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  • Question 1 - Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind:

      Your Answer: Fc region

      Explanation:

      Fc Receptors include the IgG receptors (FcγR), high-affinity IgE receptor (FcεRI), IgA and IgA/IgM receptors, and neonatal Fc receptor for IgG (FcRn). In particular, the FcγRs have been well known to play an important role in many biologic processes including those associated with the response to infection and cancer as well as in the pathogenesis of immune-mediated diseases. Fc receptors, the receptors for the Fc region of immunoglobulins, play an essential role in antibody-dependent immune responses. Fc receptors are detected on many types of hematopoietic cells including macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and NK cells. Plasma cells produce five classes of antibodies, IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG and IgM. Fc receptors with an Ig superfamily related structure exist that correspond to each of these classes of immunoglobulins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct?

      Your Answer: Mean = mode = median

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean. The normal distribution has the following properties:
      – It is symmetric around the mode, the median and the mean of the distribution.
      – It is unimodal
      – The area under the curve and over the x-axis is unity (i.e. equal to one).
      – Its density has two inflection points.
      – Its density is log-concave.
      The standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean. SD = square root (variance)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and low-grade temperature. Yesterday he developed extensive painful ulceration of his mouth and gums. On examination his temperature is 37.4ºC, pulse 84 / min and there is submandibular lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Explanation:

      This man has gingivostomatitis, a characteristic feature of primary herpes simplex virus infection. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is often the initial presentation during the first (primary) herpes simplex infection. It is of greater severity than herpes labialis (cold sores) which is often the subsequent presentations. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is the most common viral infection of the mouth.
      Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis (PHGS) is caused predominantly by HSV-1 and affects mainly children. Prodromal symptoms, such as fever, anorexia, irritability, malaise and headache, may occur in advance of disease. Sub-mandibular lymphadenitis, halitosis and refusal to drink are usual concomitant findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old male patient presents with haematemesis. Gastroscopy and biopsy reveal a carcinoma....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents with haematemesis. Gastroscopy and biopsy reveal a carcinoma. Who is the one to inform the patient of his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: The consultant in-charge of his care

      Explanation:

      One of the questions the therapist poses himself while informing a patient is: whom shall I inform about the diagnosis, treatment and prognosis? If we unconditionally accepted the view that information belongs to the patient from an ethical and legal standpoint, we would automatically exclude the partner and the family. Therefore, the therapist should raise another question: what is the benefit to the patient? To answer the question and the resulting dilemma, we have to leverage the long experience of family therapy and tailor it to the cases we are dealing with. It should be taken into consideration that patient and family are a dynamic system which was balanced before the onset of the disease, but is now disrupted, entering into crisis. Therefore, the denial mechanisms and personality characteristics we have previously elaborated on, and communication among members play a crucial role in determining the information strategy and the way family should be approached. In this particular case, the most appropriate person to inform the patient is the consultant, meaning the one currently responsible for the patient’s care. The patient most probably has already developed some form of close and trustful relationship with his consultant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Intracellular proteins tagged with ubiquitination are destined to which of the following organelles?...

    Correct

    • Intracellular proteins tagged with ubiquitination are destined to which of the following organelles?

      Your Answer: Proteasome

      Explanation:

      Delivery of ubiquitinated substrates to the proteasome.
      Ubiquitinated proteins are delivered to the proteasome by various routes and the complete picture of how these pathways fit together has yet to emerge, reviewed in. Some substrates bind directly to the proteasome by interacting with the 19S regulatory particle subunits Rpn1028 or Rpn1329, and probably Rpt530. Alternatively, ubiquitinated substrates can be brought to the proteasome by adaptors that bind both the proteasome and the ubiquitin chain on the substrate to deliver it for degradation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasma gondii

      Explanation:

      The common congenital infections encountered are rubella, toxoplasmosis and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK. Maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
      Congenital toxoplasmosis is associated with fetal death and abortion, and in infants, it is associated with neurologic deficits, neurocognitive deficits, and chorioretinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Cholecystokinin is secreted from: ...

    Correct

    • Cholecystokinin is secreted from:

      Your Answer: I cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) was discovered in 1928 in jejunal extracts as a gallbladder contraction factor. It was later shown to be member of a peptide family, which are all ligands for the CCK1 and CCK2 receptors. CCK peptides are known to be synthetized in the small intestinal endocrine I-cells and cerebral neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - One of your colleagues shares with you the fact that he is HBV...

    Correct

    • One of your colleagues shares with you the fact that he is HBV positive. He's a general surgeon in the local hospital and he's afraid that if people know he might lose his job. However, you try to convince him that it's important to inform occupational health but he explicitly refuses. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Inform your colleague's employing body

      Explanation:

      According to the updated GMC guidelines, patient safety is more important than anything else, thus the correct thing to do is inform your colleague’s employing body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than usual. She has not attended the previous three annual check-ups and her blood glucose control has been poor. She has not been compliant with his medications. Blood pressure is 170/90 mmHg. Urinalysis shows microalbuminuria. A blood test reveals her glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 26mL/min. If a renal biopsy was to be performed in this patient, what would be the expected findings?

      Your Answer: Nodular glomerulosclerosis and hyaline arteriosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has a poorly controlled T2DM with an underlying diabetic nephropathy. The histological findings are Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions (nodular glomerulosclerosis) and hyaline arteriosclerosis. This is due to nonenzymatic glycosylation.

      Diabetic nephropathy is the chronic loss of kidney function occurring in those with diabetes mellitus. Protein loss in the urine due to damage to the glomeruli may become massive, and cause a low serum albumin with resulting generalized body swelling (edema) and result in the nephrotic syndrome. Likewise, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) may progressively fall from a normal of over 90 ml/min/1.73m2 to less than 15, at which point the patient is said to have end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). It usually is slowly progressive over years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following phases determines the length of the cell cycle? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following phases determines the length of the cell cycle?

      Your Answer: G1

      Explanation:

      The duration of these cell cycle phases varies considerably in different kinds of cells. For a typical rapidly proliferating human cell with a total cycle time of 24 hours, the G1 phase might last about 11 hours, S phase about 8 hours, G2 about 4 hours, and M about 1 hour. The proliferation of most animal cells is similarly regulated in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. In particular, a decision point in late G1, called the restriction point in animal cells, is the point at which the cell becomes committed to the cell cycle and after which extracellular proliferation stimulants are no longer required.. Although the proliferation of most cells is regulated primarily in G1, some cell cycles are instead controlled principally in G2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following statements regarding interleukin 1 (IL-1) is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding interleukin 1 (IL-1) is true?

      Your Answer: It is released mainly by macrophages/monocytes

      Explanation:

      Interleukin 1 alpha and interleukin 1 beta (IL1 alpha and IL1 beta) are cytokines that participate in the regulation of immune responses, inflammatory reactions, and hematopoiesis. It is secreted mainly by macrophages and monocytes and acts as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She is managed with antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of the most commonly used first line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      In adults, the most common symptom of meningitis is a severe headache, occurring in almost 90% of cases of bacterial meningitis, followed by nuchal rigidity (the inability to flex the neck forward passively due to increased neck muscle tone and stiffness). Other signs commonly associated with meningitis include photophobia (intolerance to bright light) and phonophobia (intolerance to loud noises).
      In the United Kingdom empirical treatment consists of a third-generation cefalosporin such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. In the USA, where resistance to cefalosporins is increasingly found in streptococci, addition of vancomycin to the initial treatment is recommended. Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and monobactams all act via inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Empagliflozin was found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction...

    Correct

    • Empagliflozin was found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction and non-fatal stroke when added to standard treatment plans in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. This information was shared in 2015 by The New England Journal of Medicine and the results were expressed per 1000 patient years. In fact, empagliflozin had an event rate of 37.3/1000 patient years and placebo an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years. How many patients who are at high cardiovascular risk need to be treated with empagliflozin to prevent a cardiovascular death, a non-fatal myocardial infarction or a non-fatal stroke?

      Your Answer: 150

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is an absolute effect measure that has been used to assess beneficial and harmful effects of medical interventions. In this case the NNT can be calculated as follows: NNT = 1/ Absolute risk reduction (ARR). ARR=(Control event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) – (Experimental event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) = 43.9-37.3 = 6.6/1000 patient years

      NNT=(Patient years)/ARR = 1000/ 6.6 = 151.5. The closest to 151.5 is 150, thus it is the correct answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      69.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the site of action of antidiuretic hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the site of action of antidiuretic hormone?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      Vasopressin, also called antidiuretic hormone (ADH), regulates the tonicity of body fluids. It is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.. An incidental consequence of this renal reabsorption of water is concentrated urine and reduced urine volume. In high concentrations may also raise blood pressure by inducing moderate vasoconstriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla:

      Your Answer: Metadrenaline

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The major endocrine functions of adrenal gland are to produce catecholamines and steroids. Catecholamine, synthesized by the adrenal medulla, is responsible for blood pressure and blood flow regulation whereas steroids produced by the cortex control energy and water homeostasis and immune responses. Glucocorticoids, a major group of adrenal steroids, have a stimulatory effect on catecholamine synthesis in the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle weakness. She's noticed that her muscle weakness becomes worse towards the end of the day. Clinical examination reveals fatigable ptosis and proximal limb weakness. Myasthenia gravis is suspected. Which receptor is implicated in the pathophysiology of this condition?

      Your Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an organ-specific autoimmune disease caused by an antibody-mediated assault on the muscle nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction. Binding of antibodies to the AChR leads to loss of functional AChRs and impairs the neuromuscular signal transmission, resulting in muscular weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the...

    Incorrect

    • A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the potential efficacy of a new drug, which may reduce the chance of patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) developing gout. In one study 120 out of 1,200 patients receiving the new drug developed gout. The total number of the patients were 2,000 and the remaining 800 individuals received a placebo. From the patients that had received the placebo, 200 developed gout. What is the absolute risk reduction of developing gout?

      Your Answer: 120

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate) = 0.15 = 15%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at...

    Incorrect

    • A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge. What pulse abnormality is most associated with patent ductus arteriosus if that's her suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulsus alternans

      Correct Answer: Collapsing pulse

      Explanation:

      DIAGNOSIS:
      A consensus definition for hemodynamically significant PDA is lacking. The diagnosis is often suspected clinically, when an infant demonstrates signs of excessive shunting from the arterial to pulmonary circulation. Continuous or a systolic murmur; note, a “silent” PDA may also occur when the ductus shunt is large enough that nonturbulent flow fails to generate a detectible murmur.
      A low diastolic blood pressure (due to runoff into the ductus during diastole, more frequent in the most premature infants).
      A wide pulse pressure (due to ductus runoff or steal)Hypotension (especially in the most premature infants)
      Bounding pulses
      Increased serum creatinine concentration or oliguria
      Hepatomegaly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Randomised control trials offer the following level of evidence: ...

    Incorrect

    • Randomised control trials offer the following level of evidence:

      Your Answer: IIb

      Correct Answer: Ib

      Explanation:

      1B: Individual Randomised Control Trial (with narrow confidence intervals)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      73.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Choose the correct statement regarding standard polymerase chain reaction: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding standard polymerase chain reaction:

      Your Answer: A thermostable DNA polymerase is required

      Explanation:

      In the PCR, DNA amplification is performed by thermostable enzymes; invariably either family A DNA polymerases from thermophilic and hyperthermophilic Bacteria or family B DNA polymerases from hyperthermophilic Archaea. Family Y DNA polymerase from the hyperthermophilic archaeon Sulfolobus solfataricus, Sso-polY, is also an enzyme marketed for PCR, but with specialist applications. Each thermostable DNA polymerases has different characteristics and to achieve optimal results, the choice of a PCR enzyme depends on the application itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (15/20) 75%
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