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  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematemesis. His friends report...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematemesis. His friends report that he drank a large amount of alcohol earlier and had prolonged vomiting because he is not used to drinking so much. During the examination, his vital signs are: pulse 110 bpm, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg. There are no notable findings during systemic examination.
      What is the most likely cause of the haematemesis in this case?

      Your Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      Causes of haematemesis and their associated symptoms

      Haematemesis, or vomiting of blood, can be caused by various conditions affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract. Here we discuss some of the common causes and their associated symptoms.

      Mallory-Weiss tear
      This type of tear occurs at the junction between the oesophagus and the stomach, and is often due to severe vomiting or retching, especially in people with alcohol problems. The tear can cause internal bleeding and low blood pressure, and is usually accompanied by a history of recent vomiting.

      Peptic ulcer disease
      Peptic ulcers are sores in the lining of the stomach or duodenum, and can cause epigastric pain, especially after eating or when hungry. Bleeding from a peptic ulcer is usually associated with these symptoms, and may be mild or severe.

      Oesophageal varices
      Varices are enlarged veins in the oesophagus that can occur in people with chronic liver disease, especially due to alcohol abuse or viral hepatitis. Variceal bleeding can cause massive haematemesis and is a medical emergency.

      Barrett’s oesophagus
      This condition is a type of metaplasia, or abnormal tissue growth, in the lower oesophagus, often due to chronic acid reflux. Although Barrett’s mucosa can lead to cancer, bleeding is not a common symptom.

      Gastritis
      Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining, often due to NSAIDs or infection with Helicobacter pylori. It can cause epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting, and may be associated with mild bleeding. Treatment usually involves acid suppression and eradication of H. pylori if present.

      In summary, haematemesis can be caused by various conditions affecting the upper digestive system, and the associated symptoms can help to narrow down the possible causes. Prompt medical attention is needed for severe or recurrent bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old previously healthy woman presents with a 10-month history of persistent non-bloody...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old previously healthy woman presents with a 10-month history of persistent non-bloody diarrhoea and central abdominal pain. She also gives a history of unintentional weight loss. The patient is not yet menstruating. On examination, she has slight conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a macrocytic anaemia.
      What is the likeliest diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease is a condition where the lining of the small intestine is abnormal and improves when gluten is removed from the diet. It is caused by an immune response to a component of gluten called α-gliadin peptide. Symptoms can occur at any age but are most common in infancy and in adults in their 40s. Symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, delayed puberty, and anemia. Blood tests are used to diagnose the disease, and a biopsy of the small intestine can confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves avoiding gluten in the diet. Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis have different symptoms, while irritable bowel syndrome and carcinoid syndrome are unlikely in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset abdominal pain that worsens when lying...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset abdominal pain that worsens when lying down. He reports feeling nauseous and has been vomiting. The nursing staff notes that he has a rapid heart rate and a fever of 38.1°C. Upon examination, his abdomen is tender and there is significant guarding. Bruising is present around his belly button. The patient admits to drinking six cans of strong beer daily and smoking two packs of cigarettes per day. He recalls being hospitalized two years ago for vomiting blood but cannot remember the treatment he received. He has no other significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. What is the most likely cause of the man's symptoms and presentation?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a man with abdominal pain, nausea, and periumbilical bruising

      The man in question presents with classic symptoms of pancreatitis, including abdominal pain that radiates to the back and worsens on lying down. However, his periumbilical bruising suggests retroperitoneal haemorrhage, which can also cause flank bruising. Given his alcohol consumption, coagulopathy is a possible contributing factor. Hepatic cirrhosis could explain coagulopathy, but not the rapid onset of abdominal pain or the absence of ecchymosis elsewhere. A ruptured duodenal ulcer or bleeding oesophageal varices are less likely causes, as there is no evidence of upper gastrointestinal bleeding this time. A pancreatic abscess is a potential complication of pancreatitis, but would typically have a longer onset and more systemic symptoms. Therefore, the differential diagnosis includes pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage, possibly related to coagulopathy from alcohol use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful sore inside her mouth that has been bothering her for the past week. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin for it.

      During the mouth examination, the GP observes an oval-shaped, shallow ulcer with a red rim around it. The ulcer is sensitive to touch, and no other lesions are visible. The patient does not have swollen lymph nodes and is in good health otherwise.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Immediate specialist referral

      Correct Answer: Topical steroids

      Explanation:

      Management of Aphthous Ulcers: Topical Steroids and Pain Control

      Aphthous ulcers are a common benign oral lesion that can be triggered by local trauma or certain foods. The first-line management for this condition typically involves topical steroids and topical lidocaine for pain control. Biopsy of the lesion is not indicated unless the ulcer is not healing after three weeks and malignancy needs to be excluded. Epstein-Barr virus testing is only necessary if there are signs of oral hairy leucoplakia. Immediate specialist referral is necessary if there are signs of malignancy. Oral steroids can be considered in refractory cases, but should be used cautiously in patients with diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of persistent abdominal cramping,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of persistent abdominal cramping, bloating, and diarrhoea that has been going on for 5 months. She reports no blood in her stools, no unexplained weight loss, and no fatigue. Her medical history includes obesity, but there is no family history of any relevant conditions.

      Upon examination, her heart rate is 80 bpm, her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg, and she has no fever. Both her abdominal and pelvic exams are unremarkable, and there is no pallor or jaundice.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Urgently refer to gastroenterology

      Correct Answer: Measure serum CA-125

      Explanation:

      If a woman aged 50 or older presents with persistent symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), such as cramping, bloating, and diarrhoea, ovarian cancer should be suspected even without other symptoms like unexplained weight loss or fatigue. This is because ovarian cancer often presents with non-specific symptoms similar to IBS and rarely occurs for the first time in patients aged 50 or older. It is important to measure serum CA-125 to help diagnose ovarian cancer. An abdominal and pelvic examination should also be carried out, but if this is normal, measuring CA-125 is the next step. Ultrasound scans of the abdomen and pelvis are recommended once CA-125 has been measured, and if these suggest malignancy, other ultrasounds may be considered under specialist guidance. Measuring anti-TTG antibodies is not necessary in this case, as IBS rarely presents for the first time in patients aged 50 or older. Urgent referral to gastroenterology is not appropriate unless the patient has features of inflammatory bowel disease.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old white man presents to his doctor with concerns about fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old white man presents to his doctor with concerns about fatigue and changes to his tongue. He reports no other symptoms.
      The patient has been following a strict vegan diet for the past six years and has a history of Crohn's disease. He is currently receiving immunomodulation therapy for his condition. His vital signs are within normal limits.
      Upon examination of his mouth, a beefy-red tongue is observed. His neurological exam is unremarkable.
      What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 supplementation

      Explanation:

      Supplementation Options for Nutrient Deficiencies: A Clinical Overview

      Vitamin B12 Supplementation for Deficiency

      Vitamin B12 is a crucial nutrient involved in the production of red blood cells. Its deficiency can cause various clinical presentations, including glossitis, jaundice, depression, psychosis, and neurological findings like subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. The deficiency is commonly seen in strict vegans and patients with diseases affecting the terminal ileum. Management depends on the cause, and oral supplementation is recommended for dietary causes, while intramuscular injections are indicated for malabsorption.

      Folate Supplementation for Deficiency

      Folate deficiency is typically seen in patients with alcoholism and those taking anti-folate medications. However, the clinical findings of folate deficiency are different from those of vitamin B12 deficiency. Patients with folate deficiency may present with fatigue, weakness, and pallor.

      Magnesium Supplementation for Hypomagnesaemia

      Hypomagnesaemia is commonly seen in patients with severe diarrhoea, diuretic use, alcoholism, or long-term proton pump inhibitor use. The clinical presentation of hypomagnesaemia is variable but classically involves ataxia, paraesthesia, seizures, and tetany. Management involves magnesium replacement.

      Oral Steroids for Acute Exacerbations of Crohn’s Disease

      Oral steroids are indicated in patients suffering from acute exacerbations of Crohn’s disease, which typically presents with abdominal pain, diarrhoea, fatigue, and fevers.

      Vitamin D Supplementation for Deficiency

      Vitamin D deficiency is typically seen in patients with dark skin, fatigue, bone pain, weakness, and osteoporosis. Supplementation is recommended for patients with vitamin D deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 54-year-old male with a history of cirrhosis due to alcohol abuse presents...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old male with a history of cirrhosis due to alcohol abuse presents with malaise and decreased urine output. Upon examination, he appears jaundiced and his catheterized urine output is only 5 ml per hour. Laboratory results show low urinary sodium and elevated urine osmolality compared to serum osmolality. Blood tests reveal elevated liver enzymes, bilirubin, and creatinine. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatorenal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hepatorenal Syndrome

      Hepatorenal syndrome is a severe medical condition that can lead to the rapid deterioration of kidney function in individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant hepatic failure. This condition occurs due to changes in the circulation that supplies the intestines, which alters the blood flow and tone in vessels supplying the kidney. As a result, the liver’s deranged function causes Hepatorenal syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Unfortunately, the only treatment for this condition is liver transplantation.

      While hepatitis B can present as membranous glomerulonephritis, it is unlikely in this case due to the known history of alcoholic liver disease. Acute tubular necrosis is also possible, which can result from toxic medication and reduced blood pressure to the kidney in individuals with cirrhosis. However, in acute tubular necrosis, urine and sodium osmolality are raised compared to Hepatorenal syndrome, where the urine and serum sodium osmolality are low. Additionally, one would expect to see muddy-brown casts or hyaline casts on urine microscopy in someone with acute tubular necrosis.

      In conclusion, Hepatorenal syndrome is crucial for individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant hepatic failure. This condition can lead to the rapid deterioration of kidney function and can be life-threatening. While other conditions such as hepatitis B and acute tubular necrosis can present similarly, they have distinct differences that can help with diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 31-year-old woman presents to your Surgical Clinic referred by her General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman presents to your Surgical Clinic referred by her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of heartburn and indigestion that have been worsening at night. She denies any other gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has a normal diet but smokes 20 cigarettes a day. On examination, you note that she is a large woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 37. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. An endoscopy is ordered, and the report is as follows:
      Endoscopy – oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD)
      The OGD was performed with xylocaine throat spray, and intubation was uncomplicated. The oesophagus appears normal. A 5-cm hiatus hernia is observed and confirmed on J-manoeuvre. The stomach and duodenum up to D2 appear to be normal. CLO test was negative. Z-line at 45 cm.
      What would be your next best step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Conservative therapy with weight loss, smoking cessation and dietary advice, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

      GERD is a common condition that affects the digestive system. It occurs when stomach acid flows back into the esophagus, causing discomfort and other symptoms. There are several treatment options available for GERD, depending on the severity of the condition.

      Conservative Therapy

      Conservative therapy is the first line of treatment for GERD. This includes weight loss, smoking cessation, dietary advice, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. PPIs are effective at reducing acid volume and can provide relief from symptoms. Patients should be encouraged to make lifestyle changes to improve their overall health and reduce the risk of complications.

      Fundoplication

      Fundoplication may be necessary for patients with severe GERD who do not respond to conservative measures. This surgical procedure involves wrapping the upper part of the stomach around the lower esophageal sphincter to strengthen it and prevent acid reflux.

      Oesophageal Manometry Studies

      Oesophageal manometry studies may be recommended if conservative measures and fundoplication fail. This test measures the strength and coordination of the muscles in the esophagus and can help identify any underlying issues.

      24-Hour pH Studies

      24-hour pH studies may also be recommended if conservative measures and fundoplication fail. This test measures the amount of acid in the esophagus over a 24-hour period and can help determine the severity of GERD.

      Triple Therapy for Helicobacter Pylori

      Triple therapy may be necessary if the CLO test for Helicobacter pylori is positive. This treatment involves a combination of antibiotics and PPIs to eradicate the bacteria and reduce acid production.

      In conclusion, there are several treatment options available for GERD, ranging from conservative measures to surgical intervention. Patients should work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action based on their individual needs and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 11-month-old boy is admitted to hospital with an episode of rectal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-month-old boy is admitted to hospital with an episode of rectal bleeding - the mother noticed that the child had been difficult to settle in the day, on changing the child's nappy she noted a substance which looked like redcurrant jelly in the nappy contents. A diagnosis of Meckel's diverticulum is suspected.
      With regard to Meckel’s diverticulum, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: It is a remnant of the urachus

      Correct Answer: It may contain ectopic tissue

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meckel’s Diverticulum: A Congenital Abnormality of the Gastrointestinal Tract

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a common congenital abnormality of the gastrointestinal tract that affects around 2-4% of the population. It is an anatomical remnant of the vitello-intestinal duct, which connects the primitive midgut to the yolk sac during fetal development. Meckel’s diverticulum can contain various types of tissue, including gastric mucosa, liver tissue, carcinoid, or lymphoid tissue. It is usually located around 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is commonly found adjacent to the vermiform appendix.

      Symptoms of Meckel’s diverticulum can closely mimic appendicitis, and it can be a cause of bowel obstruction, perforation, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Bleeding is the most common cause of clinical presentations, and the presence of gastric mucosa is important as it can ulcerate and cause bleeding. If a normal-looking appendix is found during laparoscopy, it is important to exclude Meckel’s diverticulum as a potential cause of the patient’s symptoms. The mortality rate in untreated cases is estimated to be 2.5-15%.

      Advances in imaging have made it easier to detect Meckel’s diverticulum. It can be picked up on barium imaging, computed tomography enterography, and radionuclide technetium scanning (Meckel’s scan). Selective mesenteric arteriography may also be useful in patients with negative imaging results.

      In conclusion, understanding Meckel’s diverticulum is important for clinicians as it is a common congenital abnormality that can cause significant morbidity and mortality if left untreated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease (CD) visits her primary care physician for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease (CD) visits her primary care physician for a regular follow-up. During the examination, the doctor observes clubbing, hepatomegaly, and episcleritis, which are known signs linked with CD. What other non-intestinal symptom is commonly associated with CD?

      Your Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Extra-Intestinal Manifestations and Skin Conditions Associated with Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), including Crohn’s disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC), can present with extra-intestinal manifestations, with some features being more prevalent in one than the other. Joint complications are the most common, but other manifestations include eye inflammation, joint pain and stiffness, and liver and biliary tree issues. Additionally, CD can present with skin conditions such as pyoderma gangrenosum, while UC is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis and cholangiocarcinoma.

      Other skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica and palmar erythema, are not associated with IBD. Erythema multiforme is a drug-related skin rash, while lichen planus is a skin rash of unknown cause that is not associated with IBD. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these extra-intestinal manifestations and skin conditions when evaluating patients with IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting, which started earlier today.
      On examination, the patient is not jaundiced and there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant and epigastrium. The blood results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 6.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 70 μmmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Bilirubin 25 mmol/l 2–17 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 120 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 40 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Amylase 200 U/l < 200 U/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Analgesia, iv fluids, nasogastric (NG) tube, US abdomen

      Correct Answer: Analgesia, intravenous (iv) fluids, iv antibiotics, ultrasound (US) abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is suspected to have acute cholecystitis, and a confirmation of the diagnosis will rely on an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. To manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent sepsis, it is essential to administer intravenous antibiotics and fluids. Antiemetics may also be necessary to prevent dehydration from vomiting. It is recommended to keep the patient ‘nil by mouth’ until the scan is performed and consider prescribing analgesia for pain relief. An NG tube is not necessary at this stage, and an OGD or ERCP may be appropriate depending on the scan results. The NICE guidelines recommend cholecystectomy within a week of diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about his alcohol consumption. He admits to drinking two bottles of wine (750ml capacity) every night along with six pints of 5% beer.
      (A bottle of wine typically contains 12% alcohol)
      What is the total number of units this man is consuming per night?

      Your Answer: 45

      Correct Answer: 36

      Explanation:

      Understanding Units of Alcohol

      Alcohol consumption is often measured in units, with one unit being equal to 10 ml of alcohol. The strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40% is equivalent to one unit, while a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6% is also one unit. Half a standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12% is also one unit.

      To calculate the number of units in a drink, you can use the ABV and the volume of the drink. For instance, one bottle of wine with nine units is equivalent to two bottles of wine or six pints of beer, both of which contain 18 units.

      It’s important to keep track of your alcohol consumption and stay within recommended limits. Drinking too much can have negative effects on your health and well-being. By understanding units of alcohol, you can make informed decisions about your drinking habits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man, who has been a heavy drinker for many years, arrives...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man, who has been a heavy drinker for many years, arrives at the Emergency Department with intense abdominal pain. During the abdominal examination, caput medusae is observed. Which vessels combine to form the obstructed blood vessel in this patient?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric and splenic veins

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Hepatic Portal Vein and Caput Medusae

      The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins. When this vein is obstructed, it can lead to caput medusae, a clinical sign characterized by dilated varicose veins that emanate from the umbilicus, resembling Medusa’s head. This condition is often seen in patients with cirrhotic livers, particularly those who are alcoholics.

      While the inferior mesenteric vein can sometimes contribute to the formation of the hepatic portal vein, this is only true for about one-third of individuals. The left gastric vein, on the other hand, does not play a role in the formation of the hepatic portal vein.

      It’s important to note that the right and left common iliac arteries are not involved in this condition. Additionally, neither the inferior mesenteric artery nor the paraumbilical veins contribute to the formation of the hepatic portal vein.

      Understanding the anatomy and physiology of the hepatic portal vein and caput medusae can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain that occurs after eating. She also...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain that occurs after eating. She also reports weight loss due to her abdominal pain preventing her from eating large amounts. Her medical history includes stable angina and intermittent claudication caused by peripheral arterial disease. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities on the abdomen, but there is general tenderness upon palpation, no signs of organ enlargement, and normal bowel sounds. Routine blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests, are normal. CT angiography shows an obstructed coeliac trunk and a stenosed but patent superior mesenteric artery. Which organ is most likely to be ischemic and contributing to this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Transverse colon

      Correct Answer: Stomach

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia and Organ Involvement

      Chronic mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is reduced blood flow to the intestines due to the narrowing or blockage of major mesenteric vessels. Patients with this condition often present with postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, and concurrent vascular co-morbidities. To develop symptoms, at least two of the major mesenteric vessels must be affected, with one of these two occluded.

      The coeliac trunk is one of the major mesenteric vessels, and when it is occluded, the organs it supplies are at risk. These organs include the stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, duodenum, and abdominal portion of the oesophagus.

      The jejunum is supplied directly by the superior mesenteric artery, but it is less likely to be the cause of symptoms than a foregut structure supplied by the coeliac trunk. The transverse colon is supplied by the right and middle colic arteries and the left colic artery, but it is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms if neither the superior nor the inferior mesenteric artery is completely occluded. The descending colon is supplied by the left colic artery, but it is unlikely to be the organ causing symptoms if this artery is neither occluded nor stenosed. The ileum is also supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, but it is less likely to be the cause of symptoms than a foregut structure.

      In summary, understanding the involvement of different organs in chronic mesenteric ischaemia can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man who has recently had a gastrectomy is informed that he...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man who has recently had a gastrectomy is informed that he will experience a deficiency in vitamin B12. What is the probable physiological reasoning behind this?

      Your Answer: Loss of intrinsic factors

      Explanation:

      Effects of Gastrectomy on Nutrient Absorption and Digestion

      Gastrectomy, whether partial or complete, can have significant effects on nutrient absorption and digestion. One of the most important consequences is the loss of intrinsic factors, which are necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum. Intrinsic factor is produced by the gastric parietal cells, which are mostly found in the body of the stomach. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed and stored in the liver, leading to megaloblastic anemia and potentially serious complications such as dilated cardiomyopathy or subacute degeneration of the spinal cord.

      Another consequence of gastrectomy is the loss of storage ability, which can cause early satiety and abdominal bloating after meals. This is due to the fact that the stomach is no longer able to hold as much food as before, and the remaining small intestine has to compensate for the missing stomach volume.

      Achlorohydria is another common problem after gastrectomy, as the parietal cells that produce hydrochloric acid are also lost. This can lead to a range of symptoms such as abdominal bloating, diarrhea, indigestion, weight loss, malabsorption, and bacterial overgrowth of the small intestine.

      Failed gastric emptying is not a major concern after gastrectomy, as it is unlikely to cause vitamin B12 deficiency. However, increased upper GI gut transit can affect the rate of nutrient absorption and lead to symptoms such as diarrhea and weight loss. Overall, gastrectomy can have significant effects on nutrient absorption and digestion, and patients should be closely monitored for any signs of malnutrition or complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with constipation that has worsened...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with constipation that has worsened over the past six weeks. She reports straining during defecation. She has a feeling of incomplete evacuation. She has two children who were born via vaginal delivery without history of tears. She has had bladder suspension surgery. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-distended without palpable masses.
      On digital rectal examination, she has an empty rectum. Her resting anal tone is weak but her squeeze tone is normal. She does not relax the puborectalis muscle or the external anal sphincter when simulating defecation; she also has 4-cm perineal descent with straining.
      What is the most appropriate investigation to carry out next?

      Your Answer: Barium enema

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance defecography

      Explanation:

      Magnetic resonance defecography is the most appropriate investigation for a patient with abnormal pelvic floor muscle tone, perineal descent, and symptoms of incomplete evacuation during defecation. This test evaluates global pelvic floor anatomy and dynamic motion, identifying prolapse, rectocele, and pelvic floor dysfunctions. Other tests, such as abdominal ultrasound, barium enema, colonoscopy, and CT abdomen, may not provide sufficient information on the underlying pathology of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A General Practice is conducting an audit on the number of elderly patients...

    Correct

    • A General Practice is conducting an audit on the number of elderly patients with gastrointestinal symptoms who were referred for endoscopy without a clear clinical indication.
      Which of the following intestinal diseases necessitates blood tests and small intestinal biopsy for precise diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Biopsy Findings for Various Intestinal Conditions

      When conducting a biopsy of the small intestine, various changes may be observed that can indicate the presence of certain conditions. However, it is important to note that these changes are not always specific to a particular disease and may be found in other conditions as well. Therefore, additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to confirm a diagnosis.

      Coeliac disease is one condition that can be suggested by biopsy findings, which may include infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma cells, villous atrophy, and crypt hyperplasia. However, positive serology for anti-endomysial or anti-gliadin antibodies is also needed to confirm gluten sensitivity.

      Abetalipoproteinemia, Mycobacterium avium infection, Whipple’s disease, and intestinal lymphangiectasia are other conditions that can be diagnosed based on biopsy findings alone. Abetalipoproteinemia is characterized by clear enterocytes due to lipid accumulation, while Mycobacterium avium infection is identified by the presence of foamy macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli. In Whipple’s disease, macrophages are swollen and contain PAS-positive granules due to the glycogen content of bacterial cell walls. Finally, primary intestinal lymphangiectasia is diagnosed by the dilation of lymphatics in the intestinal mucosa without any evidence of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 39-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with sudden onset vomiting and...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with sudden onset vomiting and severe upper abdominal pain. On examination, he appears unwell, with a high heart and respiratory rate, and a temperature of 38.0°C. His blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg. He localises the pain to his upper abdomen, with some radiation to the back. His abdomen is generally tender, with bowel sounds present. There is no blood in his vomit. He is unable to provide further history due to the pain and nausea, but he is known to Accident and Emergency due to many previous admissions with alcohol intoxication. He has previously been normotensive, is a non-smoker and has not been treated for any other conditions.
      Based on the information provided, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Acute Upper Abdominal Pain: Considerations and Exclusions

      Acute upper abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s history of alcohol abuse is a significant risk factor for acute pancreatitis, which is consistent with the presentation of quick-onset, severe upper abdominal pain with vomiting. Mild pyrexia is also common in acute pancreatitis. However, other conditions must be considered and excluded.

      Pulmonary embolism can cause acute pain, but it is typically pleuritic and associated with shortness of breath rather than nausea and vomiting. Aortic dissection is another potential cause of sudden-onset upper abdominal pain, but it is rare under the age of 40 and typically associated with a history of hypertension and smoking. Myocardial infarction should also be on the differential diagnosis, but the location of the pain and radiation to the back, along with the lack of a history of cardiac disease or hypertension, suggest other diagnoses. Nevertheless, an electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed to exclude myocardial infarction.

      Bleeding oesophageal varices can develop as a consequence of portal hypertension, which is usually due to cirrhosis. Although the patient is not known to have liver disease, his history of alcohol abuse is a significant risk factor for cirrhosis. However, bleeding oesophageal varices would present with haematemesis, which the patient does not have.

      In conclusion, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain. In this case, acute pancreatitis is the most likely diagnosis, but other conditions must be considered and excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 59-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain, fever and chills for the last two days. His past medical history is significant for gallstone disease which has not been followed up for some time. He is febrile, but his other observations are normal.
      Physical examination is remarkable for jaundice, scleral icterus and right upper-quadrant pain. There is no abdominal rigidity, and bowel sounds are present.
      His blood test results are shown below.
      Investigation Results Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 18.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 97 mg/dl 0–10 mg/l
      Bilirubin 40 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Cholangitis: Next Steps

      Acute cholangitis (AC) is a serious infection of the biliary tree that requires prompt management. The patient typically presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. The next steps in management depend on the patient’s clinical presentation and stability.

      Intravenous (IV) antibiotics are the first-line treatment for AC. The patient’s febrile state and elevated inflammatory markers indicate the need for prompt antibiotic therapy. Piperacillin and tazobactam are a suitable choice of antibiotics.

      Exploratory laparotomy is indicated in patients who are hemodynamically unstable and have signs of intra-abdominal haemorrhage. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.

      Percutaneous cholecystostomy is a minimally invasive procedure used to drain the gallbladder that is typically reserved for critically unwell patients. It is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.

      A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen is likely to be required to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction. However, IV antibiotics should be commenced first.

      Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) may be required to remove common bile duct stones or stent biliary strictures. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.

      In summary, the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC is prompt IV antibiotics followed by abdominal imaging to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman was brought to the Emergency Department with confusion. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman was brought to the Emergency Department with confusion. She has a history of manic illness. There is no evidence of alcohol or drug abuse. Upon examination, she displays mild jaundice and signs of chronic liver disease, such as spider naevi and palmar erythema. Additionally, there is a brownish ring discoloration at the limbus of the cornea.
      Blood tests reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Bilirubin 130 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 85 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Ferritin 100 μg/l 10–120 µg/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with liver disease and neurological symptoms

      Wilson’s disease, haemochromatosis, alcohol-related cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis are among the possible causes of liver disease. In the case of a patient with Kayser-Fleischer rings, the likelihood of Wilson’s disease increases, as this is a characteristic sign of copper overload due to defective incorporation of copper and caeruloplasmin. Neurological symptoms such as disinhibition, emotional lability, and chorea may also suggest Wilson’s disease, although they are not specific to it. Haemochromatosis, which is characterized by iron overload, can be ruled out if the ferritin level is normal. Alcohol-related cirrhosis is less likely if the patient denies alcohol or drug abuse, but this information may not always be reliable. Viral hepatitis is a common cause of liver disease, but in this case, there are no obvious risk factors in the history. Primary sclerosing cholangitis, which is a chronic inflammatory disease of the bile ducts, does not present with Kayser-Fleischer rings. Therefore, a careful evaluation of the patient’s clinical features, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - An FY1 doctor on the surgical assessment unit reviews the result of a...

    Incorrect

    • An FY1 doctor on the surgical assessment unit reviews the result of a blood test of one of the admitted elderly patients. It appears that the elderly patient has had an acute rise in his plasma urea levels.
      In which of the following conditions would you expect a raised plasma urea level in an elderly patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric ulcer

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperuricaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Urea Production

      Hyperuricaemia, or elevated levels of uric acid in the blood, can be caused by various medical conditions. One of the factors that contribute to this condition is gastrointestinal bleeding, particularly in the upper part of the digestive system. When there is bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, such as in cases of gastric ulcer, the blood that is excreted undergoes digestion as it passes through the small intestine. This results in an increased production of urea, a by-product of blood digestion, which is then absorbed into the bloodstream. However, reduced renal perfusion in patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding can further exacerbate the levels of urea in the blood, as excretion becomes less effective.

      It is important to note that not all types of gastrointestinal bleeding are associated with hyperuricaemia. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding, such as in cases of diverticular disease, does not cause a rise in urea levels. This is because blood released in the lumen of the large bowel does not undergo the same amount of digestion as it does in the small intestine. Instead, the large bowel primarily functions to reabsorb water and sodium.

      Other medical conditions, such as intracranial haemorrhage and ulcerative colitis, are not directly linked to hyperuricaemia. However, significant bleeding in any part of the body can indirectly cause this condition by leading to kidney hypoperfusion and pre-renal acute kidney failure.

      In summary, understanding the relationship between gastrointestinal bleeding and urea production can help in identifying the causes of hyperuricaemia. While upper gastrointestinal bleeding can lead to elevated levels of urea in the blood, lower gastrointestinal bleeding and other medical conditions may not have the same effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The surgeon informs her that one of the stones is quite large and is currently lodged in the bile duct, about 5 cm above the transpyloric plane. The surgeon explains that this plane is a significant anatomical landmark for several abdominal structures.
      What structure is located at the level of the transpyloric plane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The transpyloric plane, also known as Addison’s plane, is an imaginary plane located at the level of the L1 vertebral body. It is situated halfway between the jugular notch and the superior border of the pubic symphysis and serves as an important anatomical landmark. Various structures lie in this plane, including the pylorus of the stomach, the first part of the duodenum, the duodeno-jejunal flexure, both the hepatic and splenic flexures of the colon, the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the hila of the kidneys and spleen, the ninth costal cartilage, and the spinal cord termination. Additionally, the origin of the superior mesenteric artery and the point where the splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein join to form the portal vein are located in this plane. The cardio-oesophageal junction, where the oesophagus meets the stomach, is also found in this area. It is mainly intra-abdominal, 3-4 cm in length, and houses the gastro-oesophageal sphincter. The ninth costal cartilage lies at the transpyloric plane, not the eighth, and the hila of both kidneys are located here, not just the superior pole of the left kidney. The uncinate process of the pancreas, which is an extension of the lower part of the head of the pancreas, lies between the superior mesenteric vessel and the aorta, and the neck of the pancreas is situated along the transpyloric plane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 70-year-old man comes to Surgical Outpatients, reporting abdominal pain after eating. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to Surgical Outpatients, reporting abdominal pain after eating. He has a medical history of a heart attack and three transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs). The doctor diagnoses him with chronic mesenteric ischaemia. What section of the intestine is typically affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mesenteric Ischaemia: Common Sites of Affection

      Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that can be likened to angina of the intestine. It is typically seen in patients who have arteriopathy or atrial fibrillation, which predisposes them to arterial embolism. When these patients eat, the increased vascular demand of the bowel cannot be met, leading to ischaemia and abdominal pain. The most common site of mesenteric ischaemia is at the splenic flexure, which is the watershed between the superior and inferior mesenteric arterial supplies.

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia occurs when a blood clot blocks the blood supply to a section of the bowel, causing acute ischaemia and severe abdominal pain. While the sigmoid colon may be affected in mesenteric ischaemia, it is not the most common site. It is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The hepatic flexure, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, and the ileocaecal segment, which is also supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, are not the most common sites of mesenteric ischaemia. The jejunum, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, may also be affected, but it is not the most common site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old man presents with epigastric pain which radiates to the back. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with epigastric pain which radiates to the back. He feels nauseous and has been vomiting since arriving at the Emergency Department (ED). On questioning, the man tells you that he takes no regular medication. He was last in hospital three years ago after he fell from his bicycle when cycling under the influence of alcohol. He was not admitted. He travelled to Nigeria to visit relatives three months ago.
      On examination, the man’s abdomen is tender in the epigastrium. He is jaundiced. He is also tachycardic and pyrexial. Some of his investigation results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 320 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 70 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 45 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      What is the best initial treatment for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admission, iv fluids, analgesia, keep nil by mouth and place a nasogastric tube

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Treatment for Pancreatitis and Cholecystitis: Differentiating Symptoms and Initial Management

      Pancreatitis and cholecystitis are two conditions that can present with similar symptoms, such as epigastric pain and nausea. However, the nature of the pain and other clinical indicators can help differentiate between the two and guide appropriate initial treatment.

      For a patient with pancreatitis, initial treatment would involve admission, IV fluids, analgesia, and keeping them nil by mouth. A nasogastric tube may also be placed to help with vomiting and facilitate healing. Antibiotics and surgical intervention are not typically indicated unless there are complications such as necrosis or abscess.

      In contrast, a patient with cholecystitis would receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and analgesia as initial management. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy would only be considered after further investigations such as abdominal ultrasound or MRCP.

      It’s important to note that other factors, such as a recent history of travel, may also need to be considered in determining appropriate treatment. However, careful evaluation of symptoms and clinical indicators can help guide initial management and ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old male patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. The consultant contacts the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. The consultant contacts the house officer and requests a prescription for prophylactic antibiotics. What is the recommended prophylactic antibiotic for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Antibiotics for Gut Surgery

      Prophylactic antibiotics are commonly used in gut surgery to prevent wound infections, which can occur in up to 60% of cases. The use of prophylactic antibiotics has been shown to significantly reduce the incidence of these infections. Co-amoxiclav is the preferred choice for non-penicillin allergic patients, as it is effective against the types of bacteria commonly found in the gut, including anaerobes, enterococci, and coliforms.

      While cefotaxime is often used to treat meningitis, it is not typically used as a prophylactic antibiotic in gut surgery. In patients with mild penicillin allergies, cefuroxime and metronidazole may be used instead. However, it is important to note that cephalosporins should be avoided in elderly patients whenever possible, as they are at a higher risk of developing C. difficile infections. Overall, the use of prophylactic antibiotics is an important measure in preventing wound infections in gut surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history of increasing frequency of diarrhoea and abdominal pain. The patient is now opening his bowels up to eight times a day, and he is also needing to get up during the night to pass motions. He describes the stool as watery, with some mucous and blood. He is also suffering with intermittent cramping abdominal pain. He has had no recent foreign travel, and no other contacts have been unwell with similar symptoms. He has lost almost 6 kg in weight. He has no other past medical history of note.
      Inflammatory bowel disease is high on the list of differentials.
      Which one of the following is most commonly associated with Ulcerative colitis (UC)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectal involvement

      Explanation:

      Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that affect the colon and rectum. However, there are several differences between the two conditions.

      Rectal Involvement
      UC usually originates in the rectum and progresses proximally, while Crohn’s colitis can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the duodenum.

      Transmural Inflammation
      Crohn’s colitis involves transmural inflammation, while UC typically affects only the submucosa or mucosa.

      Anal Fistulae and Abscesses
      Crohn’s colitis is more likely to cause anal fistulae and abscesses due to its transmural inflammation, while UC is less prone to these complications.

      Duodenal Involvement
      UC usually affects only the colon, while Crohn’s colitis can involve the duodenum. As a result, colectomy is often curative in UC but not in Crohn’s disease.

      Symptoms and Severity
      Both conditions can cause bloody diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. However, the severity of UC is measured by the number of bowel movements per day, abdominal pain and distension, signs of toxicity, blood loss and anemia, and colon dilation.

      Understanding the Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old man presents with upper abdominal pain and is diagnosed with Helicobacter...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with upper abdominal pain and is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. He is treated with appropriate eradication therapy and advised to follow up with his general practitioner for testing of eradication.
      What would be the most suitable method for testing eradication in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The 13C urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Methods for Detecting and Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection

      There are several methods available for detecting and confirming eradication of H. pylori infection. Serologic testing for antibodies to H. pylori in the blood or saliva is a cheap and simple initial detection method with high sensitivity and specificity. However, it is not useful for follow-up as patients may continue to have antibodies for several months after eradication therapy. Stool sample analysis may also be used for initial detection, but the 13C urea breath test is currently the only recommended method for confirming eradication following treatment. Histological examination of tissue biopsy samples is an invasive procedure and not recommended for eradication testing. The CLO test, which is carried out on biopsied tissue at endoscopy, can provide immediate results but is also an invasive procedure and not appropriate for confirming eradication. Overall, the 13C urea breath test is the most reliable method for confirming eradication of H. pylori infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man is admitted to Emergency Department (ED) with haematemesis of bright...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is admitted to Emergency Department (ED) with haematemesis of bright red blood. He is an alcoholic. He has cool extremities, guarding over the epigastric region, he is ascitic, and has eight spider naevi on his neck and chest. An ABCD management is begun along with fluid resuscitation.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what medication is it most important to start?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      In cases of suspected variceal bleeding, the priority medication to administer is terlipressin. This drug causes constriction of the mesenteric arterial circulation, leading to a decrease in portal venous inflow and subsequent reduction in portal pressure, which can help to control bleeding. Band ligation should be performed after administering terlipressin, and if bleeding persists, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be necessary. Antibiotics may also be given prophylactically, but they do not directly affect bleeding. Clopidogrel should be avoided as it can worsen bleeding, while omeprazole may be used according to hospital guidelines. Tranexamic acid is not indicated for oesophageal variceal bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - Which statement about kernicterus is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about kernicterus is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diagnosis requires the histological confirmation of yellow staining of brain tissue on autopsy caused by fat soluble unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperbilirubinemia and its Effects on Infants

      Hyperbilirubinemia, a condition characterized by high levels of bilirubin in the blood, can have severe consequences for infants. In some cases, intracellular crystals may be observed in the intestinal mucosa of affected infants, which may be related to gastrointestinal bleeding. However, the most significant long-term effects of hyperbilirubinemia are neurological in nature. Infants who experience marked hyperbilirubinemia may develop a chronic syndrome of neurological sequelae, including athetosis, gaze disturbance, and hearing loss.

      Even if the affected infant survives the neonatal period, the effects of hyperbilirubinemia may persist. If the infant subsequently dies, the yellow staining of neural tissue may no longer be present, but microscopic evidence of cell injury, neuronal loss, and glial replacement may be observed in the basal ganglia. These findings highlight the importance of early detection and treatment of hyperbilirubinemia in infants to prevent long-term neurological damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to recurrent indigestion. During the procedure, a small duodenal ulcer is discovered and Helicobacter pylori is found to be present. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole, amoxicillin and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter Pylori and Peptic Ulceration

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacteria that is classified as a gram negative curved rod. It has been linked to the development of peptic ulceration by inhibiting the processes involved in healing. In fact, up to 90% of patients with duodenal ulceration and 70% of cases of peptic ulceration may be caused by Helicobacter infection.

      To treat this condition, therapy should focus on acid suppression and eradication of Helicobacter. Triple therapy is the most effective treatment, which involves using a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole along with two antibiotics such as amoxicillin and metronidazole or clarithromycin. This treatment is required for one week, and proton pump therapy should continue thereafter.

      Overall, it is important to address Helicobacter pylori infection in patients with peptic ulceration to promote healing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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