asks for methadone substitution. What is true about methadone substitution?

      Your Answer: Weekly review is desirable

      Correct Answer: A starting dose of 10-30 mg methadone per day should be used

      Explanation:

      Guidance for Primary Care Practitioners on Substitute Prescribing for Opioid Dependence

      Managing opioid dependence in primary care requires a multidisciplinary approach, involving various healthcare professionals. General practitioners should only prescribe and treat within their level of competence and confidence, but referral to specialist services is not always necessary.

      Before prescribing any substitute medication, opioid dependence should be confirmed through history, examination, and toxicology screening. When prescribing methadone, it is important to start with a low dose and titrate up slowly to prevent overdosage. Methadone is excreted slowly in methadone-naive individuals, and deaths have been reported on doses as low as 40 mg. The starting dose should be between 10 mg and 30 mg daily, with increases of 5-10 mg a day and a maximum of 30 mg a week for the first two weeks. Optimal levels are usually between 60 mg and 120 mg a day.

      When initiating treatment in general practice, it is recommended to see the patient frequently at the outset to assess concordance and cumulative dosing effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking as...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking as she is planning to start a family. Despite several attempts to quit on her own, she has been unsuccessful. She is hesitant to attend a smoking cessation program and asks about medical options to aid in quitting. What would be the most suitable management to suggest, considering she has not tried any medications before?

      Your Answer: E-cigarettes

      Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) alone

      Explanation:

      Smoking Cessation Options for a Woman Trying to Conceive

      Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is the recommended option for a woman trying to conceive who is struggling to quit smoking. While it is ideal for her to delay conception until she has successfully quit smoking and ceased NRT, the benefits of NRT outweigh the risks of smoking and NRT. It is important for her to also receive behavioral support through a Stop Smoking Service. E-cigarettes are not currently recommended due to lack of evidence on their safety and effectiveness. Bupropion and varenicline are contraindicated in pregnancy and should not be prescribed. While attending a Stop Smoking Service is preferred, medical treatments such as NRT can be prescribed in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You are asked to visit a 45-year-old construction worker at his worksite. He...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to visit a 45-year-old construction worker at his worksite. He is known to drink five cans of beer per day and a number of shots of whiskey whilst socializing with his colleagues after work. His supervisor is concerned as he has become lethargic, confused and has taken to sitting down frequently.
      On examination he has nystagmus, is restless and disorientated. He has edema, but his abdomen doesn't appear tense and he is afebrile. You get him to walk and he has truncal ataxia.
      You think he should be admitted to hospital. How should he be treated?

      Your Answer: Start on ciprofloxacin and metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Thiamine replacement

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcoholism

      Sudden deterioration in alcoholism can be caused by alcohol withdrawal or acute infection, such as spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. However, if confusion, nystagmus, and truncal ataxia are present, Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be considered. Thiamine replacement is crucial to prevent the development of Korsakoff’s psychosis, which can result in permanent short-term memory impairment. It is important to recognize and treat Wernicke’s encephalopathy promptly to prevent long-term neurological damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 28-year-old mother who has not accessed antenatal care gives birth to a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old mother who has not accessed antenatal care gives birth to a 2 kg baby. The baby becomes agitated, with a high-pitched cry, tremor, sweating, excessive yawning, and a high respiratory rate 24 hours after delivery. What is the most likely substance abused during this pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Heroin

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Withdrawal Symptoms and Associated Substance Use During Pregnancy

      Neonatal withdrawal symptoms can occur when a baby is born to a mother who has used certain substances during pregnancy. Opiate withdrawal is characterized by classic symptoms such as sweating, yawning, vomiting, diarrhea, and seizures, and typically begins 24-48 hours after birth. Cocaine withdrawal can cause tremors, agitation, and difficulty feeding, and is associated with intrauterine growth restriction. Alcohol use during pregnancy can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which presents with craniofacial features, low birth weight, and neurodevelopmental dysfunction. Cannabis use is not typically associated with poor outcomes, while heavy use may lead to growth restriction and sudden infant death syndrome. Methadone withdrawal typically begins 48-72 hours after birth and presents with symptoms similar to opiate withdrawal. Antenatal care can help identify substance use during pregnancy and provide additional support and monitoring for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 55-year-old man is undergoing a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme. He presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is undergoing a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme. He presents to a routine follow-up with his General Practitioner and states that he feels he needs a slower withdrawal regimen as he had to have a drink the night before. He is on day six of the programme and is also asking for a larger supply of medication as he lives five miles from the pharmacy and cannot drive.
      Which of the following is most in line with the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommendations on how such a programme should be carried out?

      Your Answer: A symptom-triggered variable dosage regimen is preferred

      Correct Answer: No more than two days’ worth of medication to be dispensed at any one time

      Explanation:

      Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal in the Community: Recommendations and Guidelines

      To minimize the risk of overdose or supplying the drug to someone other than the intended patient, it is recommended that no more than two days’ worth of medication be dispensed at any one time. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence provides the following recommendations for assisted alcohol withdrawal in the community:

      – Use a benzodiazepine (chlordiazepoxide or diazepam) as the drug of choice.
      – Use fixed-dose medication regimens.
      – Monitor the patient every other day.
      – If possible, have a family member or carer oversee the use of medication.
      – Adjust the dose if there are signs of severe withdrawal or oversedation.
      – Gradually reduce the dose of benzodiazepine over 7-10 days to zero.
      – Do not offer clomethiazole due to a risk of overdose or it being misused.

      A symptom-triggered variable dosage regimen is preferred over a fixed-dose regimen, where doses are titrated in response to a points-based system. Detoxification should continue during incomplete abstinence, but if a patient relapses and starts drinking again during detoxification, the medication should be stopped. The standard regimen involves reducing the dose of benzodiazepine over 7-10 days, to reach zero at the end of the course. Patients on a community withdrawal program should be monitored every other day, with slow dose reduction until a low maintenance level is reached.

      Guidelines for Safe and Effective Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal in the Community

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - What is the most suitable medication for preventing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal such...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable medication for preventing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal such as seizures or delirium tremens?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Correct Answer: Acamprosate

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alcohol Dependence and Withdrawal

      Acamprosate is a medication that can be helpful in maintaining abstinence in individuals with alcohol dependence. Buprenorphine, on the other hand, is an opioid analgesic. Bupropion is commonly used as a supplement for smoking cessation, but it is contraindicated in patients who are experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Long-acting benzodiazepines are the preferred treatment for preventing symptoms of acute withdrawal. Diazepam is a commonly used benzodiazepine, but chlordiazepoxide is recommended as the first choice because it has less of a market for illicit use.

      By using these medications, individuals with alcohol dependence can receive the support they need to maintain abstinence and manage withdrawal symptoms. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual’s unique needs. Proper medication management, along with therapy and support, can greatly improve the chances of successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A young man who abuses drugs typically exhibits certain behaviors. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A young man who abuses drugs typically exhibits certain behaviors. Which of the following options would be atypical for such a person?

      Your Answer: Stealing money

      Correct Answer: Excessive care in physical appearance

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Signs of Drug Abuse

      Drug abuse can manifest in various behavioural signs that can be observed by those around the individual. One common sign is a drop in attendance and performance at work or school. The individual may also engage in secretive or suspicious behaviours, such as hiding their drug use or lying about their whereabouts. They may frequently get into trouble, such as fights, accidents, or illegal activities.

      Another sign of drug abuse is a sudden change in friends, favourite haunts, and hobbies. The individual may distance themselves from their usual social circle and become involved with a new group of people who are also using drugs. Additionally, they may have an unexplained need for money and resort to borrowing or stealing to acquire it.

      Deterioration in physical appearance and personal grooming habits is also a common sign of drug abuse. The individual may neglect their hygiene and appearance, or they may take excessive care of their appearance if they have a partner who is unaware of their drug use.

      Recognizing these signs of drug abuse can help individuals intervene and seek help for themselves or their loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with needle marks on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with needle marks on his arms, looking underweight and unwell. He admits to drug abuse and is febrile with shivering, but no localising symptoms are evident. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis in Intravenous Drug Abusers: A Common Cause of Pyrexia of Unknown Origin

      Pyrexia of unknown origin (PUO) can be caused by various factors, but in intravenous drug abusers without localizing symptoms, infective endocarditis should be considered a strong possibility. This may be the only sign of endocarditis in such patients, making diagnosis difficult and requiring a high index of suspicion. Tricuspid valve involvement is common, and a murmur may be absent due to the small pressure gradient across this valve. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common infecting organism, and many patients also have Human Immunodeficiency Virus infection, which can also cause PUO. Pulmonary manifestations are often seen in patients with tricuspid valve infection, including pleuritic pain, lung abscess, and radiographic changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 55-year-old male presents with chronic productive cough and dyspnoea.

    He is a smoker...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with chronic productive cough and dyspnoea.

      He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has smoked for 30 years.

      To how many pack years does this equate?

      Your Answer: 300

      Correct Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pack Year History

      Pack year history is a tool used to estimate the risk of tobacco exposure. It is calculated by multiplying the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day (20 cigarettes in one pack) by the number of years of smoking. For instance, if someone smoked half a pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years, their pack year history would be 15 (1/2 x 30 = 15). This tool helps to standardize tobacco exposure and provide a clearer understanding of the potential risks associated with smoking. By knowing one’s pack year history, healthcare professionals can better assess the potential health consequences and provide appropriate care and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 65-year-old homeless man who also abuses alcohol but has been abstinent for...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old homeless man who also abuses alcohol but has been abstinent for 3 years seeks advice from relief medical staff at a homeless shelter concerning his sore gums.

      He has coiled body hairs with small bruises at their points of insertion as well as noting that if he cuts himself or has trauma the wounds take longer to heal than expected.

      What is the most likely problem?

      Your Answer: Chronic alcoholic liver disease

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scurvy: A Vitamin C Deficiency Syndrome

      Scurvy is a clinical syndrome that results from a lack of vitamin C in the body. This condition is primarily caused by impaired collagen synthesis, which leads to disordered connective tissue. Symptoms of scurvy can occur as early as three months after deficient intake and include ecchymoses, bleeding gums, petechiae, and impaired wound healing.

      Scurvy is most commonly found in individuals who are severely malnourished, drug and alcohol abusers, or those living in poverty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 42-year-old man who is injecting heroin and abusing alcohol requests detoxification.
    Which treatment...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man who is injecting heroin and abusing alcohol requests detoxification.
      Which treatment option should the patient be offered?

      Your Answer: Stabilisation on methadone or buprenorphine before detoxification is attempted

      Explanation:

      Detoxification from Opioid Addiction: Best Practices and Considerations

      Detoxification from opioid addiction is a complex process that requires careful planning and monitoring. Stabilisation on methadone or buprenorphine is recommended before attempting detoxification. Both drugs are approved by The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for substitute prescribing, for both detoxification and maintenance to prevent opioid withdrawal symptoms.

      Patients may prefer a faster reduction at the start of a detoxification regimen, but a slower reduction over months or even years is also possible. It is important for patients to stay on their optimal dose of methadone until they have stopped using heroin completely and then reduce the dose at their own pace.

      Alcohol detoxification can occur simultaneously with heroin detoxification, but careful monitoring and support are crucial. Patients should be aware of the loss of opioid tolerance during and following detoxification, which increases the risk of overdose and death from any illicit drug use, especially when combined with alcohol or benzodiazepines.

      Detoxification with buprenorphine is also an option, and if the patient has been on methadone or buprenorphine for maintenance, detoxification should usually be undertaken using the same drug.

      There are no set time limits for a detoxification regimen, but a common regime is to come off methadone over 12 weeks with a reduction of around 5 mg every 1-2 weeks. Detoxification can be done as an inpatient or outpatient, depending on the patient’s needs and preferences. Community-based organisations often administer these types of substance abuse programmes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 62-year-old woman has been immobilised by a ruptured Achilles tendon. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman has been immobilised by a ruptured Achilles tendon. She is known to abuse alcohol. She requests a home visit because she is feeling unwell.
      Which of the following findings is NOT typically a feature of alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Palpitations

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal: Symptoms and Timeline

      Alcohol withdrawal is a range of symptoms that can occur when someone stops drinking alcohol. The severity of symptoms can vary greatly and typically appear about eight hours after the last drink. Symptoms peak on day two and usually improve by day four or five.

      Minor symptoms may appear within 6-12 hours and include cravings, anxiety, restlessness, depression, insomnia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, tremors, headache, sweating, and palpitations. Hallucinations can occur 12-24 hours after the last drink, while tonic-clonic seizures may occur after 24-48 hours.

      The most severe form of alcohol withdrawal is delirium tremens, which can occur after 48-72 hours. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing alcohol withdrawal symptoms, especially if they are severe. Understanding the timeline and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 45-year-old man seeks assistance from his General Practitioner to quit drinking alcohol....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man seeks assistance from his General Practitioner to quit drinking alcohol. He confesses to consuming over 50 units of alcohol per week and has struggled to maintain a lower level of consumption. Although he has never encountered severe withdrawal symptoms, he is open to attending cognitive behaviour therapy and wonders if there is any medication that could aid him in his journey.
      What is the most suitable medication to recommend?

      Your Answer: No medication should be prescribed

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alcohol Addiction: NICE Guidelines and Recommendations

      The National Institute of Healthcare Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on the management of alcohol withdrawal, stating that medication should only be prescribed by specialist teams. Acamprosate is a second-line treatment that stabilizes the chemical balance in the brain disrupted by alcohol withdrawal. Chlordiazepoxide, a long-acting benzodiazepine, is used to reduce withdrawal symptoms in alcohol detoxification programs but should not be prescribed in primary care. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor, has been used to decrease drinking but is not licensed for this purpose. Naltrexone and nalmefene are opioid receptor antagonists used as second-line treatments after assisted withdrawal. Nalmefene has advantages over naltrexone, including a longer half-life and greater oral bioavailability, but none of these options should be prescribed in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner requesting help with smoking cessation. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner requesting help with smoking cessation. He is fit and well and takes no regular medications. He has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for the last six years and has never previously tried to stop smoking.
      What is the most appropriate advice you can give this patient?

      Your Answer: Begin using Varenicline

      Correct Answer: Undergo nicotine replacement therapy (NRT)

      Explanation:

      Options for Smoking Cessation: A Brief Overview

      Smoking cessation is a challenging but important goal for many individuals. There are several options available to aid in this process, including nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), bupropion, cutting down gradually, e-cigarettes, and varenicline.

      NRT has been shown to be effective in increasing success rates by 50-60%, especially when combined with behavioral support. There is no evidence that any one type of NRT is superior to others, but caution should be exercised in certain populations. Bupropion is effective but not recommended for those under 18 or with certain medical conditions. Cutting down gradually is not an effective strategy for smoking cessation. E-cigarettes may be a safer alternative, but long-term evidence is lacking. Varenicline is effective but not recommended for those under 18 or with end-stage renal disease, and caution should be exercised in certain populations.

      Ultimately, the best approach to smoking cessation will depend on individual circumstances and preferences. Consulting with a healthcare provider can help determine the most appropriate option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 72-year-old woman comes in asking for 'her sleeping pills'. Upon reviewing her...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in asking for 'her sleeping pills'. Upon reviewing her records, you find out that she has been taking 40 mg of Temazepam for 20 years. After some questioning, she expresses a desire to discontinue use. How should this situation be handled?

      Your Answer: She should be switched to a low dose of Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Convert to an equivalent dose of diazepam and then reduce slowly

      Explanation:

      The Risks of Hypnotic Dependence

      Hypnotic dependence remains a significant concern, as benzodiazepines and Z-class drugs have the potential to cause dependence without proven efficacy in treating chronic insomnia. Withdrawal from these drugs can lead to rebound insomnia and even seizures with high doses of benzodiazepines. Additionally, hypnotics have a street value and can be diverted for non-medical use. To mitigate these risks, it is recommended that prescriptions for hypnotics be limited to one week. If a doctor wishes to withdraw a patient from a hypnotic, they should first convert the dosage to an equivalent dose of diazepam, which has a longer half-life, allowing for a slower withdrawal process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A depressed, 35-year-old woman presents with confusion, pinpoint pupils and bradycardia.

    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A depressed, 35-year-old woman presents with confusion, pinpoint pupils and bradycardia.

      She has been found in a distressed state at the home of her terminally ill mother where she has access to a number of different analgesics. You suspect an overdose.

      Which one of the following is most likely?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Opiate

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Opiate Overdose

      An opiate overdose can lead to confusion, coma, pinpoint pupils, and bradycardia. Other symptoms may include hypotension, hypothermia, and respiratory arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of increasing fatigue that...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of increasing fatigue that has been developing over the past few months. She is a non-smoker, takes no medication, and has been consuming two bottles of wine daily for the last 12 years. During the examination, the patient is found to have jaundice, finger clubbing, and telangiectasia. What investigation is most likely to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alanine transaminase (ALT)

      Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound (US) scan

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Diagnosis of Alcoholic Liver Disease-Related Cirrhosis

      Alcoholic liver disease (ALD)-related cirrhosis is a condition that develops over several years, progressing from hepatitis to fibrosis and then on to cirrhosis. It is often asymptomatic until complications develop, such as variceal bleeding, ascites, or spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. A diagnosis of ALD-related cirrhosis can be confirmed with an abdominal ultrasound (US) scan, which shows a shrunken, nodular liver. However, sometimes a liver biopsy may be required if the diagnosis cannot be confirmed on US.

      Routine liver blood tests, including alanine transaminase (ALT), should not be used to rule significant liver pathology in or out, as ALT can be normal in cirrhosis. Bilirubin levels may be raised in cirrhosis, but a raised bilirubin can also be caused by other conditions, such as hepatitis, cholangitis, haemolysis, and pancreatic cancer.

      Ceruloplasmin levels are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease, but in the case of ALD-related cirrhosis, it is much more likely that the diagnosis is related to alcohol consumption. Gastroscopy is not used to diagnose cirrhosis but should be undertaken once cirrhosis is diagnosed to screen for oesophageal varices, which are a complication occurring in around half of patients with cirrhosis.

      Overall, a diagnosis of ALD-related cirrhosis is based on a combination of clinical history, physical examination, and imaging studies. It is important to diagnose cirrhosis early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking assistance in quitting alcohol after...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking assistance in quitting alcohol after a prolonged period of heavy drinking. He reports experiencing moderate withdrawal symptoms in the past, but has never had seizures or delirium tremens. His wife is supportive and he is in good health. What is the most suitable medication to use in a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal program?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alcohol Withdrawal: Types and Uses

      Alcohol withdrawal can be a challenging process, and medications are often used to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Here are some common medications used for alcohol withdrawal:

      Chlordiazepoxide: This long-acting benzodiazepine is used to reduce withdrawal symptoms in people with moderate alcohol dependence.

      Lorazepam: For people with liver impairment, lorazepam is suggested as it requires limited liver metabolism. It is also used intravenously for alcohol withdrawal seizures.

      Acamprosate: This medication is effective in preventing relapse in patients with alcohol dependence.

      Clomethiazole: While licensed for use in acute alcohol withdrawal, benzodiazepines are preferred. Clomethiazole should only be used in an inpatient setting and not prescribed if the patient is likely to continue drinking alcohol.

      Haloperidol: Antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be prescribed as adjunctive therapy to benzodiazepines for patients with marked agitation or hallucinations and those at risk of delirium tremens.

      It is important to note that these medications should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and in conjunction with other forms of treatment, such as therapy and support groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of nausea, headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of nausea, headache and difficulty sleeping over the past few days. She has been experiencing moderate symptoms of depression without any suicidal ideation. She is employed as a nurse and resides with her husband and 12-year-old daughter who are supportive. She doesn't consume alcohol. She commenced taking sertraline 50 mg daily five days ago but has not observed any improvement in her mood.

      What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Stop sertraline and start venlafaxine

      Correct Answer: Continue sertraline at 50 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Depression: Sertraline and Alternatives

      When treating depression with sertraline, it is important to understand the common side-effects, which include headache, insomnia, nausea, and diarrhea. These side-effects are usually mild and resolve within three weeks. Improvement in mood is expected 4-6 weeks after starting medication, so not noticing improvement after one week is normal. It is recommended to continue sertraline at the current dose and review in 3-5 weeks, increasing the dose if there has been a partial improvement or considering changing to an alternative antidepressant if there has been no improvement.

      If there has been no improvement after 4-6 weeks, switching to an alternative SSRI, such as citalopram, may be indicated. If two SSRIs have failed to achieve a good response, or if there are contraindications for SSRIs, a selective noradrenaline-reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), such as venlafaxine, may be an option. However, it should not be prescribed concomitantly with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor due to the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      It is important to counsel the patient about the possibility of increased anxiety, worsening mood, and suicidality in the first two weeks and to instigate an early review after 1-2 weeks if aged under 30 years or at high risk of suicide. Discontinuation of sertraline is not recommended as side-effects are normal and should improve in time. Increasing the dose should not be done more frequently than weekly and would more commonly be increased after 4-6 weeks if there has been a partial response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 75-year-old man is experiencing alcohol withdrawal syndrome. What class of drugs would...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is experiencing alcohol withdrawal syndrome. What class of drugs would be the most suitable for treatment?

      Your Answer: Atypical antipsychotic

      Correct Answer: Barbiturate

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines for Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome

      Benzodiazepines are the preferred first line treatment for alcohol withdrawal syndrome. The two most commonly used benzodiazepines in primary care are chlordiazepoxide and diazepam. However, chlordiazepoxide is the preferred option due to its longer half-life and lower potential for abuse.

      Both chlordiazepoxide and diazepam are equally effective in treating alcohol withdrawal syndrome. However, it is recommended that patients using diazepam are supervised by someone else during the detoxification period.

      The NHS National Library for Health provides helpful information on alcohol detoxification, including a suggested tapering dose regime.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old man presents with anxiety, dilated pupils and sweating. You suspect an...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with anxiety, dilated pupils and sweating. You suspect an overdose.

      Which one of the following is most likely?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Cocaine Overdose Symptoms and Management

      Cocaine overdose can lead to a range of symptoms, including anxiety, dilated pupils, and sweating. Other common features of cocaine overdose include persecutory delusions, hypertension, tachycardia, piloerection, and seizures.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these symptoms and to have a plan in place for managing cocaine and crack users in primary care. The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has provided guidance for working with these individuals, which can be helpful for those looking to revise their knowledge on this topic. By understanding the symptoms and having a plan in place, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support for those experiencing cocaine overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 27-year-old female presents in a confused and drowsy state.

    A friend found her...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female presents in a confused and drowsy state.

      A friend found her this morning after she had been out drinking the previous night but also states that she had been upset after her boyfriend had 'dumped her'.

      Examination reveals that she is drowsy with a Glasgow coma scale rating of 10/15. She has a blood pressure of 138/90 mmHg, a temperature of 37.5°C, large pupils which react slowly to light, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 32/min and has exaggerated reflexes with down-going plantar responses. Examination of the abdomen reveals a palpable bladder.

      Which of the following substances is she most likely to have taken?

      Your Answer: Ecstasy

      Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic Overdose and Treatment

      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of anticholinergic overdose, including drowsiness, irritability, large pupils, pyrexia, and tachycardia. Tricyclics, commonly used as antidepressants, can be lethal in overdose. Close monitoring is necessary as ventricular arrhythmias and seizures may occur. Treatment for seizures involves phenytoin, while lidocaine can be used for ventricular arrhythmias. Bicarbonate can correct metabolic acidosis.

      Paracetamol overdose typically presents with few symptoms or signs initially, but can lead to fulminant hepatic failure later on. Opiates cause small pupils and depressed respirations, while benzodiazepines typically only cause marked drowsiness. Ecstasy often causes excitability, tachycardia, and hypertension, but can also lead to severe hyponatremia when associated with excessive water consumption, resulting in drowsiness and obtundation.

      In summary, anticholinergic overdose requires close monitoring and prompt treatment to prevent potentially lethal complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - You are a new partner in an inner city practice, having recently completed...

    Incorrect

    • You are a new partner in an inner city practice, having recently completed GP training. A teenage patient presents in a very poor state of health. She is very thin and has multiple injection site marks. She tells you she has previously been prescribed methadone and is seeking to restart this.

      What is your most appropriate response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not prescribe and refer to specialist service

      Explanation:

      Safe Prescribing of Methadone

      It is crucial that doctors do not feel pressured to prescribe methadone without proper evaluation and consideration of the patient’s history. Methadone is a potent drug that can be dangerous if not prescribed correctly. Therefore, the prescriber must be experienced and competent in handling such cases.

      Before prescribing methadone, the patient should undergo a drug screening, and their previous GP or drug team should be contacted. It is also advisable to involve a local drug worker in the patient’s care. Only after these steps should methadone be prescribed, and at a low dose, gradually increasing under the supervision of a pharmacist. The principle of start low, go slow should be followed to ensure the patient’s safety.

      By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that methadone is prescribed safely and effectively, minimizing the risks associated with this potent drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (5/49) 10%
Passmed