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  • Question 1 - A 24-year-old man is seen with a severe asthma exacerbation, which is typically...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man is seen with a severe asthma exacerbation, which is typically controlled with maximal inhaled corticosteroid and LABA. He has presented with worsening symptoms of cough and wheeze, which his partner reports began two days ago with a heavy cold. What is the appropriate clinical management for this patient?

      Your Answer: High-flow O2 should be avoided if possible

      Correct Answer: Normal heart rate is always associated with a good prognosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tachycardia and Bradycardia in Acute Asthma

      Tachycardia is a common symptom in acute asthma, but severe attacks may also lead to episodes of bradycardia. A peak flow measurement of only 30% of predicted indicates severe airway obstruction and requires immediate admission and aggressive treatment. While oximetry is useful for assessing oxygenation, it cannot provide information on CO2 retention or acid-base status. Therefore, high-flow oxygen should always be administered in the management of acute asthma.

      Understanding the symptoms and measurements associated with acute asthma is crucial for effective management. Tachycardia and bradycardia are two possible heart rate changes that may occur during an asthma attack. Additionally, a peak flow measurement of 30% or less of predicted indicates severe airway obstruction and requires prompt medical attention. While oximetry is useful for assessing oxygenation, it cannot provide a complete picture of the patient’s respiratory status. Therefore, high-flow oxygen should always be given to patients with acute asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 2 - A 61-year-old complains of breathlessness for six months.

    He has recently been to the...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old complains of breathlessness for six months.

      He has recently been to the hospital for spirometry testing and these are his post bronchodilator results:

      FEV1/FVC ratio 0.65

      FEV1 (% predicted) 57%

      A colleague has given him a short acting muscarinic antagonist but he has returned because he has persistent breathlessness.

      Which of the following would be included in the next step?

      Your Answer: Antitussive therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Moderate COPD

      Patients with an FEV1/FVC ratio <0.70 and an FEV1 of 50-79% predicted are classified as having stage 2 moderate COPD. The initial management for this condition is a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. However, if symptoms persist, a long acting beta agonist or a long acting muscarinic antagonist may be used. Inhaled corticosteroids alone are not recommended, but may be used in combination with a long acting beta agonist as a second line treatment for patients with FEV1 <50% and asthmatic features. Maintenance use of oral corticosteroid therapy is not recommended, and antitussive therapy should also be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 3 - A 23-year-old woman is barely responsive in the waiting area. What single feature...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman is barely responsive in the waiting area. What single feature would indicate possible opioid overdose?

      Your Answer: Sweating

      Correct Answer: Hypotension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Opioid Toxicity

      Acute opioid toxicity is a serious condition that can result in drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, and respiratory depression. The severity of symptoms may be exacerbated if alcohol or other sedatives are also involved. Hypotension is a common occurrence, and both tachycardia and bradycardia may be observed. Hypoventilation can lead to hypoxia-induced cardiac arrhythmias, and pinpoint pupils may be present. Sweating is more commonly associated with acute opioid withdrawal. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you suspect acute opioid toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 4 - A 63-year-old man with newly diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with newly diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a follow-up appointment. His FEV1 is 60% of the predicted value. He has successfully quit smoking and has been using a salbutamol inhaler as needed. However, he still experiences wheezing and difficulty breathing. There is no indication of asthma, eosinophilia, or FEV1 fluctuations.

      What would be the best course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Refer for consideration of long-term oxygen therapy

      Correct Answer: Add a combined long-acting beta2-agonist and long-acting muscarinic antagonist inhaler

      Explanation:

      If a patient with COPD is still experiencing breathlessness despite using SABA/SAMA and doesn’t exhibit any features that suggest responsiveness to steroids or asthma, the recommended course of action according to the 2018 NICE guidelines is to introduce a combination of a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA).

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old retired factory worker comes to the clinic complaining of left-sided pleuritic...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old retired factory worker comes to the clinic complaining of left-sided pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a smoking history of five to ten cigarettes per day since he was in his twenties.

      During the physical examination, the patient exhibits clubbing, and chest auscultation reveals decreased air entry and dullness to percussion on the left side. A chest x-ray shows pleural thickening and a pleural effusion on the left side.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mesothelioma

      Correct Answer: Fibrosing alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Clubbing and Mesothelioma as a Differential Diagnosis

      Clubbing can be caused by respiratory, gastroenterological, and cardiac conditions. Respiratory causes include cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, lung carcinoma, fibrosis, and mesothelioma. Gastroenterological causes include lymphoma, inflammatory bowel disease, and cirrhosis. Cardiac causes include cyanotic heart disease, atrial myxoma, and bacterial endocarditis.

      In this case, the patient presents with clubbing and respiratory symptoms, making it difficult to determine the exact cause. However, the patient’s occupational history as a dock worker puts them at risk for mesothelioma, a type of cancer caused by exposure to asbestos. Mesothelioma is more likely than other options due to the patient’s age, clinical and chest x-ray findings of pleural thickening and effusion. It is important to consider mesothelioma as a differential diagnosis in patients with clubbing and a history of asbestos exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old man presents with sudden difficulty breathing and a known history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with sudden difficulty breathing and a known history of asthma. You are evaluating the severity of his asthma attack and suspect it may be classified as acute severe. What is a characteristic of this classification?

      Your Answer: O2 saturations <92%

      Correct Answer: Inability to complete full sentences

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 7 - You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient attends for follow-up. He has a diagnosis of COPD (FEV1/FVC= 0.68, FEV1=46% predicted) and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. He has noted progressive ankle swelling over last year but has not suffered any exacerbations in this time. He currently takes a tiotropium inhaler as well as a combination inhaler of salmeterol/fluticasone with a salbutamol inhaler when required, his inhaler technique has been assessed as good. In the clinic, his arterial blood gas results on air give a pO2 of 7.3kPa and 7.8kPa respectively from today and from clinic two months ago. He continues to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation therapy.

      The patient would like to be considered for home oxygen therapy. According to current NICE guidelines, what advice should you give him?

      Your Answer: No proven survival benefit of long term oxygen has been demonstrated in COPD patients

      Correct Answer: Home oxygen is contraindicated as she is a current smoker

      Explanation:

      What are the indications for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in COPD patients?

      In COPD patients, LTOT is typically indicated when their PaO2 is less than 7.3kPa when stable. However, this threshold is increased to less than 8kPa if they have secondary polycythemia, pulmonary hypertension, or peripheral edema. Arterial oxygen concentration should be assessed when stable and with at least two readings taken at least three weeks apart. To achieve the greatest effect, supplementary oxygen should be used for more than 20 hours per day, but a minimum of 15 hours per day is required.

      Maintenance oral corticosteroid use is not routinely recommended and should only be considered when it is not possible to fully wean steroids between exacerbations.

      As per the 2018 NICE update to the COPD guidelines, LTOT is no longer recommended for current smokers.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old female presents to the rheumatology clinic with progressive dyspnea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old female presents to the rheumatology clinic with progressive dyspnea. She has been taking medication for her rheumatoid arthritis for an extended period. During examination, her oxygen saturation levels on room air are found to be at 89%. Further investigations reveal bilateral interstitial shadowing on her chest x-ray. Which medication is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Infliximab

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience a range of respiratory problems. These can include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, and pleurisy. Additionally, drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis, such as methotrexate, can lead to complications like pneumonitis. In some cases, patients may develop Caplan’s syndrome, which involves the formation of massive fibrotic nodules due to occupational coal dust exposure. Finally, immunosuppression caused by rheumatoid arthritis treatment can increase the risk of infection, including atypical infections. Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential respiratory complications in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 9 - What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids?

      Your Answer: Growth restriction has been shown in children who used the recommended doses

      Correct Answer: Hoarseness is a side-effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Inhaled Corticosteroids: Uses, Benefits, and Side Effects

      Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used to manage reversible and irreversible airways disease. They can also help distinguish between asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) when used for 3-4 weeks. If there is clear improvement over this period, it suggests asthma. In COPD, inhaled corticosteroids can reduce exacerbations when combined with an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist. However, it’s important to use corticosteroid inhalers regularly for maximum benefit, and improvement of symptoms usually occurs within 3-7 days.

      While inhaled corticosteroids are generally safe, high doses used for prolonged periods can induce adrenal suppression. However, in children, growth restriction associated with systemic corticosteroid therapy and high dose inhaled corticosteroids doesn’t seem to occur with recommended doses. Although initial growth velocity may be reduced, there appears to be no effect on achieving normal adult height. The most common side-effects are hoarseness, throat irritation, and candidiasis of the mouth or throat. Candidiasis can be reduced by using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water or cleaning a child’s teeth after taking a dose. Paradoxical bronchospasm is a rare occurrence.

      In summary, inhaled corticosteroids are a valuable tool in managing airways disease, but it’s important to use them as directed and be aware of potential side-effects. With proper use, they can provide significant relief and improve quality of life for those with asthma and COPD.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 10 - A 44-year-old man collapsed with sudden onset breathlessness associated with haemoptysis earlier that...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man collapsed with sudden onset breathlessness associated with haemoptysis earlier that day. He is usually fit and well with no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medication.

      His family brought him, unannounced, to the surgery reception and when you see him he appears pale and he feels noticeably short of breath at rest. He is complaining of sharp pains in the right side of his chest when he breathes in.

      Clinical examination reveals a patient who is short of breath at rest. His blood pressure is 98/68, pulse rate is 108 bpm and his respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturations are 93 % in room air. His temperature is 36.2 °C. Auscultation of the heart and lungs is normal. He has no calf swelling.

      There is no history of gastric ulceration or drug allergies.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate immediate next step in the assessment and management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange an immediate 'blue-light ambulance' for rapid transfer to hospital without any delay

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Pulmonary Embolism

      When a patient presents with sudden onset breathlessness, haemoptysis, pleuritic pain, hypotension, tachycardia, increased respiratory rate, and low oxygen saturations, pulmonary embolism (PE) should be suspected. It is important to note any risk factors that may increase the likelihood of an embolism. The absence of signs of deep vein thrombosis doesn’t exclude the possibility of a PE.

      Immediate admission to the hospital should be arranged for patients with suspected PE who have signs of haemodynamic instability or are pregnant or have given birth within the past 6 weeks. Management should not be delayed for results of a chest X-ray or ECG. Therefore, the correct option is to arrange immediate transfer to the hospital by blue light. Prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug fails to appreciate the possibility of pulmonary embolism and should not be selected.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of suspected PE is crucial to prevent morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old man with a history of psoriasis complains of dyspnoea during physical...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of psoriasis complains of dyspnoea during physical activity. Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation is 94% on room air, heart rate is 90 beats per minute, and his chest reveals diffuse fine inspiratory crackles. Spirometry shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.8. Which medication could be responsible for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate can lead to pulmonary fibrosis, while there is no evidence to suggest that terbinafine, paracetamol, montelukast, and tramadol have this side effect. The onset of pulmonary fibrosis due to low-dose methotrexate use can occur within weeks to months.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 12 - During a home visit to a 58-year-old patient with a lower respiratory tract...

    Incorrect

    • During a home visit to a 58-year-old patient with a lower respiratory tract infection, who is also housebound due to motor neurone disease, you review her medications. What regular medication/s should you consider initiating?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to provide daily vitamin D supplements to all patients who are confined to their homes.

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 13 - What is the recommended course of action in the management of an adult...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended course of action in the management of an adult with asthma who is on low dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) but doesn't show improvement after the introduction of a long acting beta agonist (LABA)?

      Your Answer: Change inhaled steroid to oral steroid

      Correct Answer: Stop long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) and increase dose ICS

      Explanation:

      BTS Guidance on Low Dose ICS and LABA Treatment

      According to the 2016 BTS guidance, if a patient taking a low dose ICS doesn’t respond to the addition of a LABA, the LABA should be discontinued. Instead, healthcare providers should consider increasing the dose of ICS. It is important to note that options suggesting only an increase in ICS dose without stopping the LABA are incorrect.

      This guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for patients with respiratory conditions. By carefully monitoring patient response to medication and adjusting treatment as needed, healthcare providers can help improve patient outcomes and quality of life. Proper medication management can also help reduce the risk of adverse effects and complications associated with respiratory conditions.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old man presents for his yearly asthma check-up. He uses inhaled beclomethasone...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents for his yearly asthma check-up. He uses inhaled beclomethasone propionate at a dosage of 100 micrograms, 2 puffs twice daily, and has a salbutamol inhaler for symptom relief. His Asthma Control Test (ACT) score is 25 out of 25. What is the most suitable approach to managing his inhalers?

      Your Answer: Add in leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)

      Correct Answer: Reduce beclomethasone dipropionate dose by 25-50%

      Explanation:

      Adding an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) would not be the appropriate course of action at this time. It should only be considered as an add-on therapy if the patient’s asthma remains uncontrolled despite regular use of inhaled corticosteroids.

      Similarly, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) would not be recommended at this stage. It should only be considered if the patient’s asthma remains uncontrolled despite using a combination of LABA and ICS, or if low-dose ICS is insufficient.

      Doubling the dose of beclomethasone dipropionate would also not be the correct approach. This would result in a medium dose of ICS, which is only recommended if the patient remains symptomatic despite a combination of low-dose ICS and LABA. Alternatively, an LTRA may be added.

      Stopping beclomethasone dipropionate and relying solely on salbutamol as needed would not be advisable. Any reduction in ICS should be done gradually to minimize the risk of worsening symptoms.

      Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines

      The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.

      Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old secretary presents to you with an increased dry cough and an...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old secretary presents to you with an increased dry cough and an intermittently wheezy chest at night, eight weeks after seeing the respiratory nurse at the surgery. She reports no fevers and no difficulties in breathing. Currently, she is taking Fostair (Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg) combination inhaler, 1 puff twice daily, and salbutamol as needed for shortness of breath. Previously, she was using Clenil (Beclomethasone 100 mcg), but feels that the new inhaler has helped slightly since her last appointment with the nurse. According to the latest SIGN/BTS guidance, what would be the next step in managing her asthma?

      Your Answer: Prescribe amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for five days

      Correct Answer: Increase the Fostair to two puffs twice daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Chronic Asthma in Adults

      When managing chronic asthma in adults, it is important to consider the patient’s current treatment plan and symptoms. In this scenario, the patient is already taking a combination inhaler and is experiencing suboptimal control of her asthma. It is important to note that this is not an acute attack and the children’s guidelines do not apply. Antibiotics are not recommended as the symptoms are not consistent with an infective exacerbation. Increasing the usage of salbutamol is also not recommended as the patient needs better overall control of her symptoms. Instead, the dose of the inhaled corticosteroid should be increased, which is in line with the next step in the treatment of asthma in adults according to the British Thoracic Society guidelines. It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with both SIGN and NICE guidance and be able to compare and contrast their advice.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 16 - A patient of yours with COPD who is in his 60s wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient of yours with COPD who is in his 60s wants to travel to Spain on holiday. He plans to fly, but is prepared to drive and take the ferry if you tell him that he is not fit to do so.

      You currently manage his COPD with a high dose seretide inhaler and PRN salbutamol. On examination at the surgery he looks relatively well. He has good bilateral air entry on auscultation of his chest and sparse bilateral wheeze.

      How far should he be able to walk without shortness of breath to be able to fly?

      Your Answer: 500 m

      Correct Answer: 25 m

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Safe Air Travel

      When it comes to air travel, there are certain guidelines that need to be followed to ensure a safe journey. One of the most important factors is the ability to walk 50 meters on level ground or climb one flight of stairs without experiencing shortness of breath. This is usually indicative of being able to fly without any issues.

      Another important consideration is the hypoxic challenge test, which mimics the conditions on the plane. If the PaO2 level is less than 55 mmHg, it is not recommended to fly. At rest, the oxygen saturation level should be 95% or higher.

      If you have had a pneumothorax, it is recommended to wait for at least two weeks before considering air travel. This is especially important if the pneumothorax has been conservatively managed. Only after there is evidence that the pneumothorax has resolved should you consider flying.

      By following these guidelines, you can ensure a safe and comfortable air travel experience.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old ex-smoker presents with worsening shortness of breath. You can see from...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old ex-smoker presents with worsening shortness of breath. You can see from his records that over the last couple of months, he has had three courses of antibiotics for chest infections. He confirms that despite the recent treatments his symptoms have persisted and he continues to bring up sputum. He tells you that he has come to see you today because over the last week he has felt more unwell with increased shortness of breath, headache and dizziness.

      On examination, he has obvious oedema of the face and upper body with facial plethora. There is marked venous distention affecting the upper chest and face. Soft stridor is audible.

      What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is a blockage of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      The typical features of SVCO include facial and upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Other symptoms may include dizziness, syncope, and headache due to pressure effect. This gentleman is an ex-smoker and has a persistent productive cough that has not responded to repeated antibiotic use, which is suspicious of an underlying lung malignancy.

      Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds is crucial, and immediate referral for specialist assessment is necessary. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO becomes a medical emergency.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 18 - You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive...

    Correct

    • You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in the practice. She is updating the practice team about how to perform and interpret spirometry correctly.

      What is the appropriate number and quality of spirometry readings needed for precise evaluation of patients with respiratory conditions?

      Your Answer: Patients should keep having attempts at blowing until two sets of readings within 10% of each other are recorded

      Explanation:

      Spirometry Procedure for Health Care Providers

      To perform spirometry, a clean, disposable, one-way mouthpiece should be attached to the spirometer. The patient should be instructed to take a deep breath until their lungs feel full and then hold their breath long enough to seal their lips tightly around the mouthpiece. The patient should then blast the air out as forcibly and fast as possible until there is no more air left to expel, while the operator verbally encourages them to keep blowing and maintain a good mouth seal.

      It is important to watch the patient to ensure a good mouth seal is achieved and to check that an adequate trace has been achieved. The procedure can be repeated at least twice until three acceptable and repeatable blows are obtained, with a maximum of 8 efforts. Finally, there should be three readings, of which the best two are within 150 mL or 5% of each other. By following these steps, health care providers can accurately measure a patient’s lung function using spirometry.

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  • Question 19 - You are conducting an annual COPD review for Mrs. Patel. You quickly refer...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an annual COPD review for Mrs. Patel. You quickly refer to the latest NICE guidelines.

      Which of the following factors in her medical history would warrant the prescription of prophylactic antibiotics?

      Your Answer: A recent CT scan showed a degree of bronchiectasis

      Correct Answer: He has had 5 exacerbations in the past year

      Explanation:

      Patients with COPD who experience frequent exacerbations and meet specific criteria are recommended to undergo azithromycin prophylaxis. According to NICE guidelines, this treatment should be considered for non-smokers, patients who have already undergone pulmonary rehabilitation and are on the maximum inhaled therapy, and those who have had more than four exacerbations resulting in hospitalization with sputum production. Before starting the antibiotics, patients should undergo a CT scan to eliminate other lung pathologies.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

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  • Question 20 - You have been asked to advise whether the household contacts of a case...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to advise whether the household contacts of a case of pertussis need further management apart from antibiotics.
      The household consists of the case who is a 2-year-old child, his siblings, who are 4 and 6 (and have had their immunisations to date), parents aged 31 and 33 and grandmother aged 63. There is also a lodger, a student aged 19, who is out of the house for much of the time.
      You are aware that the case and his siblings should all complete their primary immunisation course and preschool boosters as planned. The mother did not receive the vaccine during pregnancy.
      Which of the adults should be offered post-exposure immunisation?

      Your Answer: Parents only

      Correct Answer: All of them: the lodger, parents and grandmother

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Immunisation for Pertussis: Guidelines and Recommendations

      According to The Green Book, post-exposure immunisation with pertussis-containing vaccine should be offered to all household contacts over 10 years of age who have not received a dose of pertussis-containing vaccine in the last five years and no Td-IPV vaccine in the preceding month. This is a new recommendation in guidelines published in February 2011. The rationale for this is that the duration of immunity conferred by immunisation is increased by the addition of the preschool booster, which was only introduced in October 2001.

      Children born before November 1996 would have been eligible for only three primary doses of (whole cell) pertussis-containing vaccine during infancy, and immunity is likely to have waned in these individuals. Therefore, contacts over 10 may benefit from a dose of pertussis-containing vaccine. Studies have shown the safety and immunogenicity of a tetanus/low dose diphtheria/low dose acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine in adolescents and adults up to 65.

      It is important to note that all household contacts aged 10-64 should be offered post-exposure immunisation, not just those in closest contact with the case. This includes the lodger, parents, and grandmother in the given scenario. The 6-month-old case should complete their course of primary immunisation and have the preschool booster dose as planned, while the 3- and 5-year-old contacts should complete their normal course of primary vaccination and preschool booster as planned to prolong the duration of immunity.

      In summary, understanding and implementing key national guidelines for respiratory problems, such as post-exposure immunisation for pertussis, is important for healthcare providers.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 21 - A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He reports feeling breathless and his heart racing late at night. These episodes are causing him significant worry. His wife notes that he snores loudly and sometimes stops if he changes position. Additionally, he has been taking short naps during the day which is impacting his work as an IT technician. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and obesity.

      What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Drug-induced sleep endoscopy (DISE)

      Correct Answer: Polysomnography (PSG)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome

      Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.

      To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.

      Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.

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  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old female presents with episodic wheezing and shortness of breath for the...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female presents with episodic wheezing and shortness of breath for the past 5 months. She has smoked for the past 7 years and has a history of eczema. Examination of her chest is unremarkable. Spirometry is arranged and is reported as normal.

      What would be the most suitable course of action now?

      Your Answer: Fractional exhaled nitric oxide + spirometry/bronchodilator reversibility test

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that individuals who are suspected to have asthma undergo both FeNO testing and spirometry with reversibility.

      Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.

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  • Question 23 - What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnoea? ...

    Correct

    • What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnoea?

      Your Answer: Macrognathia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Sleep Apnoea

      Sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Apart from this, there are other common symptoms that may be experienced by individuals with this condition. These include apparent personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less common symptom. Sleep apnoea may also be associated with other medical conditions such as acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia.

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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with a cough and wheeze.

    Which...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with a cough and wheeze.

      Which of the following features would suggest that further investigation or specialist referral is necessary?

      Your Answer: Unilateral wheeze

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Wheeze and Poor Asthma Control

      All the symptoms of asthma are present, but a peak flow of less than 300 indicates poor control. However, a unilateral wheeze may indicate a foreign body or tumor, especially in children. Therefore, further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the wheeze.

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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old man with asthma presents for a follow-up appointment. He complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with asthma presents for a follow-up appointment. He complains of not getting enough relief from his salbutamol inhaler and finds himself using it more frequently.

      You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates the steps of removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, exhaling before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down the canister while inhaling slowly, and then exhaling.

      What suggestions could you offer to improve his technique?

      Your Answer: She should deliver 2 doses while breathing in

      Correct Answer: She should hold her breath for 10 seconds after delivering the dose

      Explanation:

      To ensure adequate drug delivery, it is important to use proper inhaler technique, which includes shaking the inhaler, taking a slow breath in, holding the breath for 10 seconds, and waiting 30 seconds between doses.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

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  • Question 26 - A 21-year-old man is worried about having asthma. What factor in his medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is worried about having asthma. What factor in his medical history would decrease the likelihood of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Smoking since age of 16 years

      Correct Answer: Peripheral tingling during episodes of dyspnoea

      Explanation:

      According to the British Thoracic Society, if a patient experiences peripheral tingling, it is less likely that they have asthma. However, the patient’s smoking history doesn’t rule out asthma as a diagnosis, and given his age, it is highly unlikely that he has COPD.

      Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.

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  • Question 27 - You are conducting an asthma review on a 20-year-old man who is currently...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an asthma review on a 20-year-old man who is currently only using a short-acting beta-2-agonist (SABA). In what situations does NICE recommend prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid for this patient?

      Your Answer: Using an inhaled SABA two times a week

      Correct Answer: Being woken by asthma symptoms once weekly or more

      Explanation:

      NICE Recommendations for Prescribing Inhaled Corticosteroids in Asthma Patients

      NICE advises prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid in patients with asthma who use an inhaled SABA three times a week or more, experience asthma symptoms three times a week or more, or are woken up by asthma symptoms once a week or more. Additionally, NICE recommends considering an ICS if the patient has had an asthma attack requiring oral corticosteroids in the past two years. These recommendations aim to improve asthma control and reduce the risk of exacerbations. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that their patients receive appropriate treatment for their asthma symptoms.

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  • Question 28 - What is the suggested starting dosage of oral prednisolone for the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the suggested starting dosage of oral prednisolone for the treatment of acute severe asthma in adults?

      Your Answer: 40-50 mg daily for at least 10 days

      Correct Answer: 60 mg daily for at least 10 days

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatment for Acute Asthma

      When it comes to treating acute asthma, steroid tablets and injected steroids are equally effective. A dose of oral prednisolone of 40-50 mg per day for at least five days or intravenous hydrocortisone 400 mg can be used. It is important to continue taking prednisolone until recovery, which should be a minimum of five days. Additionally, it is important to not stop inhaled corticosteroids during the prescription of oral corticosteroids. By following these key points, patients can effectively manage their acute asthma symptoms.

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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old gentleman visits the clinic to discuss the findings of his recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman visits the clinic to discuss the findings of his recent spirometry test. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath for the past six months. Previously, he could walk comfortably to the pub at the far end of the village to meet his old friends from the steelworks, but he has been struggling to keep up with them for some time. He quit smoking four years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day since his 20s. He occasionally uses a salbutamol inhaler, which he has been prescribed for the past two years.

      What is the recommended course of action for this patient's treatment, as per the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries guidelines?

      Your Answer: Budesonide 200 micrograms 1 puff BD

      Correct Answer: Formoterol 12 micrograms 1 puff BD

      Explanation:

      Spirometry and Management of COPD

      In spirometry, a ratio of FEV1/FVC less than 0.7 indicates the presence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A diagnosis of stage 3 (severe) COPD is made when FEV1 is between 30-49% predicted. Smoking cessation is crucial in managing COPD. If a person prescribed with a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) or short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) remains breathless or experiences exacerbations, a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) or long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be offered. It is recommended to discontinue treatment with a SAMA if prescribing a LAMA. A regular LAMA is preferred over a regular SAMA four times daily. It is important to note that this approach differs from the PCRS approach, which categorizes treatment based on phenotypic groups for patients with predominant breathlessness, exacerbations, or COPD with asthma.

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  • Question 30 - After the 2014 National Review of Asthma Deaths, what is the minimum number...

    Incorrect

    • After the 2014 National Review of Asthma Deaths, what is the minimum number of salbutamol prescriptions in the last 6 months that should trigger an immediate assessment of a patient's asthma management?

      Your Answer: 20

      Correct Answer: 12

      Explanation:

      The National Review of Asthma Deaths (NRAD) found that only 23% of the 195 people who died from asthma had personal asthma action plans, and 43% had not had an asthma review in general practice in the year before their death. The report identified factors that could have avoided death in relation to the implementation of asthma guidelines by health professionals, including lack of specific asthma expertise and knowledge of UK asthma guidelines. The report recommended referral to secondary care for patients requiring BTS stepwise treatment 4 or 5, assessment of inhaler technique at annual review, monitoring of non-adherence to inhaled corticosteroids, and the use of combination inhalers.

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  • Question 31 - A 68-year-old man presents with a dry cough and progressive exertional dyspnoea that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a dry cough and progressive exertional dyspnoea that has been worsening over the past nine months. He quit smoking 30 years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles and finger clubbing are noted, while his oxygen saturations are 97% on room air and respiratory rate is 14/min. The following investigations were conducted:

      B-type natriuretic peptide 88 pg/ml (< 100pg/ml)

      ECG: sinus rhythm, 72/min

      Spirometry

      FEV1 1.57 L (50% of predicted)
      FVC 1.63 L (39% of predicted)
      FEV1/FVC 96%

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary pulmonary hypertension

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      A common scenario for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis involves a man between the ages of 50 and 70 who experiences worsening shortness of breath during physical activity. This is often accompanied by clubbing of the fingers and a spirometry test that shows a restrictive pattern. The absence of elevated B-type natriuretic peptide levels makes it highly unlikely that the patient is suffering from heart failure.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is commonly seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation.

      To diagnose IPF, spirometry is used to show a restrictive picture, with FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, and FEV1/FVC increased. Impaired gas exchange is also observed, with reduced transfer factor (TLCO). Imaging tests such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scanning are used to confirm the diagnosis. ANA is positive in 30% of cases, while rheumatoid factor is positive in 10%, but this doesn’t necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease.

      Management of IPF involves pulmonary rehabilitation, and very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. Pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant. Unfortunately, the prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years.

      In summary, IPF is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. It is diagnosed through spirometry and imaging tests, and management involves pulmonary rehabilitation and medication. However, the prognosis for IPF is poor, and patients may require a lung transplant.

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  • Question 32 - Can carbon monoxide poisoning cause pink skin and mucosae? ...

    Incorrect

    • Can carbon monoxide poisoning cause pink skin and mucosae?

      Your Answer: Hyperpyrexia

      Correct Answer: Blue skin and mucosae

      Explanation:

      Pink skin and mucosae are indicative of carbon monoxide poisoning.

      Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.

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  • Question 33 - Sarah, a 63-year-old woman, is seen accompanied by her daughter. Her daughter explains...

    Correct

    • Sarah, a 63-year-old woman, is seen accompanied by her daughter. Her daughter explains that Sarah lives alone and had problems getting to the clinic without assistance.

      Whilst out running errands together earlier today Sarah briefly passed out with what seems to be a fainting episode. She recovered quickly but her daughter is concerned as Sarah seems to be quite breathless on walking on the flat and has to keep stopping every 50 metres. Her face has also become rather puffy. Sarah has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and smokes 5 cigarettes per day.

      On examination you notice prominent veins over the upper chest and her face is mildly oedematous. There is a harsh fixed wheeze in the right upper lung.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a course of steroids and review in one day

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Cava Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Cava Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is an obstruction of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external venous compression due to a tumour, enlarged lymph nodes, or other enlarged mediastinal structures. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      The typical features of SVCO include facial/upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Impaired venous return can cause symptoms of dizziness and even result in syncopal attacks. Headache due to pressure effect is also seen.

      Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds and immediate referral for specialist assessment is crucial. The presence of any stridor or laryngeal oedema makes SVCO a medical emergency. Treatment typically involves steroids and radiotherapy, with chemotherapy and stent insertion being indicated in some cases.

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  • Question 34 - A 32-year-old man presents with a complaint of a sore throat. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a complaint of a sore throat. What is not included in the Centor criteria for evaluating the probability of a bacterial origin?

      Your Answer: Presence of tonsillar exudate

      Correct Answer: Duration > 5 days

      Explanation:

      In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.

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  • Question 35 - A patient with anorexia nervosa attends for smoking cessation advice. She is a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with anorexia nervosa attends for smoking cessation advice. She is a teenager and has never been suicidal, nor suffered with any other form of mental illness.

      Which of the following treatments is contraindicated in their management?

      Your Answer: Varenicline

      Correct Answer: Bupropion

      Explanation:

      Contraindications of Bupropion and Varenicline

      Bupropion and Varenicline are two drugs commonly used for smoking cessation. However, they both have specific contraindications that need to be considered before prescribing them to patients.

      Bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of eating disorders, seizures, central nervous system tumors, and acute alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal. Additionally, certain factors can increase the risk of seizures in patients taking Bupropion, such as the use of medications that lower the seizure threshold, diabetes, alcoholism, history of cranial trauma, and use of stimulants and anorectics.

      On the other hand, Varenicline is listed as a caution rather than a contraindication in patients with a history of mental health problems. While patients with psychiatric illnesses should be closely monitored while taking Varenicline, it is not specifically contraindicated in this population.

      In summary, when considering the contraindications of Bupropion and Varenicline, it is important to note that Bupropion is specifically contraindicated in patients with a history of eating disorders, while Varenicline is cautioned in patients with a history of mental health problems.

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  • Question 36 - What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who is elderly, should be provided with long-term oxygen therapy?

      Your Answer: One arterial blood gas measurement with pO2 < 8.0 kPa

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      If a person with COPD has two measurements of pO2 below 7.3 kPa, they should receive LTOT.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

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  • Question 37 - A 29-year-old female complains of a chronic cough and sensation of wheezing following...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female complains of a chronic cough and sensation of wheezing following physical activity. What factor would increase the likelihood of an asthma diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peripheral pins and needles during an episode

      Correct Answer: Symptoms worsen after taking aspirin

      Explanation:

      A cough that produces sputum, symptoms only after an upper respiratory tract infection, and peripheral pins and needles are all factors that make a diagnosis of asthma less likely.

      When considering asthma, it is important to take into account recurrent episodes of symptoms that may be triggered by viral infections, exposure to allergens, NSAIDs/beta-blockers, and exacerbated by exercise, cold air, and emotions/laughter in children. It is also important to note recorded observations of wheezing, which should be documented by a clinician due to varying use of language. Symptom variability is another factor to consider, as asthma is typically worse at night or early in the morning. A personal history of atopy, such as eczema or allergic rhinitis, should also be taken into account. Additionally, the absence of symptoms of alternative diagnoses, such as COPD, dysfunctional breathing, or obesity, should be considered. Finally, a historical record of variable peak flows or FEV1 can also be helpful in diagnosing asthma.

      Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.

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  • Question 38 - What is the most valuable tool for assessing a patient with suspected occupational...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most valuable tool for assessing a patient with suspected occupational asthma?

      Your Answer: Methacholine challenge test to determine the presence of bronchial hyperreactivity

      Correct Answer: Documentation of a known sensitising agent at the patient's workplace

      Explanation:

      Understanding Occupational Asthma

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by conditions and factors present in a particular work environment. It is characterized by variable air flow limitation and/or airway hyper-responsiveness. This type of asthma accounts for about 10% of adult asthma cases.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, there are several investigations that are proven to be effective. These include serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. If there is a consistent fall in peak flow values and increased intraday variability on working days, and improvement on days away from work, then occupational asthma is confirmed.

      It is important to understand occupational asthma and its causes to prevent and manage this condition effectively. Proper diagnosis and management can help individuals continue to work safely and maintain their quality of life.

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  • Question 39 - You encounter a 28-year-old man who has asthma. He informs you that he...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 28-year-old man who has asthma. He informs you that he has visited you today because one of the partners is unwilling to modify his inhaler treatment until he quits smoking. He is presently using a salbutamol inhaler as needed, but he is experiencing frequent wheezing episodes and has developed a cough at night. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Remove him from the practice list if he refuses to give up smoking

      Correct Answer: Alter his inhaler treatment and speak to the doctor concerned

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that a patient’s decision to continue smoking should not be a reason to deny them treatment for their asthma. As a healthcare professional, it is your responsibility to bring this to the attention of the doctor involved and discuss the situation with them. This will also give the doctor an opportunity to explain their perspective on the matter. It is not recommended to bring this up during a practice meeting as it may come across as confrontational.

      Simply changing the patient’s inhaler treatment will not address the issue of treatment being withheld. It is not acceptable to refuse to adjust their inhalers until they agree to seek smoking cessation treatment, as this can be seen as blackmail. Additionally, removing the patient from the practice list for not quitting smoking is not an appropriate course of action.

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  • Question 40 - A 57-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with pneumonia...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with pneumonia six weeks ago after experiencing flu-like symptoms and a productive cough. Despite having no history of asthma, she quit smoking three years ago due to hypertension. A chest x-ray was performed and showed consolidation in the left lower zone, but no pleural effusion or abnormal heart size. She was treated with amoxicillin for a week and her symptoms improved. Now, six weeks later, a follow-up x-ray shows that the consolidation has improved but not completely resolved. Her cough is mostly gone and is no longer productive, and she has not experienced any coughing up of blood or weight loss. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to the chest clinic

      Explanation:

      As an ex-smoker, this woman is experiencing a gradual improvement in her consolidation, but she still has a persistent cough. It is recommended that she be referred for further evaluation under the 2 week wait rule to rule out the possibility of lung cancer.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.

      In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 41 - A 68-year-old gentleman presents for review. His notes indicate that he was recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old gentleman presents for review. His notes indicate that he was recently treated with furosemide for heart failure after presenting with gradually increasing shortness of breath and bibasal crepitations. Despite taking the medication for the last week, he reports feeling no better and has marked exertional breathlessness. On examination, he is centrally cyanosed with finger clubbing and fine bibasal inspiratory crepitations. There is no evidence of peripheral edema. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Correct Diagnosis for Breathlessness

      A variety of conditions can cause breathlessness, making it difficult to arrive at a correct diagnosis. For instance, someone with shortness of breath and bibasal crepitations may be misdiagnosed with heart failure. However, a normal ECG and BNP can rule out cardiac failure.

      To identify the correct diagnosis, a thorough clinical examination is necessary. In this case, the presence of finger clubbing narrows the options down to bronchiectasis, carcinoma, and pulmonary fibrosis. The additional features of cyanosis and bibasal fine crepitations strongly suggest that pulmonary fibrosis is the underlying diagnosis.

      By carefully considering all the symptoms and conducting a comprehensive examination, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients with breathlessness.

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  • Question 42 - A six-year-old has been brought to the GP by his mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A six-year-old has been brought to the GP by his mother due to frequent episodes of shortness of breath and wheeze during physical education lessons at school and when out playing with friends. He also has been coughing and complaining of chest tightness at night. Examination and vital signs are within normal limits. Peak flow is slightly reduced based on height.

      What is the most appropriate next step for diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peak flow readings twice weekly for four weeks

      Correct Answer: Spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility testing

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, the diagnosis of asthma in adults should include bronchodilator reversibility testing, while children aged 5-16 should also undergo this test if feasible. Fractional exhaled nitrous oxide (FeNO) testing is not recommended as the initial step for diagnosing asthma in children, but may be considered in cases of diagnostic uncertainty where spirometry is normal or obstructive with negative bronchodilator reversibility. Methacholine bronchial challenge is not used in children and should only be considered in adults if other tests have not provided a clear diagnosis. Peak flow readings may be offered in children aged 5-16 with normal or obstructive spirometry and positive FeNO. While symptoms may indicate asthma, further objective testing is necessary, starting with spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility testing in children aged 5-16. A diagnosis of asthma in this age group may be made with positive bronchodilator reversibility or positive FeNO with positive peak flow variability.

      Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.

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  • Question 43 - A 62-year-old man presents with a three day history of hearing a noise...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with a three day history of hearing a noise when he breathes. He has been feeling fatigued and has had a dry cough for a week, but upon further questioning he admits to coughing up blood and losing weight for several months. He is a heavy smoker of over 20 cigarettes per day for 45 years and has COPD with a high degree of reversibility, for which he is taking full doses of his bronchodilator inhalers. Initially, he thought he was developing a throat infection, but now the noise has become quite loud and he is experiencing shortness of breath. Upon examination, there is reduced air entry in the left lung and obvious stridor present. His oxygen saturation on air is 88%. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange an urgent referral to an ear nose and throat specialist

      Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent chest x ray

      Explanation:

      Understanding Stridor and its Association with Lung Cancer

      Stridor is a respiratory sound characterized by a loud, harsh, and high-pitched noise. It is usually heard during inspiration and is caused by a partial obstruction of the airway, particularly in the trachea, larynx, or pharynx. In severe cases of upper airway obstruction, stridor may also occur during expiration, indicating tracheal or bronchial obstruction within the thoracic cavity.

      Lung cancer is one of the conditions that can cause stridor, particularly small cell carcinomas that grow rapidly and metastasize to mediastinal lymph nodes early in the disease’s course. Patients with lung cancer may present with large intra-thoracic tumors, making it difficult to distinguish the primary tumor from lymph node metastases. The pressure on mediastinal structures can cause various symptoms, including hoarseness, hemi-diaphragm paralysis, dysphagia, and stridor due to compression of the major airways. Understanding the association between stridor and lung cancer can help in the early detection and management of the disease.

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  • Question 44 - A 79-year-old man presents for a chest review after being discharged from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents for a chest review after being discharged from the hospital a month ago due to an exacerbation of COPD. He reports feeling well with no cough or breathing issues. Over the past year, he has experienced four exacerbations that required steroid treatment, including his recent hospitalization. The patient inquires about any potential interventions to decrease the frequency of his exacerbations.

      Currently, the patient is taking a combination inhaler of fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium/vilanterol and salbutamol.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Start him on oral mucolytic therapy

      Correct Answer: Referral to secondary care for consideration of prophylactic antibiotic treatment

      Explanation:

      Referral to secondary care for consideration of prophylactic antibiotic treatment is the recommended option for COPD patients who meet certain criteria and continue to have exacerbations. NICE suggests considering prophylactic oral macrolide therapy, such as azithromycin, for individuals who have had more than three exacerbations requiring steroid therapy and at least one exacerbation requiring hospital admission in the previous year.

      Referral to secondary care for consideration of nebulisers is not appropriate for this patient as they are not experiencing distressing or disabling breathlessness despite maximal therapy using inhalers.

      Referral to secondary care for consideration of phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitors is not applicable for this patient as they do not have severe disease with persistent symptoms and exacerbations despite optimal inhaled and pharmacological therapy.

      Starting the patient on long term corticosteroids is not recommended in primary care and requires referral to a respiratory specialist.

      Starting the patient on oral mucolytic therapy is not necessary as they do not have a chronic cough productive of sputum.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

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  • Question 45 - A 68 year old woman with chronic asthma has been using a lot...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old woman with chronic asthma has been using a lot of salbutamol including via a nebuliser. She has a tremor, headache and tachycardia.
      Select from the list the single most likely biochemical finding.

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Cautionary Measures for β2-Adrenergic Agonist Treatment

      β2-adrenergic agonist treatment may lead to potentially serious hypokalaemia, especially in severe asthma cases. This effect can be intensified by theophylline, corticosteroids, diuretics, and hypoxia. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor plasma-potassium concentration in severe asthma patients. People with diabetes should also exercise caution when using β2 agonists, particularly when given intravenously, as it may increase the risk of ketoacidosis. These cautionary measures are necessary to ensure the safe and effective use of β2-adrenergic agonist treatment.

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  • Question 46 - A 50-year-old man presents with a one week history of a productive cough....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a one week history of a productive cough. He has no past medical history of any cardiorespiratory disease and is a lifelong non-smoker. He reports that his cough is not improving and that he is now coughing up some 'thick green phlegm'. He denies any coughing up blood.
      Upon examination, he is alert and oriented, with a temperature of 37.6°C, a regular pulse rate of 94 bpm, a respiratory rate of 16, and a blood pressure of 124/68 mmHg. Chest auscultation reveals coarse crepitations in the left lower zone with some bronchial breath sounds.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe antibiotics immediately without any further investigations

      Correct Answer: No immediate treatment, send him for a chest x ray to guide the need for antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection, it is important to differentiate between non-pneumonic and pneumonic infections. In cases of non-pneumonic infections, antibiotics should not be given unless the patient is showing signs of severity. However, if chest signs are present, a diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia should be made, and early administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent the development of severe illness.

      While chest radiography and CRP levels are not useful in the acute setting of pneumonia, they may be indicated in certain cases. A chest x-ray may be necessary if treatment response is unsatisfactory or in smokers during the convalescent period. CRP levels can be helpful in making a decision about antibiotic treatment for individuals with symptoms of LRTI but no signs.

      According to NICE guidelines, antibiotic therapy should not be routinely offered if the CRP concentration is less than 20 mg/litre. A delayed antibiotic prescription should be considered if the CRP concentration is between 20 mg/litre and 100 mg/litre, and antibiotic therapy should be offered if the CRP concentration is greater than 100 mg/litre. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively diagnose and manage community-acquired pneumonia.

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  • Question 47 - You review a discharge summary from your local emergency department about a 40-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You review a discharge summary from your local emergency department about a 40-year-old man on your practice list who presented to their department following an episode of haemoptysis. The patient smokes 20 cigarettes a day, there were no signs of infection and they have a past medical history of asthma. A chest X-ray, full blood count, and CRP were normal.

      What course of action should be taken based on this discharge summary?

      Your Answer: Organise repeat chest X-ray in 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to respiratory team

      Explanation:

      If a patient who is 40 years old or older presents with unexplained haemoptysis, it is important to refer them using the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out lung cancer. Even if a chest X-ray appears normal, it should not be used to dismiss the referral.

      While an asthma review may be necessary, it would not address the issue of unexplained haemoptysis. Similarly, advising the patient to quit smoking is important for reducing the risk of multiple malignancies, but it doesn’t address the immediate concern.

      Delaying the referral for a face-to-face follow-up in 2 weeks is not appropriate, as it would only delay further investigation of the haemoptysis. Additionally, waiting 6 weeks to perform a repeat chest X-ray would be appropriate for pneumonia consolidation, but it would unnecessarily delay further investigation of the haemoptysis in this case.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.

      In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 48 - A 50-year-old man comes for a follow-up with his GP after being released...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes for a follow-up with his GP after being released from the hospital. He underwent surgery to repair a tibial plateau fracture and experienced a deep vein thrombosis and small pulmonary emboli during his recovery, which were treated with apixaban. He has no prior history of thrombosis or other medical problems.

      What is the recommended duration of anticoagulation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Until haematology review

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      A provoked pulmonary embolism, which occurred after surgery and immobilisation in a middle-aged man, typically requires treatment for at least 3 months. However, the duration of treatment may need to be extended or specialist referral may be necessary depending on the patient’s leg and respiratory symptoms. Indefinite anticoagulation is not recommended unless the problem is recurrent or the patient has thrombophilia. Referral to a haematologist is also not necessary unless the treatment is unsuccessful or the patient experiences further thrombosis issues. Anticoagulation for 6 months may be considered for unprovoked pulmonary embolism, but in this case, the patient’s condition was provoked by surgery and immobilisation.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management. The guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment for PE, followed by LMWH, dabigatran, edoxaban, or a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) if necessary. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation depends on whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically lasting for at least three months. Patients with unprovoked VTE may continue treatment for up to six months, depending on their risk of recurrence and bleeding.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Other invasive approaches may also be considered where appropriate facilities exist. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak, and further studies are needed.

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  • Question 49 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a 4 week history of increasing shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a 4 week history of increasing shortness of breath, fatigue, and unintentional weight loss. She has a medical history of hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and is a former smoker. On physical examination, there are no significant findings. The following investigations were obtained:

      Chest x-ray: Hyperinflated lung fields, normal heart size
      Bloods: Sodium 131 mmol/l, Potassium 3.4 mmol/l, Urea 7.2 mmol/l, Creatinine 101 µmol/l, Hb 10.4 g/dl, MCV 91 fl, Plt 452 * 109/l, WBC 3.7 * 109/l

      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to the chest clinic

      Explanation:

      If an ex-smoker experiences shortness of breath, weight loss, and hyponatremia, urgent investigation for lung cancer is necessary, even if their chest x-ray appears normal. This recommendation is in line with the current guidelines from NICE. Although gastrointestinal cancer cannot be ruled out, the absence of chronic blood loss indicated by a normal MCV is not entirely conclusive.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.

      In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 50 - A 32-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of intermittent shortness of breath. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of intermittent shortness of breath. He reports experiencing wheezing and coughing while on the job. The possibility of occupational asthma is being considered. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this condition?

      Your Answer: High resolution computed tomography of thorax

      Correct Answer: Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

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  • Question 51 - A 46-year-old patient with multiple health problems has undergone a medication review at...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old patient with multiple health problems has undergone a medication review at his GP surgery. He has a history of asthma and hypertension. He presents to the Emergency department with an episode of bronchospasm.
      Which one of the following medications is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Most Likely Cause of Bronchospasm in a Patient with Asthma

      Examiners often use terms like most likely to test a candidate’s ability to reason. In primary care, where there may be multiple causes, prioritizing treatment options is crucial. In a patient with a history of asthma experiencing bronchospasm, propranolol is the most likely cause, and its use should be avoided. While bronchospasm is reported in aspirin-sensitive patients and paradoxical bronchospasm in some patients treated with salmeterol, beta-blockers like propranolol can precipitate bronchospasm and should be avoided in patients with asthma.

      According to the British National Formulary, beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma. However, in some cases, a cardioselective beta-blocker may be necessary for a co-existing condition like heart failure or following a myocardial infarction. In such situations, a specialist should initiate treatment with a low dose of a cardioselective beta-blocker like atenolol, bisoprolol fumarate, metoprolol tartrate, nebivolol, or acebutolol. These drugs have a lesser effect on airways resistance but are not free of this side-effect.

      ACE inhibitors like ramipril are inhibitors of the metabolism of bradykinin and can cause cough. Bronchospasm is also reported as an adverse event associated with ACE inhibition, although it is very rare.

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  • Question 52 - A 72-year-old male presents with worsening shortness of breath for the past week....

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male presents with worsening shortness of breath for the past week. He has a history of COPD and smokes around 15 cigarettes a day. He has had a chronic cough for several years, which has not changed in character recently. On chest auscultation, he has reduced air entry throughout, diffuse wheeze, and no focal crepitations. His respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, his temperature is 37.50ºC, and his oxygen saturations are 94% on air. His heart rate and blood pressure are within normal limits.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Increase use of bronchodilator inhaler and prescribe a five day course of oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, oral antibiotics should only be given to patients with acute exacerbation of COPD if they have purulent sputum or clinical signs of pneumonia. Since the patient in question doesn’t exhibit any signs of bacterial pneumonia, such as a change in cough or clinical signs of consolidation, NICE recommends a trial of steroids with increased inhaler use as the first line of treatment.

      Based on the information provided, the patient’s observations are reasonable, and hospital admission is not necessary. However, she should be monitored for any deterioration, and a tool like CURB65 can be used to guide decisions regarding hospital admission.

      If there are specific markers of infection clinically, such as focal consolidation or purulent sputum, a combination of amoxicillin and prednisolone may be indicated. It is important for patients with COPD to continue using their inhalers, especially when they are unwell.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.

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  • Question 53 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents for follow-up. Over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents for follow-up. Over the last couple of years, she has experienced approximately six asthma exacerbations that necessitated oral steroid treatment. Her current regimen consists of beclomethasone 200 mcg 1 puff bd and salbutamol 2 puffs prn. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m^2, is a non-smoker, and has demonstrated proper inhaler technique. What is the most suitable course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Referral to a dietician

      Correct Answer: Add oral montelukast

      Explanation:

      As per the NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, their treatment plan should include the addition of a LTRA instead of a LABA. In this case, since the patient is already taking a short-acting beta-agonist and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid, the recommended course of action would be to offer them an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist. This is in contrast to the previous BTS guidance which would have suggested the use of a long-acting beta-agonist in such a scenario.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE doesn’t follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

      The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regime, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.

      It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes

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  • Question 54 - A 68-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen.

      Her spirometry shows an FEV1 of 42% predicted with an FEV1:FVC ratio of 64%. Her current treatment consists of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) used as required which was started when a clinical diagnosis was made two to three months ago prior to her having had the spirometry performed. A chest x Ray was normal and she gave up cigarettes a few weeks ago. Her home peak flow measurments show a 30% diurnal variation.

      On reviewing her symptoms she needs to use the SABA at least four times a day and despite this still feels persistently breathless. In addition, she tells you that over the last few years she gets attacks of 'bronchitis' two to three times a year. You can see from her notes that she has received at least two courses of antibiotics each year for the last three years for acute episodes of productive cough and shortness of breath.

      Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in her pharmacological management?

      Your Answer: Add in a regular LABA

      Correct Answer: Add in a LABA and ICS in a combination inhaler

      Explanation:

      Management of COPD with Persistent Breathlessness

      Patients with COPD who experience persistent breathlessness despite regular SABA use require additional inhaled treatment to improve symptom control and prevent exacerbations. Spirometry results confirming an obstructive picture, frequent exacerbations, and an FEV1 of less than 50% are useful in determining the next step in management.

      The two options for add-on inhaled treatment are a LABA+ICS combination inhaler or a LAMA. The choice depends on the presence of asthmatic features, such as a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher eosinophil count, substantial variation on FEV1 over time, or a substantial diurnal variation in peak flow. If asthmatic features are present, a LABA & ICS combination inhaler is preferred.

      Adding a regular ICS on its own has no role in the COPD treatment ladder, while a regular SAMA can be used instead of a SABA but is not an option for add-in treatment. Adding a LABA may improve symptoms, but the combination of ICS/LABA is more beneficial for patients with a history of frequent exacerbations.

      In addition to inhaled treatment, it may be necessary to issue an emergency supply of antibiotics and oral steroids for patients with persistent breathlessness and frequent exacerbations. For more information on managing stable COPD, refer to the NICE Visual Summary guide and NICE NG115 guidelines.

      Overall, the management of COPD with persistent breathlessness requires a tailored approach based on individual patient characteristics and the presence of asthmatic features.

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  • Question 55 - One of your elderly patients with COPD is about to commence long-term oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • One of your elderly patients with COPD is about to commence long-term oxygen therapy. What is the most suitable method to administer this oxygen?

      Your Answer: Oxygen concentrator supplied via FP10

      Correct Answer: Oxygen concentrator supplied via Home Oxygen Order Form

      Explanation:

      The prescription for oxygen is now done through the Home Oxygen Order Form instead of the FP10. Private companies are now responsible for providing the oxygen supply instead of the local pharmacy.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

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  • Question 56 - A 25-year-old female develops a wheeze and extensive rash whilst eating a Chinese...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female develops a wheeze and extensive rash whilst eating a Chinese take-away chicken satay.

      On examination, she has extensive wheeze and stridor, with urticaria covering her upper and lower limbs and trunk. Her BP is 80/45 mmHg.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: C1 esterase deficiency

      Correct Answer: Peanut allergy

      Explanation:

      Allergic Reactions and MSG Syndrome in Chinese Cuisine

      Chinese cuisine is known for its use of cashew nuts and peanut oil in many dishes, which can pose a risk for patients with peanut allergies. Anaphylactic reactions may occur with cashew nuts, while peanut oil can also trigger allergic reactions. Additionally, monosodium glutamate (MSG), a common flavor enhancer in Chinese food, can cause the MSG syndrome. Symptoms of this syndrome include sudden onset headache, heartburn, palpitations, sweating, swelling, and flushing of the face. Tingling or increased facial pressure may also be reported. While the condition is generally self-limited and resolves on its own, antihistamines may be helpful in some cases. It is important to note that the MSG syndrome is unlikely to cause shock, which is not consistent with the patient’s presentation of hypotension.

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  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently taking salbutamol and formoterol-beclomethasone (Fostair) for his asthma, but he informs you that he is not experiencing any relief from either medication. He was diagnosed with asthma through spirometry testing recently. He claims to be using the inhalers as prescribed but has some doubts about how to use them correctly. Both of his inhalers are pressurised metered-dose inhalers.

      What is the most suitable advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Before inhaling, he should wait for 5 seconds after pressing down on the canister before inhaling

      Correct Answer: After inhaling a dose of the medication, he should ideally hold his breath for 10 seconds

      Explanation:

      To ensure effective use of an inhaler, it is important to follow proper technique. Asthma UK provides helpful guidance on inhaler usage for different types of inhalers.

      For a pressurised metered dose inhaler, it is advised to hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication. This allows sufficient time for the medication to reach the airways, rather than being exhaled prematurely.

      To use the inhaler, breathe in slowly and steadily while pressing down on the canister in one smooth motion. If a second dose is needed, wait for about 30 seconds before repeating to avoid any interference with the delivery of the medication.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

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  • Question 58 - What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children?

      Your Answer: Failure to thrive

      Correct Answer: Finger clubbing

      Explanation:

      Common Pediatric Respiratory Issues and Diagnostic Considerations

      Abnormal cry and stridor are indicative of potential laryngeal issues in children. When assessing for asthma, it is important to note that it is predominantly extrinsic in nature. During acute asthma episodes, relying on peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) may be unreliable due to poor technique. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses when a child presents with failure to thrive and clubbing, as these symptoms may suggest underlying health issues beyond respiratory concerns. By keeping these diagnostic considerations in mind, healthcare providers can more effectively identify and treat common pediatric respiratory issues.

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  • Question 59 - A 59-year-old woman comes in with initial signs of COPD. She is a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman comes in with initial signs of COPD. She is a frequent smoker and inquires about medications that could assist her in quitting smoking. Specifically, she has heard about a medication called Champix (varenicline).
      What is the mechanism of action of varenicline, an agent used to aid smokers in quitting?

      Your Answer: A tricyclic antidepressant with mostly noradrenergic properties

      Correct Answer: Is a nicotine replacement therapy

      Explanation:

      Therapies for Smoking Cessation

      There are various therapies available for smoking cessation, including newer drugs that have been specifically developed for this purpose. One such drug is Varenicline, which is a non-nicotine drug that acts as a partial agonist of the alpha-4 beta-2 nicotinic receptor.

      Nicotine is a stimulant that releases dopamine in the brain, leading to addictive effects of smoking. However, nicotine replacement therapy can help replace these effects and reduce addiction to cigarette smoking. Bupropion (Zyban) is another drug that reduces the neuronal uptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.

      Clonidine is a second-line agent due to its side effects, but it is an a2-noradrenergic agonist that suppresses sympathetic activity. Nortriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant with mostly noradrenergic properties, is also an effective agent for smoking cessation.

      Overall, there are many options available for those looking to quit smoking, and it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best approach for each individual.

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  • Question 60 - A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath when exerting himself and lying flat at night. He reports no weight loss or coughing up blood and feels generally healthy. His medical records indicate that he had a normal chest X-ray three months ago and had a heart attack three years ago. During the examination, the doctor detects mild crepitations in both lung bases. What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Check natriuretic peptide levels

      Explanation:

      According to the updated NICE guidelines in 2018, all individuals who are suspected to have chronic heart failure should undergo an NT-proBNP test as the initial diagnostic test, irrespective of their history of myocardial infarction.

      Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.

      Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.

      BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.

      It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.

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  • Question 61 - Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate?

      Your Answer: Is associated with thyroid dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options and Risks for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that affects breathing during sleep, leading to interrupted sleep and daytime fatigue. In the UK, the Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) treatment is used for simple snoring, while in the USA, it is used to treat OSA with a success rate of around 65%. Tonsillectomy can also benefit some cases. However, successful treatment with continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP) is the most effective way to reduce the risk of road traffic accidents (RTA) to normal levels and doesn’t exclude the sufferer from holding any type of driving licence. The risk of RTA, untreated, is estimated to be eight times normal. OSA is also associated with hypothyroidism and acromegaly, according to a study published in the Medicine Journal in May 2008. It is important to consider the various treatment options and risks associated with OSA to manage the condition effectively.

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  • Question 62 - A 35-year-old female attends your clinic on a Monday afternoon with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female attends your clinic on a Monday afternoon with a complaint of a worsening cough that produces green sputum and a sore throat that has been present for 2 days. She denies experiencing any other symptoms. Upon examination, there is a mild wheeze but no focal respiratory signs. The patient's observations, peak flow, and the rest of her examination are normal. She is currently taking salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma and has an intrauterine system for contraception.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe co-trimoxazole

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      For this patient with pre-existing asthma, an immediate or delayed antibiotic prescription should be considered due to the higher risk of complications. The first-line antibiotic for acute bronchitis is oral doxycycline, unless the patient is pregnant or a child. As this patient has normal observations and no focal respiratory signs, same-day admission is not necessary, and treatment can be provided in the community without intravenous antibiotics or oxygen.

      Reassuring the patient and prescribing carbocisteine is not recommended as mucolytics are not effective for managing acute cough caused by acute bronchitis. Administering IM amoxicillin is also not appropriate as doxycycline is the recommended first-choice antibiotic for this condition, and IM is an invasive route that is unnecessary for this patient who can swallow.

      Understanding Acute Bronchitis

      Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that is typically self-limiting and caused by inflammation of the trachea and major bronchi. This results in swollen airways and the production of sputum. The condition usually resolves within three weeks, but some patients may experience a cough for longer. Viral infections are the leading cause of acute bronchitis, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter.

      Symptoms of acute bronchitis include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which may present with sputum, wheezing, and breathlessness.

      Acute bronchitis is typically diagnosed based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to guide antibiotic therapy. Management of acute bronchitis includes analgesia, good fluid intake, and consideration of antibiotic therapy for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing co-morbidities, or have a CRP level indicating the need for antibiotics. Doxycycline is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries/BNF, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.

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  • Question 63 - A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and a cough for four weeks. Has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and a cough for four weeks. Has been a publican for 35 years. He is a lifelong non-smoker and drinks around 20 units of alcohol per week.

      He did not worry too much about his symptoms because he is a non-smoker, the amount of blood was very small and he also has a cold with a productive cough.

      He has no abnormality in his chest on examination.

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Send sputum for culture for acid fast bacteria (tuberculosis)

      Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      Lung Cancer and Passive Smoking

      According to NICE NG12 guidelines, individuals with chest X-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or those aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis should be referred for an appointment within two weeks. While smoking is the leading cause of lung cancer, a small but significant proportion of cases are not linked to smoking. The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) evaluates evidence on the carcinogenic risk to humans of various exposures, including tobacco, alcohol, infections, radiation, occupational exposures, and medications. The World Cancer Research Fund/American Institute for Cancer Research (WCRF/AICR) evaluates evidence for other exposures, such as diet, overweight and obesity, and physical exercise.

      Living with someone who smokes increases the risk of lung cancer in non-smokers by about a quarter. Exposure to passive smoke in the home is estimated to cause around 11,000 deaths every year in the UK from lung cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease. This patient, who is not a smoker, has worked for many years in an environment where he would have been exposed to significant levels of smoke over a prolonged period (passive smoking), which is a risk factor for lung cancer. It is important to note that the smoking ban in public places was only introduced in the UK over the period 2006 to 2007, so individuals like this patient would have been exposed to passive smoke for many years before this time.

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  • Question 64 - A 49-year-old teacher comes to the clinic complaining of cough and pleuritic chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old teacher comes to the clinic complaining of cough and pleuritic chest pain that has been going on for 4 days. The patient has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, the patient's temperature is 38.1ºC, blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and pulse is 80/min. Upon auscultation of the chest, bronchial breathing is heard in the right base and the same area is dull to percussion. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Oral amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. Antibiotic therapy should be considered based on the patient’s CRP level. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Management of low-severity pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate to high-severity pneumonia may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

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  • Question 65 - A 63-year-old man presents with a four week history of cough and green...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with a four week history of cough and green sputum. He has also noticed some streaks of blood in the sputum on several occasions. He visited the clinic two weeks ago and was prescribed a seven day course of amoxicillin 500 mg tds, as well as a chest x-ray which came back normal. However, his symptoms have not improved and he reports a weight loss of around 7 pounds over the past three months. He used to smoke 15 cigarettes per day for 40 years but quit two years ago. On examination of his respiratory system, there are no abnormal findings. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Send sputum for culture and review in one week

      Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital as a medical emergency

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Referral and Assessment of Lung Cancer

      According to the NICE guidelines, urgent referral for suspected lung cancer should be made for individuals aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis or chest X-ray findings that suggest lung cancer. However, even with a normal chest X-ray, urgent referral is still warranted if there is ongoing haemoptysis in an ex-smoker.

      In addition, NICE guidelines recommend offering an urgent chest X-ray to assess for lung cancer in individuals aged 40 and over who have two or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss. For those who have ever smoked, one or more of these symptoms should prompt an urgent chest X-ray.

      Furthermore, consideration should be given to an urgent chest X-ray for individuals aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis.

      Overall, these guidelines aim to ensure timely and appropriate referral and assessment for individuals who may be at risk for lung cancer.

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  • Question 66 - You see a 55-year-old lady with shortness of breath on exertion and a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 55-year-old lady with shortness of breath on exertion and a chronic non-productive cough. She quit smoking 5 years ago and reports no weight loss. On examination, you note clubbing and fine bilateral crackles.

      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Consider Pulmonary Fibrosis in Patients with Persistent Breathlessness and Clubbing

      It is crucial to consider a diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis in patients who present with persistent breathlessness, dry cough, bilateral inspiratory crackles, and clubbing of the fingers. While COPD may be a possibility, it would not explain the presence of clubbing. Heart failure typically presents with other features such as orthopnoea, peripheral oedema, and a raised JVP. Bronchiectasis usually has a productive cough, and a pulmonary embolism typically presents more acutely with chest pain and without clubbing or bi-basal crackles. Therefore, it is essential to consider pulmonary fibrosis as a potential diagnosis in patients with these symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

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  • Question 67 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a six week history of progressive dyspnea. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a six week history of progressive dyspnea. She has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease which has been relatively stable for the past two years since she quit smoking. Prior to quitting, she smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 40 years. She denies any recent increase in cough or sputum production.
      Upon examination, coarse wheezes are heard throughout both lung fields, consistent with previous findings. Additionally, finger clubbing is noted, which has not been documented in her medical records before.
      What is the most appropriate course of management?

      Your Answer: Treat with antibiotics and steroids and review in one week

      Correct Answer: Refer for an urgent chest x ray (report within five days)

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Chest X-Ray in Patients with Chronic Respiratory Problems

      Unexplained changes in existing symptoms in patients with underlying chronic respiratory problems should prompt an urgent referral for chest x-ray. According to NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered to assess for lung cancer in people aged 40 and over with specific unexplained symptoms or risk factors.

      In patients with known COPD, the recent onset of finger clubbing should not be automatically assumed to be due to the pre-existing lung disease. Finger clubbing can occur in various types of lung cancer and mesothelioma, and it is less common in COPD alone. Therefore, an urgent referral for chest x-ray is necessary to assess for possible underlying malignancy. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve the prognosis and quality of life for patients with lung cancer.

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  • Question 68 - A 65-year-old heavy smoker complains of morning cough and difficulty in breathing. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old heavy smoker complains of morning cough and difficulty in breathing. Upon conducting a chest x-ray, hyperinflated lung fields are observed. Spirometry is arranged. Which of the following spirometry results would be indicative of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

      Your Answer: FEV1 - reduced, FEV1/FVC - increased

      Correct Answer: FEV1 - reduced, FEV1/FVC - reduced

      Explanation:

      The spirometry results indicate an obstructive pattern, which strongly suggests a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

      To determine airflow obstruction, the FEV1/FVC ratio must be less than 0.7.

      NICE utilizes the FEV1 (compared to the expected value based on age, height, and gender) to classify the severity of COPD.

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

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  • Question 69 - A 72-year old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen.

      Her spirometry shows an FEV1 of 42% predicted with an FEV1: FVC ratio of 64%. Her current treatment consists of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) used as required which was started when a clinical diagnosis was made following the spirometry.

      On reviewing her symptoms she needs to use the SABA at least four times a day and despite this still feels persistently breathless. In addition, she tells you that over the last few years she gets attacks of 'bronchitis' requiring antibiotics two to three times a year.

      According to NICE guidance, which of the following is the next most appropriate step in her pharmacological management?

      Your Answer: Add in a regular SAMA

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an emergency oral steroid prescription to keep at home and use at the first signs of an exacerbation

      Explanation:

      A patient with COPD who is persistently breathless despite regular SABA use needs inhaled treatment added to improve symptom control and prevent exacerbations. The options for add-on inhaled treatment are a LABA+ICS combination inhaler or a LAMA. Adding a regular ICS on its own has no role in the COPD treatment ladder. A regular SAMA can be used instead of a SABA but is not an option for add-in treatment. Adding a LABA can be used in some patients with COPD but is not the priority here. A LABA is usually indicated in patients with an FEV1 of ≥ to 50%. NICE CKS COPD guidelines recommend inhaled bronchodilators as the first-line drugs for the treatment of COPD.

      For reference:
      SABA – short acting beta agonist
      LABA – long acting beta agonist
      SAMA – short acting muscarinic antagonist
      LAMA – long acting muscarinic antagonist
      ICS – inhaled corticosteroid.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 70 - A 55-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath. She has been prone to...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath. She has been prone to periodic chest infections but over the last 6 months has noticed slowly progressively worsening shortness of breath. She feels fatigued and reports generalised arthralgia.

      She has a history of dry eyes and dry mouth for which she is prescribed lubricant medication. She is also treated for Raynaud's phenomenon.

      On examination of the chest fine end inspiratory crepitations are heard at both lung bases.

      Which of the following blood tests is most likely to yield useful diagnostic information?

      Your Answer: Anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies

      Explanation:

      Sjogren’s Syndrome: A Multi-System Diagnosis

      This patient’s chest symptoms, along with systemic symptoms and dry eyes and mouth, suggest a possible multi-system diagnosis. Sjogren’s syndrome is a condition that should be considered, especially if the patient is a woman in her 5th or 6th decade. Men and younger people can also be affected.

      Sjogren’s syndrome is characterized by various symptoms, including pulmonary fibrosis, sicca symptoms (dry eyes and mouth), Raynaud’s phenomenon, and arthralgia. Anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies are useful diagnostic tools in identifying this condition.

      It is important to recognize the potential for a multi-system diagnosis in patients presenting with a combination of symptoms. In this case, Sjogren’s syndrome should be considered and appropriate testing should be performed to confirm the diagnosis.

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  • Question 71 - A 28-year-old woman with asthma presents with a 4-day history of increasing wheeze,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with asthma presents with a 4-day history of increasing wheeze, dry cough and chest tightness. She has been needing to use her salbutamol up to 5 times a day to relieve her symptoms.

      She is alert and able to complete full sentences at rest. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2ºC, pulse rate 120/min, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 26/min, oxygen saturation 94% in room air. On auscultation, she has polyphonic wheeze throughout. Her peak expiratory flow reading is 380 L/min (best 550 L/min).

      How many features of acute severe asthma does she have?

      Your Answer: Zero

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      To alleviate his symptoms, the patient is taking his medication three times daily. Despite his condition, he remains alert and capable of speaking in complete sentences while at rest. His vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37.1ºC, pulse rate of 116/min, blood pressure of 118/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate of 2.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.

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  • Question 72 - A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. After receiving nebulised salbutamol, she stabilises and you are requested to assess her before discharge. She reports using only a salbutamol inhaler (100 mcg) as needed and identifies grass pollen as the most common trigger. Her current peak flow is 380 l/min (predicted 440 l/min) and her inhaler technique is satisfactory. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange a course of pollen desensitisation injections

      Correct Answer: Add inhaled beclomethasone 200mcg bd

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is safe to use short-acting/long-acting beta 2-agonists, inhaled and oral corticosteroids as recommended by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines, even if the patient has asthma that is not well-controlled with a SABA.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE doesn’t follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

      The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regime, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.

      It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes

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  • Question 73 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She started working at a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She started working at a hair salon six months ago and has been experiencing an increasing cough and wheeze during the day. She wonders if it could be related to her work as her symptoms improved during a recent two-week vacation to Hawaii. You decide to give her a peak flow meter and the average results are as follows:

      Average peak flow
      Days at work 480 l/min
      Days not at work 600 l/min

      What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Advise him to quit his job

      Correct Answer: Refer to respiratory

      Explanation:

      Referral to a respiratory specialist is recommended for patients who are suspected to have occupational asthma.

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

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  • Question 74 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with sudden shortness of breath. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with sudden shortness of breath. An ambulance is called and a brief medical history is obtained. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy recently. The following are her vital signs:

      - Blood pressure: 100/60 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate: 28 breaths per minute
      - Temperature: 36.8ºC
      - Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air

      While waiting for the ambulance, the patient is given oxygen through a face mask and an ECG is performed. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the expected ECG finding?

      Your Answer: S1Q3T3

      Correct Answer: Sinus tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. One of the most common signs of PE is an elevated heart rate, which can be caused by the increased demand on the right ventricle of the heart. This can lead to a range of other symptoms, including shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing.

      Another common sign of PE is the presence of S1Q3T3 on an electrocardiogram (ECG). This is characterized by a deep S-wave in lead I, a Q-wave in lead III, and an inverted T-wave in lead III. While this finding is associated with PE, it is not specific to the condition and may not be present in all cases.

      T-wave inversions in leads V1-V4 can also be a sign of right ventricular strain, which can occur as a result of the increased demand on the heart caused by PE. However, this is not the most common finding in cases of PE.

      Pulmonary embolism can be difficult to diagnose as it can present with a variety of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were common clinical signs in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE use tachycardia rather than tachypnea. All patients with symptoms or signs suggestive of a PE should have a history taken, examination performed, and a chest x-ray to exclude other pathology.

      To rule out a PE, the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) can be used. All criteria must be absent to have a negative PERC result, which reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. If the suspicion of PE is greater than this, a 2-level PE Wells score should be performed. A score of more than 4 points indicates a likely PE, and an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged. If the CTPA is negative, patients do not need further investigations or treatment for PE.

      CTPA is now the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease. D-dimer levels should be considered for patients over 50 years old. A chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. The sensitivity of V/Q scanning is around 75%, while the specificity is 97%. Peripheral emboli affecting subsegmental arteries may be missed on CTPA.

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  • Question 75 - During a routine annual COPD review, a 50-year-old gentleman reports that he requires...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine annual COPD review, a 50-year-old gentleman reports that he requires the use of his salbutamol inhaler three times daily, most days for breathlessness. He could not tolerate a LAMA inhaler due to side effects. His most recent FEV1 was 45% predicted. He stopped smoking several years ago and tries to keep active. He reports no weight loss, no haemoptysis, no leg swelling and is otherwise well. Examination is unremarkable.

      SABA = short-acting beta agonist
      LABA = long-acting beta agonist
      SAMA = short-acting muscarinic antagonist
      LAMA = long-acting muscarinic antagonist
      ICS = inhaled corticosteroid.

      What would be the most appropriate change to his treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Add a regular LABA inhaler

      Correct Answer: Add a regular LABA+ICS inhaler

      Explanation:

      Step-Up Treatment for COPD Patients

      When a patient with COPD is only taking salbutamol inhalers and their FEV1 is less than 50%, it may be necessary to step up their treatment. One option is to add a LABA+ICS, which can help improve lung function and reduce symptoms. However, it’s important to note that a LAMA should not be used in combination with an ICS. While adding a regular ICS may be considered in asthma treatment, it is not typically part of the step-up approach for COPD. Additionally, a SAMA can be an alternative to salbutamol inhalers, but it is not intended as a step-up treatment. By carefully considering the best options for each patient, healthcare providers can help manage COPD symptoms and improve quality of life.

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  • Question 76 - You come across a 60-year-old woman who is feeling under the weather. She...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 60-year-old woman who is feeling under the weather. She has been experiencing a productive cough for the past 3 days and is coughing up brown-green sputum. She feels feverish and lethargic. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis, which she has been dealing with for over 30 years. She has been taking etanercept for the past 3 years, and her condition is well controlled.

      During the examination, her temperature is recorded at 37.5 degrees Celsius, her respiratory rate is 17 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation levels are at 98%. Slight crackles are heard in the base of her left lung.

      You prescribe a 7-day course of amoxicillin for her lower respiratory tract infection and provide her with advice on how to manage her worsening condition.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: RA is not associated with an increased risk of infection

      Correct Answer: A patient with RA taking etanercept who develops an infection needs to stop the etanercept until the infection is cleared

      Explanation:

      Patients with RA who are taking etanercept are at a higher risk of developing infections, including chest infections and sepsis. If an infection does occur, it is important to discontinue the use of etanercept until the infection has been cleared. Additionally, biologic therapy can increase the risk of TB or reactivation of latent TB, and patients on this type of therapy require regular blood monitoring. This includes a full blood count, urea and electrolytes (with creatinine), and liver function tests initially, followed by monitoring every 6 months once stable, unless there is a clinical need for more frequent monitoring.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.

      In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).

      Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.

      TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.

      Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.

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  • Question 77 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with symptoms of a respiratory tract...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with symptoms of a respiratory tract infection, including cough, shortness of breath, confusion, and diarrhea. He has recently returned from a long-term stay at a hotel in Spain. During the examination, you note a temperature of 39.2°C and signs of consolidation in the right lower lobe. Blood tests reveal an elevated white count and a sodium level of 128. What is the most appropriate statement regarding this man's pneumonia?

      Your Answer: It has a fatality rate of up to 40%

      Correct Answer: Long-term lung damage is common

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Legionnaires disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila, a Gram-negative bacillus. The disease is usually acquired from infected water supplies in cooling towers and air conditioning units. Although it is difficult to acquire, with a low attack rate of 5%, elderly individuals, smokers, and those with pre-existing chest disease are at a higher risk of developing the condition.

      The symptoms of Legionnaires disease are similar to those of the flu, including high fever (usually above 40°C), myalgias, and confusion. Treatment involves the use of ciprofloxacin or macrolides, and recovery is usually complete. However, if left untreated, the mortality rate can be as high as 15-20%.

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  • Question 78 - You see a 28-year-old lady with an acute exacerbation of asthma. She reports...

    Correct

    • You see a 28-year-old lady with an acute exacerbation of asthma. She reports that she previously had a dry cough which has now become productive and is associated with increased difficulty in breathing. She is able to speak normally, has a PEFR 50% of her best. Her observations include: RR 24/min, O2 sats 95%, pulse 90 bpm and is apyrexial.

      On examination, a wheeze is heard bilaterally. There is no cyanosis or use of accessory muscles. She has already been given salbutamol nebulisers from the practice nurse. Three years ago, she had a life-threatening asthma exacerbation and reports this doesn't feel as bad as that.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Discuss with on-call medical team

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Hospital Admission for Acute Asthma Exacerbations

      When it comes to acute asthma exacerbations, it is important to know when hospital admission is necessary. According to NICE guidance, a life-threatening asthma exacerbation is an obvious reason for hospitalization. However, there are cases where a severe or even moderate attack may require hospital monitoring and treatment.

      NICE advises clinicians to consider hospital admission for patients with severe asthma attacks that persist after initial bronchodilator treatment. This also applies to patients with moderate asthma exacerbations who have had a previous near-fatal asthma attack.

      For example, if a patient is experiencing a moderate exacerbation that may be developing into an acute severe exacerbation, hospital referral should be considered. This is evidenced by a PEFR of 50%, which is the lower end of a moderate attack, along with a potentially rising respiratory rate and heart rate. Even if the patient is not bordering on an acute severe exacerbation, a referral should be considered if they have previously had a life-threatening attack and have not responded adequately to nebulizers.

      While amoxicillin and prednisolone may be options, it is important to review the patient earlier than 48 hours if a referral to the hospital is not felt to be appropriate. Intramuscular methylprednisolone is considered as an alternative to oral prednisolone if the patient cannot swallow the medication. It is not recommended to increase the inhaled corticosteroid dose during an exacerbation as an alternative to oral corticosteroids.

      In summary, understanding NICE guidance on hospital admission for acute asthma exacerbations is crucial for clinicians to provide appropriate care for their patients.

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  • Question 79 - A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity that has been going on for two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. On examination, there are no abnormalities, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What is the most useful test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Refer for measurement of venous blood lactate before and after exercise

      Correct Answer: Refer for arterial blood studies before and after exercise

      Explanation:

      Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma

      This patient is showing signs of exercise-induced asthma. To confirm this diagnosis, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This is because exercise is the trigger for his asthma symptoms, and spirometry can measure any changes in lung function before and after physical activity. By comparing the results, doctors can determine if the patient has exercise-induced asthma and develop an appropriate treatment plan. It is important to confirm the diagnosis to ensure the patient receives the correct treatment and can continue to participate in physical activity safely.

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  • Question 80 - You see a 50-year-old lady who complains of a chronic cough, often with...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old lady who complains of a chronic cough, often with yellow sputum that has persisted months. She thinks she is more breathless than her previous baseline. She reports no weight loss, no night sweats and is a non-smoker.

      On examination, she has coarse crackles in the lower lung zones. A trial of amoxicillin was started but did not improve her symptoms so a sputum sample was sent which grew Pseudomonas aeruginosa. A chest X ray was normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis as a Possible Diagnosis for Chronic Non-Productive Cough

      Consider bronchiectasis as a possible diagnosis for a patient with a chronic non-productive cough, especially if the patient is a non-smoker. While other diagnoses are also possible, bronchiectasis is more likely if the patient doesn’t exhibit symptoms such as night sweats, weight loss, or the growth of Pseudomonas. It is important to note that a chest X-ray may not always show abnormalities in patients with bronchiectasis, and a CT-scan is often necessary for an accurate diagnosis. Therefore, if a patient presents with a chronic non-productive cough, bronchiectasis should be considered as a possible diagnosis, particularly in non-smokers.

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