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  • Question 1 - An elderly woman is taken to the clinic by her husband because she...

    Correct

    • An elderly woman is taken to the clinic by her husband because she has been complaining about seeing ghosts in their house. She no longer wants to enter in the house. You wonder if this might be Charles-Bonnet syndrome. Which of the following risk factors may pre-dispose this woman to Charles-Bonnet syndrome?

      Your Answer: Peripheral visual impairment

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) involves visual hallucinations due to eye disease, usually associated with a sharp decline in vision. The phenomenon is seen in patients with moderate or severe visual impairment. It can occur spontaneously as the vision declines or it may be precipitated, in predisposed individuals, by concurrent illness such as infections elsewhere in the body.

      It is not clear why CBS develops or why some individuals appear to be predisposed to it. It is particularly noted in patients with advanced macular degeneration. It has been suggested that reduced or absent stimulation of the visual system leads to increased excitability of the visual cortex (deafferentation hypothesis). This release phenomenon is compared to phantom limb symptoms after amputation.

      CBS is much more common in older patients because conditions causing marked visual loss are more common in older people. However, it can occur at any age and has been described in children.
      The prevalence is hard to assess due to considerable under-reporting, perhaps because patients frequently fear that it is a sign of mental illness or dementia. However, it is thought to occur in:
      About 10-15% of patients with moderate visual loss.
      Possibly up to 50% of people with severe visual loss.
      Presentation:
      The nature of the hallucination depends on the part of the brain that is activated. The hallucinations may be black and white or in colour. They may involve grids/brickwork/lattice patterns but are typically much more complex:

      The hallucinations are always outside the body.
      The hallucinations are purely visual – other senses are not involved.
      The hallucinations have no personal meaning to the patient.
      Hallucinations may last seconds, minutes or hours.
      CBS tends to occur in a ‘state of quiet restfulness’. This may be after a meal or when listening to the radio (but not when dozing off).
      Symptoms also have a tendency to occur in dim lighting conditions.
      Patients may report high levels of distress, with some patients reporting anger, anxiety and even fear associated with the hallucinations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old lady, known with rheumatoid arthritis, complains of increasing numbness and tingling...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old lady, known with rheumatoid arthritis, complains of increasing numbness and tingling in her feet and hands. She has recently developed an ulcer on her left heel, after having burnt her foot in a hot bath. A number of depigmented areas are readily seen over her upper limbs. She is currently taking low-dose prednisolone (7.5 mg daily), alendronic acid, lansoprazole, paracetamol, indomethacin, methotrexate and rituximab. Her blood tests demonstrate: Haemoglobin 9.9 g/l, MCV 102 fl, Platelets 410 x 109/L, White blood cells 12.3 x 109/L, Vitamin B12 97 pg/ml, Folate 12.3ng/ml, Random blood glucose 9.9 mmol/L, Thyroid-stimulating hormone 4.7 mU/ml, Thyroxine 12.8 pmol/L. Which autoantibody would be most diagnostic for the underlying disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor (IF)

      Explanation:

      This clinical scenario describes pernicious anaemia. Anti-intrinsic factor (IF) antibodies are most specific for pernicious anaemia. Antigastric parietal cell antibodies have a higher sensitivity but are less specific for pernicious anaemia. The other antibodies listed are not related to pernicious anaemia. Anti-TTG is seen with Celiac’s disease, anti-TPO is seen with thyroid disease, GAD is seen with type I diabetes, but this does not explain her anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman visits you in the paediatric diabetes clinic with her 2-year-old...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits you in the paediatric diabetes clinic with her 2-year-old son who has recently been diagnosed by type-1 diabetes. He has an identical twin brother and she is concerned about his risk of developing diabetes. What advice would you give regarding his future risk?

      Your Answer: He has a 30–50% future risk of developing type-1 diabetes

      Explanation:

      The frequency of type-1 diabetes is higher in siblings of diabetic parents (e.g., in the UK 6% by age 30) than in the general population (in the U.K. 0.4% by age 30), while disease concordance in monozygotic (identical) twins is about 40% i.e. the risk that the unaffected twin will develop diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old woman presents to clinic complaining of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. Full...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to clinic complaining of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. Full blood count and viscosity were normal. Flexible sigmoidoscopy was unremarkable. What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: High-fibre diet

      Explanation:

      This is most likely describing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Symptoms are either diarrhoea, constipation, or both, abdominal pain, bloating, with various durations. It is a functional, not organic, problem, as far as research shows at this point. It is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion. Treatment is a high fibre diet with fluids. Caffeine should be avoided as this can worsen symptoms. Full colonoscopy is not warranted at this time, neither is a barium enema. A wheat-free diet is not likely to help as there is no evidence they have an allergy to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 54-year-old man experienced a gradual decrease in vision of one eye after...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man experienced a gradual decrease in vision of one eye after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Macula oedema is noted on his fundoscopy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Macula degeneration

      Correct Answer: Diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Macular disease can affect central vision at any stage of diabetic retinopathy and may be seen in type 2 diabetic patients. Diabetic retinopathy affects up to 80 percent of those who have had diabetes for 20 years or more. Macular oedema occurs when damaged blood vessels leak fluid and lipids onto the macula, the part of the retina that lets us see detail. The fluid makes the macula swell, which blurs vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which statement is true regarding anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true regarding anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Around 75-80% of the patients are female

      Correct Answer: It is the most common cause of admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted perception of weight. People with anorexia place a high value on controlling their weight and shape, using extreme efforts that tend to significantly interfere with their lives.

      The minimum level of severity is based, for adults, on current body mass index (BMI) (see below) or for
      children and adolescents, on BMI percentile. The ranges below are derived from World Health
      Organization categories for thinness in adults; for children and adolescents, corresponding BMI percentiles
      should be used. The level of severity may be increased to reflect clinical symptoms, the degree of
      functional disability, and the need for supervision.
      Mild: BMI > 17 kg/m2
      Moderate: BMI 16-16.99 kg/m2
      Severe: BMI 15-15.99 kg/m2
      Extreme: BMI < 15 kg/m2 Anorexia nervosa is more common in women than in men, with a female-to-male ratio of 10-20:1 in developed countries. The prognosis of anorexia nervosa is guarded. Morbidity rates range from 10-20%, with only 50% of patients making a complete recovery. Of the remaining 50%, 20% remain emaciated and 25% remain thin. The main change in the diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa was to remove the criterion of amenorrhea (loss of menstrual cycle). Removing this criterion means that boys and men with Anorexia will finally be able to receive an appropriate diagnosis.
      Similarly, girls and women who continue to have their period despite other symptoms associated with Anorexia, such as weight loss and food restriction, will now be eligible for a diagnosis of Anorexia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which is NOT a poor prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is NOT a poor prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma?

      Your Answer: Breslow thickness > 3 mm

      Correct Answer: Diameter of melanoma > 6 mm

      Explanation:

      Features that affect prognosis are tumour thickness in millimetres (Breslow’s depth – the deeper the Breslow thickness the poorer the prognosis.), depth related to skin structures (Clark level – the level of invasion through the dermis), type of melanoma, presence of ulceration, presence of lymphatic/perineural invasion, presence of tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes (if present, prognosis is better), location of lesion, presence of satellite lesions, and presence of regional or distant metastasis. Malignant melanoma tends to grow radially before entering a vertical growth phase. The diameter it reaches has not been found to be a prognostic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed as she was picking up her 5 week-old baby. On admission, she was unable to tolerate the lights and complained of feeling sick. Fundoscopy showed bilateral papilledema, and she was complaining that she was unable to see on her left side. CT head showed a small right occipital bleed. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Aneurysm coiling

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed a venous sinus thrombosis peri-partum, resulting in her symptoms. Anticoagulation therapy including Heparin improves outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      126.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 3-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections. What is the most...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections. What is the most common cause for this problem in a child of this age?

      Your Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux

      Explanation:

      Vesicoureteral reflux is the condition when the urine flows backwards from the bladder into the kidneys, which is the most common cause of UTI in patients this age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a history of parotitis. CT scan is carried out revealing no pancreatic mass, but evidence of widespread lymphadenopathy is seen. Dedicated liver imaging reveals a stricture in the common bile duct but no stones. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Correct Answer: IgG4 disease

      Explanation:

      IgG4-related disease (IgG4-RD) is a fibro-inflammatory condition that can affect nearly any organ system: the pancreas, biliary tree, salivary glands, periorbital tissues, kidneys, lungs, lymph nodes, meninges, aorta, breast, prostate, thyroid, pericardium, and skin. The histopathological features are similar across organs, regardless of the site. IgG4-RD is analogous to sarcoidosis, in which diverse organ manifestations are linked by similar histopathological characteristics. Raised concentrations of IgG4 in tissue and serum can be helpful in diagnosing IgG4 disease, but neither is a specific diagnostic marker.

      Some IgG4-RDs are:
      1. Autoimmune pancreatitis
      2. Riedel’s Thyroiditis
      3. Mediastinal and Retroperitoneal Fibrosis
      4. Periaortitis/periarteritis/Inflammatory aortic aneurysm
      5. Kuttner Tumour (submandibular glands)
      6. IgG4-related Mikulicz disease (lacrimal, parotid, and submandibular glands)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked...

    Correct

    • Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked with MHC class I molecules:

      Your Answer: CD8

      Explanation:

      CD8+ T cells recognize antigens in the form of short peptide fragments bound to major histocompatibility complex class I (MHCI) molecules on the target cell surface.1 Specific engagement of peptide-MHCI (pMHCI) complexes via the clonotypically expressed αβ T-cell receptor (TCR) triggers a range of effector functions that play a critical role in protective immunity against intracellular infections and various malignancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in the past seven months presents with fever, pleuritic pain and productive cough. Chest x-ray shows lobar consolidation and the diagnosis of a fourth chest infection is established, after sputum culture reveals Haemophilus influenzae. The previous chest infections were due to Streptococcus pneumoniae. After a period of six weeks, a full blood count, urea, CRP, electrolytes and chest x-ray turn out as normal. What is the investigation you would choose next?

      Your Answer: Serum immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      Hypogammaglobulinemia occurs due to a variety of underlying primary or secondary immunodeficient states, including HIV which is suspected in this case. The most commonly recognised clinical feature is recurrent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will...

    Correct

    • A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will conclusively establish the presence of this infection?

      Your Answer: HCV RNA

      Explanation:

      The most sensitive test for detecting Hepatitis C infection (acute) is HCA RNA; it can be detected 1-2 weeks after infection. Anti-HCV antibodies take at least 6 weeks to develop and be positive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68 year old man who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is reviewed. On examination, there is evidence of cor pulmonale with a significant degree of pedal oedema. His FEV1 is 44%. During a recent hospital stay his pO2 on room air was 7.4 kPa. Which one of the following interventions is most likely to increase survival in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      Assess the need for oxygen therapy in people with:
      – very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 below 30% predicted)
      – cyanosis (blue tint to skin)
      – polycythaemia
      – peripheral oedema (swelling)
      – a raised jugular venous pressure
      – oxygen saturations of 92% or less breathing air.

      Also consider assessment for people with severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 30–49% predicted).

      Consider long-term oxygen therapy for people with COPD who do not smoke and who:
      have a partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) below 7.3 kPa when stable or have a PaO2 above 7.3 and below 8 kPa when stable, if they also have 1 or more of the following:
      – secondary polycythaemia
      – peripheral oedema
      – pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days. On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disorientated. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg. Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal: FBC: Normal U&E: Normal Plasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6) Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency. 
      Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.
      Treatment:
      – The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam.
      – If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.
      – Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
      – It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 88-year-old retired firefighter presents with loss of vision in his left eye...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old retired firefighter presents with loss of vision in his left eye since this morning. He is otherwise asymptomatic and of note has had no associated eye pain or headaches. His past medical history includes ischaemic heart disease but he is otherwise well. On examination he has no vision in his left eye. The left pupil responds poorly to light but the consensual light reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals a red spot over a pale and opaque retina. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      The most common causes of a sudden painless loss of vision are:
      – ischaemic optic neuropathy
      – occlusion of central retinal vein or artery
      – vitreous haemorrhage
      – retinal detachment.
      Central retinal artery occlusion is due to thromboembolism (from atherosclerosis) or arteritis (e.g. temporal arteritis). Features include afferent pupillary defects, and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which among the following factors is not associated with a poor prognosis in...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following factors is not associated with a poor prognosis in patients with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute onset

      Explanation:

      A patient with a gradual onset of schizophrenia is to be associated with a poor prognosis.

      Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.

      Clinical features:
      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:

      Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
      Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
      Thought echo
      Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviour

      Thought disorder:
      Thought insertion
      Thought withdrawal
      Thought broadcasting

      Passivity phenomena:
      Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
      Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by others

      Other features of schizophrenia include
      Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
      Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
      Decreased speech
      Neologisms: made-up words
      Catatonia
      Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).

      Treatment:
      For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
      Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
      Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is associated with heterochromia in congenital disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is associated with heterochromia in congenital disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Heterochromia (difference in iris colour) is seen in congenital Horner’s syndrome, as well as anhidrosis. Other features of non-congenital Horner’s include miosis, ptosis and enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.
      Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
      Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.
      The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).
      Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following may cause a downbeat nystagmus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following may cause a downbeat nystagmus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chiari type I malformation

      Explanation:

      Downbeat nystagmus (DBN) suggests a lesion in the lower part of the medulla. Chiari Type I malformation usually presents with symptoms due to brain stem and lower cranial nerve dysfunction, which includes DBN.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (3/3) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (2/2) 100%
Passmed