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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic and asks for progestogen-only birth control due to her mother's recent breast cancer diagnosis.
What are the characteristics of progestogen-only contraception?Your Answer: Causes HDL levels to rise
Explanation:Understanding the Effects of Hormonal Contraceptives on the Body
Hormonal contraceptives are widely used by women to prevent unwanted pregnancies. However, it is important to understand the effects of these contraceptives on the body. The combined oral contraceptive pill contains ethinyl oestradiol, which is metabolized in the liver. Changes in hepatic function may affect the metabolism of this hormone. While it has no clinically significant effect on liver, kidney, adrenal or thyroid function, it can increase high density lipoprotein (HDL) and decrease low density lipoprotein (LDL). On the other hand, progesterone, which is found in progestogen-only methods, increases LDL and decreases HDL.
Progestogen-only methods are recommended for women with certain medical conditions such as hypertension, superficial thrombophlebitis, history of thromboembolism, biliary tract disease, thyroid disease, epilepsy, and diabetes without vascular disease. These methods have no deleterious effect on blood pressure. Additionally, the progestogen-only pill is recommended for lactating women as the oestrogen component of the combined pills may interfere with lactation.
It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best contraceptive method for individual needs and medical history. Understanding the effects of hormonal contraceptives on the body can help women make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are consulting with a 50-year-old man who is experiencing erectile dysfunction. After a thorough discussion, he expresses interest in starting medication and you prescribe sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor (PDE-5). However, he brings up a concern about a friend who had a painful experience with prolonged erections while taking the medication and had to seek medical attention.
What underlying condition would increase the risk of priapism in a patient taking sildenafil?Your Answer: Diabetes
Correct Answer: Sickle-cell disease
Explanation:Men with sickle cell disease should be prescribed PDE-5 inhibitors with caution due to their increased risk of priapism, a painful and persistent erection that requires urgent medical attention. Similarly, individuals with a predisposition to priapism, such as those with multiple myeloma or leukemia, should also use these medications with caution. While PDE-5 inhibitors may be used in men with Peyronie’s disease or other anatomical abnormalities of the penis, caution should still be exercised. It is important to note that diabetes doesn’t increase the risk of priapism, but it is a risk factor for erectile dysfunction.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of difficulty in sustaining an erection. He had a heart attack 3 years ago and has been experiencing depression since then. Additionally, he has a history of uncontrolled hypertension. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is often caused by beta-blockers like bisoprolol, which are commonly prescribed to patients who have had a previous myocardial infarction (MI). While amlodipine can also cause ED, it is less common than bisoprolol. Isosorbide mononitrate doesn’t typically cause ED, but patients taking it should avoid taking sildenafil at the same time due to the risk of hypotension. Mirtazapine is a less common cause of sexual dysfunction, and sertraline is generally the preferred antidepressant for post-MI patients.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl comes to the surgery with concerns about sexually transmitted infections (STIs) after having unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) last night. She has a Nexplanon for contraception. According to the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FRSH), when is the most suitable time to test for STIs?
Your Answer: 1 and 6 months after an incident of UPSI
Correct Answer: 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of UPSI
Explanation:Contraceptive Options for Young People: Guidelines and Considerations
When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical issues that need to be considered. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may provide advice and contraception if they feel that the young person is competent. The Fraser Guidelines are used to assess competence, and practitioners must ensure that the young person understands their advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to have sex with or without contraception, and needs contraception for their physical or mental health.
Young people should also be advised to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. When it comes to choosing a contraceptive method, long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often recommended as young people may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.
In summary, providing contraception to young people requires careful consideration of legal and ethical issues, as well as the individual’s needs and preferences. STI testing and LARCs may be particularly important for this age group, but the potential risks and benefits of each method should be discussed with the young person to ensure they make an informed decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old smoker requests advice on contraception. She smokes 12 cigarettes per day, has a stable partner, and two children. She doesn't want any more children. She also reports heavy periods and would like to address this issue. During examination, her BMI is 30, and her blood pressure is 140/85. What is the best contraceptive option for her?
Your Answer: Levonorgestrel releasing IUS
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:Choosing the Right Contraceptive for a Smoker with Elevated BMI
Combined oral contraceptive pills are not recommended for smokers over 35 years old due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. This risk is further elevated in women with an elevated BMI. While the progesterone-only pill is an alternative, its effectiveness is reduced due to poor compliance. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this patient would be an IUD or IUS. The IUS may result in reduced menstrual flow after the first few months, and in some cases, periods may become very light or stop altogether. Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and lifestyle is necessary when selecting the most appropriate contraceptive method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female presented to the GP surgery with a left sided breast mass. Her mother and maternal aunt were diagnosed with breast cancer in their late forties. Following assessment, her GP suspects breast cancer and refers her under the 2 week rule for investigation. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.
How should she be advised regarding her contraception?Your Answer: She should be advised to change to the IUS for contraception as she would be able to continue with this should she subsequently be diagnosed with breast cancer
Correct Answer: She should stop the combined pill and use barrier contraception only until she has been investigated for her breast mass.
Explanation:Hormonal Contraception and Breast Health
When a woman is being investigated for a breast mass, continuation of combined hormonal contraception is considered safe and is classified as UKMEC 2. Similarly, a family history of breast cancer is not a contraindication to oestrogen-containing contraception, unless the patient is a known BRCA1/BRCA2 carrier, which is classified as UKMEC 3. However, for women aged 40 years and above, combined hormonal contraception is classified as UKMEC 2, and they can continue until their investigations are complete. On the other hand, the use of an intrauterine system (IUS) is contraindicated in patients currently being treated for breast cancer. It is important to consider these guidelines when making decisions about hormonal contraception and breast health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to you seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. She recently completed a course of TB treatment that involved rifampicin. She refuses to consider an IUD. What is the best option for emergency contraception?
Your Answer: Ulipristal acetate 60mg
Explanation:Emergency Contraception for Patients on Liver Enzyme-Inducing Drugs
When a patient is on liver enzyme-inducing drugs or has had a copper intrauterine device (IUD) inserted in the last 28 days, the copper IUD is recommended as first-line emergency contraception. However, if the patient declines this option, a higher dose of levonorgestrel (3mg) is recommended as second-line. Common drugs that induce liver enzymes include antiretrovirals, carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St John’s wort. It is important to note that ulipristal is not suitable for women on liver enzyme-inducing drugs, according to NICE guidelines. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of these recommendations and provide appropriate emergency contraception options for patients on liver enzyme-inducing drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old diabetic woman would like to discuss a copper IUCD device. She is a nulliparous lady who has had fertility problems and endometriosis in the past, but would like a reliable form of contraception after a recent divorce.
One week before seeing you, she mentioned to the nurse that she had been getting some intermenstrual bleeding and it was suggested that she makes an appointment to see you. You note that she had pelvic inflammatory disease when she was 20, but this was successfully treated as an inpatient.
Which one of the conditions given in the history is a contraindication to having a copper IUCD fitted?Your Answer: Fertility problems
Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Contraception Contraindications and Cautions
Contraception questions are commonly featured in the MRCGP exam, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the contraindications and cautions listed in the British National Formulary (BNF). In the BNF, unexplained uterine bleeding is listed as a contraindication, while the other items mentioned in the history are listed as cautions. It is important to note that there are other contraindications not mentioned in the history, such as pregnancy, current sexually transmitted infection, current pelvic inflammatory disease, and distorted uterine cavity. Familiarizing oneself with these contraindications and cautions is crucial in providing safe and effective contraception to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old female has an IUS. This was fitted 3 years previously. She has not had a period for 2 years. She asks her GP if the IUS can be removed as for the past 4 months she is getting monthly headaches and acne, which she attributes to the IUS. She is in a long term sexual relationship.
How should the GP counsel her regarding this?Your Answer: She should continue with her current IUS until aged 55 yrs when it can be removed
Correct Answer: She should have FSH levels checked at least 4 weeks apart to confirm a diagnosis of menopause. If both levels ≥30IU/L then contraception can be stopped after 24 months
Explanation:IUS and Menopause: Understanding the Connection
Her symptoms are unlikely to be caused by the IUS and may be related to ovulation, which is common in up to 75% of patients with an IUS. This doesn’t affect the effectiveness of the contraceptive. It’s important to note that amenorrhea is not a reliable indicator of menopause in patients on oestrogen and/or progesterone-containing contraception. Therefore, ongoing contraception is necessary.
For patients aged 45 years or older with an IUS fitted, the device can be maintained until aged 55 years if they are amenorrheic. At this point, menopause can be assumed to have occurred. If a patient wishes to confirm menopause, FSH levels can be checked. If both levels are >30IU/L 6 weeks apart, contraception can be stopped after 12 months.
Understanding the connection between IUS and menopause is crucial for patients and healthcare providers. By following the guidelines and recommendations, patients can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 10
Correct
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Samantha is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with you. She is in a committed relationship with another woman and they have regular unprotected intercourse. Samantha has no medical history and is currently undergoing gender reassignment using oestrogen and antiandrogen therapy, but has not had any surgical interventions yet.
What would be the most suitable form of contraception to recommend for Samantha?Your Answer: Barrier methods such as condoms
Explanation:If a patient was assigned male at birth and is undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone, there may be a decrease or cessation of sperm production. However, this cannot be considered a reliable method of contraception. In the case of a trans female patient, who was assigned male at birth, hormonal treatments cannot be relied upon for contraception. There is a possibility of her female partner becoming pregnant, and therefore, barrier methods are recommended. Hormonal contraceptives are not suitable for this patient, and the copper IUD is not an option as she doesn’t have a uterus.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.
For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.
In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 11
Correct
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You receive in your inbox the results of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test for a 25-year-old man. The antibodies and p24 antigen are reported as negative. You check the records and find it was requested by your colleague who is on holiday. The patient had requested an HIV test after an encounter with a sex worker; your colleague had asked him to attend the sexual health clinic but he had declined, wanting tests done via the GP. The HIV test had been taken 4 weeks after the episode.
What should the patient be informed about the negative HIV test result?Your Answer: HIV infection unlikely but test needs to be repeated at 12 weeks post-exposure
Explanation:If an asymptomatic patient initially tests negative for HIV, it is recommended to offer a repeat test at 12 weeks to confidently exclude the diagnosis. The preferred test for HIV is the combined HIV test for HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies and p24 antigen. It is important to note that although most cases of HIV infection can be detected by 4 weeks, a repeat test at 12 weeks is still recommended.
HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.
Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A woman who is in her 4th decade of life comes to discuss future contraception with you. This will be her 4th child and she has come to discuss sterilisation as she thinks this would be a good option for her after she has given birth. She is certain she doesn't want any further children and her family will be completed.
Which of the following is correct advice to give?Your Answer: Tubal occlusion is the only truly effective method of female sterilisation after childbirth
Explanation:Female Sterilisation as a Permanent Contraception Method
Female sterilisation is a safe and effective method of permanent contraception that can be performed immediately after childbirth or as a delayed interval procedure. The two common techniques for sterilisation are partial salpingectomy and tubal occlusion. However, before opting for female sterilisation, women should be informed about all methods of contraception, including vasectomy. The discussion should be open, transparent, and non-pressurised. It is important to note that some long-acting reversible contraceptive methods are as, or more, effective than female sterilisation and may provide non-contraceptive benefits such as improving menorrhagia with levonorgestrel intrauterine device use. Therefore, women should be fully informed about all their options before making a decision about permanent contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to see you asking for a prescription for the contraceptive pill. She attends alone and tells you that she has had a boyfriend for the last few months and they have recently started having sexual intercourse. He is the same age as she is and up until now they have used condoms but she is worried about becoming pregnant as a friend of hers recently became pregnant by accident and had a termination.
You discuss things in detail and she says that she is going to continue to be sexually active but doesn't want to get pregnant. She tells you that her parents do not know that she has a boyfriend or that she is sexually active. She cannot be persuaded to tell her parents and doesn't consent to your discussing things with them. You discuss the implications of having sex and also methods of contraception and she understands and retains your advice.
What is the most appropriate management in this situation?Your Answer: Advise her that because she is under 16 you should refer her to the local family planning clinic for them to assess her and advise
Correct Answer: Prescribe contraception and arrange follow up
Explanation:Fraser Guidelines for Young People’s Competence to Consent to Contraceptive Advice or Treatment
The Fraser guidelines provide a framework for healthcare professionals to determine whether a young person is competent to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment.
According to the guidelines, a young person is considered competent if they understand the doctor’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents or allow the doctor to inform the parents, are likely to start or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, their physical or mental health (or both) are likely to deteriorate if contraceptive advice/treatment is not given, and their best interests require the doctor to give advice/treatment without parental consent.
It is important to follow these guidelines as failure to provide contraceptive advice or treatment can put young people at risk of physical and mental harm, including unwanted pregnancies. In the UK, statistics suggest that about 30-40% of young people have had sexual intercourse by the time they are 16. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to assess young people’s competence to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male with diabetes is seeking sildenafil for his erectile dysfunction. What medications or conditions should be avoided when taking sildenafil?
Your Answer: Valsartan
Correct Answer: Nicorandil
Explanation:Contraindication of Sildenafil with Nitrates
Sildenafil should not be taken by patients who are also taking nitrates or nitrate derivatives such as nicorandil. If a patient is taking nitrates, they should stop taking them during the period when they are using sildenafil. This is because the combination of sildenafil and nitrates can cause a dangerous drop in blood pressure, which can lead to serious health complications. It is important for patients to inform their healthcare provider of all medications they are taking before starting sildenafil to avoid any potential contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 15
Correct
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What is the next most appropriate management step for a 40-year-old man with erectile dysfunction and repeat reduced serum total testosterone levels?
Your Answer: Prescribe intramuscular Nebido
Explanation:Referral and Treatment for Reduced Serum Testosterone
Patients with low levels of serum testosterone should be referred to secondary care for further investigation and treatment. This may involve consulting with an endocrinologist, urologist, or andrologist, depending on the area. Testosterone replacement therapy can be administered through topical testogel or intramuscular nebido, but it requires counseling and monitoring by secondary care before initiation. Ongoing monitoring may include checking the full blood count, lipids, and prostate-specific antigen levels. Since the test has already been repeated, there is little benefit in repeating it again in four weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who has sex with men comes to you with complaints of general malaise, right upper quadrant pain and yellowing of the eyes. He has had multiple casual sexual partners in the past few months and has not always used protection. He has not traveled abroad recently. During the physical examination, you notice that he is jaundiced, tender in the right upper quadrant, and has a palpable liver edge. What is the most probable infection in this case?
Your Answer: Hepatitis C
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hepatitis in a Middle-Aged Man
Although hepatitis can be caused by various viruses, the likelihood of acute infection decreases with age. In the case of cytomegalovirus (CMV) and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), these viruses are typically encountered before the age of 55, making acute infection less probable. While hepatitis A is a possibility, it is unlikely without a history of travel. Although hepatitis C can be transmitted sexually, its prevalence among men who have sex with men is lower than that of hepatitis B. Additionally, hepatitis B is more easily transmitted through sexual contact, making it a more probable diagnosis. It is important to note that there is a 5-10% chance of becoming a chronic carrier of hepatitis B.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman is seen regarding contraception. She has been taking the progestogen-only pill for six years and wishes to stop. She has been amenorrhoeic for 8 months.
One month ago, she presented with mood swings and a colleague checked her thyroid function and full blood count, which were both normal. Her FSH at the time was 51 (normal range less than 30).
According to the FSRH, what is the most appropriate advice to give?Your Answer: Contraception can stop aged 51
Correct Answer: She should use barrier contraception for six weeks then repeat FSH
Explanation:FSH Testing and Contraception in Perimenopausal Women
Current guidance from the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare advises that FSH levels can be measured in perimenopausal women using progestogen-only methods of contraception, but this should be limited to women over the age of 50. For women taking the progestogen-only pill, it is recommended to stop at age 55 when natural loss of fertility can be assumed for most women. However, if a woman over 50 with amenorrhoea wishes to stop before age 55, FSH levels can be checked. If the FSH level is above 30 IU/L, the contraception can be discontinued after one more year. If the FSH level is in the premenopausal range, the method should be continued, and the FSH level should be checked again after one year.
NICE NG23 recommends diagnosing perimenopause based on vasomotor symptoms and irregular periods, menopause in women who have not had a period for at least 12 months and are not using hormonal contraception, and menopause based on symptoms in women without a uterus. It is important to note that measuring serum hormone levels in perimenopausal women can be complex, and discontinuing contraception should generally be restricted to women over the age of 50, as they are more likely to be menopausal. Overall, FSH testing can be a helpful tool in determining when to discontinue contraception in perimenopausal women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A 36-year-old homosexual man presents to the local genitourinary clinic with a solitary painless penile ulcer and painful inguinal lymphadenopathy. He also reports rectal pain and tenesmus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lymphogranuloma venereum
Explanation:When it comes to genital ulcers, herpes is more common and typically causes pain. Chancroid, on the other hand, is less common and also painful. However, if the genital ulcer is painless, it is more likely to be caused by syphilis rather than lymphogranuloma venereum.
Understanding STI Ulcers
Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female presents with complaints of an offensive, frothy, yellow discharge from the vagina accompanied by vulva itch and dysuria. During pelvic examination, punctuate mucosal haemorrhages are observed on the cervix. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Trichomonas Vaginalis Infection
Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan that can cause malodorous frothy discharge in some individuals, but many are asymptomatic. The organism can be seen under microscopic examination of vaginal secretions in saline, where trophozoites with three flagella can be observed moving. In some cases, a ‘strawberry cervix’ with punctuate mucosal haemorrhages may be present. Treatment for trichomonas infection is typically metronidazole 400 mg BD for seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female visits the GP clinic seeking a referral for varicose vein surgery. She is in good health and currently using the combined hormonal contraceptive patch for birth control. What advice should be given to her regarding her contraception?
Your Answer: She should be offered alternative contraception from 4 weeks prior to her operation. Her combined hormonal contraceptive can be started from 4 weeks after she is fully mobilising
Correct Answer: She should be offered alternative contraception from 4 weeks prior to her operation. Her combined hormonal contraceptive can be started from 2 weeks after she is fully mobilising
Explanation:Contraception and Major Surgery
Major surgery, which includes surgery lasting more than 30 minutes, all lower limb surgeries, and surgeries resulting in prolonged immobilization of a lower limb, requires special consideration for patients who are using combined hormonal contraceptives. To avoid potential complications, patients should be offered alternative contraception options four weeks prior to their operation. Once the patient is fully mobilizing, typically two weeks after the surgery, they can resume their combined hormonal contraceptive.
It is important to note that patients who are unable to stop their combined hormonal contraceptive prior to surgery should not resume use until they are fully mobilizing. This information is crucial for healthcare providers to communicate to their patients to ensure safe and effective contraception management during and after major surgery. By following these guidelines, patients can avoid potential complications and continue to receive the contraceptive care they need.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of urinary frequency, dysuria, and a urethral discharge. He recently returned from a trip to Spain with his friends and has been experiencing pain during ejaculation. On examination, his prostate is tender. Laboratory results show a white cell count of 11.2 ×109/L (4-10). Based on this information, which organism is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas
Correct Answer: C. trachomatis
Explanation:Prostatitis and STIs: A Possible Link
The history of a recent lads’ holiday to Spain has raised concerns about the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection (STI) causing prostatitis. Two common STIs, Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, are known to cause prostatitis. If a sexual cause is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to a genitourinary medicine (GUM) clinic for appropriate contact tracing and screening for other STIs. This will help to identify any potential sources of infection and prevent the spread of STIs. It is important to be aware of the link between prostatitis and STIs, and to take appropriate measures to protect oneself from infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old transgender man comes to your clinic for a follow-up on his testosterone treatment. He discloses that he had unprotected vaginal sex three days ago and doesn't want to conceive.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Prescribe double-dose testosterone therapy as emergency contraception and advise the patient that testosterone therapy is contraindicated in pregnancy
Correct Answer: Prescribe emergency contraception and advise the patient that testosterone therapy is contraindicated in pregnancy
Explanation:Transgender males who are on testosterone therapy should be aware that this treatment doesn’t prevent pregnancy. In the event that a patient becomes pregnant, testosterone therapy is not recommended as it can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. Instead, emergency contraception should be prescribed and the patient should be advised against continuing testosterone therapy during pregnancy. It is important to note that emergency contraception is still safe for patients on testosterone therapy. While discussing the risk of sexually transmitted infections is important, it is not a substitute for effective contraception. While a future pregnancy test may be necessary, the immediate priority is to provide emergency contraception. It is also important to note that testosterone therapy is not a form of emergency contraception and that other options, such as a copper intrauterine device or specific medications, should be considered.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.
For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.
In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 23
Correct
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A 25-year-old patient comes to you with complaints of painful ulcers on the shaft of his penis. He reports having a new sexual partner recently, but she has not shown any symptoms. The patient feels generally unwell and has tender enlarged inguinal lymph nodes on both sides. He denies experiencing dysuria or urethral discharge.
What could be the possible diagnosis?Your Answer: Herpes simplex
Explanation:Syphilis, Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), and donovanosis (granuloma inguinal) can all lead to the development of genital ulcers that are not accompanied by pain. However, in the case of the patient who has recently changed sexual partners and is not experiencing any other symptoms, herpes simplex is the more probable cause of the painful genital ulcers. Behcets may also cause painful genital ulcers.
Understanding STI Ulcers
Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes in with complaints of an itchy and irritated foreskin that has been bothering him for the past 2 weeks. He admits to feeling embarrassed about seeking medical attention. The patient denies any recent sexual activity or new sexual partner and has never experienced this issue before. Upon examination, the foreskin appears slightly swollen and erythematous, with no signs of urethral discharge or other rashes in the groin or penis area.
What is the recommended initial treatment for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Mupirocin 2% ointment daily
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1% and clotrimazole cream daily
Explanation:The patient is suffering from nonspecific balanitis and should be treated with a combination of hydrocortisone and antifungal cream. This treatment may help improve the condition, and if it fails, it can provide diagnostic clues to the underlying cause. Betamethasone dipropionate is not necessary for this condition, but it may be appropriate for more severe conditions like lichen sclerosis. Clotrimazole cream alone may not be effective in relieving the irritation, and hydrocortisone cream alone may not treat a potential fungal cause. Mupirocin is not useful in this situation as it is an antibacterial product used for gram-positive skin infections like impetigo.
Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment
Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.
Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Sophie, a 25-year-old female, attends the GP surgery on a Wednesday afternoon at 14:00 after having had an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse the preceding Saturday night at 23:00. She is not currently using any contraception.
Her last menstrual period was 12 days prior to the episode and she has not had any previous episodes of unprotected sexual intercourse. She has a regular period every 30 days. She has never been pregnant. Her PMH includes Migraines and Eczema. DH - sumatriptan prn, emollients. She has no known drug allergies. She is requesting emergency contraception and wishes to have ongoing contraception.
Which is the single most appropriate management from the options below?Your Answer: She should be offered ellaone (ulipristal acetate) and advised to commence the combined contraceptive pill after 5 days using additional barrier contraception until seven days after the pill is commenced
Correct Answer: She should be offered ellaone (ulipristal acetate) and quick started on the combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Emergency Contraception for Naomi
Naomi has presented more than 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI), making Levonelle ineffective. Additionally, she is taking a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) which can reduce the effectiveness of ulipristal acetate. Therefore, the most appropriate management for her is the emergency intrauterine device (IUD), which is the most effective emergency contraceptive and provides ongoing contraceptive cover. It is important to note that progesterone-containing contraception should be delayed until after 5/7 after ellaone (ulipristal acetate) to reduce the risk of it being less effective as an emergency contraceptive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 26
Correct
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A 27-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a urethral discharge.
Upon laboratory examination of the discharge, it is revealed that there are numerous neutrophils present, some of which contain Gram negative intracellular diplococci.
The patient is administered ceftriaxone 250 mg intramuscularly, which initially resolves the symptoms. However, the patient returns five days later with the same complaint.
What is the most probable cause of this discharge?Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Chlamydia: A Common and Often Asymptomatic STD
Chlamydia is a prevalent sexually transmitted disease that often goes unnoticed due to its asymptomatic nature. In fact, 75% of women and 25% of men with Chlamydia show no symptoms, making it difficult to detect and treat. However, this disease can have serious consequences, including infertility.
In men, the main symptoms of Chlamydia include clear, white, or yellow discharge from the urethra, dysuria, and tingling or itching sensations. It is important to note that Chlamydia often co-occurs with Gonorrhoea, and patients should be treated for both if Gonorrhoea is suspected. Failure to treat both infections can result in the return of symptoms and potential complications. Therefore, it is crucial to practice safe sex and get tested regularly to prevent the spread of Chlamydia and other STDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old single mother has recently joined your practice. She is interested in continuing with depot medroxyprogesterone acetate injection for contraception but cannot recall when she last received the injection. There are no indications or indications of pregnancy, and she had sexual intercourse 10 days ago (with a condom) and began her regular period four days ago. What guidance would you offer?
Your Answer: Use a bridging method such as POP until the next period, then administer the injection at the onset of menses
Correct Answer: Repeat the injection and advise avoidance or barrier method for 7 days after the injection
Explanation:Guidance on Timing of Depot Injection and Pregnancy Testing
When it comes to administering depot medroxyprogesterone acetate injections, it is important to consider the timing of the previous injection and the possibility of pregnancy. If the timing of the previous injection is unknown, it is recommended to repeat the injection as long as it is reasonably certain that the woman is not pregnant. This can be determined if there are no signs or symptoms of pregnancy and if the woman meets certain criteria, such as not having had sexual intercourse since the last normal menses or using a reliable method of contraception correctly and consistently.
If a woman has had sexual intercourse within the past three weeks, a pregnancy test should be performed no sooner than three weeks since the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse and should be negative before administering the injection. However, if the woman’s last menstrual period was within seven days, it is considered reasonably certain that she is not pregnant and the injection can be given without a pregnancy test.
It is important to advise the woman to avoid intercourse or use a barrier method of contraception for seven days after the injection. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure the safety and effectiveness of depot medroxyprogesterone acetate injections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy. She has been consistently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for the past six years and has two children aged 7 and 9. However, she had unprotected sexual intercourse 12 hours ago and failed to restart her pill three days ago after her week break. She is now seeking advice on post coital contraception. The patient's medical history includes severe trigeminal neuralgia, and she has been taking carbamazepine for the past three months. Based on FSRH guidance, what would be your approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer: Emergency contraception not necessary
Explanation:Emergency Contraception Options and Considerations
The copper IUD is the most effective emergency contraception option, with a low documented failure rate. It can be inserted up to five days after the first episode of unprotected sexual intercourse or five days after the estimated date of ovulation. The IUD prevents implantation and is toxic to sperm.
Levonorgestrel is another option, licensed for use within 72 hours of UPSI (may be effective up to 96 hours). It primarily inhibits ovulation and may be used more than once in a cycle. However, its effectiveness may be reduced in women taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs, such as carbamazepine. In such cases, a double dose of 3mg may be used off-license, but the effectiveness of this has not been studied.
Ulipristal acetate is as effective as levonorgestrel up to 120 hours (five days) and delays or inhibits ovulation. However, it binds to progesterone receptors, so an additional method of contraception is required if on COCP or POP.
All eligible women presenting within 120 hours of UPSI or within five days of expected ovulation should be offered a copper IUD, ideally at first presentation. If this is not possible, oral emergency contraception can be given in the interim, with the woman advised to return for the IUD at the earliest appropriate time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are conducting a medication review for a 65-year-old man who has been diagnosed with erectile dysfunction and is currently taking sildenafil. He reports that the medication is effective and wishes to continue using it. As a healthcare professional, what is the maximum quantity of sildenafil tablets that can be prescribed to this patient per month under the NHS?
Your Answer: 2 tablets per month
Correct Answer: As many tablets as the patient says he requires
Explanation:Patients with erectile dysfunction can now receive an unlimited amount of generic sildenafil through NHS prescriptions. Previously, only patients with specific medical causes of erectile dysfunction were eligible for sildenafil prescriptions, and the medication was limited to four tablets per month under the Selected List System (SLS) scheme of the Drug Tariff. However, these restrictions have been lifted, and NICE guidance now recommends that GPs assess monthly quantities on an individual basis. Despite this, some patients are still being limited to four tablets a month due to outdated prescribing habits. It should be noted that the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends using sildenafil a maximum of once daily.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man from London presents to you with a complaint that he has been treated by one of your colleagues for oral thrush for several months, but the topical treatment has not been effective. During the history-taking, you discover that he is also on an oral anticoagulant for a DVT that occurred without any apparent cause, and he has recently experienced an outbreak of shingles. He has not taken any antibiotics recently. He informs you that he has recently separated from his long-term male partner. Upon examination, he appears thin and has typical Candida on his tongue and palate. Which of the following tests would be the most appropriate?
Your Answer: Oesophago-gastroduodenoscopy (OGD)
Correct Answer: HIV test
Explanation:Oral Candidiasis and Immune System Defects
Oral candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a fungal infection that can occur in the mouth and throat. While it can affect anyone, it should always raise suspicion of an underlying defect of the immune system in young healthy individuals. Further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the infection.
In London, men who have sex with men have a high rate of HIV, with some estimates as high as 15%. Therefore, HIV infection is the most likely diagnosis for oral candidiasis in this population. It is important to consider this possibility and test for HIV to ensure proper treatment and management.
In addition to oral candidiasis, a weakened immune system can also lead to other health issues. For example, HIV infection is a predisposing factor for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a blood clot that forms in a deep vein, typically in the leg. Recurrent attacks of shingles in a young person may also be a result of a weakened immune system. Therefore, it is important to investigate the underlying cause of these conditions to ensure proper treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents requesting contraception to a general practice.
Which one of these statements is true with respect to condoms?Your Answer: All condoms can be used safely by people with latex allergy
Correct Answer: Condoms can be prescribed on a GP prescription
Explanation:Condoms in General Practice
Condoms cannot be prescribed in general practice in the UK, but local Clinical Commissioning Groups (CCGs) may have other arrangements for condom supplies. It is important to note that condoms pre-lubricated with spermicide are not recommended as they may increase the risk of HIV transmission. However, condoms in general do help prevent HIV transmission. It is also important to understand that condoms are not as effective at preventing pregnancy as hormonal and intrauterine methods. Condoms are typically made of either latex or polyurethane, and individuals with a latex allergy should stick to polyurethane condoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man presents with a lesion on his penis - clinically this is suggestive of syphilis. On questioning he is in a relationship with another man.
With regard to syphilis, which one of the following statements is true?Your Answer: Serology VDRL and specific antibodies should not be conducted in primary care
Correct Answer: He should be managed in primary care setting
Explanation:Syphilis on the Rise Among Men Who Have Sex with Men
There has been a recent increase in syphilis cases, particularly among men who have sex with men. Confirming the diagnosis requires multiple tests and thorough contact tracing, making it important to refer cases to a specialist center. Testing for HIV is also recommended, as the two conditions are often associated. While serology can be conducted in a primary care setting if syphilis is suspected, secondary syphilis can present with a range of different rashes, including a non-itchy macular-papular rash that often affects the palms and soles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old patient who has just enrolled in college comes in for a meningitis ACWY vaccine. While waiting, he notices a poster about Chlamydia screening and inquires about getting tested despite not experiencing any symptoms.
What type of sample needs to be collected for the test?Your Answer: Urethral swab
Correct Answer: Urine
Explanation:The most appropriate screening test for asymptomatic males to detect chlamydia is a urine test. This is preferred over blood serology, urethral swab, or semen sample as it is less invasive and has similar sensitivity to urethral swab. It is important to note that Chlamydia infection can often be asymptomatic, so screening is still recommended even in the absence of symptoms.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a week long history of an offensive smelling greenish-yellow vaginal discharge with associated dysuria but not frequency. She doesn't complain of lower abdominal pain but admits to dyspareunia.
She has not been seen by you personally at the clinic and has social problems with frequent episodes of homelessness. She is unkempt and admits to sleeping on the streets. She refuses your request that she should be seen at the local genito-urinary medicine (GUM) clinic but asks you for treatment so that she can leave. Her scant records are full of did not attend entries.
Examination reveals a greenish-yellow discharge but is otherwise unremarkable and you suspect that this lady has uncomplicated gonorrhoea.
According to the latest NICE guidance, what is the single most appropriate approach for this woman?Your Answer: Empirically treat with Co-Amoxiclav 625mg orally for 10 days
Correct Answer: Azithromycin 1g orally as a single dose
Explanation:Approaching a Question on Gonorrhoea Treatment
When faced with a question on gonorrhoea treatment, it is important to exercise judgement and use examination technique to narrow down the options. For instance, if a patient is asking for treatment and has a history of non-compliance with previous follow up, referring them to gynaecology and taking a swab may not be useful if they are refusing referral to a genito-urinary medicine (GUM) clinic.
In such a scenario, the three treatment options left are the focus. While it is important to have some understanding of the guidance, even if one is unfamiliar with the individual drugs and doses, knowing that the current first line recommendation involves IM Ceftriaxone as a single dose can help narrow down the choices. This approach is useful in the actual AKT examination, where one may not know everything, but can increase their chances of success by logically narrowing down the options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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You are reviewing the health of a 60-year-old man who has hypertension, a history of myocardial infarction 10 months ago, and depression. He is currently taking amlodipine, ramipril, sertraline, atorvastatin, and aspirin. He reports feeling generally well but mentions experiencing erectile dysfunction since starting his medications after his heart attack.
Which medication is most likely responsible for this man's erectile dysfunction?Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction is a side-effect that is considered uncommon for amlodipine and ramipril, according to the BNF. However, SSRIs are a frequent cause of sexual dysfunction, making them the most probable medication to result in ED.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 36
Correct
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A teenager calls the clinic for guidance and is connected to you as the on-call physician. She had an uncomplicated medical abortion 13 days ago and had unprotected sex last night. She is uncertain if she requires emergency contraception. She has no specific contraception contraindications.
What is the most suitable recommendation to provide?Your Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and the copper intrauterine device is the only treatment option
Explanation:Emergency Contraception Options Post-Abortion
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends emergency contraception if unprotected sexual intercourse occurs from five days post-abortion. There are three safe options for emergency contraception: oral levonorgestrel 1.5 mg, ulipristal acetate 30 mg, and the copper intrauterine device. The copper intrauterine device is the most effective, with a pregnancy rate of approximately 1 in 1000 when used for emergency contraception. However, it carries the same contraindications as when used for regular contraception. It is important to consider all options and consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best choice for individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old woman comes in seeking post-coital contraception after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse four days ago.
Which one of these statements is true regarding post-coital contraception?Your Answer: Levonorgestrel cannot be given beyond 72 hours after sexual intercourse
Correct Answer: An IUD cannot be fitted more than five days from sexual intercourse
Explanation:Timing and Options for Emergency Contraception
When it comes to emergency contraception, timing is crucial. If ovulation can be estimated, an IUD can be inserted up to five days after the expected date of ovulation. On the other hand, levonorgestrel can be taken beyond the recommended 72-hour window, but its effectiveness may be reduced. It can also be repeated within the same menstrual cycle. In cases where condoms are the only form of contraception, additional levonorgestrel may be prescribed. However, it’s important to note that pharmacists will not sell levonorgestrel to males. By understanding the timing and options for emergency contraception, individuals can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is concerned about the possibility of having contracted a sexually transmitted infection after having sex with a new partner while on vacation with friends. He is not experiencing any symptoms but is anxious about the potential risk. You suggest that he visit the local sexual health clinic for specialized screening, but he is hesitant due to concerns about being recognized by someone he knows. As an alternative, you discuss the various tests that can be conducted in your general practice. You inform him that while you can collect some initial samples now, he will need to return for additional testing at a later time as it is still too early to detect any new infections.
What is the appropriate timing for submitting a sample for Chlamydia screening for this patient?Your Answer: 6 weeks
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:When to Get Tested for Chlamydia
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that often doesn’t show any symptoms. Therefore, it is important to get tested regularly if you are sexually active. The recommended time to get tested for chlamydia is at presentation and then again two weeks after a possible exposure. This is because it can take up to two weeks for the infection to show up on a test. If symptoms do develop, testing should be done immediately. It is also recommended to get tested again at six weeks and three months after a possible exposure to ensure that the infection has been fully treated. Remember, early detection and treatment of chlamydia is crucial for preventing long-term health complications.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to you with concerns about his erectile dysfunction. He has a clean medical history except for a bout of depression that occurred six years ago. What is the accurate statement regarding prescribing sildenafil for him?
Your Answer: It should be prescribed on a private basis regardless of the past medical history
Correct Answer: It may be freely prescribed on the NHS
Explanation:In 2014, sildenafil was removed from the list of restricted medications and can now be prescribed without limitations.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents for her postnatal check at eight weeks. She previously took microgynon 30 for contraception, which she was very happy with as it gave her a lighter regular menstrual cycle. She is mainly breastfeeding with occasional top up formula feed. She is currently using condoms. She had a normal delivery with no perinatal complications. She would prefer to restart microgynon if possible.
According to the latest UKMEC guidance, what is the most appropriate contraception option for her going forward?Your Answer: She should be offered the intrauterine system for control of her periods as well as ongoing contraception
Correct Answer: She should be advised to continue with condoms for contraception
Explanation:Contraceptive Options for Breastfeeding Mothers
New UKMEC criteria (2016) state that breastfeeding mothers can use combined hormonal contraceptives from ≥ 6 weeks (UKMEC 2). However, if the mother is not fully breastfeeding, she may not be adequately protected against unwanted pregnancy. In such cases, condoms could be an appropriate option, but if the mother prefers to use CHC, which is not contraindicated, condoms may not be the most appropriate option.
An intrauterine system is a good option for ongoing contraception and managing periods, but if the patient prefers the combined oral contraceptive pill, which is not contraindicated, it should be offered as her preferred method of contraception. While the progesterone-only pill is an option, it may not provide the regular cycle that the patient desires, and her preferred choice (CHC) is not contraindicated. In summary, breastfeeding mothers have several contraceptive options available to them, and the most appropriate option should be offered based on their individual preferences and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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