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  • Question 1 - A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the...

    Correct

    • A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm. Which nerve in this case was injured?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii and the brachialis muscles. The first one flexes the elbow and the shoulder. It is also involved in supination. The brachialis muscle flexes the forearm. The injury to the musculocutaneous nerve results in paralysis of these muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      36.9
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 80–100 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 31–37 g/dl. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient’s erythrocytes:

      Your Answer: Decreased MCV

      Correct Answer: Normal MCV

      Explanation:

      MCV is the mean corpuscular volume and it is calculated from the haematocrit and the RBC count. It is normally 90 fl. Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) [g/dl] = haemoglobin [g/dl]/haematocrit = 11/0.27 = 41 g/dl and is higher than normal range (32 to 36 g/dL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      42.1
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A chef, whilst preparing food, cut her thumb with a knife. She transected...

    Incorrect

    • A chef, whilst preparing food, cut her thumb with a knife. She transected the arteria princeps pollicis. This artery is a branch of the?

      Your Answer: Superficial palmar arch

      Correct Answer: Radial artery

      Explanation:

      The radial artery branches into the arteria princeps pollicis as it turns medially into the deep part of the hand. The arteria princeps pollicis is distributed to the skin and subcutaneous tissue of the thumb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      21.1
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that: ...

    Incorrect

    • A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:

      Your Answer: Its amplitude remains constant during voluntary movements

      Correct Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      7.6
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Which of the following substances will enhance the activity of antithrombin III? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances will enhance the activity of antithrombin III?

      Your Answer: Coumarin

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Antithrombin III is a glycoprotein that inactivates multiple enzymes involved in the coagulation system. It inactivates factor X, factor IX, factor II, factor VII, factor XI and factor XII. Its activity is greatly increased by the action of heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      9.7
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of myalgia, muscle cramps, and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of myalgia, muscle cramps, and weakness; she is diagnosed with severe hypokalaemia. Which of the following is the most common cause of hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Prolonged vomiting

      Explanation:

      Potassium is one of the body’s major ions. Nearly 98% of the body’s potassium is intracellular. The ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium is important in determining the cellular membrane potential. Small changes in the extracellular potassium level can have profound effects on the function of the cardiovascular and neuromuscular systems. Hypokalaemia may result from conditions as varied as renal or gastrointestinal (GI) losses, inadequate diet, transcellular shift (movement of potassium from serum into cells) and medications. The important causes of hypokalaemia are:
      Renal losses: renal tubular acidosis, hyperaldosteronism, magnesium depletion, leukaemia (mechanism uncertain).
      GI losses: vomiting or nasogastric suctioning, diarrhoea, enemas or laxative use, ileal loop.
      Medication effects: diuretics (most common cause), β-adrenergic agonists, steroids, theophylline, aminoglycosides.
      Transcellular shift: insulin, alkalosis.
      Severe hypokalaemia, with serum potassium concentrations of 2.5–3 meq/l, may cause muscle weakness, myalgia, tremor, muscle cramps and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      21.6
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Carbon dioxide is principally transported in the blood in which form? ...

    Incorrect

    • Carbon dioxide is principally transported in the blood in which form?

      Your Answer: CO2 physically dissolved in solution

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in various forms:
      – Bicarbonate (80–90%)
      – Carbamino compounds (5–10%)
      – Physically dissolved in solution (5%).
      Carbon dioxide is carried on the haemoglobin molecule as carbamino-haemoglobin; carboxyhaemoglobin is the combination of haemoglobin with carbon monoxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      12.1
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A patient with this type of tumour is advised to follow up regularly...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with this type of tumour is advised to follow up regularly for monitoring of tumour size as there is a strong correlation with malignant potential and tumour size. Which of the following is the most likely tumour in this patient?

      Your Answer: Colon adenocarcinoma

      Correct Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      The distinction between a benign renal adenoma and renal adenocarcinoma is commonly made on the basis of size. Tumours less than 2 cm in size rarely become malignant as opposed to those greater than 3 cm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.2
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old woman has had persistent diarrhoea for a week. A stool test...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has had persistent diarrhoea for a week. A stool test reveals an infection by Clostridium difficile. Which of the following antibiotics could be used to treat the infection?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin

      Explanation:

      Three antibiotics are effective against Clostridium difficile:
      Metronidazole 500 mg orally three times daily is the drug of choice, because of superior tolerability, lower price and comparable efficacy.
      Oral vancomycin 125 mg four times daily is second-line therapy in particular cases of relapse or where the infection is unresponsive to metronidazole treatment.
      Thirdly, the use of linezolid might also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      18.1
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion: ...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephrosis, including proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and oedema. It is a component of glomerulonephritis, in which different degrees of proteinuria occur. Essentially, loss of protein through the kidneys leads to low protein levels in the blood , which causes water to be drawn into soft tissues (oedema). Severe hypoalbuminemia can also cause a variety of secondary problems, such as water in the abdominal cavity (ascites), around the heart or lung (pericardial effusion, pleural effusion), high cholesterol, loss of molecules regulating coagulation (hence increased risk of thrombosis). The most common sign is excess fluid in the body due to the serum hypoalbuminemia. Lower serum oncotic pressure causes fluid to accumulate in the interstitial tissues. Sodium and water retention aggravates the oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have a small effusion in the lowest extent of the pleural cavity, into which no lung tissue extends. What is the name of this part of the pleural cavity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the part of the pleural cavity where the costal pleura is in continuity with the diaphragmatic pleura. It forms the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.
      Costomediastinal recess: a tiny recess that is anteriorly located, where the costal pleura becomes continuous with the mediastinal pleura.
      The cupola is the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib.
      The inferior mediastinum refers to the posterior, middle and anterior mediastinal divisions together.
      The pulmonary ligament on the other hand, is a pleural fold that is situated beneath the root of the lung on the medial aspect of the lung.
      Oblique pericardial sinus is not part of the pleural cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right crus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trapezius

      Explanation:

      The latissimus dorsi receives blood from the thoracodorsal artery, the supraspinatus receives its blood from the suprascapular artery, the levator scapulae and the rhomboids are supplied by the dorsal scapular artery and the transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the trapezius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint:...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint: redness, swelling and pain. The analysis of synovial fluid reveals needle-shaped, strongly negatively birefringent crystals. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Gout is a rheumatic disease caused by the precipitation of monosodium urate crystals into tissues, usually joints. This causes acute or chronic pain; the acute illness initially affects only one joint, often the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The diagnosis of the disease requires the identification of crystal in the synovial fluid. These crystals are needle-shaped and strongly negatively birefringent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Which of the following abnormalities can be seen in patients with hypermagnesemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following abnormalities can be seen in patients with hypermagnesemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory depression

      Explanation:

      Hypermagnesemia is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is a high level of magnesium in the blood. It is defined as a level greater than 1.1 mmol/L. Symptoms include weakness, confusion, decreased breathing rate, and cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on...

    Incorrect

    • The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on the skull. What structure lies beneath it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior branches of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The pterion is the area where four bones, the parietal, frontal, greater wing of sphenoid and the squamous part of the temporal bone meet. It overlies the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery on the internal aspect of the skull. The pterion is the weakest part of the skull. Slight trauma to this region can cause extradural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the? ...

    Incorrect

    • During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wolffian duct

      Explanation:

      The development of the kidney proceeds through a series of successive phases, each marked by the development of a more advanced kidney: the pronephros, mesonephros, and metanephros. The development of the pronephric duct proceeds in a cranial-to-caudal direction. As it elongates caudally, the pronephric duct induces nearby intermediate mesoderm in the thoracolumbar area to become epithelial tubules called mesonephric tubules. Each mesonephric tubule receives a blood supply from a branch of the aorta, ending in a capillary tuft analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron. The mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around the capillary tuft, allowing for filtration of blood. This filtrate flows through the mesonephric tubule and is drained into the continuation of the pronephric duct, now called the mesonephric duct or Wolffian duct. The nephrotomes of the pronephros degenerate while the mesonephric duct extends towards the most caudal end of the embryo, ultimately attaching to the cloaca.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 5-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome developed generalised oedema. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome developed generalised oedema. What is the mechanism for the development of oedema in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased colloid osmotic pressure

      Explanation:

      The development of oedema in nephrotic syndrome has traditionally been viewed as an underfill mechanism. According to this view, urinary loss of protein results in hypoalbuminemia and decreased plasma oncotic pressure. As a result, plasma water translocates out of the intravascular space and results in a decrease in intravascular volume. In response to the underfilled circulation, effector mechanisms are then activated that signal the kidney to secondarily retain salt and water. While an underfill mechanism may be responsible for oedema formation in a minority of patients, recent clinical and experimental findings would suggest that oedema formation in most nephrotic patients is the result of primary salt retention. Direct measurements of blood and plasma volume or measurement of neurohumoral markers that indirectly reflect effective circulatory volume are mostly consistent with either euvolemia or a volume expanded state. The ability to maintain plasma volume in the setting of a decreased plasma oncotic pressure is achieved by alterations in transcapillary exchange mechanisms known to occur in the setting of hypoalbuminemia that limit excessive capillary fluid filtration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A young lady visited a doctor with complaints of fever and a dull,...

    Incorrect

    • A young lady visited a doctor with complaints of fever and a dull, continuous pain in the right lumbar region for 6 days. On, enquiry, she recalled passing an increasing number of stools with occasional blood in last few months. Lower gastrointestinal endoscopic biopsy was taken 5 cm proximal to ileocaecal valve which showed transmural inflammation with several granulomas. Tissue section showed the absence of acid-fast bacillus. She denies any history of travel and her stool cultures were negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic, inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract but is usually seen in the distal ileum and colon. It is transmural and symptoms include chronic diarrhoea, abdominal pain, fever, anorexia and weight loss. On examination, there is usually abdominal tenderness with a palpable mass or fullness seen occasionally. Rectal bleeding is uncommon (except in isolated colonic involvement) which manifests like ulcerative colitis. Differential diagnosis includes acute appendicitis or intestinal obstruction. 25%-33% patients also have perianal disease in the form of fissure or fistulas.
      Extra intestinal manifestations predominate in children, and include: arthritis, pyrexia, anaemia or growth retardation. Histologically, the disease shows crypt inflammation and abscesses initially, which progress to aphthoid ulcers. These eventually develop into longitudinal and transverse ulcers with interspersed mucosal oedema, leading to the characteristic ‘cobblestoned appearance’. Transmural involvement leads to lymphoedema and thickening of bowel wall and mesentery, leading to extension of mesenteric fat on the serosal surface of bowel and enlargement of mesenteric nodes. There can also be hypertrophy of the muscularis mucosae, fibrosis and stricture formation, which can cause bowel obstruction. Abscesses are common and the disease can also leas to development of fistulas with various other organs, anterior abdominal wall and adjacent muscles. Pathognomonic non-caseating granulomas are seen in 50% cases and they can occur in nodes, peritoneum, liver, and in all layers of the bowel wall. The clinical course does not depend on the presence of granulomas. There is sharp demarcation between the diseased and the normal bowel (skip areas).
      35% cases show only the ileal involvement, whereas in 45% cases, both the ileum and colon are involved with a predilection for right side of colon. 20% cases show only colonic involvement, often sparing the rectum (unlike ulcerative colitis). In occasional cases, there is jejunoileitis – involvement of the entire small bowel. The stomach, duodenum and oesophagus are rarely involved, although there has been microscopic evidence of disease involving the gastric antrum in younger patients. The affected small bowel segments show increased rick of cancer. Moreover, patients with colonic disease show a long-term risk of cancer similar to that seen in ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the right recurrent laryngeal nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid

      Explanation:

      The posterior cricoarytenoid muscle, which is the sole abductor of the vocal folds, receives its innervation from the inferior laryngeal nerve which is a continuation of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is 60 mmHg, pressure at the other end is 20 mm Hg and the flow rate in the artery is 200 ml/min.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      Flow in any vessel = Effective perfusion pressure divided by resistance, where effective perfusion pressure is the mean intraluminal pressure at the arterial end minus the mean pressure at the venous end. Thus, in the given problem, resistance = (60 − 20)/200 = 0.2 mmHg/ml per min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Linezolid is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to other antibiotics. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Linezolid is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to other antibiotics. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be effectively treated by linezolid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Linezolid is a synthetic antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by multiresistant bacteria, including streptococci and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Linezolid is effective against Gram-positive pathogens, notably Enterococcus faecium, S. aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus pyogenes. It has almost no effect on Gram-negative bacteria and is only bacteriostatic against most enterococci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is an indicator for measuring the efficacy of both the intrinsic and common coagulation pathway. Prolonged aPTT may indicate: use of heparin, antiphospholipid antibody and coagulation factor deficiency (e.g., haemophilia). Deficiencies of factors VIII, IX, XI and XII and rarely von Willebrand factor (if causing a low factor VIII level) may lead to a prolonged aPTT correcting on mixing studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change...

    Incorrect

    • As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change the resistance of the vessel from 16 peripheral resistance units (PRU) to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 PRU

      Explanation:

      Poiseuille-Hagen formula for flow in along narrow tube states that F = (PA– PB) × (Π/8) × (1/η) × (r4/l) where F = flow, PA– PB = pressure difference between the two ends of the tube, η = viscosity, r = radius of tube and L = length of tube. Also, flow is given by pressure difference divided by resistance. Hence, R = 8ηL ÷ Πr4. Hence, the resistance of the vessel changes in inverse proportion to the fourth power of the diameter. So, if the diameter of the vessel is increased to twice the original, it will lead to decrease in resistance to one-sixteenth its initial value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 27-yeaar-old woman is diagnosed with candidiasis and prescribed fluconazole. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-yeaar-old woman is diagnosed with candidiasis and prescribed fluconazole. What is the mechanism of action of fluconazole?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits cytochrome P450

      Explanation:

      Fluconazole is a triazole antifungal drug used in the treatment and prevention of superficial and systemic fungal infections. Like other imidazole- and triazole-class antifungals, fluconazole inhibits the fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme, 14-demethylase. It is used to treat candidiasis, blastomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, cryptococcosis, histoplasmosis, dermatophytosis, and pityriasis versicolor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive...

    Incorrect

    • A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive myocardial infarction. She was found to be in hypotensive shock with focal neurological signs. Unfortunately the patient demised. What would be the expected findings on the brain biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      Liquefactive necrosis is often associated with bacterial or fungal infections. However, hypoxic death of cells within the central nervous system can also result in liquefactive necrosis. The focal area is soft with a liquefied centre containing necrotic debris and dead white cells. This may later be enclosed by a cystic wall

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa? ...

    Incorrect

    • The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pterygopalatine fossa

      Explanation:

      The maxillary artery supplies deep structures of the face. It branches from the external carotid artery just deep to the neck of the mandible. It is divided into three portions:
      – The first or mandibular portion (or bony portion) passes horizontally forward, between the neck of the mandible and the sphenomandibular ligament.
      – The second or pterygoid portion (or muscular portion) runs obliquely forward and upward under cover of the ramus of the mandible, on the surface of the lateral pterygoid muscle; it then passes between the two heads of origin of this muscle and enters the fossa.
      – The third portion lies in the pterygopalatine fossa in relation to the pterygopalatine ganglion. This is considered the terminal branch of the maxillary artery. Branches from the third portion includes: the sphenopalatine artery, descending palatine artery, infraorbital artery, posterior superior alveolar artery, artery of pterygoid canal, pharyngeal artery, middle superior alveolar artery and anterior superior alveolar artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and oliguria. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Dipstick testing shows no protein, glucose, nitrite or ketones but a semi-quantitative sulphosalicylic acid test for urine protein is positive. Which of the following is the most probable cause of chronic renal failure in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Dipstick results are negative because the proteins found in the urine of this patient are not albumin but Bence Jones proteins. A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein commonly detected in patients affected by multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells characterised by the production of monoclonal immunoglobulin. Symptoms include bone pain, bone fractures, bleeding, neurologic symptoms, fatigue, frequent infections and weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long...

    Incorrect

    • During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long thoracic nerve. Which among the following muscles is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle which holds the scapula forward and balances the rhomboids and the trapezius muscles which retract the scapula. Injury to this nerve results in a ‘winged scapula’ with a posterior protrusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Basic Sciences (2/9) 22%
Physiology (1/5) 20%
Pathology (0/2) 0%
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