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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of difficulty with fine movements in...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of difficulty with fine movements in her hands. She reports that her hands become pale and numb when exposed to cold temperatures. Upon examination, the GP observes thickening and tightening of the skin over the patient's hands. What other symptom would indicate a possible diagnosis of limited systemic sclerosis?

      Your Answer: Dry eyes

      Correct Answer: Heartburn

      Explanation:

      CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. If a patient experiences heartburn, it may indicate oesophageal dysmotility, which is a feature of CREST syndrome. However, dry eyes are a symptom of Sjogren’s syndrome, which is a separate condition. Hypertension is a complication of diffuse systemic sclerosis, which affects the proximal limbs and trunk and can lead to renal crisis and respiratory involvement. Oliguria is a symptom of renal crisis, which is a complication of diffuse systemic sclerosis.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      101.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - As a foundation doctor in general practice, you examine a fifty-five-year-old patient during...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in general practice, you examine a fifty-five-year-old patient during an outpatient clinic visit. The patient complains of weight loss and a painless, enlarging sore on the penis that has been present for more than two months. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Penile cancer can manifest as an ulcer. The most prevalent form of penile cancer is squamous cell carcinoma, not adenocarcinoma. While stress ulcers cause abdominal pain and bleeding, they are not responsible for this presentation. Herpes outbreaks can be triggered by significant stress, but they typically cause painful lesions that heal within a week. Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, can result in a painless ulcer called a chancre, but it does not cause weight loss, and the lesion usually resolves within six to eight weeks, even without treatment.

      Understanding Penile Cancer: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Penile cancer is a rare type of cancer that is typically characterized by squamous cell carcinoma. It is a condition that affects the penis and can cause a variety of symptoms, including penile lump and ulceration. There are several risk factors associated with penile cancer, including human immunodeficiency virus infection, human papillomavirus virus infection, genital warts, poor hygiene, phimosis, paraphimosis, balanitis, and age over 50.

      When it comes to treating penile cancer, there are several options available, including radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer can vary depending on the stage of the cancer and the treatment options chosen. However, the overall survival rate for penile cancer is approximately 50% at 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of an increase in the frequency...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of an increase in the frequency of her migraine attacks. She experiences episodes every 3 weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and finds that zolmitriptan only partially relieves her symptoms. As a result, she is taking time off from her job as a teacher and is worried about losing her employment. Her medical history includes asthma, and she is currently taking zolmitriptan and salbutamol. Additionally, she takes evening primrose oil over-the-counter to alleviate her menopause symptoms, which began 16 months ago. What medication would be the most appropriate for the GP to prescribe to decrease the frequency of her migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      For the prophylactic management of migraines in a patient with a history of asthma, the recommended medication is topiramate. Propranolol is an alternative first-line option, but should be avoided in patients with asthma. Amitriptyline is a second-line drug for those who are not responsive to initial prophylactic treatment. Diclofenac is an NSAID used for acute management of migraines, while triptans like sumatriptan are used for acute treatment but not prophylaxis. It should be noted that topiramate is teratogenic and should be avoided in women of childbearing age.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      99.1
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old complains of tingling and numbness in his left little and ring...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old complains of tingling and numbness in his left little and ring finger. He states that the pain used to be intermittent but is now persistent. The pain intensifies when he puts pressure on his elbow, and he remembers fracturing his elbow as a child. Based on the provided medical history, what is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cubital tunnel syndrome results from the ulnar nerve being compressed, leading to tingling and numbness in the 4th and 5th fingers. This condition is often aggravated by leaning on the affected elbow and may be associated with osteoarthritis or prior injury. Medial epicondylitis causes pain in the medial elbow, not distal hand symptoms. Radial tunnel syndrome causes aching and paraesthesia in the hand and forearm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve and presents with pain and tingling in the thumb, index, middle, and medial half of the ring finger. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically affects the base of the thumb.

      Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.

      Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      59
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  • Question 5 - An 83-year-old man who resides in a nursing home arrives at the Emergency...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old man who resides in a nursing home arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting. He has been experiencing 8 watery bowel movements per day for the past 3 days and seems disoriented and dehydrated. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, type II diabetes, and dementia. His heart rate is elevated at 110/min, and his electrocardiogram displays noticeable U waves. What is the probable reason for his ECG alterations?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The ECG changes observed in this scenario are most likely due to hypokalaemia. The patient’s electrolyte balance has been disrupted by vomiting and loose stools, resulting in a depletion of potassium that should be rectified through intravenous replacement. While hypocalcaemia and hypothermia can also cause U waves, they are less probable in this case. Non-ischaemic ST elevation changes may be caused by hyponatraemia. QT prolongation is a common effect of tricyclic antidepressant toxicity.

      ECG Features of Hypokalaemia

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This condition can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows specific features. The ECG features of hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and long QT. The U waves are particularly noticeable and are accompanied by a borderline PR interval.

      To remember these features, one registered user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT. It is important to detect hypokalaemia early as it can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECGs is crucial for individuals at risk of hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      160.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A toddler is brought to your clinic as the mother has noticed some...

    Correct

    • A toddler is brought to your clinic as the mother has noticed some skin lesions on the child's face. Upon examination, you observe multiple small white papules on the nose. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Milia

      Explanation:

      Milia, which are often found on the face of newborns, are a normal occurrence and can be seen in up to 50% of babies. They typically disappear on their own within a few weeks.

      Understanding Milia: Small, Benign Cysts on the Face

      Milia are small cysts that are filled with keratin and are typically found on the face. These cysts are benign and are not harmful to one’s health. Although they can appear at any age, they are more commonly found in newborns. Milia are often described as small, white bumps that are painless and do not cause any discomfort.

      While the exact cause of milia is unknown, they are thought to occur when dead skin cells become trapped in the skin’s surface. They can also develop as a result of using heavy skin care products or as a side effect of certain medications. In most cases, milia will disappear on their own without any treatment. However, if they persist or become bothersome, a dermatologist may recommend treatment options such as extraction or chemical peels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.4
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old woman has been asked to come in for a consultation at...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman has been asked to come in for a consultation at her local medical practice after her blood test results showed an elevated level of anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody (anti-TGA). What condition is linked to anti-TGA?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Diseases: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms

      Autoimmune diseases are conditions where the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissues. Here are some examples of autoimmune diseases and their causes and symptoms:

      Coeliac Disease: This disease is caused by gluten sensitivity and results in chronic diarrhoea, weight loss, and fatigue. It is caused by an autoimmune reaction to glutenin or gliadin, which are gluten proteins found in wheat.

      Pemphigus Vulgaris: This rare autoimmune disease causes blistering to the skin and mucosal surfaces. It is caused by autoantibodies against desmoglein.

      Graves’ Disease: This autoimmune disease of the thyroid results in hyperthyroidism. It is associated with anti-thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor antibodies.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE): SLE is a multisystem autoimmune disease associated with a wide number of autoantibodies, including anti-nuclear antibody (ANA), anti-double-stranded (ds) DNA, anti-Smith, anti-SSA, anti-ribosomal P, anti-RNP, and anti-histone antibodies.

      Type I Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM): T1DM is an autoimmune disease resulting in destruction of the islet cells. Islet cell autoantibodies and antibodies to insulin have been described.

      Understanding the causes and symptoms of autoimmune diseases can help with early diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with an abnormal mammogram and...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with an abnormal mammogram and a small fixed lump in her right breast. What type of breast cancer is most frequently encountered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type)

      Explanation:

      The most prevalent form of breast cancer is invasive ductal carcinoma, without any distinctive features.

      Breast Cancer: Understanding Types and Classification

      Breast cancer can be classified based on the type of tissue it originates from, namely duct or lobular tissue. Ductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma are the two main types of breast cancer, which can further be classified as either carcinoma-in-situ or invasive. Invasive ductal carcinoma, also known as No Special Type, is the most common type of breast cancer. Lobular carcinoma and other rare types of breast cancer are classified as Special Type.

      Apart from the common types, there are several rarer types of breast cancer, including medullary breast cancer, mucinous breast cancer, tubular breast cancer, adenoid cystic carcinoma of the breast, metaplastic breast cancer, lymphoma of the breast, basal type breast cancer, phyllodes or cystosarcoma phyllodes, and papillary breast cancer. Paget’s disease of the nipple is another type of breast cancer that is associated with an underlying mass lesion. Inflammatory breast cancer is a rare type of breast cancer that results in an inflamed appearance of the breast due to cancerous cells blocking the lymph drainage.

      Understanding the different types and classifications of breast cancer is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment. It is important to note that some types of breast cancer may be associated with underlying lesions seen in the common types, rather than being completely separate subtypes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 9 - You assess a 75-year-old woman who is taking several medications. She reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 75-year-old woman who is taking several medications. She reports experiencing hearing loss and bilateral tinnitus over the past few months. Which of the following medications could potentially be causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics have the potential to cause ototoxicity.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.

      As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.

      However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.

      In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 10 - A 58-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to request a repeat prescription of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to request a repeat prescription of xylometazoline hydrochloride nasal spray. He has been using this for the past four weeks to 'clear up his sinuses.'
      What is the most likely side effect this patient will develop based on his current management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rebound nasal congestion

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Long-Term Nasal Decongestant Use

      Nasal decongestants are a common treatment for nasal congestion, but long-term use can lead to adverse effects. One of the most significant risks is rebound nasal congestion, which can encourage further use and hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa. It is recommended to use nasal decongestants for a maximum of seven days to avoid this risk. Other adverse effects of long-term use include nasal burning, irritation, and dryness, but chronic rhinitis is not a recognized side effect. While cardiovascular effects like tachycardia and hypertension are possible, they are more common with oral decongestants. Septal perforation is a rare side effect of intranasal corticosteroids, not nasal decongestants. It is essential to understand the potential risks of long-term nasal decongestant use and to use them only as directed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
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  • Question 11 - As a foundation doctor in general practice, you assess a thirty-five-year-old woman who...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor in general practice, you assess a thirty-five-year-old woman who presents with complaints of dizziness. She reports that the symptoms worsen when she rolls over in bed and are accompanied by nausea. She denies any prior episodes, aural fullness, or nystagmus. What diagnostic measures could be taken to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dix–Hallpike manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      The Dix-Hallpike test involves quickly moving the patient to a supine position with their neck extended to determine if they experience symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. A positive result can confirm the diagnosis. Based on the symptoms, it is likely that this patient has this condition.

      Understanding Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms include vertigo triggered by movements such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, and may be accompanied by nausea. Each episode usually lasts between 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through a positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which involves the patient experiencing vertigo and rotatory nystagmus.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and often resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited value. However, it is important to note that around half of people with BPPV will experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

      Overall, understanding BPPV and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 12 - A 9-year-old boy with asthma is brought into the GP surgery with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy with asthma is brought into the GP surgery with a cough and shortness of breath. Examination reveals a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min, apyrexial, wheeze throughout his chest and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of half his predicted value.
      Which of the following treatments is the best option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inpatient management with nebuliser salbutamol and oral steroids

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Asthma Exacerbations in Children: Treatment Options and Guidelines

      When a child experiences an acute asthma exacerbation, prompt and appropriate management is crucial to prevent further complications. Here are some treatment options and guidelines to consider:

      Inpatient Management with Nebuliser Salbutamol and Oral Steroids
      For severe asthma exacerbations, hospital transfer is necessary. Inpatient management should include nebulised bronchodilators in combination with early oral steroids. A 3-day steroid course is usually sufficient.

      Manage as Outpatient with Inhaled Salbutamol via Spacer
      Mild to moderate acute asthma can be managed with salbutamol via a spacer. Oral steroids should be considered in all children with an acute exacerbation of asthma. However, all children with features of severe or life-threatening asthma should be transferred to a hospital.

      Outpatient Management with Antibiotics
      Antibiotics would be inappropriate for acute asthma exacerbations unless there are clues in the history to suggest a bacterial infection as the cause of exacerbation.

      Continue Current Medications with No Changes
      In severe acute asthma, urgent treatment with nebulisers and transfer to a hospital is necessary.

      IV Salbutamol
      IV salbutamol is second line and considered only if the symptoms have responded poorly to nebulised therapy.

      British Thoracic Society (BTS)/Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) guidance suggests that all children with features of severe or life-threatening asthma should be transferred to a hospital. The severity of acute asthma in children over 5 can be determined using the BTS severity scoring.

      By following these guidelines and treatment options, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute asthma exacerbations in children and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with patchy hair loss on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with patchy hair loss on her scalp, which is well-defined. The hair loss is affecting approximately 25% of her scalp, and she is experiencing significant emotional distress. The doctor suspects alopecia areata. What would be an appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical corticosteroid + referral to dermatologist

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for hypertension management in 2011, placing emphasis on the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in individuals with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms of secondary causes, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause of secondary hypertension, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Drug treatment for essential hypertension involves ACE inhibitors for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Step 2 involves using both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers, while step 3 adds a thiazide-like diuretic. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines aimed to classify hypertension into stages and recommend the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to accurately diagnose hypertension. This is important because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM allow for a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can prevent overdiagnosis.

      NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms when considering a diagnosis of hypertension and repeating measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg between arms. If the blood pressure is >= 140/90 mmHg, NICE suggests offering ABPM or HBPM to confirm the diagnosis. If the blood pressure is >= 180/120 mmHg, referral for specialist assessment is recommended if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately.

      ABPM involves taking at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours and using the average value of at least 14 measurements. If ABPM is not tolerated, HBPM should be offered. HBPM involves taking two consecutive measurements at least 1 minute apart, twice daily for at least 4 days, and using the average value of all remaining measurements.

      Interpreting the results of ABPM/HBPM is important for determining treatment. If the average blood pressure is >= 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension), treatment may be considered for patients under 80 years of age with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. In 2019, NICE also recommended considering antihypertensive drug treatment for adults under 60 with stage 1 hypertension and an estimated 10-year risk below 10%. If the average blood pressure is >= 150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension), drug treatment should be offered regardless of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure and high cholesterol presents to the Emergency Department with occasional episodes of chest pain, lasting only for a few minutes. This occurs while at rest and is accompanied by palpitations. He is currently stable, with a blood pressure of 140/95 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 98% and a heart rate of 160 bpm. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is done which shows no P waves, with regular narrow QRS complexes interspersed along a saw-tooth baseline. Vagal manoeuvres have failed and three boluses of adenosine fail to control the arrhythmia.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following treatments is indicated?
      Select the SINGLE best treatment option from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Management of Atrial Flutter: Medications and Procedures

      Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia that can be managed through various medications and procedures. The first step in treatment is to control the ventricular rate, which can be achieved through the administration of beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium-channel blockers. For patients with diabetes mellitus, cardio-selective beta-blockers such as atenolol, bisoprolol, metoprolol, and nebivolol are preferred.

      Amiodarone is not the first-line treatment for atrial flutter and is mainly used for ventricular tachycardias and chemical cardioversion in atrial fibrillation. Propranolol can be used for rate control, but cardio-selective beta-blockers are preferred for patients with diabetes mellitus.

      Synchronised direct-current (DC) cardioversion is the first-line treatment for patients with haemodynamic instability caused by a tachyarrhythmia. However, if the patient exhibits no adverse signs, DC cardioversion is not indicated. Unsynchronised DC cardioversion is only given in cases of ventricular fibrillation.

      All patients should be assessed for their risk of stroke and the need for thromboprophylaxis, with the choice of anticoagulant based on scoring criteria such as CHA2DS2-VASc. Overall, the management of atrial flutter involves a tailored approach based on the individual patient’s needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 15 - A 13-year-old girl comes to her doctor with a 5-month history of aching...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl comes to her doctor with a 5-month history of aching pain and swelling in the distal part of her left thigh. She has a family history of retinoblastoma and is in good health otherwise. A radiograph of her knee reveals a sunburst pattern and a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone in the metaphyseal region of the femur. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 16 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother. She is concerned that he has had consistently delayed motor milestones and that he has severe behavioural difficulties. To stand up from a sitting position, he first kneels on all fours and then uses his hands to ‘walk himself up’. The GP notices that the child has hypertrophy of his calf muscles.
      Which of the following tests is useful in the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
      Select the SINGLE most useful test from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Wilson’s Disease

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Wilson’s disease are two conditions that can present with non-specific symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic tests used to identify these conditions.

      DMD is an X-linked recessive condition that predominantly affects males. Diagnosis is usually made by significantly elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing. Muscle biopsy may also be required. Symptoms usually present by age three and include delayed walking, muscle weakness, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, and learning difficulties. An MRI spine or head is not helpful in diagnosis as DMD is not caused by a central nervous system or spinal pathology.

      Wilson’s disease often presents with signs of liver failure and non-specific symptoms such as tiredness, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Neurological symptoms such as tremors, loss of motor skills, and behavioural problems are more common in teenagers and adults. Diagnosis is made by measuring serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing.

      In summary, elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose DMD, while serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease. MRI scans are not helpful in the diagnosis of either condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up of her diabetes medication....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up of her diabetes medication. During the examination, the GP observes that the patient has unusually large hands and feet and prominent supraorbital ridges. After obtaining consent for a more detailed examination, the GP discovers acanthosis nigricans in the patient's neck, enlargement of her thyroid gland, and hepatomegaly. Besides diabetes, what other condition is frequently linked to acromegaly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Associations of Acromegaly with Various Medical Conditions

      Acromegaly is a medical condition caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone, which can lead to various health problems. One of the associated conditions is diabetes mellitus, as acromegaly is often linked with insulin resistance. Another condition is acanthosis nigricans, which involves hyperpigmentation of the skin. However, there is no general pigmentation associated with acromegaly. Cardiovascular disease is also a common association, which can increase the risk of atrial fibrillation. Left ventricular hypertrophy is another condition that can occur with acromegaly. Finally, ulnar nerve entrapment is not directly associated with acromegaly, but carpal tunnel syndrome affecting the median nerve is a common association.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old student with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) has increasing back pain and early...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) has increasing back pain and early morning stiffness.
      Which of the following treatments would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the primary treatment for relieving symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis (AS). It is recommended to co-prescribe a proton pump inhibitor to protect the stomach. If one NSAID is ineffective, switching to another may be helpful. Slow-release NSAIDs may be beneficial for morning stiffness and pain. Colchicine is not recommended for AS due to severe side-effects. Paracetamol and codeine have no direct evidence for treating AS symptoms, but may be used in conjunction with NSAIDs if appropriate. Surgery may be necessary in cases of structural damage, severe deformity, spinal instability, or neurological deficit. Oral corticosteroids should be avoided due to long-term side-effects, but intra-articular injections may provide relief during acute flares. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)-blocking drugs are effective in reducing symptoms and inflammation in those with persistent, active inflammation. Rituximab has no role in treating seronegative arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of gradual vision loss. During tonometry, his intraocular pressure is found to be 26mmHg and optic disc cupping is observed on fundoscopy. Visual field examination reveals peripheral visual loss. The physician prescribes timolol eye drops to be used twice daily. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease production of aqueous fluid

      Explanation:

      Timolol, a beta blocker, is effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous fluid. This condition is characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to inefficient drainage of fluid in the eye’s trabecular meshwork. Symptoms include gradual loss of vision, particularly in the peripheral fields. Brimonidine, an alpha-adrenergic agonist, also reduces aqueous fluid production and increases uveoscleral outflow. However, drugs that decrease uveoscleral outflow or increase aqueous fluid production would worsen the patient’s condition. Glucocorticoids can cause reduced drainage of aqueous humour and are implicated in causing open-angle glaucoma. Latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue, increases uveoscleral outflow.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of lower back pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of lower back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 4 years. During a comprehensive back examination, the GP performs a straight leg raise test, which elicits increased pain in the patient's leg. What pathology is suggested by a positive straight leg raise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve pain

      Explanation:

      The positive straight leg raise test involves lifting the leg straight up and if this causes pain in the sciatic nerve area, the test is considered positive. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that causes lower back pain, particularly in the morning, and is often relieved by exercise. This condition typically starts in early adulthood and is linked to the human leukocyte antigen B27 (HLA-B27). Spinal stenosis is characterized by back and/or leg pain, numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking but improves with rest. Facet joint pain is felt in the back over the facets of the cervical and lumbar vertebrae and is aggravated by stress on the facet joints, such as extending the back. Vertebral compression fractures, which can be detected by x-ray, usually result from osteoporosis, trauma, or cancer and cause acute or chronic back pain.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
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