00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man is using intravenous heroin every day. He has not disclosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is using intravenous heroin every day. He has not disclosed this before and has not sought support for this in the past. He requests methadone substitution from his general practitioner.
      What is the single most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Perform urine toxicology

      Correct Answer: Offer referral to specialist drug-abuse service

      Explanation:

      Managing Opioid Dependence: Recommended Actions for GPs

      As a GP, managing patients with opioid dependence can be challenging. Here are some recommended actions to help you provide the best care for your patients:

      1. Offer referral to a specialist drug-abuse service. NICE advises that doctors assess and manage people with opioid dependence within their competence and confidence, which for the majority would mean referral to a specialist service. Here, they have an MDT who can effectively assess, treat, and follow up patients like this.

      2. Prescribe methadone at a dose indicated in the British National Formulary (BNF). It is possible for a GP to prescribe methadone, but this should only be done if they have received higher-level training, or they feel confident to do so and have input from a shared-care multidisciplinary team (MDT).

      3. Avoid prescribing a reducing course of dihydrocodeine. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that dihydrocodeine should not be used in detoxification, except in specific circumstances within specialist care.

      4. Avoid performing urine toxicology unless you are confident in managing this situation. Urine toxicology would not be of any benefit here if you are not confident in managing this situation.

      5. Avoid arranging weekly review. This man is requesting care which requires specialist input, so arranging review in a week would only cause unnecessary delay.

      By following these recommended actions, you can help your patients manage their opioid dependence effectively and safely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner in a state of distress....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner in a state of distress. He reports that he has been abusing opiates and has suddenly stopped, experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following features is NOT typical of opiate withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Yawning

      Correct Answer: Constricted pupils

      Explanation:

      Understanding Opioid Withdrawal Syndrome: Symptoms and Signs

      Opioid withdrawal syndrome can be likened to a severe flu-like illness. The symptoms include rhinorrhea, sneezing, yawning, lacrimation, abdominal and leg cramping, gooseflesh, sweating, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and rapid heart rate. Patients may also feel anxious, tremulous, and restless. Dilated pupils are a common sign of opioid withdrawal and cannot be easily faked. Therefore, careful inspection of the pupils is necessary when a patient claims to be experiencing withdrawal symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old ex-footballer comes in seeking treatment for alcoholism and is given a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old ex-footballer comes in seeking treatment for alcoholism and is given a prescription for disulfiram.

      What is the mechanism of action of disulfiram?

      Your Answer: Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase activity

      Correct Answer: Inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase activity

      Explanation:

      Disulfiram and Acetaldehyde Syndrome

      Alcohol is primarily metabolized in the liver through a two-step process. First, alcohol dehydrogenase converts alcohol into acetaldehyde. Then, acetaldehyde dehydrogenase further metabolizes acetaldehyde into acetate. Disulfiram is a medication used to treat alcohol dependence by irreversibly inhibiting the oxidation of acetaldehyde. It does this by competing with the cofactor nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) for binding sites on acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. As a result, acetaldehyde levels increase, leading to the unpleasant side effects associated with acetaldehyde syndrome, such as headaches, nausea, and flushing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to an MAOI. You...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to an MAOI. You stop the MAOI (which is of the non reversible kind) and wish to prescribe an SSRI.

      How long should you wait before starting the SSRI?

      Your Answer: 3 days

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      Switching between MAOIs and SSRIs

      When switching from an MAOI to an SSRI, it is important to wait at least two weeks before starting the new medication. This is because MAOIs can inactivate the enzymes that break down certain neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline and 5HT. It can take up to two weeks for these enzymes to resume normal activity after stopping an MAOI, and during this time there is a risk of severe drug reactions if an SSRI is started too soon. Therefore, it is crucial to allow enough time for the body to adjust before switching between these types of antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old man comes to the General Practice Surgery with a six-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the General Practice Surgery with a six-month history of persistent fatigue. He has no medical problems and takes no regular medication. He briefly injected heroin when he was younger but has not done so for the last ten years.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Tetanus

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Blood-Borne Infections Commonly Associated with Intravenous Drug Use

      Intravenous (IV) drug use is a major risk factor for acquiring blood-borne infections. The most common infections associated with IV drug use are hepatitis C, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and hepatitis B. Syphilis and tetanus are also possible, but less common, infections.

      Hepatitis C is the most prevalent blood-borne virus among IV drug users, affecting up to 50% of users in the UK and 67% worldwide. Acute infection is usually asymptomatic or presents with vague symptoms, but can progress to chronic hepatitis C in the majority of cases. Cirrhosis and liver failure are potential long-term complications.

      HIV is present in up to 15% of IV drug users and is transmitted through shared needles. Acute infection presents with flu-like symptoms, followed by an asymptomatic period until the CD4 count drops enough to allow for opportunistic infections.

      Hepatitis B is less common than hepatitis C among IV drug users, but still poses a risk. Acute infection presents with flu-like symptoms and can progress to chronic infection, which increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection that can also be transmitted through direct contact with skin lesions or mucous membranes. Primary infection presents with a painless ulcer, followed by a generalised rash and lymphadenopathy. Latent syphilis can be asymptomatic, but is not associated with IV drug use.

      Tetanus is rare in the UK due to immunisation programs, but can occur if spores enter an open wound. It presents with muscle stiffness and spasms, but is not associated with a prolonged asymptomatic period or IV drug use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What specific information should you provide to a patient regarding the use of...

    Incorrect

    • What specific information should you provide to a patient regarding the use of varenicline for smoking cessation during counselling?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure needs to monitored before and during treatment

      Correct Answer: Treatment should be discontinued and prompt medical advice sought if they develop suicidal thoughts

      Explanation:

      Caution and Monitoring for Varenicline Use in Patients with Mental Illness

      Patients with a history of mental illness should exercise caution when taking varenicline and be closely monitored during treatment. This medication may worsen underlying psychiatric conditions. Patients should be advised to discontinue use and seek medical attention immediately if they experience suicidal thoughts, depressed mood, or agitation.

      Varenicline treatment typically begins one to two weeks before the target stop date. The initial dose is 500 micrograms once daily for three days, followed by 500 micrograms twice daily for four days, and then 1 mg twice daily for 11 weeks. If the 1 mg dose is not well-tolerated, the patient may continue with 500 micrograms twice daily.

      It is important to note that there is no disulfiram-type reaction between alcohol and varenicline. However, patients should be aware that bupropion is associated with an increased risk of seizures and requires blood pressure monitoring before and during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man, who regularly injects drugs, presents to the General Practice clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man, who regularly injects drugs, presents to the General Practice clinic with a four-day history of a painful swelling in his groin.

      During examination, a 5 cm tender, hot, fluctuant mass with overlying erythema is observed. Tympanic temperature is 38 oC (normal range: 36.5-37.5 oC).

      What is the most suitable initial management option for this case? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin 1 g four times daily for seven days

      Correct Answer: Incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Groin Abscess in Injecting Drug Users

      Groin abscesses are a common complication of injecting drug use, characterized by a tender fluctuant mass, overlying erythema, and fever. The first-line treatment for an abscess is incision and drainage, followed by antibiotics if necessary. Risk factors for infection at injection sites include frequent drug use, reusing equipment, and poor nutrition.

      Co-amoxiclav 625 mg three times daily for seven days may be prescribed as a second-line treatment for cellulitis if first-line treatment, such as flucloxacillin, has failed. It is important to check local guidelines on antibiotic regimens. Flucloxacillin 1 g four times daily for seven days is the first-line treatment for cellulitis.

      Laparoscopic hernia repair is the gold standard treatment for an inguinal hernia, which presents as a reducible mass with a cough impulse. Open hernia repair may be indicated for larger herniae. Risk factors for inguinal hernia include obesity, constipation, chronic coughing, and heavy lifting.

      Treatment Options for Groin Abscess and Inguinal Hernia in Injecting Drug Users

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old man presents in a confused state. He is known to regularly...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents in a confused state. He is known to regularly smoke cannabis.
      Which of the following physical signs is NOT a recognised feature of cannabis intoxication?

      Your Answer: Increased appetite

      Correct Answer: Sweating

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cannabis Intoxication: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Cannabis intoxication refers to the problematic behavioural or psychological changes that occur after recent use of cannabis. These changes may include impaired motor coordination, euphoria, anxiety, a sensation of slowed time, impaired judgment, or social withdrawal. To diagnose cannabis intoxication, at least two physical signs must be present. However, sweating is not considered a recognized sign of cannabis intoxication, as it is more commonly associated with cannabis withdrawal. It is important for doctors to rule out any underlying medical conditions or mental disorders that may be causing the patient’s symptoms. This article provides an overview of the symptoms and diagnosis of cannabis intoxication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman says she is currently struggling to cope at work and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman says she is currently struggling to cope at work and feels she needs some time off work. She has become depressed but denies any suicidal thoughts or intent. She feels anxious, shaky and nauseous most mornings. She admits to drinking about 40 - 50 units of alcohol per week. She is aware that this is too much but has not connected it to her current problems.
      What is the most appropriate response to this patient’s situation?

      Your Answer: Tell him that as his problem is self-inflicted he is being unfair to his employers

      Correct Answer: Provide him with information about specialist alcohol services

      Explanation:

      Providing Support for Alcohol Dependence: A Patient-Centered Approach

      When working with a patient who displays signs of alcohol dependence, it is important to approach the situation with empathy and understanding. Referral to specialist alcohol services is recommended for those with moderate or severe dependence, and screening with an AUDIT or AUDIT-C questionnaire can help quantify the level of dependence. It is not helpful to use the threat of job loss as a means of motivating the patient to stop drinking, and offering a Statement of Fitness for Work should not be conditional on immediate cessation of alcohol use. Prescribing fluoxetine may not be effective while alcohol use is ongoing, and making judgemental statements about the patient’s behavior is not productive. Instead, a patient-centered approach that focuses on support and understanding can help the patient address their underlying issues with alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old known alcoholic comes to the emergency department with acute haematemesis. Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old known alcoholic comes to the emergency department with acute haematemesis. Emergency endoscopy shows bleeding oesophageal varices that are treated with banding. He is admitted and discharged 10 days later without any complications. What medication would be the most appropriate prophylactic agent to prevent further variceal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Portal Hypertension and Varices in Alcoholic Cirrhosis

      The portal vein is responsible for carrying blood from the gut and spleen to the liver. In cases of alcoholic cirrhosis, this flow can become obstructed, leading to increased pressure and the development of porto-systemic collaterals. The most common site for these collaterals to form is at the gastro-oesophageal junction, resulting in the development of varices. These varices are prone to rupture, leading to acute and potentially life-threatening haematemesis.

      To prevent rebleeding and reduce portal pressures, beta blockers such as propranolol are commonly used. Propranolol has been found to be the most effective treatment for portal hypertension and is licensed for this purpose. By understanding the underlying mechanisms of portal hypertension and variceal formation in alcoholic cirrhosis, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and prevent potentially fatal complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man with alcohol dependency disorder feels unwell. He stopped drinking six...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with alcohol dependency disorder feels unwell. He stopped drinking six days ago.

      Which one of the following symptoms is most suggestive of delirium tremens?

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Correct Answer: Visual hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Delirium Tremens: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Delirium tremens is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals who have been drinking heavily for a prolonged period of time. It is characterised by a range of symptoms, including confusion, agitation, tremors, tachycardia, fevers, high blood pressure, and visual hallucinations.

      One of the key features of delirium tremens is the presence of visual hallucinations, which can be particularly distressing for individuals experiencing this condition. These hallucinations may involve seeing things that are not there, such as animals or people, or distortions of reality, such as objects appearing to move or change shape.

      Other symptoms of delirium tremens can include sweating, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. In severe cases, delirium tremens can be life-threatening, and medical intervention may be necessary to manage the symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the third symptom of cognitive impairment that is part of the...

    Correct

    • What is the third symptom of cognitive impairment that is part of the triad characterising Korsakoff's psychosis, along with loss of recent memory and disordered time appreciation?

      Your Answer: Cocktail party speech

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Psychosis and Cocktail Party Speech

      Korsakoff’s psychosis is a condition that can cause difficulty in memorizing new events. It is often associated with alcoholism, but it can also result from head injury, cerebral hypoxia, tumor, or encephalitis. One of the characteristic symptoms of Korsakoff’s psychosis is retrograde amnesia, which is the loss of memory for events before the onset of the illness.

      On the other hand, cocktail party speech is a phenomenon that can be observed in some children with congenital syndromes that have learning difficulties. These children can engage in small talk on various topics, but they struggle when faced with more complex communication tasks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) for the first time seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) for the first time seeking help for her alcohol dependence. She explains that she has been using alcohol to cope with work stress and has gradually increased her daily drinking to 15-20 units. She has no significant medical history other than her alcohol use. She has a normal body mass index and reports a balanced diet. After assessing her, the GP refers her to specialist services. What would be the most appropriate management plan for thiamine use in a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme?

      Your Answer: Issue for initial replacement, then discontinue as soon as possible

      Correct Answer: Offer an oral preparation of thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Thiamine Replacement for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcoholics

      Thiamine deficiency is common in alcoholics due to poor diet and reduced absorption. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric complication caused by thiamine deficiency and occurs frequently in chronic alcohol dependence. Oral thiamine can be given at a maximum dose of 300 mg/day for healthy, well-nourished individuals. However, parenteral high-potency B complex vitamins should be considered for all other patients undergoing withdrawal despite the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine doesn’t prevent delirium tremens, and admission is required for inpatient detoxification if the patient presents acutely with evidence of this. Thiamine replacement is futile for Korsakoff syndrome, which is characterized by severe short-term memory loss and associated functional impairment. An ongoing prescription of lower doses of thiamine is suggested if there is concern about chronic deficiency after initial replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of retrosternal burning after...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of retrosternal burning after eating. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. He has never smoked, but drinks 80 units of alcohol per week. Based on these factors, which is the most likely indication that he is dependent on alcohol?

      Your Answer: Always drinks spirits rather than beer or wine

      Correct Answer: Feels he needs more alcohol to have the same effect as it would have had last year

      Explanation:

      Identifying Problem Drinking: Symptoms and Screening Tools

      Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and daily life. Here are some common symptoms of alcohol dependence and screening tools that can help identify problem drinking:

      – Tolerance: Needing more alcohol to achieve the same effect as before.
      – Craving: Strong desire to drink.
      – Loss of control: Inability to stop drinking once started.
      – Withdrawal symptoms: Physical symptoms when not drinking.
      – AUDIT questionnaire: Comprehensive screening tool for problem drinking.
      – AUDIT-C: Shortened form of AUDIT questionnaire consisting of three questions.
      – CAGE questionnaire: Screening tool for problem drinking with a score of 2 or more indicating high likelihood of problem drinking.
      – Excessive alcohol consumption linked to over 200 medical conditions.
      – Types of alcohol consumed do not impact dependence.
      – Inability to fulfill responsibilities due to alcohol consumption is a feature of problem drinking.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of problem drinking and utilize screening tools to identify and address the issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with a six-month history of increasing...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with a six-month history of increasing shortness of breath and multiple instances of coughing up blood in the past four weeks. He has a 40-year history of smoking 30 cigarettes per day and has worked as a painter and builder. Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following risk factors is the most probable contributing factor? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Tobacco

      Explanation:

      Identifying Risk Factors for Lung Cancer: A Case Study

      A patient presents with symptoms of lung cancer, including breathlessness and haemoptysis, as well as chest pain, cough, fatigue, and weight loss. Given that smoking is responsible for 72% of lung cancer cases in the UK and 86% of lung cancer deaths, it is the most likely risk factor in this case.

      While alcohol consumption is linked to an increased risk of certain cancers, it is not strongly associated with lung cancer. Exposure to arsenic is associated with certain occupations, but only accounts for 0.003% of lung cancers in the UK. Asbestos exposure, which is linked to construction and shipyard work, is responsible for 6-8% of lung cancer deaths, but tobacco is still a more significant risk factor.

      Exposure to silica, which is associated with certain industries such as glass manufacture and mining, increases lung cancer risk by 68%. However, it only accounts for 0.02% of lung cancers in the UK. While silica exposure may have contributed to this patient’s lung cancer, smoking remains the most likely cause. Overall, identifying and addressing risk factors for lung cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Your next patient is a 32-year-old man who has a history of alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • Your next patient is a 32-year-old man who has a history of alcohol abuse. He has been consuming approximately 100 units of alcohol per week for the past five years. He often skips meals and is a heavy smoker, smoking 20 cigarettes per day. Do you suggest any vitamin supplements for him?

      Your Answer: Oral vitamin B compound

      Correct Answer: Oral thiamine

      Explanation:

      Management of Problem Drinking: Nutritional Support and Drug Therapy

      Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. To manage this condition, nutritional support and drug therapy are often recommended. According to SIGN, alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their diet may be deficient. This is because alcohol can interfere with the absorption and utilization of thiamine, which can lead to neurological complications such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

      In addition to nutritional support, drug therapy can also be used to manage problem drinking. Benzodiazepines are commonly used for acute withdrawal symptoms, while disulfiram is used to promote abstinence. Disulfiram works by inhibiting acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, which causes a severe reaction when alcohol is consumed. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol in perfumes, foods, or mouthwashes can produce severe symptoms. However, disulfiram is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.

      Another drug used to manage problem drinking is acamprosate. This medication reduces craving and has been shown to improve abstinence in placebo-controlled trials. Acamprosate is a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, which are involved in the development of alcohol dependence. By blocking these receptors, acamprosate may help reduce the reinforcing effects of alcohol and prevent relapse.

      In summary, the management of problem drinking involves a combination of nutritional support and drug therapy. Oral thiamine is recommended for alcoholic patients with a deficient diet, while benzodiazepines can be used for acute withdrawal symptoms. Disulfiram promotes abstinence but should be used with caution in patients with certain medical conditions. Acamprosate reduces craving and improves abstinence by blocking NMDA receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A middle-aged loner who is known to abuse alcohol is seen at home...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged loner who is known to abuse alcohol is seen at home following a telephone call from a concerned neighbour.

      You arrive to find that he has been living in squalid conditions. He exhibits a number of interesting signs on examination, and you suspect that he has developed Wernicke's encephalopathy.

      Wernicke's encephalopathy is characterised by a triad of an acute confusional state, ophthalmoplegia, and what other neurological symptom?

      Your Answer: Dysarthria

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy and its Ophthalmoplegic Signs

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse, but it can also be caused by other factors that lead to thiamine deficiency. One of the most notable signs of this condition is ophthalmoplegia, which refers to the paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles. This can manifest as nystagmus, bilateral lateral rectus palsies, fixed pupils, papilloedema (rarely), and conjugate gaze palsies.

      Aside from ophthalmoplegia, patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy may also exhibit cerebellar signs in their limbs, such as a broad-based gait and vestibular disturbance. Up to 80% of patients may also experience some degree of peripheral neuropathy, which can involve motor or sensory loss. It is important to note that Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her mother because...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her mother because she has been drinking alcohol. Her mother disapproves of her daughter's decision, but is having difficulty justifying her stance to her daughter. She asks the General Practitioner to explain to her daughter some of the problems associated with alcohol use.
      From which of the following complications is she most at risk?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The Risks and Benefits of Cannabis Use: Psychiatric Complications and Medicinal Benefits

      Cannabis use can have both negative and positive effects on an individual’s health. When it comes to psychiatric complications, the age of onset of cannabis smoking, duration of exposure, and individual risk factors play a significant role. Panic attacks are the most common complication, but early cannabis use (before the age of 15) carries a greater risk for schizophrenia than use starting later in life. In fact, one study found that 1 in 10 people who used cannabis before the age of 15 developed a schizophrenic-like disorder by age 26, compared to only 3% of older cannabis users. It’s important to note that the risk of schizophrenia is specific to cannabis and not other drugs.

      On the other hand, medicinal cannabis has been shown to have benefits for certain health conditions. It has been advocated for pain and spasticity in multiple sclerosis, pain control in sensory neuropathies, seizure control in epilepsy, and in the treatment of Crohn’s disease. As with any medication, it’s important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and dyspnoea that have been getting worse over the past three months. He is typically healthy and has no family history of heart or lung disease or sudden death.
      During the examination, he seems nervous and fidgety, has an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), an enlarged heart, a loud third heart sound, and peripheral swelling. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals sinus tachycardia (ST) with a heart rate of 110 beats per minute (bpm) (normal range: 60-100 bpm).
      Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Causes of Dilated Cardiomyopathy: A Brief Overview

      Dilated cardiomyopathy is a condition that often presents as congestive heart failure, with symptoms such as dyspnoea, fatigue, and weakness. There are several potential causes of dilated cardiomyopathy, including cocaine use, amyloidosis, and sarcoidosis.

      Cocaine use can directly damage the heart, leading to heart failure, while amyloidosis can cause both dilated and restrictive cardiomyopathy. Sarcoidosis, a chronic inflammatory condition, is a rare cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.

      Other substances, such as cannabis and benzodiazepines, are not typically associated with cardiomyopathy. However, chronic cannabis use can lead to other heart and lung conditions, while abrupt withdrawal from benzodiazepines can cause a rare form of cardiomyopathy called Takotsubo cardiomyopathy.

      Overall, it is important to identify the underlying cause of dilated cardiomyopathy in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who is concerned about his memory. He has no recollection of recent or distant events, but responds to every question with a very detailed, yet incorrect, answer.

      Upon examination, he displays ataxia and nystagmus. He has not visited a doctor in over 25 years, doesn't take any regular medication, and has consumed eight pints of beer per night for the past 35 years.

      What is the most probable deficiency causing this presentation? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Zinc

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Korsakoff syndrome, a condition caused by a deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine). This syndrome is a late manifestation of untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy and is characterized by mental confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. It is most common in people in their fifties and sixties and is caused by alcoholism or other factors such as chronic subdural hematoma, nutritional stress, AIDS, hyperemesis gravidarum, thyrotoxicosis, long-term dialysis, or congestive heart failure. Urgent medical assessment and admission for parenteral thiamine is necessary, as it can be fatal if left untreated. Zinc deficiency, on the other hand, is characterized by symptoms such as anorexia, lethargy, diarrhea, growth restriction, impaired immune function, delayed sexual maturation, learning disability, weight loss, and macular degeneration. It is not related to memory or cognitive problems, ataxia, or nystagmus. Vitamin B2 deficiency is more common in vegetarians, vegans, pregnant women, or young children and is thought to have a role in migraines. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes symptoms such as cognitive and memory disturbance, headaches, dyspepsia, loss of appetite, palpitations, visual disturbance, weakness and lethargy, angina, optic neuropathy, symmetrical neuropathy affecting the legs more than the arms, and a megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin E deficiency is rare in healthy people and is strongly associated with conditions affecting absorption, such as Crohn’s disease or cystic fibrosis. However, this patient’s history of alcohol excess makes thiamine deficiency much more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for a consultation. He has...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for a consultation. He has a history of substance abuse and is starting opioid substitution therapy. He is worried about relapsing and asks several specific questions.
      What is the most probable factor that could raise the risk of overdose during methadone titration at the beginning of this patient's treatment?

      Your Answer: Concurrent use of other drugs

      Explanation:

      When prescribing methadone for opioid abuse, caution must be taken to avoid overdose, especially in the first 2-3 days and within the first two weeks of treatment. Concurrent use of other drugs, such as alcohol, benzodiazepines, and antidepressants, can increase the risk of overdose. Patients with low opioid tolerance, shorter history of drug use, or lower levels of drug use are also at higher risk. To mitigate this risk, starting doses of 10-20 mg of methadone should be used, with increases of 5-10 mg a day and a maximum of 30 mg a week for the first 2 weeks. Methadone is excreted slowly during the first few days of treatment, which increases the risk of overdose. Frequent review and monitoring is important during this period. Methadone patients should also be informed of the increasing effect of a dose as steady state is achieved. Co-existing mental health problems may also respond to appropriate methadone dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The following patient is a 28-year-old ST1 doctor in anaesthetics. He has poorly...

    Incorrect

    • The following patient is a 28-year-old ST1 doctor in anaesthetics. He has poorly controlled asthma and casually mentions that he uses cannabis. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Don't mention his cannabis smoking

      Correct Answer: Discuss the potential negative effects of smoking cannabis

      Explanation:

      The doctor’s actions as a cannabis user do not seem to be impacting his performance as an anaesthetist. It should be noted that the doctor has sought medical attention as a patient.

      It is not advisable to breach confidentiality by contacting the clinical director or threatening to involve the hospital. Additionally, involving the police is not appropriate as the issue of cannabis use should be handled differently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking advice. He is addicted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking advice. He is addicted to heroin and is interested in maintenance drug substitution therapy. What medication is approved for substitution therapy in the United Kingdom for this patient?

      Your Answer: Methadone tablets

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine sublingual tablets

      Explanation:

      Substitute Medications for Opioid Dependence Treatment in Primary Care

      Substitute medications such as methadone and buprenorphine are effective in treating opioid dependence in primary care settings in the UK. The goal of opioid substitute treatment is to improve the quality of life of patients and reduce harm from illicit drug use. Buprenorphine is licensed for opioid dependence treatment and is available in sublingual tablets of 0.4 mg, 2 mg, and 8 mg. The 2 mg and 8 mg strengths are also available in combination with naloxone, which has an opiate effect when taken sublingually but causes withdrawal symptoms if injected. Diamorphine, while unlicensed, has the advantage of known purity and has been shown to reduce street heroin use in supervised injectable trials. Dihydrocodeine is not licensed for drug dependency and is difficult to supervise, making it prone to diversion for street use. Methadone oral solution is licensed for opioid dependence treatment, but methadone tablets are not licensed due to their potential for injection and high street value. Slow-release oral morphine is not licensed and should only be used in rare circumstances by specialists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Chronic alcohol abuse is known to have a negative impact on the cardiovascular...

    Incorrect

    • Chronic alcohol abuse is known to have a negative impact on the cardiovascular system. Among the following conditions, which is the LEAST likely to be associated with excessive alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: Stroke

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Abuse and Cardiovascular Problems: Effects and Risks

      Alcohol abuse can lead to various cardiovascular problems, including atrial fibrillation, hypertension, strokes, and cardiomyopathy with heart failure. Additionally, infective endocarditis is more common in those who abuse alcohol. However, it is interesting to note that mild to moderate alcohol consumption, particularly in the form of wine and beer, which are rich in polyphenols, may actually have cardiovascular protective effects. This is true for both individuals with existing cardiovascular disease and healthy individuals. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with alcohol abuse, but also to consider the potential benefits of moderate alcohol consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking help to quit using...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking help to quit using illicit opioids but is struggling to achieve complete abstinence. He has recently been prescribed maintenance methadone by his local drug and alcohol withdrawal service.
      What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Nominate a representative who can collect the patient’s methadone on their behalf

      Correct Answer: Have the patient collect their prescribed drugs daily from a nominated pharmacy

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Prescribing Methadone for Opioid Addiction Treatment

      Methadone is a commonly prescribed medication for opioid addiction treatment. However, prescribing and dispensing methadone requires careful consideration and adherence to best practices. Here are some guidelines for prescribing methadone for opioid addiction treatment:

      1. Have the patient collect their prescribed drugs daily from a nominated pharmacy.
      2. Prescribe a week-long methadone regime, reducing the dosage on a daily basis.
      3. Ask the patient whether they would prefer an oral or injectable form of methadone.
      4. Give the patient a prescription which they can take to a pharmacy of their choice in order to collect their methadone.
      5. Nominate a representative who can collect the patient’s methadone on their behalf.

      It is important to note that prescribing and dispensing methadone should be done in consultation with the patient and their healthcare team. By following these best practices, patients can receive safe and effective treatment for opioid addiction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of a one-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of a one-week history of fever, malaise, a generalised rash and a sore throat. During the examination, there is an erythematous rash affecting the entire body and generalised lymphadenopathy. She confesses to a history of intravenous drug use. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Glandular fever

      Correct Answer: Human Immunodeficieny Virus (HIV)

      Explanation:

      HIV, glandular fever, measles, rubella, and syphilis are all infectious diseases with distinct symptoms and modes of transmission. HIV is more common among at-risk groups such as intravenous drug users, men who have sex with men, and sex workers. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein-Barr Virus and is common in young adult populations. Measles and rubella are RNA viruses transmitted by respiratory droplet spread, with measles being uncommon in the UK due to vaccination rates. Syphilis is a treponemal infection with distinct stages, but is not associated with drug use and doesn’t present with prominent systemic features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You are asked to visit a 45-year-old construction worker at his worksite. He...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to visit a 45-year-old construction worker at his worksite. He is known to drink five cans of beer per day and a number of shots of whiskey whilst socializing with his colleagues after work. His supervisor is concerned as he has become lethargic, confused and has taken to sitting down frequently.
      On examination he has nystagmus, is restless and disorientated. He has edema, but his abdomen doesn't appear tense and he is afebrile. You get him to walk and he has truncal ataxia.
      You think he should be admitted to hospital. How should he be treated?

      Your Answer: Pyridoxine replacement

      Correct Answer: Thiamine replacement

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcoholism

      Sudden deterioration in alcoholism can be caused by alcohol withdrawal or acute infection, such as spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. However, if confusion, nystagmus, and truncal ataxia are present, Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be considered. Thiamine replacement is crucial to prevent the development of Korsakoff’s psychosis, which can result in permanent short-term memory impairment. It is important to recognize and treat Wernicke’s encephalopathy promptly to prevent long-term neurological damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which drug may NOT necessarily result in driving licence refusal or revocation, according...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug may NOT necessarily result in driving licence refusal or revocation, according to the DVLA's statement on persistent substance use or dependence?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Correct Answer: Methadone

      Explanation:

      Substance Use and Driving Licence Eligibility

      Explanation: The use of certain psychoactive substances can lead to refusal or revocation of a driving licence. These substances include cannabis, amphetamines, ecstasy, ketamine, Lysergic acid diethylamide, hallucinogens, heroin, morphine, methadone, cocaine, and methylamphetamine. Medical enquiry will confirm persistent use or dependence on these substances. A minimum period of 6 months free of use is required for cannabis, amphetamines, ecstasy, ketamine, Lysergic acid diethylamide, and hallucinogens. For heroin, morphine, methadone, cocaine, and methylamphetamine, the period is 12 months. However, applicants or drivers who comply with a consultant-supervised oral methadone maintenance programme may be licensed, subject to a favourable assessment and annual medical review. Those on an oral buprenorphine programme may also be considered. There should be no evidence of continuing use of other substances, including cannabis. Group 2 drivers (lorries, buses, etc.) must have a minimum period of three years of stability on a maintenance programme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old man collapses in the General Practice waiting room. His breathing is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man collapses in the General Practice waiting room. His breathing is shallow with a respiratory rate of six breaths per minute. His oxygen saturations are unrecordable. Blood sugar is normal. His pupils are both constricted.
      Which of the following drugs should be administered immediately?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Correct Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Antidotes for Poisoning: Understanding Their Uses

      When a patient presents with symptoms of poisoning, it is important to identify the specific toxin involved in order to administer the appropriate antidote. Here are some common antidotes and their uses:

      Naloxone: This opiate antagonist is used to treat acute opiate toxicity. It rapidly reverses respiratory depression, loss of consciousness, and constricted pupils. Patients may become aggressive upon awakening, and repeated doses may be necessary.

      Fomepizole: This antidote is used in confirmed cases of ethylene glycol poisoning as an alternative to ethanol. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, altered consciousness, and seizures.

      Acetylcysteine: This is the antidote for paracetamol poisoning. It should be administered in a hospital after a full clinical assessment has been carried out. Symptoms may not appear until days later, and can include hepatic encephalopathy.

      Flumazenil: This antidote is used for benzodiazepine overdose. It should only be administered by experienced specialists in a hospital setting, as it can precipitate seizures.

      Glucagon: This antidote can be used to treat hypoglycaemia and beta-blocker overdose. However, if a patient’s blood sugar is normal, hypoglycaemia is not the cause of their collapse.

      By understanding the uses of these antidotes, healthcare professionals can quickly and effectively treat cases of poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner (GP) as a temporary resident and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner (GP) as a temporary resident and asks for opiate analgesics to manage a sickle-cell crisis. Which of the following choices would be the LEAST suspicious that he is a drug abuser?

      Your Answer: Gives evasive answers

      Correct Answer: Staying for a month with his parents

      Explanation:

      Identifying Drug-Seeking Behavior in Patients: Signs to Look Out For

      When dealing with patients, it’s important to be able to identify drug-seeking behavior. One sign to look out for is when a patient claims to be a temporary resident in the area. This is a common tactic used by drug seekers who are just passing through. However, if the patient’s parents are also your patients and they are a stable couple, this can be reassuring.

      Other signs to watch for include strange smells such as cannabis, cocaine, or heroin, as well as the smell of acetone or glue on the breath. Additionally, needle tracks or difficult intravenous access may also be present. By being aware of these signs, healthcare professionals can better identify and address drug-seeking behavior in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 30-year-old woman expecting her first child attends the Obstetrics Outpatient Clinic at...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman expecting her first child attends the Obstetrics Outpatient Clinic at 12 weeks' gestation. She is normally well, is prescribed no medications, doesn't smoke or drink alcohol, and uses cocaine most weekends. Her body mass index (BMI) is 24 kg/m2.
      What intervention is most likely to be recommended?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 75 mg daily until delivery

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound (US) assessment of fetal size and Umbilical Artery Doppler at 26 weeks' gestation

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Management of a Pregnant Cocaine User

      Assessment and management of a pregnant woman who uses cocaine requires careful consideration of potential risks to both the mother and the developing fetus. In this case, the following interventions are considered:

      Ultrasound (US) assessment of fetal size and Umbilical Artery Doppler at 26 weeks’ gestation: This is indicated to screen for small gestational age (SGA) babies in those with one or more major risk factors, including cocaine use. As such, this woman would be offered an US for fetal growth and wellbeing at 26 weeks’ gestation.

      Aspirin 75 mg daily until delivery: Aspirin is used to reduce the risk of developing pre-eclampsia in pregnancy, where there are risk factors. However, cocaine use is not a risk factor, and none of the other risk factors apply to this patient, so this is not indicated.

      No additional intervention: Cocaine use is a risk factor for fetal growth restriction, so additional scans to assess fetal growth and wellbeing are indicated.

      Tinzaparin from 28 weeks gestation: Tinzaparin is prescribed as prophylaxis for venous thromboembolism (VTE) where risk factors are present. However, cocaine use is not a risk factor for VTE in pregnancy, and this woman has no additional risk factors, so tinzaparin would not be indicated.

      Uterine Artery Doppler at 20 weeks gestation: This is indicated to screen for SGA babies in those with three or more minor risk factors. However, this woman has just one of these risk factors and this is therefore not indicated.

      Overall, careful assessment and management of pregnant women who use cocaine is essential to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A patient in their 20s presents with alcohol problems.

    This is long standing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 20s presents with alcohol problems.

      This is long standing and they have struggled for many years. They have an allocated worker but feel they need something different. They ask about AA (Alcoholics Anonymous) and about drinking in the long term.

      Which one of the following best represents AA advice regarding future alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: The AA message is focused on avoiding spirits

      Correct Answer: Alcoholics Anonymous suggests that once in 'recovery' the alcoholic can resume social drinking

      Explanation:

      Alcoholics Anonymous: A Global Organisation for Abstinence

      Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is a non-governmental organisation that is solely funded by its own membership. Its message is one of total abstinence from alcohol, and it has a worldwide presence. Members meet regularly, sometimes daily, to share their experiences and support each other in their journey towards sobriety. The only requirement for membership is a desire to stop drinking alcohol.

      AA’s 12-step recovery programme is based on self-reliance and has been emulated by other organisations such as Narcotics Anonymous (NA). It can be highly effective for individuals struggling with addiction. However, AA doesn’t advocate for a return to social or moderate drinking after recovery from alcoholism.

      Overall, Alcoholics Anonymous provides a supportive community for individuals seeking to overcome their addiction to alcohol and maintain sobriety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner seeking guidance. He reports that he...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner seeking guidance. He reports that he has been consuming alcohol excessively for a few weeks and wants to quit. He mentions that he experienced delirium tremens the last time he attempted to stop.
      What is the accurate statement regarding delirium tremens?

      Your Answer: It is associated with visual hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Understanding Delirium Tremens: Symptoms, Timeline, and Treatment

      Delirium tremens is a serious condition that can occur within 24 hours to one week after a person stops drinking alcohol. The symptoms peak at around 72-96 hours and can be life-threatening. One of the most common symptoms is visual hallucinations, which often involve miniature humans or animals. Tachycardia, or a rapid heartbeat, is also a common feature.

      If someone is experiencing delirium tremens, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. Hospital admission is often necessary, and treatment typically involves large doses of benzodiazepines. With proper care, most people recover from delirium tremens, but it is important to take the condition seriously and seek help as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned friend. He is drowsy, confused and sweating profusely. The accompanying friend reports drug use earlier that evening. A toxicology screen for opiates, cocaine, cannabis and alcohol is negative.
      What is the most likely causative drug?

      Your Answer: Nitrous oxide

      Correct Answer: Spice

      Explanation:

      Spice, a synthetic cannabinoid, is a type of new psychoactive substance (NPS) that is often referred to as a legal high despite being prohibited by the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 and the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971. NPS use has become increasingly common in the UK, particularly among young men who mistakenly believe that they are safer than traditional illicit drugs. Spice is typically consumed as a herbal smoking mixture and is responsible for over half of all NPS use. While it produces similar effects to cannabis, it is more potent and can cause negative side effects such as dizziness, agitation, paranoia, and seizures. Based on the symptoms described in this scenario and the negative toxicology screen for other illicit drugs, Spice is the most likely cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 55-year-old business man who has been drinking heavily for at least two...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old business man who has been drinking heavily for at least two years, states that he drinks alcohol on his way into work as he suffers from anxiety attacks.

      Which one of the following statements is true regarding his anxiety?

      Your Answer: It indicates alcohol dependence, and is likely to persistently deteriorate after three weeks of abstinence from alcohol

      Correct Answer: It indicates alcohol dependence, and after initial worsening with withdrawal usually will improve after three weeks of abstinence from alcohol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mild Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms

      This individual is struggling with alcohol dependence and is currently experiencing anxiety during the morning withdrawal period. Anxiety is a common symptom of mild alcohol withdrawal, which can also lead to agitation, fever, sweats, and tremors. While alcohol initially provides relief for these symptoms, continued abstinence can cause them to peak after approximately 72 hours and last for up to a week or more. However, most patients find that these symptoms have resolved within three weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 70-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also suffers from stable angina,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also suffers from stable angina, gout and peripheral vascular disease. He doesn't have diabetes.
      Which one of the following antihypertensives is best suited for him initially?

      Your Answer: Bendrofluazide

      Correct Answer: Modified release nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Medication for Hypertension: NICE Guidelines

      When it comes to managing hypertension, it’s important to choose the right medication based on the patient’s age, medical history, and other factors. According to NICE guidelines, the first-line therapy for hypertension in patients over the age of 55 without diabetes is a calcium-channel blocker, such as modified release nifedipine. Beta-blockers like atenolol may be considered in younger patients or those with certain contraindications, while ACE inhibitors are recommended for patients under 55. Thiazide-like diuretics can also be used in certain cases, such as when a calcium channel blocker is not tolerated or in cases of resistant hypertension. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the following characteristics is least commonly linked to ecstasy overdose? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following characteristics is least commonly linked to ecstasy overdose?

      Your Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      Water intoxication can lead to the development of hyponatraemia.

      Understanding Ecstasy Poisoning

      Ecstasy, also known as MDMA or 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine, gained popularity in the 1990s with the rise of dance music culture. However, its use can lead to poisoning with various clinical features. Neurological symptoms such as agitation, anxiety, confusion, and ataxia are common, as well as cardiovascular symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension. Hyponatremia, hyperthermia, and rhabdomyolysis are also possible.

      When it comes to managing ecstasy poisoning, supportive measures are typically used. However, if simple measures fail, dantrolene may be administered to address hyperthermia. It’s important to understand the risks associated with ecstasy use and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of poisoning arise. By being aware of the potential dangers, individuals can make informed decisions about their drug use and take steps to protect their health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 68-year-old woman is treated with oral trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is treated with oral trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection. Her creatinine was checked on the first day of therapy and found to be 122 μmol/l; after five days her renal function is re-assessed and the creatinine has risen to 142 μmol/l.
      Which of the following is the reason for this?

      Your Answer: Decreased renal perfusion

      Correct Answer: Competitive inhibition of creatinine secretion

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanism of Trimethoprim-Induced Rise in Serum Creatinine

      Trimethoprim, a commonly used antibiotic, can cause a self-limiting and reversible rise in serum creatinine without affecting the true glomerular filtration rate (GFR). This is due to its competitive inhibition of creatinine secretion by the organic cation secretory pump. Other drugs that interfere with creatinine secretion, such as cimetidine, can also cause a similar effect. It is important to note that trimethoprim doesn’t directly affect renal blood flow, sodium and water excretion, or the distal tubular epithelial sodium channel. Understanding the mechanism of this rise in serum creatinine can help clinicians avoid unnecessary concern and prevent misinterpretation of renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he consumes over 60 units of alcohol per week. The GP conducts an assessment to ascertain if the patient has alcohol dependence syndrome.
      If the diagnosis is accurate, what is the most probable indication?
      Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Drinking is regular but family and career are considered more important in the individual’s life

      Correct Answer: Withdrawal symptoms

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: Symptoms and Behaviors

      Alcohol dependence syndrome is a serious condition that can have a significant impact on an individual’s life. Withdrawal symptoms are a common occurrence when someone tries to stop drinking, including feeling sick, trembling, sweating, and craving for alcohol. In some cases, convulsions and delirium tremens may occur. It is not uncommon for an individual to find it difficult to stop drinking due to these symptoms.

      Alcohol dependence syndrome can also have a negative impact on an individual’s family and career. The individual may find it difficult to function in both roles due to exhaustion and decreased sleep quality. Additionally, tolerance to alcohol tends to increase rather than decrease, requiring larger quantities to achieve the same effect.

      Reinstatement after a period of abstinence, commonly referred to as falling off the wagon, is a significant and common problem in addictive behavior. However, preferential drinking of spirits over beer is not necessarily an indication of alcohol dependence syndrome. It is important to understand the symptoms and behaviors associated with alcohol dependence syndrome to seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old patient with known alcohol dependency collapses outside his General Practice surgery....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient with known alcohol dependency collapses outside his General Practice surgery. He is displaying signs of seizure activity, with both his upper and lower limbs jerking. He is not known to be epileptic. His General Practitioner is in attendance within three minutes as the seizure stops and notes that the patient has bitten his tongue.
      Which of the following features would be most suggestive that this is an alcohol withdrawal seizure?

      Your Answer: Partial/focal seizure

      Correct Answer: Generalised tonic–clonic seizure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal Seizures

      Alcohol withdrawal seizures are a common occurrence in individuals who abruptly stop drinking. These seizures typically occur within 6-48 hours of the last drink and are often the first sign of alcohol withdrawal. They are major motor seizures that can last for a few minutes and are characterized by tonic-clonic movements. However, if the seizure lasts for more than 20 minutes, it may indicate an alternative cause and should be investigated further.

      It is important to note that alcohol withdrawal seizures usually occur in patients who have no previous history of seizures or epileptiform disorders. Electroencephalograms are usually normal, and only about 30-40% of patients progress to delirium tremens. If a patient has a past history of epilepsy or experiences a partial/focal seizure, it may indicate another cause and should be investigated further.

      Additionally, a prolonged post-ictal phase is very unusual in alcohol withdrawal seizures and should prompt consideration of another cause. Overall, understanding the characteristics and potential causes of alcohol withdrawal seizures can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 28-year-old heroin addict begins methadone treatment. What is the proper protocol for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old heroin addict begins methadone treatment. What is the proper protocol for notification?

      Your Answer: Notify National Drug Treatment Monitoring System without informing patient

      Correct Answer: Notify National Drug Treatment Monitoring System if patient consent obtained

      Explanation:

      Reporting Drug Misuse Cases

      Doctors are required to notify their local or national drug misuse center about patients who are struggling with drug misuse, particularly with opioids, benzodiazepines, and CNS stimulants. The contact details of these centers can be found in the BNF. The National Drug Treatment Monitoring System (NDTMS) collects data that helps in planning drug services and evaluating the efficiency and effectiveness of drug treatment provision.

      However, before sending patient data to the NDTMS, doctors must obtain consent from the patient. This is to ensure that patient confidentiality is maintained and that their privacy is respected. By reporting drug misuse cases, doctors can help in the provision of better drug treatment services and contribute to the overall improvement of public health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with neuropathic pain that has not...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with neuropathic pain that has not responded to amitriptyline. She has a medical history of severe congestive heart failure and is currently taking aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, furosemide, and ramipril. If the GP prescribes medication for her pain, what is the most common side effect she is likely to experience? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Dizziness

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Neuropathic Pain Medication for a Patient with Cardiac History: Understanding Side-Effects

      When treating a patient with neuropathic pain and a history of congestive cardiac failure, it is important to choose a medication that is safe and effective. The four options available are amitriptyline, gabapentin, pregabalin, and duloxetine. If the patient has already tried amitriptyline with no effect, one of the other three agents should be offered. However, caution must be taken with pregabalin and duloxetine due to their contraindications in heart failure.

      Gabapentin is the safest and best choice for this patient, as it has no contraindications or cautions in heart failure and doesn’t interact with any of her medications. While dizziness is a very common side-effect of gabapentin, affecting more than 1 in 10 people taking the drug, it is still the most likely side-effect she will experience.

      It is important to note that memory disturbance is not a side-effect of gabapentin, but is a common side-effect of pregabalin. Nausea is also a common side-effect of gabapentin, affecting between 1 in 10 to 1 in 100 people, but is less likely than dizziness. Palpitations, on the other hand, are a common side-effect of duloxetine, which is not the most appropriate medication to prescribe in this case. Finally, while urticaria is a common side-effect of gabapentin, it is less likely than dizziness. Understanding these side-effects can help clinicians make informed decisions when choosing the best medication for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - You are conducting an interview with a 35-year-old man who has increased his...

    Correct

    • You are conducting an interview with a 35-year-old man who has increased his alcohol consumption after a recent breakup. According to NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable method to screen for alcohol dependence and harmful drinking?

      Your Answer: AUDIT questionnaire

      Explanation:

      According to the Clinical Knowledge Summaries from NICE, it is recommended to utilize formal assessment tools to evaluate the extent and seriousness of alcohol misuse. This includes utilizing the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test) as a routine measure for identification purposes. This can assist in determining whether a brief intervention is necessary and, if so, what type of intervention is appropriate. In situations where time is limited, it is recommended to use a shortened version of the AUDIT, such as the AUDIT-C (AUDIT-Consumption), and then follow up with the complete questionnaire if problem drinking is indicated.

      Alcohol Problem Drinking: Detection and Assessment

      Alcohol problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. Therefore, it is important to detect and assess alcohol consumption to identify those who may need intervention. Screening tools such as AUDIT, FAST, and CAGE can be used to identify hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

      AUDIT is a 10-item questionnaire that takes about 2-3 minutes to complete. It has been shown to be superior to CAGE and biochemical markers for predicting alcohol problems. A score of 8 or more in men, and 7 or more in women, indicates a strong likelihood of hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption. A score of 15 or more in men, and 13 or more in women, is likely to indicate alcohol dependence. AUDIT-C is an abbreviated form consisting of 3 questions.

      FAST is a 4-item questionnaire that can quickly identify hazardous drinking. The score for hazardous drinking is 3 or more. Over 50% of people will be classified using just the first question, which asks how often the individual has had eight or more drinks on one occasion (six or more for women).

      CAGE is a well-known screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Two or more positive answers are generally considered a ‘positive’ result. The questions ask about feeling the need to cut down on drinking, being annoyed by criticism of drinking, feeling guilty about drinking, and having a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover.

      To diagnose alcohol dependence, the ICD-10 definition requires three or more of the following: compulsion to drink, difficulties controlling alcohol consumption, physiological withdrawal, tolerance to alcohol, neglect of alternative activities to drinking, and persistent use of alcohol despite evidence of harm.

      Overall, screening and assessment tools can help identify individuals who may need intervention for alcohol problem drinking. It is important to use these tools to promote early detection and intervention to prevent further harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 25-year-old woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes in seeking assistance with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes in seeking assistance with quitting smoking. She attempted to quit when she discovered she was pregnant at six weeks, but was unsuccessful. She inquires about the possibility of medication to aid her in quitting.
      What is the most suitable pharmacological approach for this patient, if any?

      Your Answer: All pharmacological therapy is contraindicated

      Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT)

      Explanation:

      Safe and Effective Smoking Cessation Aids for Pregnant Women

      Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is a recommended aid for smoking cessation in pregnancy, along with behavioral support. Compared to smoking, NRT poses lower risks as nicotine levels are much lower and the delivery method is less addictive. Varenicline is not routinely recommended due to limited efficacy and safety data. Bupropion is contraindicated for pregnant women. NRT can be offered at any stage of pregnancy to minimize adverse effects on the fetus. It is important to consider safe and effective options for smoking cessation during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 50-year-old heavy drinker is experiencing confusion, ataxia, and double vision. What vitamin...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old heavy drinker is experiencing confusion, ataxia, and double vision. What vitamin deficiency is most likely causing these symptoms? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Correct Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Common vitamin deficiencies and their associated symptoms

      Thiamine deficiency, often seen in individuals with a history of alcohol abuse, can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which presents with confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause macrocytic anaemia, glossitis, mouth ulcers, and neurological symptoms like paraesthesia and memory disturbance. Pellagra, a vitamin B3 deficiency, is characterised by diarrhoea, dermatitis, and dementia. Folate deficiency is commonly found in macrocytic anaemia and may present with symptoms like paraesthesia and fatigue. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to osteomalacia, which presents with bone and muscle pain and weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 60-year-old man has a history of alcohol dependence disorder for several years....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has a history of alcohol dependence disorder for several years. He is currently experiencing confusion, double vision, and an unsteady gait. Additionally, his short term memory is poor. He reports abstaining from alcohol for the past week. What is the urgent vitamin requirement for this patient?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      Urgent Treatment Needed for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Explanation: The most probable diagnosis for the patient is Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. The patient requires immediate treatment with vitamin B1 (thiamine) to prevent further damage to the brain. It is crucial to administer thiamine as soon as possible to avoid irreversible brain damage and potential death. Therefore, urgent medical attention is necessary to ensure the patient’s recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Among the patients listed below, which one is the most probable candidate for...

    Incorrect

    • Among the patients listed below, which one is the most probable candidate for having their Group 1 driving license denied or taken away?

      Your Answer: A 75-year-old woman who has taken temazepam every night for several years to help her sleep.

      Correct Answer: A 40-year-old woman who is taking a supra-therapeutic dose of diazepam as part of a benzodiazepine withdrawal programme

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines and Driving: Guidelines for Licensing

      Benzodiazepines, particularly long-acting ones, are known to impair driving performance, especially when combined with alcohol. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) has set guidelines for licensing regarding the use of these drugs.

      For Group 1 vehicles, persistent misuse or dependence on benzodiazepines will result in license refusal or revocation until a minimum of one year free of use has been achieved. For Group 2 vehicles, this period is extended to three years. The DVLA may require independent medical assessment and urine screening, as well as a favorable report from a consultant or specialist upon reapplication.

      The non-prescribed use of benzodiazepines or the use of supra-therapeutic doses, whether in a substance withdrawal/maintenance program or not, is considered misuse/dependence for licensing purposes. However, occasional misuse doesn’t constitute persistent misuse or dependence.

      Prescribed use of benzodiazepines at therapeutic doses, without evidence of impairment, is not considered misuse/dependence for licensing purposes, although clinical dependence may exist. It is important to note that any patient taking benzodiazepines may become unfit to drive at some point, but the guidelines are clear regarding licensing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a consultation after a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a consultation after a routine health check revealed an elevated level of γ-glutamyltransferase (γ-GT). He confesses to regularly consuming over 30 units of alcohol per week but doesn't exhibit any signs of alcohol dependence. What is the most accurate statement regarding brief interventions in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Brief interventions are not suitable for opportunistic use

      Correct Answer: They involve giving information, advice and support

      Explanation:

      Brief Interventions for Hazardous or Harmful Drinking

      Brief interventions are a valuable tool in addressing hazardous or harmful drinking. These interventions aim to identify potential problems and motivate individuals to take action. They are targeted at those who are not dependent on alcohol but may be at risk of developing problems. Brief interventions can range from a short 5-10 minute conversation to multiple sessions of motivational interviewing or counseling.

      During a brief intervention, patients are encouraged to consider both the negative and positive aspects of their drinking. If a patient decides to reduce their drinking, they are provided with support. These interventions are often opportunistic, meaning they are given when a patient is attending for another reason and has not necessarily expressed concern about their drinking.

      Brief interventions can be given by a variety of healthcare professionals, including general practitioners, nurses, hospital doctors, social workers, and probation officers. By providing early intervention and support, brief interventions can help prevent the development of more serious alcohol-related problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - You are concerned that alcohol seems to form a big part of a...

    Incorrect

    • You are concerned that alcohol seems to form a big part of a student's life. Although you have never observed any drinking while they are studying, there are often frequent references to it. They say it is just a reward to start winding down after classes. There have been no obvious problems with their academic performance. You are aware there is a fine-wine cellar at home. The only time you have witnessed drunkenness is late at night at parties when your student is with hard-drinking friends. There have been episodes of abstinence in the past – often very public, and once involving sponsorship.

      Which of the following principles is APPLICABLE in this scenario?

      Your Answer: People who drink expensive wines and spirits are not abusers of alcohol

      Correct Answer: Suggesting that drinking at the end of a hard day is a just reward may be a form of denial

      Explanation:

      Myths and Misconceptions about Alcohol Abuse in the Medical Field

      1. Drinking at the end of a hard day is a just reward. This common explanation for excessive alcohol consumption may be a form of denial and can lead to dependence on alcohol to relieve stress or difficult emotions.

      2. Alcohol abuse is incompatible with proper functioning as a doctor. While alcohol abuse can certainly have negative effects on a doctor’s performance, some individuals with alcohol dependence may not show signs of the problem in their workplace.

      3. Becoming drunk in the presence of other heavy-drinking medical colleagues doesn’t suggest an alcohol problem. Any form of alcohol abuse is still abuse, regardless of the setting or company in which it takes place.

      4. Having been able to give up alcohol on several occasions demonstrates an ability to control alcohol consumption. Briefly giving up alcohol doesn’t necessarily demonstrate control, as evidenced by the fact that the individual in question resumed drinking.

      5. People who drink expensive wines and spirits are not abusers of alcohol. Alcohol abuse can occur with any type of alcohol, and it is the quantity and pattern of consumption that are important factors to consider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with concerns about his fertility....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with concerns about his fertility. He and his partner have been trying to conceive for the past two years without success. He also reports that he has noticed his testicles appear to be shrinking. He is typically healthy, doesn't smoke or drink alcohol, exercises regularly, and is not taking any medications.
      During the examination, the patient is noted to have a muscular build, a BMI of 31 kg/m2 (normal range: 18–25 kg/m2), facial acne, and gynaecomastia.
      What is the most probable cause of his symptoms? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome

      Correct Answer: Anabolic steroid use

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of male infertility and related symptoms

      Anabolic steroid use, unexplained infertility, Cushing’s disease, Klinefelter syndrome, and obesity are among the possible causes of male infertility and related symptoms. Anabolic steroid use can lead to a range of unwanted effects, including acne, gynaecomastia, testicular shrinkage, and altered mood, as well as physical and psychological dependence. Unexplained infertility affects a significant proportion of infertile men and couples, but additional symptoms such as gynaecomastia and acne may suggest anabolic steroid use. Cushing’s disease, caused by a pituitary adenoma, can produce a distinct pattern of symptoms, including truncal obesity, muscle weakness, gonadal dysfunction, and impaired immune function, but in a young and muscular gym-goer, anabolic steroid use is more likely. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder affecting 1 in 660 men, can cause small testes, hypogonadism, infertility, gynaecomastia, and learning disability, but not testicular shrinkage or acne. Obesity, especially with a BMI over 30 kg/m2, can also impair fertility, but is not associated with testicular shrinkage or acne. A careful history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations can help to establish the underlying cause of male infertility and related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      1.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (8/50) 16%
Passmed