-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old man has cerebrovascular disease and his memory has been getting slowly worse for the past three years. He is diagnosed with an abdominal aortic aneurysm and ideally should have an operation.
Which one of the following is correct?Your Answer: You should advise him of the risks and benefits and of alternative options and see if he understands this and is able to weigh it up in his mind
Correct Answer: You should ask his family to consent on his behalf
Explanation:Presumption of Capacity in Medical Decision Making
In medical decision making, it is important to work on the presumption that every adult patient has the capacity to make decisions about their care. This means that you should not assume that a patient lacks capacity based on their age, disability, appearance, behavior, medical condition, beliefs, or apparent inability to communicate. Instead, you should provide all appropriate help and support to help the patient understand, retain, use, and weigh up the information needed to make a decision.
In order to maximize the patient’s ability to make a decision, you should share information in a way that the patient can understand, at a time and place when they are best able to retain it. You should also involve other members of the healthcare team if appropriate, and give the patient time to reflect before and after making a decision. It is important to provide information in a balanced way without pressuring the patient to accept your advice or recommendation.
In the scenario where a patient has poor memory, you should advise him of the risks and benefits and alternative options, and see if he is able to understand and weigh this up in his mind. You should not assume he lacks capacity just because of his memory, and nor should you involve his family in the decision. Instead, assume he has capacity to make a decision unless you are convinced otherwise. By following these principles, you can ensure that medical decision making is based on the presumption of capacity and respects the patient’s autonomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. He is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and heart failure.
Whilst in hospital he is started on:
Aspirin 75 mg OD
Simvastatin 40 mg ON
Bisoprolol 5 mg OD
Digoxin 125 mcg OD
Ramipril 10 mg OD and
Furosemide 40 mg OD.
He comes to see you a few days after discharge complaining of feeling generally unwell. His wife tells you that he has been a bit confused and that he has vomited on several occasions. The patient also reports that his vision is blurred and has a yellow tinge to it.
On examination, he is in atrial fibrillation at a rate of 60 beats per minute, his chest is clear and he has minimal pedal oedema.
He was seen two days ago by the practice nurse for blood tests.
The results showed
Sodium 136 mmol/L (137 - 144)
Potassium 2.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 4.9)
Urea 6.4 mmol/L (2.5 - 7.5)
Creatinine 124 μmol/L (60 - 110)
What is the underlying cause of his unwellness?Your Answer: Drug toxicity
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Symptoms of Digoxin Toxicity
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of digoxin toxicity, which can occur when taking the medication for heart failure or atrial fibrillation. Hypokalaemia increases the risk of developing digoxin toxicity, which can cause confusion, vomiting, blurred vision, and xanthopsia (yellow tinge to vision). While confusion may also indicate an embolic CVA, the other symptoms do not fit. Liver failure would cause jaundice, but the patient’s vision has a yellow tinge, not their sclerae. Renal artery stenosis is usually suspected if renal function deteriorates after starting an ACE inhibitor, but the patient’s urea is normal. Therefore, the patient should be admitted to the hospital immediately for assessment and treatment. Digoxin-specific antibody fragments (Digibind ®) are available for use in cases of life-threatening overdosage, and may be necessary beyond withdrawing the digoxin and correcting any electrolyte abnormalities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old gentleman has just begun taking galantamine for his moderate dementia. He initially experienced a runny nose and dry cough. Presently, he is expressing concern about new mouth ulcers, a tender red rash on his trunk, and feeling generally unwell. When his skin is gently rubbed, blisters appear.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Correct Answer: Shingles
Explanation:Galantamine and Serious Skin Reactions
Clues that suggest a diagnosis of serious skin reactions include the recent use of galantamine, a prodromal illness, a tender red rash with mucosal involvement, and a positive Nikolsky sign. Patients taking galantamine should be informed about the signs of serious skin reactions and advised to discontinue the medication at the first appearance of a skin rash. Galantamine is known to increase the risk of developing Stevens-Johnson syndrome, erythema multiforme, and acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis. As the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors is becoming more common, it is important to review the common and rare side effects of these medications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
What is the accurate statement about pharmacology in elderly individuals?
Your Answer: Hepatic mass and blood flow tend to remain stable with advancing age
Correct Answer: Renal function tends to remain stable despite advancing age
Explanation:Care of Older Adults in General Practice
The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has emphasized that the care of older adults will be a significant part of a General Practitioner’s workload. It is crucial to consider issues such as comorbidity, communication difficulties, polypharmacy, and the need for support for increasingly dependent patients.
One important factor to keep in mind is that there is a reduced plasma protein binding of drugs with age. This can result in more drug availability, leading to side effects. Additionally, declining renal and hepatic function in the elderly can make them more susceptible to drug toxicity. Therefore, it may be necessary to prescribe lower doses than those given to a healthy adult.
As people age, their renal function tends to decline, and the rate of gastric emptying slows down. Hepatic mass and blood flow also decrease, and intestinal motility tends to decrease with age. These factors must be considered when prescribing medication to older adults.
The British National Formulary provides guidelines for prescribing medication to the elderly, and it is essential to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety and well-being of older patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
An 83-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of breathlessness. He reports that a year ago he was able to do his gardening and play a round of golf, but in recent months he has been limited by breathlessness. He notes that the breathlessness settles with rest and denies any cough or chest pain. He doesn't take any prescribed medication but reports taking ibuprofen from the supermarket for his knees. He has a history of osteoarthritis of the knees and occasional gout.
Upon examination, the patient appears well but mildly out of breath upon entering the room. His pulse is 86 bpm in sinus rhythm, and his blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg. Peak flow is 470 L/min, and heart sounds are normal. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral basal end-inspiratory crackles, and there is mild bilateral pitting edema to mid-shin.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Arrange emergency admission
Correct Answer: Measure serum natriuretic peptide
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Symptoms of Heart Failure
This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of heart failure, which could have occurred de novo or been exacerbated by the non-steroidals he has been taking for his knees. While a pulmonary embolus, asthma, or COPD could also be potential causes, the lack of certain symptoms and signs make heart failure the most likely diagnosis.
To confirm this, the next step would be to measure serum natriuretic peptides. Checking spirometry is not incorrect, but it would not be the most appropriate next step. D-dimers and cardiac troponin are not appropriate investigations for heart failure, and there is no indication for emergency admission based on the information given in this scenario.
In addition to natriuretic peptide, further tests would include a 12-lead ECG, chest x-ray, urea and electrolytes, creatinine, full blood count, thyroid function, liver function, glucose, lipids, and urinalysis. These tests will help to rule out other potential causes and guide further management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old gentleman recently began taking donepezil for his moderate dementia. His family became worried when they noticed he was more confused than usual. During examination, he displayed muscle rigidity, sweating, tremors, and was pyrexial. Repeated BP readings were: 160/90, 100/70, 150/80. A urine dipstick test came back negative, and his lung fields were clear upon auscultation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Correct Answer: Pneumonia
Explanation:Clues and Considerations for Patients on AChE Inhibitors
When a patient presents with unexplained pyrexia, autonomic dysfunction, and muscle rigidity, a GP should take note of recent medication changes, such as the initiation of donepezil. These symptoms may indicate a serious adverse reaction to acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors, which are becoming more commonly prescribed. In such cases, the GP should discuss the case with the on-call medical team for an immediate review.
To better understand the potential side effects of AChE inhibitors, it is helpful to review the CKS link provided below. This resource outlines both common and rare adverse reactions to these medications, which can range from gastrointestinal disturbances to more serious neurological symptoms. By staying informed and vigilant, healthcare providers can help ensure the safe and effective use of AChE inhibitors for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
An 85-year-old man patient of yours is discharged from hospital after receiving treatment for a urinary tract infection.
Three days after discharge the lab calls you to say that they received a urine sample before his discharge and there was E. coli present in the urine. However, there are no signs of infection. You call the man back to your surgery to check that he is okay. He has no pain while urinating and says he feels much better.
Which of the following is the best course of action?Your Answer: Vaccination against C. difficile
Correct Answer: Treatment with vancomycin
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Clostridium difficile Infection
A watch and wait policy is recommended for patients with asymptomatic Clostridium difficile infection. Mild cases may not require specific antibiotic treatment, but if necessary, oral metronidazole is the preferred option (dose: 400-500 mg tds for 10-14 days). This has been shown to be as effective as oral vancomycin in mild to moderate cases.
For those who wish to read in greater detail, the link below contains the latest guidance and analysis. However, it is important to note that the information provided is more detailed than what is required for the average GP and only a broad understanding of the management and national recommendations is expected for the exam.
In this case, the patient is asymptomatic and there are no toxins present, therefore no treatment is necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 75-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion.
Preceding this, he fell three weeks ago in the bathroom. In the afternoon he was examined by his GP and he was alert with a normal physical examination. The patient has a history of hypertension for which he takes bendroflumethiazide.
Three weeks later the patient was visited at home because the dazed state had returned. He is afebrile, has a pulse of 80 per minute regular and blood pressure of 152/86 mmHg. His response to questions is slightly slowed, he is disoriented in time and there is some deficit in recent memory.
The patient moves slowly, but muscle strength is preserved. Neurologic examination shows slight hyperactivity of the tendon reflexes on the right. Plantar responses are unclear because of bilateral withdrawal. That gives him a GCS score of 14.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate next investigation for this man?Your Answer: Serum alcohol concentration
Explanation:Chronic Subdural Haematoma in the Elderly
The patient’s history of a previous fall and subsequent development of confusion and neurological symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of chronic subdural haematoma. The best investigation for this condition is a CT scan, which is the preferred choice over a skull x-ray that may only reveal a fracture.
Chronic subdural haematoma is a common condition in the elderly, and it occurs when blood accumulates between the brain and the outermost layer of the brain’s protective covering. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including confusion, headaches, and difficulty with balance and coordination. If left untreated, chronic subdural haematoma can lead to serious complications, such as seizures, coma, and even death.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her son who is worried about her memory. A mini-mental state examination (scored out of 30) is conducted. What is the appropriate threshold to indicate the presence of dementia?
Your Answer: 20 or less
Correct Answer: 24 or less
Explanation:Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman presents for a check-up. She complains of feeling fatigued and drained and requests some tests. She has a medical history of hypertension treated with valsartan, chronic atrial fibrillation and chronic heart failure managed with digoxin and furosemide, and asthma for which she uses salbutamol. During the examination, her potassium level is measured and found to be low at 3.1 mmol/l. Which medication is the probable culprit for her hypokalaemia?
Your Answer: Furosemide
Correct Answer: Salbutamol
Explanation:Medications and their effects on potassium levels
Whilst both salbutamol and furosemide can lead to hypokalaemia, furosemide has a more significant impact on potassium levels at therapeutic doses. On the other hand, digoxin toxicity may cause vomiting and hypokalaemia, but it is not directly linked to low potassium levels. In contrast, spironolactone and valsartan are known to cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to be aware of the potential effects of medications on potassium levels to ensure appropriate monitoring and management of electrolyte imbalances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man has a very poor memory. He makes up stories to account for gaps in his memory. He doesn't realise what he is doing.
On examination he seems apathetic and has an unsteady gait. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Malingering
Correct Answer: Complex partial seizures
Explanation:Korsakoff’s Syndrome: A Case of Poor Memory and Confabulation
Looking at this case history, it is evident that the patient is experiencing poor memory, confabulation, lack of insight, apathy, and an ataxic gait. These symptoms are typical of Korsakoff’s Syndrome, which is commonly caused by alcohol abuse. The syndrome presents with a triad of symptoms, including mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Confabulation is a characteristic of Korsakoff’s, making it the most likely diagnosis of those given above. However, it can be prevented by administering thiamine.
In summary, Korsakoff’s Syndrome is a serious condition that can result in poor memory, confabulation, and other debilitating symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further damage and improving the patient’s quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
You are working a morning session in a GP practice in the north of England.
Out of the six prescriptions you sign that morning, which one would be exempt from NHS prescription charges for a patient who is 65 years old?Your Answer: A prescription of amoxicillin, for chest infection
Correct Answer: A prescription of desogestrel ('Cerazette') as a contraceptive
Explanation:Prescription charges do not apply to prescribed contraceptives in England, as they are exempt from such charges. Other exempt drugs include STI treatments and medications that a GP can administer. It is important to note that this exemption only applies to England and not to Wales, Scotland, or Northern Ireland. However, if Dianette is prescribed for acne rather than as a contraceptive, it would be subject to prescription charges. Additionally, there are extensive lists of medical conditions that qualify patients for free prescriptions.
Prescription Charges in England: Who is Eligible for Free Prescriptions?
In England, prescription charges apply to most medications, but certain groups of people are entitled to free prescriptions. These include children under 16, those aged 16-18 in full-time education, the elderly (aged 60 or over), and individuals who receive income support or jobseeker’s allowance. Additionally, patients with a prescription exemption certificate are exempt from prescription charges.
Certain medications are also exempt from prescription charges, such as contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications administered by a GP.
Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year, as well as individuals with certain chronic medical conditions, are eligible for a prescription exemption certificate. These conditions include hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, and certain types of cancer.
For patients who are not eligible for free prescriptions but receive frequent prescriptions, a pre-payment certificate (PPC) may be a cost-effective option. PPCs are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rapidly worsening shortness of breath over the past four to five weeks. He reports bilateral ankle swelling and has experienced two episodes of gasping for breath in the past week. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes indapamide and amlodipine. On examination, his BP is 122/72, his pulse is 90 and regular, and he has bibasal crackles on chest auscultation and bilateral pitting edema. Laboratory investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 122 g/L (135-177), white cells of 8.3 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 182 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 141 mmol/L (135-146), potassium of 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine of 122 μmol/L (79-118), and BNP of 520 pg/mL (<100). Based on the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Commence furosemide and review in four weeks
Correct Answer: Commence ramipril and review in four weeks
Explanation:Referral Guidelines for Suspected Heart Failure with Elevated BNP Levels
According to NICE CG106, individuals with suspected heart failure and an NT-proBNP level between 400 and 2,000 ng/litre should be referred for specialist assessment and transthoracic echocardiography within 6 weeks. Urgent referral within 2 weeks is recommended for those with NT-proBNP levels above 2,000 ng/litre due to the poor prognosis associated with very high levels of BNP.
For individuals with NT-proBNP levels below 400 ng/litre, alternative causes for symptoms of heart failure should be reviewed. If there is still concern that the symptoms may be related to heart failure, consultation with a physician with subspeciality training in heart failure is recommended.
It is important to note that very high levels of BNP carry a poor prognosis with respect to both morbidity and increased risk of hospital admission and mortality from heart failure. If transthoracic echocardiogram images are poor, other imaging methods such as radionucleotide scanning or transoesophageal echo should be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
You assess a new admission to the residential home you manage. Mary is an 84-year-old woman with moderate dementia. She appears to be pleasantly confused but tends to wander around and occasionally shouts that she wants to go home. The nursing staff have informed you that they have locked the entry door to the floor of the residential home to prevent her from leaving and getting lost. What would be the legally appropriate advice in this situation?
Your Answer: Roger would need to be sectioned under the Mental Health Act to allow the home to lock the door lawfully
Correct Answer: You should suggest the residential home should apply for a DOLS (Deprivation of Liberty Safeguard) for Roger.
Explanation:It is evident from the given details that Roger’s freedom is being curtailed as the nurses have locked the door to prevent him from leaving, citing concerns about his conduct. This constitutes a deprivation of liberty.
The website of the Social Care Institute for Excellence offers a comprehensive explanation of the DOLS (Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards) law. It cites instances that would qualify as a ‘deprivation of liberty,’ such as ’employing locks or keypads that restrict a person’s movement in and out of various sections of a structure.’
Understanding the Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards
The Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards (DOLS) are a set of regulations that were introduced as an amendment to the Mental Capacity Act 2005. These safeguards apply only in England and Wales and are designed to ensure that individuals are not deprived of their liberty without proper justification. While the Mental Capacity Act allows for the use of restraint and restrictions, these can only be used if they are deemed to be in the best interests of the person in question. However, if these measures are likely to result in the deprivation of an individual’s liberty, additional safeguards must be put in place.
The DOLS can only be used in care homes or hospitals, and in other settings, the Court of Protection must be consulted to determine whether an individual can be deprived of their liberty. Before a standard authorisation can be given, six assessments must be carried out to ensure that the individual’s rights are being protected. If a standard authorisation is granted, the person must have a relevant person’s representative appointed to represent them legally. This representative is usually a family member or friend.
Other safeguards include the right to challenge authorisations in the Court of Protection without cost and access to independent mental capacity advocates (IMCAs). These measures are in place to ensure that individuals are not deprived of their liberty without proper justification and that their rights are protected at all times.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old smoker with severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis is seen following discharge after suffering an ischaemic stroke. He has been treated with antiplatelet medication, lipid lowering medication and antihypertensives. He is following a smoking prevention programme and is in sinus rhythm. Apart from hypertension, there is no other relevant history.
According to NICE CKS Guidance, what is the target systolic blood pressure range for this patient?Your Answer: 150-160
Correct Answer: 120-130
Explanation:Target Systolic Blood Pressure Range for Patients with Severe Bilateral Carotid Artery Stenosis
When managing blood pressure following stroke or TIA, it is important to consider the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis. For most patients, the target systolic blood pressure should be below 130mmHg. However, in the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis, the target systolic blood pressure range should be between 140-150mmHg.
It is important to note that other considerations such as lifestyle advice, lipid lowering therapy, and antiplatelets should also be taken into account. However, when specifically asked about the target systolic blood pressure range, it is important to focus on this without distraction. Treatment for hypertension may include a thiazide-like diuretic, long-acting calcium channel blocker, or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. By considering the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 87-year-old nursing home resident is being treated for a urinary tract infection. She is found wandering outside the nursing home in an agitated state during the night. Despite receiving proper antibiotic therapy, nursing care, and environmental modifications, she continues to be aggressive and agitated, posing a potential danger to herself. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?
Your Answer: Lorazepam 2 mg intramuscularly
Correct Answer: Haloperidol 0.5 mg orally
Explanation:The use of olanzapine is also recommended by NICE.
Understanding Acute Confusional State
Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to the hospital. It is often caused by a combination of predisposing factors such as age, dementia, significant injury, frailty, and polypharmacy, as well as precipitating events like infections, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and severe pain.
The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but commonly include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep cycle, and poor attention. Management of the condition involves treating the underlying cause, modifying the environment, and using sedatives like haloperidol or olanzapine. However, care must be taken in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen their symptoms.
Overall, understanding acute confusional state is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with a thiazide diuretic, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, for which he takes a high dose seretide inhaler and tiotropium. Pulmonary function testing showed only 8% reversibility. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 149/72 mmHg, pulse is 80 beats per minute and regular. Laboratory results show a haemoglobin level of 138 g/L (135-177), white cell count of 5.4 ×109/L (4-11), platelet count of 203 ×109/L (150-400), sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level of 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine level of 131 μmol/L (79-118). An echocardiogram revealed an ejection fraction of 35%. Based on NICE guidelines, which medication would you adjust in the next step of his management?
Your Answer: Change thiazide for furosemide
Correct Answer: Start ramipril and furosemide
Explanation:Management of Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction
Managing heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) requires adherence to NICE guidelines. One key performance indicator is recognizing that patients with COPD who have no significant reversibility may safely be treated with beta blockers licensed for heart failure. Another important aspect is the sequential treatment approach, starting with diuretics and then offering an ACEI and BB. If symptoms persist, an MRA may be added, with careful monitoring of serum sodium, potassium, and renal function. In patients with an eGFR of 30 to 45 ml/min/1.73 m2, lower doses or slower titration of certain medications may be necessary. Co-prescription of beta blockers and ACE inhibitors is recommended, with careful titration to achieve optimal therapeutic effect. It is important to note that diltiazem and verapamil are not recommended for HFrEF by NICE guidelines. By following these guidelines, patients with HFrEF can receive effective management and improve their outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 70-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and difficulty moving for the past three days. She denies any chest or abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, sweating, or fever. This patient is known to be a private individual and can be difficult to deal with. She has no family except for a daughter whom she has not spoken to in 20 years. On examination, she appears pale and mildly short of breath, with crackles at both lung bases and an intermittent ventricular gallop. Her blood pressure is 126/70 mm Hg sitting and 119/65 mmHg standing. Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 90 g/L, plasma glucose of 5.3 mmol/L, urea of 7 mmol/L, serum creatinine of 100 µmol/L, sodium of 135 mmol/L, potassium of 4.0 mmol/L, and bicarbonate of 24 mmol/L. Despite your recommendation for hospital admission, she refuses and asks that you not contact her daughter. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Prescribe furosemide, 40 mg orally, and visit her again the next day
Explanation:Managing Heart Failure Related Peripheral Oedema in Primary Care
This patient is not incompetent and has clearly expressed her wishes, which should be respected. She has requested that her daughter not be contacted. Additionally, a physical examination has revealed heart failure, likely exacerbated by her anaemia. The most appropriate initial therapy would be diuretics, which should be prescribed and the patient closely monitored. While hospitalization may be suggested, it is important to approach this with sensitivity and attempt to gain the patient’s agreement. In managing heart failure related peripheral oedema in primary care, it is crucial to prioritize patient autonomy and provide appropriate medical interventions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
You are preparing to conduct a search for all your elderly patients who need the yearly flu shot. Which of the following groups should not be included in the registry?
Your Answer: Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with diet
Correct Answer: Asthmatics controlled with salbutamol only
Explanation:If an asthmatic is at BTS stage 1 and only takes salbutamol, they do not require any vaccinations. However, if they are at BTS stages 2-4 and use a steroid inhaler, they should receive an annual influenza vaccination. For those with severe asthma who require regular or long-term use of prednisolone at BTS stage 5, they should receive both an annual influenza and pneumococcal vaccination.
influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 73-year-old man comes in with painful lumps in his feet and is diagnosed with gout. After initial treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, he is prescribed allopurinol. What is the mechanism of action of allopurinol?
Your Answer: Inhibits cyclooxygenase II
Explanation:Allopurinol: Inhibiting the Conversion of Purines to Uric Acid
Allopurinol is a medication that works by inhibiting the activity of xanthine oxidase, an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the conversion of purines into uric acid. By blocking this enzyme, allopurinol helps to reduce the levels of uric acid in the body, which can be beneficial for individuals with conditions such as gout or kidney stones.
According to the British National Formulary, allopurinol is commonly used to prevent gout attacks and to manage conditions associated with high levels of uric acid in the blood. The medication is typically taken orally, and its effects can be seen within a few weeks of starting treatment.
In a story published by The Pharmaceutical Journal, allopurinol is described as a drug that does exactly what it says on the tin. The article notes that the medication has been in use for over 50 years and is considered to be safe and effective for most patients. However, it also highlights the importance of monitoring patients for potential side effects, such as skin rashes or liver damage.
Overall, allopurinol is a valuable medication for individuals with conditions related to high levels of uric acid. Its ability to inhibit xanthine oxidase makes it an effective tool for managing gout and other related conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man attends for his annual COPD review.
As part of his assessment you discuss his symptoms. He tells you that he can walk around without any problems on level ground but if he has to hurry or walk up an incline then he becomes breathless and has to stop to catch his breath.
How would you grade his degree of breathlessness according to the Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea scale?Your Answer: Grade 3
Correct Answer: Grade 1
Explanation:The Importance of Grading Patients’ Symptoms
Grading patients’ symptoms is a crucial aspect of assessing disease severity, tailoring treatment, and monitoring treatment effect. One useful tool for this purpose is the Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea scale, which has been introduced as part of the quality and outcomes framework in General practice. As part of the COPD assessment, it is essential to record the MRC grading in the patient notes.
The MRC dyspnoea scale grades the degree of breathlessness related to activities. The scale ranges from grade 0, where the patient is not troubled by breathlessness except on strenuous exercise, to grade 4, where the patient is too breathless to leave the house or breathless when dressing or undressing. By using this scale, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of a patient’s symptoms and tailor treatment accordingly. It is essential to record the MRC grading in the patient notes to monitor treatment effect and adjust treatment plans as necessary. Overall, grading patients’ symptoms is a crucial aspect of providing effective healthcare and improving patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 68-year old gentleman is seen for follow up. He has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. His echocardiogram shows a reduced ejection fraction. On reviewing his medications you can see that he has been taking atenolol going back many years for hypertension.
Which of the following beta blockers would you recommend he switches to in order to enhance his heart failure treatment?Your Answer: Esmolol
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Beta Blockers for Heart Failure
Beta blockers have been proven to increase the survival rate of patients with heart failure in numerous clinical trials. In the UK, there are three licensed drugs for this purpose: Bisoprolol, Carvedilol, and Nebivolol. If a patient is newly diagnosed with left ventricular systolic function and is already taking a beta blocker, it is recommended to switch them to one of the beta blockers that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. This can help improve the patient’s overall health and increase their chances of survival.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test score.
He says he is a bit worried about his memory. He is a retired lawyer. The three questions he got wrong related to short-term memory loss.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer: Prescribe an acetylcholinesterase
Correct Answer: Diagnose dementia
Explanation:Management of Memory Loss in the Elderly
MRCGP candidates are expected to have an understanding of the management of conditions commonly associated with old age, including memory loss. However, the correct course of management for memory loss would be to undertake a full assessment in the first instance. The abbreviated mental test is only a screening test and should not be used alone to form a diagnosis. If a significant problem is found, it is usual to refer to memory assessment services, which may be provided by a memory assessment clinic or community mental health teams. This should be the single point of referral for all people with a possible diagnosis of dementia. GPs would not normally initiate prescribing in this manner, although they may be involved in a shared care arrangement with specialist initiation and supervision of medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
An 88-year-old female patient of yours has multiple medical problems.
She takes aspirin, paracetamol, bisoprolol, ramipril, codeine, omeprazole and nifedipine. She says she tries to remember to take her tablets but she doesn't attend for repeat prescriptions as often as she should. When compliant, she is stable and well.
Which one of the following regarding this lady's treatment is correct?Your Answer: You should stop all medications as there is little evidence of effectiveness in patients of this age
Correct Answer: You should give 'once daily' regimens where possible
Explanation:Factors to Consider in Drug Treatments for MRCGP Exam
For the MRCGP exam, it is important to have a good understanding of the factors associated with drug treatments. This includes knowledge of drug metabolism, absorption, and excretion. Candidates should also be aware of multiple prescribing, non-compliance by patients, and iatrogenic disease.
In this scenario, it is important to consider the patient’s medication regimen and the possibility of non-compliance. While it may be premature to talk about stopping medications, it is recommended to give ‘once daily’ regimens where possible. Admitting the patient to residential care solely for medication compliance is extreme and likely unnecessary.
To further enhance knowledge on medication compliance, the BMJ offers evidence and tips on the use of medication compliance aids. Additionally, the ABC of monitoring drug therapy provides a comprehensive guide on patient compliance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
During a new patient consultation for an 82-year-old man who has recently joined the practice, you observe that he is significantly underweight and suspect that he may be malnourished. As per NICE guidelines, what is the BMI threshold for diagnosing malnutrition?
Your Answer: < 18 kg/m²
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Understanding Malnutrition and its Management
Malnutrition is a complex and multifactorial problem that can be difficult to manage. It is an important consequence of and contributor to chronic disease. NICE defines malnutrition as having a Body Mass Index (BMI) of less than 18.5, unintentional weight loss greater than 10% within the last 3-6 months, or a BMI of less than 20 and unintentional weight loss greater than 5% within the last 3-6 months.
Around 10% of patients aged over 65 years are malnourished, with the majority of those living independently. Screening for malnutrition is mostly done using the Malnutrition Universal Screen Tool (MUST), which takes into account BMI, recent weight change, and the presence of acute disease. It categorizes patients into low, medium, and high risk and should be done on admission to care/nursing homes and hospitals or if there is concern, such as an elderly, thin patient with pressure sores.
Managing malnutrition is difficult, but NICE recommends a few points. If the patient is high-risk, dietician support is necessary. A ‘food-first’ approach with clear instructions, such as adding full-fat cream to mashed potato, is preferred over just prescribing oral nutritional supplements (ONS) like Ensure. If ONS is used, it should be taken between meals, rather than instead of meals.
In conclusion, malnutrition is a serious issue that requires proper screening and management. By following the guidelines set by NICE, healthcare professionals can help prevent and treat malnutrition in their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old female presents with fatigue and episodic palpitations.
She presents during one of these episodes and the ECG reveals atrial fibrillation which resolves within 30 minutes.
What would be the most appropriate next investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Coronary angiography
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation: Possible Causes and Diagnostic Tests
Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) can have various underlying causes, including thyrotoxicosis, mitral stenosis, ischaemic heart disease, and alcohol consumption. Therefore, it is essential to conduct thyroid function tests to aid in the diagnosis of AF, as it can be challenging to identify based solely on clinical symptoms. Additionally, an echocardiogram should be requested to evaluate left ventricular function and valve function, which would be obtained from a cardiologist. However, coronary angiography is unlikely to be performed. A full blood count, calcium, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), or lipid tests would not be useful in characterizing and treating AF. By conducting these diagnostic tests, healthcare professionals can identify the underlying cause of AF and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner reporting a weight loss of 10 kg in the past four months. He has been experiencing increased fatigue but has not made any changes to his diet or exercise routine.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Colorectal cancer
Correct Answer: Prostate cancer
Explanation:Possible Causes of Unexplained Weight Loss in Older Adults
Unexplained weight loss in older adults is a symptom of malignancy and should be investigated promptly. The most prevalent cancer among men in the UK is prostate cancer, which frequently presents with no specific symptoms. Other symptoms of prostate cancer include lower urinary tract symptoms, anorexia, haematuria, erectile dysfunction, lethargy, and low back pain. Lung cancer and colorectal cancer can also cause weight loss, but they are less common among men than prostate cancer. Lung cancer may present with fatigue, shortness of breath, cough, chest pain, haemoptysis, or recurrent chest infections, and may be associated with finger clubbing or lymphadenopathy. Colorectal cancer may cause a change in bowel habit, rectal bleeding, fatigue, and abdominal pain, and may be accompanied by an abdominal or rectal mass. Frailty is another possible cause of unintentional weight loss, but it is usually associated with other indicators, such as slow gait speed, loss of grip strength, exhaustion, and low levels of physical activity. Type I diabetes mellitus can also cause weight loss, but it is more commonly diagnosed in young people, while Type II diabetes is more likely to occur in older age and is associated with weight gain rather than weight loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
You are seeing a 63-year-old gentleman with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
His most recent spirometry done six weeks ago shows an FEV1 of 62% predicted and doesn't appear to vary very much over time. He is currently using an inhaled short-acting beta agonist as required. He tells you that despite using his inhaler up to four times a day he feels persistently breathless.
He stopped smoking five years ago. He denies any acute infective symptoms or haemoptysis. On reviewing the history and the clinical record he has not been treated for an acute exacerbation in the last year.
On examination there is some global reduction in air entry bilaterally but no other focal chest signs. Heart sounds are normal and there is no peripheral oedema. A recent chest x ray is reported as being unchanged from one performed 18 months previously.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in his pharmacological management?Your Answer: Add in a LABA+ICS in a combination inhaler
Correct Answer: Add in a regular ICS
Explanation:Treatment Options for COPD Patients with Persistent Breathlessness
Here we have a patient with COPD who is persistently breathless despite regular use of a short acting beta agonist (SABA) and has an FEV1 of greater than 50%. In this case, add-on inhaled treatment is indicated. According to available guidelines and evidence, the options are to start a long acting beta agonist (LABA) or a long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA).
Of the options given, the addition of a LAMA is the correct answer, provided there are no asthmatic features or indicators of steroid responsiveness. If these features are present, then a combination of LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) would be considered. It is important to note that proper treatment options should be discussed with a healthcare professional.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
You are called to a nursing home to see a 85-year-old lady who has become acutely confused.
She has a past medical history of hypertension and hypothyroidism. These are well controlled on bendroflumethazide 2.5 mg OD and thyroxine 100 mcg OD.
On arrival she is disoriented to time and place; and the nursing staff report that earlier she seemed to be hallucinating. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.1°C, pulse rate of 92 regular and a blood pressure of 108/88 mmHg. Blood sugar is 4.6.
What is the next most appropriate acute action?Your Answer: Urine dipstick
Correct Answer: Think sepsis and check symptoms and signs using a local or national tool
Explanation:Management of Acute Confusional State in Elderly Patients
This patient is presenting with an acute confusional state and pyrexia, which is most likely caused by an underlying infection. An anxiolytic is not the appropriate treatment as it doesn’t address the underlying cause. Additionally, oral glucose is not necessary as the patient’s blood sugar is within the normal range. While a cerebrovascular accident should be considered in any elderly patient who is confused, this patient doesn’t exhibit any focal neurological signs and the clinical picture is more consistent with an infective cause. Therefore, administering aspirin is not recommended.
For elderly patients over 65 years old, a urine dipstick test should not be performed. Instead, healthcare providers should use the PINCH ME method to exclude other causes of delirium. In cases of an acutely confused, pyrexial, elderly patient, sepsis should be considered and managed accordingly.
When it comes to urinary tract infections, antibiotics should only be prescribed when appropriate. Factors such as the severity of symptoms, the presence of complicating factors, and the likelihood of bacterial infection should be taken into account before prescribing antibiotics. Overuse of antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance, so it is important to use them judiciously.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
John is a 91 year old man with severe dementia. He has been relatively stable over the past two years with a gradual decline in cognition. The nursing home contacts you to report that he has been exhibiting more aggressive behavior, including swearing and hitting staff, over the past month and requests a review. What would be the most suitable approach to managing this situation?
Your Answer: Refer to old age psychiatry
Correct Answer: Assess for a cause of delirium
Explanation:Janet’s recent change in behavior may be a result of her dementia progression, but it is crucial to rule out any physical causes, including delirium. Neglecting to do so could lead to a high risk of mortality associated with delirium.
The Alzheimer’s Society recommends investigating the following potential causes when dealing with challenging behavior in the elderly:
– Infections, such as chest infections and urinary tract infections (UTIs)
– Pre-existing injuries, such as cuts or bruises
– Constipation
– Pain
– Existing conditions, such as arthritis
– Being in an uncomfortable position or being moved in an uncomfortable way
– Overgrown toenails or fingernails
– Toothache, earache, or issues with dentures.Understanding the Differences between Delirium and Dementia
Delirium and dementia are two conditions that are often confused with each other. However, there are distinct differences between the two. Delirium is characterized by an acute onset, impairment of consciousness, fluctuation of symptoms, abnormal perception, agitation, fear, and delusions. On the other hand, dementia is a chronic condition that develops slowly over time and is characterized by memory loss, difficulty with language, and impaired judgment.
Factors that favor delirium over dementia include the sudden onset of symptoms, impairment of consciousness, and fluctuation of symptoms. Delirium symptoms tend to be worse at night and may include abnormal perceptions such as illusions and hallucinations. Patients with delirium may also experience agitation, fear, and delusions.
It is important to distinguish between delirium and dementia as they require different treatment approaches. Delirium is often reversible once the underlying cause is identified and treated, while dementia is a progressive condition that requires ongoing management. By understanding the differences between these two conditions, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He reports experiencing shortness of breath on exercise, which has worsened over the past few months. He can now only walk 200-300 yards on flat ground and has difficulty climbing stairs. The patient has a history of hypertension and is currently taking amlodipine 5 mg and indapamide 2.5 mg. In the clinic, his blood pressure is 195/90, and he has bibasal crackles indicative of heart failure, but no ankle edema is present.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 139 g/L (115-165)
- White cells: 7.1 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 203 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 139 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 129 μmol/L (79-118)
- Ejection fraction: 55%
What is the most appropriate next therapy for this patient?Your Answer: Lisinopril
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Management of Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction
Whilst the patient in question has been diagnosed with heart failure, their ejection fraction is preserved. According to the NICE guidelines on Chronic heart failure (NG106), the recommended course of action is to manage the patient’s comorbidities. In this case, the patient’s hypertension is the most significant issue, and stepwise blood pressure control with ACE inhibition is the next logical addition to their therapy. If the patient had a reduced ejection fraction, a bblocker would be added at the same time.
Additionally, the patient should be referred for an abdominal ultrasound to check for differential kidney size, which could indicate the presence of renovascular disease. By addressing the patient’s comorbidities and monitoring for potential complications, healthcare providers can effectively manage heart failure with preserved ejection fraction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with his wife. She is worried about his significant cognitive decline over the past few months. Throughout the day, his level of consciousness fluctuates greatly, and he often sleeps for two hours or more. One of your colleagues prescribed him benzodiazepines to aid his sleep, and he reportedly drinks a glass of whisky in the evening. Additionally, there are concerns about visual hallucinations. During the examination, you observe signs of Parkinsonism.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: CJD
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Understanding Lewy Body Dementia
Lewy body dementia is a unique type of dementia that shares characteristics with both dementia and Parkinson’s disease. Patients with Lewy body dementia often experience fluctuating levels of consciousness, with daytime somnolence lasting more than two hours per day. They may also experience visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian movement features, delusions, and syncopal attacks more commonly than other types of dementia.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be able to recognize the main features of Lewy body dementia and avoid prescribing traditional neuroleptics, which can significantly impact movement and even result in sudden death for patients with this disease. With an increased emphasis on the diagnosis and management of dementia in primary care, having an awareness of the different types of dementia and their respective aetiologies and risk factors is crucial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old male presents with cognitive impairment and is diagnosed with dementia.
Which of the following is the most probable cause of the dementia?Your Answer: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Understanding Dementia: Types and Symptoms
Dementia is a clinical condition that involves the loss of cognitive function in multiple domains beyond what is expected from normal aging. This condition affects areas such as memory, attention, language, and problem-solving. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, accounting for about two-thirds of all cases. The initial symptom is usually forgetfulness for newly acquired information, followed by disorientation and progressive cognitive decline with personality disruption.
Other types of dementia include blood vessel disease (multi-infarct dementia), dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease). Less common disorders such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, progressive supranuclear palsy, Huntington’s disease, and AIDS-associated dementia also contribute to the remaining cases.
It is important to understand the different types and symptoms of dementia to provide appropriate care and support for individuals affected by this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A pediatrics consultant has entered into a shared care agreement with you regarding a patient's antibiotic prescribing and monitoring. She has initiated treatment with antibiotics and after a period of stable monitoring, has entered into a shared care agreement with you for ongoing prescribing and monitoring, with any future dose changes initiated by the consultant.
With regard to shared care prescribing, the legal responsibility for prescribing lies with:Your Answer: The specialist who has advised on the type and dose of the medicine
Correct Answer: Both the specialist and the GP
Explanation:Legal Responsibility for Prescribing
According to the British National Formulary, the Department of Health has advised that legal responsibility for prescribing lies with the doctor who signs the prescription. This guideline is outlined in circular EL (91) 127, which clarifies the responsibility for prescribing between hospitals and general practitioners.
Prescribing issues are a popular examination theme, and it is important to remember this guidance when answering related questions. By understanding that the doctor who signs the prescription holds legal responsibility, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective prescribing practices. Remembering this key point can help prevent errors and ensure patient safety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
At what age will a death certified as due to old age or senility alone not be referred to the coroner?
Your Answer: 65
Correct Answer: 80
Explanation:Changes in Acceptable Age for Old Age as Sole Cause of Death
The acceptable age for old age as the sole cause of death has changed from 70 years to 80 years. Doctors are now advised to avoid using old age alone as a cause of death whenever possible. However, there are limited circumstances where it is acceptable, such as when the doctor has personally cared for the deceased over a long period, observed a gradual decline in their health and functioning, and is not aware of any identifiable disease or injury that contributed to the death. In such cases, the doctor must be certain that there is no reason to report the death to the coroner. For more information, doctors can refer to the Guidance for doctors completing Medical Certificates of Cause of Death in England and Wales from the Office for National Statistics’ Death Certification Advisory Group.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man is accompanied by his family who are worried about his memory and behavior in the last six months. To rule out any reversible causes, a cognitive assessment is conducted which appears to validate the family's apprehensions. A set of blood tests are ordered, including a complete blood count, liver function tests, urea and electrolytes, and bone profile. What other blood tests should be requested?
Your Answer: Thyroid function tests, vitamin B12, syphilis, HIV
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests, vitamin B12, folate, glucose
Explanation:Patients who are suspected to have dementia should undergo a blood screen that includes FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels to identify any reversible causes. However, NICE doesn’t recommend routine testing for syphilis and HIV.
Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
An 82-year-old man and his wife come to see you with concerns about his memory. He has forgotten how to do simple tasks in the kitchen and has become confused about his whereabouts. His medical history is unremarkable except for hypertension, which is managed with ramipril. On examination, he appears well with a BP of 142/84 mmHg, a pulse of 75 regular, and an MMSE score of 22. You are fortunate to be in the catchment area for the local university hospital and have access to further investigations. What is the best approach to managing his condition?
Your Answer: If he becomes severely disturbed then he can be detained under the Mental Health Act
Correct Answer: Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may be started by any GP
Explanation:Pharmacological Interventions for Alzheimer’s Disease
Only specialists in the care of patients with Alzheimer’s should initiate treatment with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. NICE guidance on prescribing of these inhibitors caused controversy as it recommended use only in patients with moderate disease. However, a revised guidance in March 2011 suggested that acetylcholinesterase inhibitors were an option in mild disease. Traditional anti-psychotics should be avoided if possible due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events in this age group.
When it comes to initiating pharmacological interventions for dementia, NICE Pathways recommends that only specialists in the care of patients with dementia should initiate treatment. This includes psychiatrists, neurologists, and physicians specializing in the care of older people. Carers’ views on the patient’s condition at baseline should also be sought. It’s important to note that some GPs in rural Scotland can start acetylcholinesterase inhibitors while waiting for review by psychiatrists, but this is a limited regional variation in practice. For the AKT exam, you would be tested on national guidance and consensus, not regional variation.
In terms of the patient’s current condition, he has dementia of the Alzheimer’s type, but he is relatively well at the moment. Therefore, there is no need for his wife to obtain power of attorney immediately.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple comorbidities, you observe that he has a heart rate of 57, indicating bradycardia. Which of his medications could be causing this side effect?
Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Donepezil is a drug used for treating Alzheimer’s disease, but it may cause bradycardia as a side effect, along with other adverse reactions such as gastrointestinal problems, agitation, hallucinations, and syncope. Patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications like beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers, or digoxin should use caution when taking these drugs. Although specialists like psychiatrists, elderly care specialists, and neurologists typically initiate the use of these medications, GPs may be asked to prescribe and monitor them under Shared Care Agreements, so it’s important to be aware of potential prescribing issues. The BNF lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.
Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
You are called to see a 77-year-old woman at home.
She is known to suffer with COPD and over the last one to two weeks has started coughing up purulent phlegm and feels more breathless than usual. She uses inhaled treatment only and is not on home oxygen. She lives alone, with no social support.
On examination, she is alert and oriented, oxygen saturations are 93% in air and she is mildly breathless. You diagnose an infective exacerbation of her COPD.
Which of the following factors in this patient's history and examination should most strongly prompt consideration of admission to hospital?Your Answer: Social circumstances
Correct Answer: Oxygen saturations of the patient
Explanation:Factors to Consider When Managing Exacerbations of COPD
There are several factors to consider when deciding whether to manage an exacerbation of COPD in the community or in the hospital. While NICE guidelines provide a useful framework, clinical judgement should always take precedence.
Patients who are already on long-term oxygen therapy or home oxygen should be considered for admission, while those without home oxygen are generally less severely affected and may be suitable for home care. Oxygen saturations below 90% and severe breathlessness may also indicate the need for hospital admission.
In the case of a patient with mild breathlessness and oxygen saturations of 93%, hospital admission may not be necessary. However, the rate of onset of illness should also be considered, as a rapidly progressive illness may require hospital referral.
For this patient, the social situation is the most significant factor suggesting hospital admission may be required. Patients who live alone may require additional support and may be less able to seek help if they deteriorate.
In summary, a comprehensive assessment of the patient’s clinical status, oxygen saturation levels, and social situation should be considered when deciding whether to manage an exacerbation of COPD in the community or in the hospital.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
You are visiting a local nursing home to see a new resident who is complaining of an itchy rash when you get an urgent call to see a 78-year-old lady who has collapsed in the dining room.
The relief staff at the home tell you that she is a diabetic and has had a stroke some years ago, but they do not know much else about her.
On examination, she is lying in the recovery position on the floor and her BP is 115/70 mmHg, pulse 95 she is bathed in sweat and is unresponsive. She has adequate air entry on auscultation of the chest and there is no danger in the immediate vicinity. Trained nursing staff are at hand to help you with her management and take any further action.
What would be your first action in this situation?Your Answer: Rub some sugar around her lips
Correct Answer: Check her finger prick glucose
Explanation:Managing Hypoglycaemia in Nursing Homes
Hypoglycaemia is a common occurrence in nursing homes and can lead to significant neurological impairment if not managed promptly. When a patient is suspected of having hypoglycaemia, the first step is to check their finger prick glucose level. This should be done after ensuring their airway, breathing, and circulation are stable.
Early intervention with a glucagon injection can prevent further complications. It is important to note that nursing home ‘strokes’ are a common cause of admissions to emergency departments. Therefore, prompt management of hypoglycaemia can potentially avoid such admissions.
If the patient is unconscious, they should be placed in the recovery position until medical help arrives. By following these steps, nursing home staff can effectively manage hypoglycaemia and prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 93-year-old patient of yours wants to make an advanced decision but his family are not sure that he fully understands what he is doing. You have to assess his competence.
Which of the following statements about competence is correct?Your Answer: If he makes what you consider to be an unconventional or unusual decision you should assume that he is not competent
Correct Answer: His level of competence may fluctuate
Explanation:Assessing Competence in Elderly Patients
Levels of competence can vary, especially in elderly individuals with early dementia or delirium. It is important to evaluate patients when their competence is at its highest level, rather than making assumptions based on age. Even if a patient makes an unconventional or unwise decision, it doesn’t necessarily mean they lack competence. Instead of using global assessments, such as the abbreviated mental test score, competence should be assessed for the specific decision that needs to be made. For further reading and education, resources such as the BMJ Junior doctor survival kit, BMJ Clinical Review, and the British Geriatrics Society’s Delirium hub can be helpful.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 42
Correct
-
A cardiologist has written to you about the result of an echocardiogram of an 85-year-old patient, whom she has recently seen in clinic. Your patient has been diagnosed with severe heart failure and the cardiologist has written to you to ask that you initiate treatment with spironolactone.
The most recent renal function tests taken four months earlier do not preclude treatment with spironolactone.
With regard to monitoring electrolytes (including potassium and creatinine) after initiation, and assuming there is no further dose increase, what would you advise?Your Answer: 1 week after initiation, then monthly for the first year
Explanation:Monitoring Electrolytes in Spironolactone Treatment
The British National Formulary recommends monitoring electrolytes when administering spironolactone to patients. If hyperkalaemia occurs, the medication should be discontinued. In cases of severe heart failure, it is crucial to monitor potassium and creatinine levels. This monitoring should occur one week after initiation and after any dose increase. For the first three months, monthly monitoring is necessary, followed by every three months for one year, and then every six months. By closely monitoring electrolytes, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe and effective use of spironolactone in their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man presents with ankle swelling and signs of heart failure. He has a past medical history of hypertensive heart disease and is currently taking amlodipine and bendroflumethiazide. He was recently treated for an infection at the hospital but cannot recall the name of the medication or the infection. What are some possible causes of heart failure in this patient?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Correct Answer: Itraconazole
Explanation:Itraconazole and Heart Failure Risk
The use of itraconazole, a common antifungal medication, can increase the risk of heart failure in certain patients. Those most at risk include individuals with a history of heart disease, those taking calcium antagonists, and the elderly. Patients with liver disease or who are taking statins may also experience adverse effects from itraconazole. It is recommended that baseline liver function tests be performed before starting treatment. While dyspepsia, abdominal pain, nausea, and constipation are common side effects, the negative ionotropic effect of itraconazole can lead to heart failure in susceptible patients. Therefore, itraconazole should be avoided in patients with a history of heart failure unless the benefits outweigh the risks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man who lives alone is evaluated. He has a history of dementia. His neighbors are becoming worried about his behavior as they frequently observe him wandering outside in a seemingly disoriented state. You believe he may require a care package or residential care, but he adamantly refuses to consider such an option. Which legal framework is the most suitable for addressing this matter?
Your Answer: Common law
Correct Answer: Mental Capacity Act
Explanation:The most appropriate legal framework to use for non-mental health disorders is the Mental Capacity Act. This act, which was established in 2005 and implemented in 2007, applies to individuals over the age of 16 and outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity encompasses the ability to make decisions regarding daily life, healthcare, and financial matters.
The Mental Capacity Act is based on five key principles. Firstly, a person is assumed to have capacity unless it is proven otherwise. Secondly, a person should not be considered unable to make a decision unless all possible steps have been taken to assist them in doing so. Thirdly, a person should not be deemed incapable of making a decision simply because they make an unwise choice. Fourthly, any action or decision made on behalf of a person who lacks capacity must be in their best interests. Finally, before any action or decision is taken, consideration must be given to whether there is a less restrictive way to achieve the desired outcome that respects the person’s rights and freedom.
When patients lack capacity, they are typically treated without issue. However, problems arise when these patients refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest. In such cases, there are three frameworks that can be used: common law for emergency scenarios, the Mental Capacity Act for physical disorders affecting brain function, and the Mental Health Act for mental disorders. For patients already admitted to hospital, a section 5(2) may be used if there is not enough time for a more formal section 2 or 3. An example of this would be a patient with a mental health disorder attempting to discharge themselves, which could result in harm. For a more detailed review, the BMJ article When and how to treat patients who refuse treatment provides an excellent resource.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man presents with complaints of leg pains. He has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia, and is a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day.
He reports experiencing pain in his right calf after walking about 50 yards, which occurs every time he walks. The pain subsides when he stops and sits down, but returns upon further walking. He denies any pain at rest and has only experienced symptoms while walking.
Upon examination, no pulses can be palpated in the right foot, but there is no evidence of acute ischaemia. Femoral and popliteal pulses are present, and capillary refill time in the right foot is three to four seconds. There are no ulcers or tissue loss affecting the feet. The patient is otherwise well, with a blood pressure of 154/92 mmHg and a regular pulse rate of 72 bpm.
In addition to referring the patient for ankle-brachial pressure index measurements to confirm the clinical diagnosis, what other assessments should be performed as part of his primary care evaluation?Your Answer: Contrast atreriography
Correct Answer: Urine dipstick
Explanation:Peripheral Arterial Disease Assessment in Primary Care
This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of peripheral arterial disease, specifically intermittent claudication. It is important to note that peripheral arterial disease increases the risk of arteriopathy in other parts of the body, such as the heart and kidneys. Therefore, a full cardiovascular risk factor assessment should be conducted on diagnosis, with key risk factors addressed as relevant.
In primary care, ankle brachial pressure index should be measured in all patients suspected of having peripheral arterial disease, along with an examination of peripheral pulses and palpation of the abdomen to check for the presence of an aortic aneurysm. It is important to note that the presence of peripheral vascular disease significantly increases the risk of aortic aneurysm.
Contrast studies are not typically conducted as part of a primary care assessment. Instead, the focus should be on managing lower limb symptoms and addressing cardiovascular risk factors. By doing so, primary care providers can help reduce the risk of complications and improve overall patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with chronic shortness of breath and symptoms of heart failure. After primary care investigation, she was urgently referred to the cardiologists due to an abnormal ECG and elevated brain natriuretic peptide level. The echocardiogram performed by the cardiologists confirmed a diagnosis of heart failure with left ventricular dysfunction.
Her current medications include: lisinopril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, furosemide 20 mg daily, and pantoprazole 40 mg daily.
During examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse rate is 75 beats per minute and regular, her lungs are clear, and heart sounds are normal. There is no peripheral edema.
What is the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management at this point?Your Answer: No additional medication indicated
Correct Answer: Add in bisoprolol
Explanation:Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure Patients
Beta-blockers are recommended for all patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of age or comorbidities such as peripheral vascular disease, interstitial pulmonary disease, erectile dysfunction, diabetes, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease without reversibility. However, asthma is a contraindication to beta-blocker use.
Bisoprolol, carvedilol, or nebivolol are the beta-blockers of choice for treating chronic heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction. These three beta-blockers have been proven effective in clinical trials and have prognostic benefits. Bisoprolol and carvedilol reduce mortality in all grades of stable heart failure, while nebivolol is licensed for stable mild to moderate heart failure in patients over the age of 70.
Even if a patient with heart failure is currently well and showing no signs of fluid overload, beta-blockers are still recommended due to their prognostic benefits.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of headaches that have been bothering her for the past four months. She reports that the pain is located over the right fronto-parietal area and describes it as a constant dull ache that is worse at night and sometimes wakes her up from sleep. She has tried taking paracetamol, but it hasn't provided much relief. She denies experiencing any nausea, vomiting, loss of consciousness, seizures, forgetfulness, or tinnitus. Her medical history includes breast cancer at the age of 35, which required a right mastectomy. She has been managing her hypertension with amlodipine 10 mg daily for the past ten years. On examination, there is evidence of mild osteoarthritis in several joints, a right-sided mastectomy scar, and no neurological abnormalities or papilloedema. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Treat as migraine and commence a trial of ibuprofen
Correct Answer: Reassure the patient and advise her to re-attend if the symptoms worsen or she notices new signs or symptoms
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Cancer Patients with Neurological Symptoms
In patients previously diagnosed with cancer, urgent referral is necessary if they develop any new neurological symptoms such as recent onset seizure, persistent headache, progressive neurological deficit, new mental or cognitive changes, or new neurological signs. Although amlodipine can cause headaches, if the patient has been taking the medication for a long time without problems, it is unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms.
The referral pathway may vary by region, but the NICE guidance on suspected cancer: recognition and referral (NG12) recommends direct access for urgent MRI instead of referral to a neurologist. This is because it results in a faster diagnostic process for adults with a tumor, as they will be referred straight to a neurosurgeon after the scan instead of first to neurology, then for a scan, and then to neurosurgery.
It is important to note that these recommendations are not requirements and do not override clinical judgment. Primary care clinicians have expertise in recognizing patients who are ill and knowing when something is wrong. Therefore, clinicians should trust their clinical experience where there are particular reasons that this guidance doesn’t pertain to the specific presentation of the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A senior, delicate lady is admitted to the nearby nursing home following a stroke. How can her risk of developing a pressure ulcer be evaluated appropriately?
Your Answer: PAST score
Correct Answer: Waterlow score
Explanation:The Waterlow score is utilized to recognize patients who are susceptible to developing pressure ulcers.
Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management
Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.
The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.
To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
A 35-year-old lady, with stable schizophrenia, had a routine ECG which showed a QTc interval of 480 ms. She takes only takes oral quetiapine regularly. She reported no symptoms and was otherwise well. Blood tests including electrolytes were normal.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Repeat ECG
Explanation:Management of QTc Prolongation in a Psychiatric Patient
It is important to seek advice from psychiatry before making any changes to medications in a psychiatric patient. Abruptly stopping an antipsychotic medication could lead to acute deterioration in the patient’s mental health.
When managing QTc prolongation, it is important to consider the normal values for QTc, which are < 440 ms in men and <470 ms in women. The degree to which the QTc is increased is relevant to the next step of management. If the QTc is >500 ms or there is abnormal T-wave morphology, it would require discussion with the on-call cardiology team and consideration of stopping the suspected causative drug(s).
Lithium would not typically be initiated by a general practitioner and would not be indicated in this case. Therefore, it is most appropriate to discuss with psychiatry for their advice. They may recommend lowering the antipsychotic dose and repeating the ECG. Proper management of QTc prolongation in a psychiatric patient requires collaboration between psychiatry and cardiology.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
Barbara is a 78-year-old woman who lives alone and manages most activities of daily living independently. Her GP wants to assess her frailty with a view to identifying the need for extra support.
Which of the below is most useful for that assessment?Your Answer: Weight
Correct Answer: Gait speed
Explanation:To accurately assess frailty, it is recommended to use specific methods such as the Gait Speed Test, self-reported health status, or the PRISMA-7 questionnaire. These standardized assessments can provide valuable information about a patient’s level of frailty. For example, the Gait Speed Test can indicate frailty if a patient takes longer than 5 seconds to walk 4 meters. While weight loss may be a sign of frailty, weight alone is not a reliable indicator. Other methods of assessing frailty are not commonly used and may not provide accurate results.
Understanding Multimorbidity: Definition, Prevalence, Risk Factors, Complications, Assessment, and Management
Multimorbidity is a growing public health issue that refers to the presence of two or more long-term health conditions. In 2017, NICE issued guidelines to identify and manage multimorbidity among patients. The most common comorbid conditions include hypertension, depression, anxiety, chronic pain, prostate disorders, thyroid disorders, and coronary artery disease. Risk factors for multimorbidity include increasing age, female sex, low socioeconomic status, tobacco and alcohol usage, lack of physical activity, and poor nutrition and obesity.
Complications of multimorbidity include decreased quality of life and life expectancy, increased treatment burden, mental health issues, polypharmacy, and negative impact on carers’ welfare. The assessment of multimorbidity involves identifying patients who may benefit from a multimorbidity approach, establishing the extent of disease burden, investigating how treatment burden affects daily activities, assessing social circumstances and health literacy, and evaluating frailty.
Management of multimorbidity aims to reduce treatment burden and optimise care. This involves maximising the benefits of existing treatments, offering alternative follow-up arrangements, reducing the number of high-risk medications, considering a ‘bisphosphonate holiday,’ using screening tools such as STOPP/START, stopping the use of medications in patients with peptic ulcer disease, developing an individualised management plan, promoting self-management, and supporting carers and families of patients. Regular medication reviews are recommended to ensure that treatments are optimised.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old man presents with angina, episodes of feeling dizzy and faint, and breathlessness. He has noticed progressively worsening symptoms over the last 1-2 years.
On examination he has a slow rising carotid pulse on palpation.
Which of the following is most likely to be heard on auscultation of his heart?Your Answer: Pansystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids
Explanation:Valvular Heart Disorders and Their Classic Symptoms
Aortic stenosis is a common valvular heart disorder that mainly affects older people. It is characterized by scarring and calcium build-up that narrows the valve over time. Classic symptoms include angina, dizziness/syncope, and cardiac failure. Without intervention, the condition usually deteriorates progressively.
On examination, a slow rising pulse is a characteristic finding, and the classic murmur is that of an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Tricuspid stenosis is characterized by an early diastolic murmur heard at the left sternal edge in inspiration. Aortic regurgitation is marked by a high-pitched early diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient sitting forward. Mitral regurgitation is indicated by a pansystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla. Finally, mitral stenosis is characterized by a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient lying on their left side.
In summary, understanding the classic symptoms and examination findings of valvular heart disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man with treated cardiac failure comes to the GP surgery for a three month review after a recent admission for medication stabilisation.
He is currently taking ramipril 10 mg, bisoprolol 10 mg and 40 mg of furosemide. On examination his BP is 122/72, his pulse is 75 and regular. There are sparse crackles at both lung bases but there are no signs of peripheral oedema.
Haemoglobin 127 g/L (115-165)
White cells 6.9 ×109/L (4-11)
Platelets 208 ×109/L (150-400)
Sodium 139 mmol/L (135-146)
Potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5)
Creatinine 149 μmol/L (79-118)
BNP 230 pg/mL (<100)
Ejection fraction 38%
Which of the following is the NICE recommended next step?Your Answer: Do not make specific recommendations around exercise
Correct Answer: Enrol him in a supervised heart failure rehabilitation program
Explanation:Heart Failure Rehabilitation for Stable Patients
One of the key performance indicators outlined in the NICE guidelines on Chronic heart failure (NG106) is the provision of heart failure rehabilitation for stable patients. This rehabilitation program should not be a general cardiac rehabilitation program, but may be offered as an additional component of one. It should include both psychological and educational components to improve the quality of life and reduce the risk of hospital readmission for patients.
Studies have shown that rehabilitation programs have a significant impact on the overall well-being of patients with heart failure. By providing patients with the necessary tools and resources to manage their condition, they can better cope with the physical and emotional challenges of living with heart failure. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to offer heart failure rehabilitation to their stable patients as part of their ongoing care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
You are evaluating a 79-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. He was seen a few days ago with gradual onset exertional breathlessness over the last few months and a clinical diagnosis of cardiac failure was made.
He reports reduced exercise tolerance, being easily fatigued and some mild breathlessness lying flat in bed at night. He has never smoked and aside from a 10 year history of hypertension is otherwise fit and well with no other medical problems. He takes lisinopril 10 mg OD.
On examination he is comfortable at rest sitting in a chair with no appreciable shortness of breath. He has very subtle pitting pedal oedema and some scattered bibasal crepitations on auscultation of the chest. Heart sounds are normal. Pulse rate is 72 bpm, blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% in room air.
On reviewing the patient today with some initial investigations you can see that his chest x ray has been reported as 'cardiothoracic ratio is at the upper limit of normal with clear lung fields' and his ECG shows sinus rhythm with no evidence of previous myocardial infarction and no left ventricular hypertrophy or bundle branch block.
His blood tests show a 'raised' brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 900 ng/l.
What is the next step in your management?Your Answer: Initiate a trial of oral furosemide and repeat his BNP level in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Referral for specialist assessment not needed, initiate treatment for heart failure in primary care
Explanation:The Importance of SNP Measurement in Suspected Heart Failure
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N terminal-pro-BNP (NT-proBNP) are peptide hormones produced in the heart that can help diagnose heart failure. Elevated levels of these hormones in the blood are indicative of cardiac failure and tend to correlate with the severity of the condition.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that SNP measurement be performed in patients with suspected heart failure to determine which patients should be referred for specialist assessment and echocardiography. It is important to note that the units used to measure SNP levels may vary between labs, so it is crucial to consider the units when interpreting the results.
If a patient has a raised BNP level, they should be referred for assessment within six weeks. However, if a patient presents with signs and symptoms of heart failure and has previously had a myocardial infarction, SNP measurement may not be necessary, and they should be referred directly for assessment within two weeks.
In summary, SNP measurement is a valuable tool in diagnosing heart failure and can help determine the appropriate course of action for patients with suspected cardiac failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not a known cause of acute pancreatitis in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Hypothermia
Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis can be caused by hypercalcaemia, rather than hypocalcaemia.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 55
Correct
-
A 79-year-old woman has neuropathic pain and has recently been prescribed amitriptyline. What is the most frequent side effect of this medication?
Your Answer: Convulsions
Explanation:Understanding Amitriptyline Side Effects
All medications have potential side effects, and amitriptyline is no exception. Dry mouth is the most common side effect associated with this drug. However, candidates taking the RCGP exam must demonstrate a comprehensive understanding of various factors related to drug treatments, including drug metabolism, absorption, and excretion. They should also be knowledgeable about multiple prescribing, non-compliance by patients, and iatrogenic disease.
Amitriptyline is a frequently prescribed medication, and the elderly population is more susceptible to its adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the most likely side effects of this drug. The British National Formulary provides a comprehensive list of amitriptyline side effects that candidates should be familiar with.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.
He has a mild early Alzheimer's dementia and type 2 diabetes mellitus for which he takes metformin 500 mg tds. On examination, he has sats of 96% on air, has a pulse of 90 bpm, blood pressure of 110/50 mmHg, a temperature of 37.6°C and a respiration rate of 32/min. There is no neck stiffness nor abnormal neurology.
Chest examination reveals bibasal crackles and decreased breath sounds in the left lung base.
Blood samples were taken that morning and a call to the lab reveals the following:
Haemoglobin 129 g/L (115-165)
White cell count 16.6 ×109/L (4-11)
93% neutrophils -
5% band forms -
2% lymphocytes -
Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)
Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Scoring Systems for Decision Making in Pneumonia Treatment
When it comes to deciding whether to treat or admit a patient with pneumonia, scoring systems can be helpful. The CURB-65 severity score and the CRB-65 score are two commonly used systems. The CRB-65 score is recommended for use in primary care and assigns one point for each of confusion, respiratory rate of 30/min or more, systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg (or diastolic below 60 mmHg), and age 65 years or older. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk of death and do not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 1 or 2 are at increased risk and should be considered for referral and assessment. Patients with a score of 3 or more are at high risk and require urgent hospital admission. The CURB-65 score is used for patients with a score of 2 or more to be admitted, while those with a score of 0-1 may be admitted if there are other issues. While an experienced GP may admit a patient regardless of the score, understanding these systems is important for medical exams.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old nursing home resident, with a long-term catheter in situ, had a urine sample sent for investigation after staff felt her urine was more cloudy than usual. The MSU grew Escherichia coli. The patient is otherwise well with a normal general examination, normal observations and is at their baseline cognition.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Oral nitrofurantoin for three days
Correct Answer: Oral trimethoprim for three days
Explanation:Managing Urinary Tract Infection in Adults with Long-Term Indwelling Catheters
The SIGN guidance provides clear instructions on how to manage urinary tract infection (UTI) in adults with long-term indwelling catheters. It states that all patients with such catheters are bacteriuric, but treatment is not necessary unless they exhibit symptoms such as new costovertebral tenderness, fevers, rigors, or new onset delirium. It is important to note that classical UTI symptoms cannot be relied upon in these patients. Additionally, the guidance advises against sending urine samples for culture based on the appearance or smell of the urine. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage UTI in this patient population.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
You are summoned to the residence of an 82-year-old man who is receiving home care for advanced prostate cancer. His condition has been declining for the past week and he has been under the care of community nurses. The nurses inform you that he has become increasingly 'bubbly' in the last 24 hours. Upon examination, you observe that he is experiencing uncontrollable respiratory secretions at the end of his life. What is the most suitable course of action to alleviate these symptoms?
Your Answer: Saline nebulised four hourly
Correct Answer: Hyoscine hydrobromide 400-600 micrograms subcutaneously every 4-8 hours
Explanation:Managing Excessive Respiratory Secretions with Antimuscarinics
Excessive respiratory secretions can be a distressing symptom for patients, particularly those at the end of life. Antimuscarinics are the most commonly used medications to help manage this symptom. Hyoscine hydrobromide is a commonly used antimuscarinic and can be given at a dose of 400-600 micrograms every four to eight hours. It can also be administered via a patch, which may be more acceptable to some patients. However, dry mouth is a common side effect.
For patients who are less ill with intermittent symptoms, oral carbocisteine and nebulised saline may be effective in managing secretions. Nebulised saline can also be tried in more severe cases, but for intractable end-of-life secretions, antimuscarinics such as hyoscine hydrobromide are the best treatment option. If indicated, hyoscine hydrobromide can be given via a syringe driver to reduce the need for repeated injections.
Other antimuscarinics that can be used include hyoscine butylbromide and glycopyrronium bromide. It is important to work closely with healthcare professionals to determine the most appropriate treatment plan for each individual patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old male patient mentions to you, in passing, that he is worried he might have a stroke. Which of the following is the single, strongest risk factor for developing a stroke?
Your Answer: Smoking
Correct Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:Diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and smoking are all factors that increase the risk of developing a stroke. However, among these options, hypertension is the most significant risk factor for stroke. High blood pressure can damage the blood vessels in the brain, leading to a stroke. Therefore, it is crucial to manage hypertension through lifestyle changes and medication to reduce the risk of stroke. By controlling hypertension, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of stroke.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man is referred with a three month history of progressive disorientation and falls.
Four weeks beforehand, he locked his wife out of their house, claiming that she was trying to steal his clothes. He had also telephoned the police in the middle of night, claiming that he could see men hiding under his bed.
On examination, his face is expressionless, his speech is quiet and monotonic. There are no cranial nerve palsies, otherwise. Increased tone is present in all four limbs, with a slow festinant gait. Reflexes, power and sensation are all normal.
Halfway through your examination he tells you that he is leaving the room, because of the lobsters coming through the window. Unfortunately, therefore, formal cognitive testing and basic investigations cannot be performed.
Based on this evidence, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parkinson's disease
Explanation:Diagnosis of Parkinsonism with Dementia, Paranoia, and Visual Hallucinations
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of parkinsonism, including bradykinesia and rigidity. However, the presence of florid visual hallucinations and paranoid ideation make Parkinson’s disease unlikely. Additionally, the patient’s normal eye movements and postural blood pressure suggest a parkinsonism plus syndrome is not the cause, while the absence of incontinence and gait abnormalities make normal pressure hydrocephalus less probable. The combination of parkinsonism with dementia, paranoia, and visual hallucinations is commonly seen in dementia with Lewy bodies. A diagnosis of Lewy body dementia should be considered in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)