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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man suffers a neck stabbing that results in injury to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man suffers a neck stabbing that results in injury to his inferior brachial plexus trunk. Which modality is most likely to remain unaffected?

      Your Answer: Sensation on the palmar aspect of the little finger

      Correct Answer: Initiating abduction of the shoulder

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve is primarily affected in cases of injury to the inferior trunk of the brachial plexus, which is composed mainly of nerve roots C8 and T1. The medial cord, which is part of the inferior trunk, also contributes to the median nerve, resulting in some degree of grip impairment. However, such injuries are rare.

      Understanding the Brachial Plexus and Cutaneous Sensation of the Upper Limb

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the anterior rami of C5 to T1. It is divided into five sections: roots, trunks, divisions, cords, and branches. To remember these sections, a common mnemonic used is Real Teenagers Drink Cold Beer.

      The roots of the brachial plexus are located in the posterior triangle and pass between the scalenus anterior and medius muscles. The trunks are located posterior to the middle third of the clavicle, with the upper and middle trunks related superiorly to the subclavian artery. The lower trunk passes over the first rib posterior to the subclavian artery. The divisions of the brachial plexus are located at the apex of the axilla, while the cords are related to the axillary artery.

      The branches of the brachial plexus provide cutaneous sensation to the upper limb. This includes the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the posterior arm, forearm, and hand; the median nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger; and the ulnar nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the fifth finger and half of the ring finger.

      Understanding the brachial plexus and its branches is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper limb, such as nerve injuries and neuropathies. It also helps in understanding the cutaneous sensation of the upper limb and how it relates to the different nerves of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one ear that has persisted for the last 3 months. Upon examination, Webers test indicates that the issue is on the opposite side, and a CT scan of his head reveals a thickened calvarium with areas of sclerosis and radiolucency. His blood work shows an elevated alkaline phosphatase, normal serum calcium, and normal PTH levels. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteopetrosis with skull involvement

      Correct Answer: Pagets disease with skull involvement

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for an old man experiencing bone pain and raised ALP is Paget’s disease, as it often presents with skull vault expansion and sensorineural hearing loss. While multiple myeloma may also cause bone pain, it typically results in multiple areas of radiolucency and raised calcium levels. Although osteopetrosis can cause similar symptoms, it is a rare inherited disorder that usually presents in children or young adults, making it an unlikely diagnosis for an older patient with no prior symptoms.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting around 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities.

      Several factors can predispose an individual to Paget’s disease, including increasing age, male sex, living in northern latitudes, and having a family history of the condition. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. In untreated cases, patients may experience bowing of the tibia or bossing of the skull.

      To diagnose Paget’s disease, doctors may perform blood tests to check for elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), a marker of bone turnover. Other markers of bone turnover, such as procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline, may also be measured. X-rays and bone scintigraphy can help identify areas of active bone lesions.

      Treatment for Paget’s disease is typically reserved for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fractures, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, such as oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are commonly used to manage the condition. Calcitonin may also be used in some cases. Complications of Paget’s disease can include deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      29.9
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman had undergone bilateral breast augmentation surgery several years ago. Recently,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman had undergone bilateral breast augmentation surgery several years ago. Recently, she has been experiencing discomfort and tension in her breasts, leading to the removal of the implants. During the procedure, the surgeon discovered a dense membrane surrounding the implants with a coarse granular appearance. The tissue was sent for histology, which revealed fibrosis with the presence of calcification. What is the underlying process responsible for these changes? Is it hyperplasia, dysplasia, metastatic calcification, dystrophic calcification, or necrosis? It is important to note that breast implants can often develop a pseudocapsule, which may undergo dystrophic calcification over time.

      Your Answer: Metastatic calcification

      Correct Answer: Dystrophic calcification

      Explanation:

      Breast implants can develop a pseudocapsule around them, which may eventually undergo dystrophic calcification.

      Types of Pathological Calcification

      Pathological calcification refers to the abnormal deposition of calcium in tissues. There are two types of pathological calcification: dystrophic and metastatic. Dystrophic calcification occurs when calcium deposits accumulate in tissues that have undergone degeneration, damage, or disease, even when serum calcium levels are normal. On the other hand, metastatic calcification occurs when calcium deposits accumulate in otherwise normal tissues due to increased serum calcium levels.

      In dystrophic calcification, the calcium deposits are a result of tissue damage or disease, which triggers an inflammatory response. This response leads to the release of cytokines and other molecules that attract calcium to the affected area. In metastatic calcification, the increased serum calcium levels can be caused by various factors such as hyperparathyroidism, renal failure, or vitamin D toxicity. The excess calcium then accumulates in tissues that are not normally prone to calcification, such as the kidneys, lungs, and blood vessels.

      Understanding the different types of pathological calcification is important in diagnosing and treating various diseases. Dystrophic calcification can occur in a variety of conditions, including atherosclerosis, arthritis, and cancer. Metastatic calcification, on the other hand, is commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease or hyperparathyroidism. By identifying the type of calcification present, healthcare professionals can better manage and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What category of hallucination does Jane experience when she hears someone calling her...

    Incorrect

    • What category of hallucination does Jane experience when she hears someone calling her name while being alone in the house?

      Your Answer: Auditory illusion

      Correct Answer: Hypnogogic hallucination

      Explanation:

      Types of Hallucinations

      Hypnogogic and hypnopompic hallucinations are two types of hallucinations that occur during the sleep cycle. Hypnogogic hallucinations happen when a person is falling asleep and can be auditory, visual, tactile, or kinaesthetic. On the other hand, hypnopompic hallucinations occur when a person is waking up, and the hallucination continues even after the person opens their eyes. These types of hallucinations are not indicative of any psychopathology and can occur in individuals with narcolepsy.

      Reflex hallucinations are another type of hallucination that occurs when a true sensory stimulus causes an hallucination in another sensory modality. Autoscopy is a unique experience where an individual sees themselves and knows that it is themselves. This experience is visual and is sometimes referred to as the ‘phantom mirror image.’ Finally, auditory illusions occur when an auditory stimulus is misrepresented or misinterpreted by the listener.

      In summary, there are various types of hallucinations that can occur in different stages of the sleep cycle or due to sensory stimuli. While these experiences may seem unusual, they do not necessarily indicate any underlying mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of losing 1...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of losing 1 stone in weight over the past three months. Apart from this, he has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, his abdomen is soft, and no palpable masses are detected. A normal PR examination is also observed. The patient's blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 80 g/L (120-160) and an MCV of 70 fL (80-96). What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: CT scan of the abdomen and upper GI endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Upper GI endoscopy and colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Possible GI Malignancy in a Man with Weight Loss and Microcytic Anaemia

      This man is experiencing weight loss and has an unexplained microcytic anaemia. The most probable cause of his blood loss is from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, as there is no other apparent explanation. This could be due to an occult GI malignancy, which is why the recommended initial investigations are upper and lower GI endoscopy. These tests will help to identify any potential sources of bleeding in the GI tract and determine if there is an underlying malignancy. It is important to diagnose and treat any potential malignancy as early as possible to improve the patient’s prognosis. Therefore, prompt investigation and management are crucial in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 59-year-old man comes to you with a dry cough that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to you with a dry cough that has been going on for three months and recent episodes of haemoptysis. He stopped smoking five years ago and has had two bouts of pneumonia in his left lower lobe in the last year. On examination, he is apyrexial and there are no notable findings.

      What would be your first step in investigating this patient?

      Your Answer: Blood cultures

      Correct Answer: Chest x ray

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Bronchial Carcinoma

      The patient’s medical history indicates the possibility of bronchial carcinoma. The most appropriate initial investigation to confirm this diagnosis is a chest x-ray. Other tests such as blood cultures may not be useful for an apyrexial patient. However, additional investigations may be considered after the chest x-ray. It is important to prioritize the chest x-ray as the first line investigation to detect any abnormalities in the lungs. Proper diagnosis is crucial for timely treatment and management of bronchial carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      21.1
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  • Question 7 - A 47-year-old patient is experiencing uncontrolled pain despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen.

    What...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old patient is experiencing uncontrolled pain despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen.

      What would be the most suitable analgesic to consider as the next option?

      Your Answer: Diclofenac

      Correct Answer: Codeine

      Explanation:

      To effectively manage pain, it is recommended to follow the analgesia ladder, starting with mild pain medications and gradually increasing to stronger opioids for more severe pain. In this case, since the patient’s pain is not adequately managed with non-opioid medications, the next step would be to try a weak opioid such as codeine. Strong opioids would not be appropriate at this stage, and continuing with non-opioid medications is unlikely to provide sufficient pain relief.

      The WHO’s Analgesia Ladder for Pain Management

      The World Health Organisation (WHO) has created a guide for doctors to follow when treating patients who are experiencing pain. This guide is known as the ‘analgesia ladder’ and it consists of three steps. The first step involves the use of non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like aspirin. If the pain persists, the second step involves the use of mild opioid analgesics like codeine and dihydrocodeine. Finally, if the pain is still not managed, the third step involves the use of strong opioid analgesics like morphine.

      The purpose of the analgesia ladder is to provide doctors with a structured approach to pain management. By starting with non-opioid analgesics and gradually moving up the ladder, doctors can ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of pain relief without exposing them to unnecessary risks associated with opioid use. This approach also helps to minimise the potential for opioid dependence and addiction.

      Overall, the WHO’s analgesia ladder is an important tool for doctors to use when treating patients who are experiencing pain. By following this guide, doctors can provide effective pain relief while minimising the risks associated with opioid use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 2-month-old boy is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with microcephaly....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old boy is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with microcephaly. He is in the 5th percentile for weight and length, and his head circumference is <3rd percentile for his age. Upon physical examination, his lungs are clear and there are no audible murmurs, but his liver edge is palpable at the level of the umbilicus. Further investigations reveal ventriculomegaly with periventricular calcifications on a CT scan of the head. What is the most likely cause of this congenital infection?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital CMV infection can lead to various symptoms such as hearing loss, low birth weight, petechial rash, microcephaly, and seizures. This condition is typically acquired during pregnancy, and if the fetus is exposed to CMV during the first trimester, it may result in intrauterine growth retardation and central nervous system damage, leading to hearing and sight impairments.

      Infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus is an uncommon cause of congenital defects. Herpes simplex virus may cause skin rashes and microcephaly, but it is not typically associated with calcifications and hepatomegaly. Toxoplasmosis often presents with macrocephaly and diffuse parenchymal calcifications rather than periventricular calcifications. Congenital syphilis can result in various symptoms such as sensorineural deafness, mulberry molars, bone lesions, saddle nose, and Hutchinson’s teeth.

      Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus

      Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three most common congenital infections encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Of these, cytomegalovirus is the most common in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.

      Each of these infections can cause different characteristic features in newborns. Rubella can cause sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, glaucoma, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, low birth weight, and purpuric skin lesions. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cerebral palsy, anaemia, and microcephaly. Cytomegalovirus can cause visual impairment, learning disability, encephalitis/seizures, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, jaundice, and cerebral palsy.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early detection and treatment can help prevent or minimize the health problems associated with these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 74-year-old man with oesophageal cancer undergoes a CT scan to evaluate cancer...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man with oesophageal cancer undergoes a CT scan to evaluate cancer staging. The medical team is worried about the cancer's rapid growth. What is the level at which the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The diaphragmatic opening for the oesophagus is situated at the T10 level, while the T8 level corresponds to the opening for the inferior vena cava.

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 38-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increasing fatigue, especially...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increasing fatigue, especially towards the end of the day. During the consultation, she mentions having difficulty swallowing and experiencing two instances of almost choking on her dinner. Her husband has also noticed that her speech becomes quieter in the evenings, almost like a whisper.

      Upon examination in the morning, there are no significant findings except for some bilateral eyelid twitching after looking at the floor briefly.

      What is the likely diagnosis, and what is the mechanism of action of the first-line treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases the amount of acetylcholine reaching the postsynaptic receptors

      Explanation:

      Pyridostigmine is a medication that inhibits the breakdown of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction, leading to an increase in the amount of acetylcholine that reaches the postsynaptic receptors. This temporary improvement in symptoms is particularly beneficial for individuals with myasthenia gravis, who experience increased fatigue following exercise, quiet speech, and difficulty swallowing. Pyridostigmine is considered a first-line treatment for MG, as it directly affects the acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and not the postsynaptic receptors.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurological System (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (0/1) 0%
General Principles (0/3) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
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