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  • Question 1 - What is the name of the enzyme necessary for the synthesis of cholesterol...

    Correct

    • What is the name of the enzyme necessary for the synthesis of cholesterol in the liver?

      Your Answer: HMG Co A reductase

      Explanation:

      Enzymes and Proteins Involved in Cholesterol Metabolism

      Cholesterol synthesis in the liver and body cells requires the enzyme HMG CoA reductase, which converts HMG CoA into mevalonic acid, the first step in cholesterol production. This enzyme is a rate-limiting step and plays a crucial role in controlling the rate of cholesterol production. Statin drugs inhibit HMG CoA reductase, reducing blood cholesterol levels.

      Cholesterol ester transport protein aids in transporting cholesterol esters from VLDL to HDL, allowing excess lipids to be returned to the liver in reverse cholesterol transport. Hepatic lipase is responsible for making LDL from VLDL, while lipoprotein lipase hydrolyzes triglycerides, creating fatty acids and glycerol that can enter the body’s cells. Microsomal triglyceride transfer protein is responsible for making chylomicrons in the enterocytes of the small intestine.

      the roles of these enzymes and proteins is crucial in managing cholesterol levels and preventing cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old woman is scheduled to begin taking warfarin. Prior to starting this...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is scheduled to begin taking warfarin. Prior to starting this medication, her other medications are reviewed for potential contraindications. Is there any medication that should be reconsidered or adjusted before initiating warfarin therapy?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Before prescribing warfarin to a patient, it is crucial to thoroughly check for potential interactions with other medications. Warfarin is metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes in the liver, which means that medications that affect this enzyme system can impact warfarin metabolism.

      Certain medications, such as NSAIDs, antibiotics like erythromycin and ciprofloxacin, amiodarone, and SSRIs like fluoxetine, can inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes and slow down warfarin metabolism, leading to increased effects.

      On the other hand, medications like phenytoin, carbamazepine, and rifampicin can induce cytochrome P450 enzymes and speed up warfarin metabolism, resulting in decreased effects.

      However, medications like simvastatin, salmeterol, bisoprolol, and losartan do not interfere with warfarin and can be safely prescribed alongside it.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with abrupt chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with abrupt chest pain that worsens with deep breathing. The patient appears visibly agitated and short of breath, and coughs up a small quantity of blood while waiting. During the examination, the patient displays tachypnea and a red, swollen left leg. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia.

      What is the most significant risk factor for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Upper respiratory tract infection

      Correct Answer: Prostate malignancy

      Explanation:

      Having a malignancy increases the likelihood of developing pulmonary embolism, as all types of cancer are known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. However, bronchiectasis, despite causing breathlessness and haemoptysis, is less likely to result in an acute attack and is not a common risk factor for PE. Contrary to popular belief, individuals with a high BMI are more likely to develop blood clots than those with a low BMI. Finally, conditions 4 and 5 are not typically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.

      Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      62.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of a tickly cough that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of a tickly cough that has been bothering him for the past two weeks. He reports no other symptoms and his respiratory exam appears normal. The patient recently began taking an ACE inhibitor, which you suspect may be the cause of his cough. You decide to switch him to an angiotensin receptor blocker instead. Many antihypertensive medications target components of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Which enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of angiotensinogen to produce the hormone angiotensin I, an important player in this system?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin-converting-enzyme

      Correct Answer: Renin

      Explanation:

      The kidneys produce renin in their juxtaglomerular cells, which plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. This enzyme converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I through a hydrolysis reaction. More information on this system can be found below.

      Another important enzyme in this system is angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE), which is primarily located in the lungs but can also be found in smaller quantities in endothelial cells of the vasculature and kidney epithelial cells. ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II and is the target of ACE inhibitors.

      Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that facilitates the reaction between water and carbon dioxide to form bicarbonate, and it can also catalyze the reverse reaction. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors target this enzyme.

      Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is involved in the synthesis of prostaglandins, and NSAIDs are believed to work by inhibiting both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes.

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In which location do most intracerebral hemorrhages take place? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which location do most intracerebral hemorrhages take place?

      Your Answer: Brainstem

      Correct Answer: Basal ganglia

      Explanation:

      Types and Locations of Intracranial Bleeds

      Intracranial bleeds refer to any type of bleeding that occurs within the cranium. There are four main types of intracranial bleeds: extradural, subdural, subarachnoid, and intracerebral. Extradural bleeds occur outside the periosteal dura mater, while subdural bleeds occur between the meningeal dura mater and arachnoid mater. Subarachnoid bleeds occur between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, where cerebrospinal fluid circulates. Intracerebral bleeds, on the other hand, occur within the cerebral tissue itself.

      Of all the types of intracranial bleeds, intracerebral bleeds are the most common. They typically occur deep within the cerebral hemispheres, affecting the basal ganglia, such as the caudate nucleus and putamen. These types of bleeds are usually caused by hypertension, rather than trauma or atherosclerosis. While it is possible for bleeds to occur in any area of the brain, those that occur in the brainstem are particularly debilitating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. He denies any chest pain or coughing and has never smoked. During cardiac auscultation, an ejection systolic murmur is detected. Although a valvular defect is suspected as the cause of his symptoms, echocardiography reveals an atrial septal defect (ASD) instead. An ASD allows blood to flow between the left and right atria. During fetal development, what structure connects the left and right atria?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      The foramen ovale is an opening in the wall between the two upper chambers of the heart that allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the left atrium. Normally, this opening closes shortly after birth. However, if it remains open, it can result in a condition called patent foramen ovale, which is an abnormal connection between the two atria. This can lead to an atrial septal defect, where blood flows from the left atrium to the right atrium. This condition may be detected early if there are symptoms or a heart murmur is heard, but it can also go unnoticed until later in life.

      During fetal development, the ductus venosus is a blood vessel that connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava, allowing oxygenated blood to bypass the liver. After birth, this vessel usually closes and becomes the ligamentum venosum.

      The ductus arteriosus is another fetal blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, allowing blood to bypass the non-functioning lungs. This vessel typically closes after birth and becomes the ligamentum arteriosum. If it remains open, it can result in a patent ductus arteriosus.

      The coronary sinus is a vein that receives blood from the heart’s coronary veins and drains into the right atrium.

      The mitral valve is a valve that separates the left atrium and the left ventricle of the heart.

      The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus during development. After birth, it typically closes and becomes the round ligament of the liver.

      Understanding Patent Foramen Ovale

      Patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a condition that affects approximately 20% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of a small hole in the heart that may allow an embolus, such as one from deep vein thrombosis, to pass from the right side of the heart to the left side. This can lead to a stroke, which is known as a paradoxical embolus.

      Aside from its association with stroke, PFO has also been linked to migraine. Studies have shown that some patients experience an improvement in their migraine symptoms after undergoing PFO closure.

      The management of PFO in patients who have had a stroke is still a topic of debate. Treatment options include antiplatelet therapy, anticoagulant therapy, or PFO closure. It is important for patients with PFO to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A researcher plans to conduct a cohort study to compare the incidence of...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher plans to conduct a cohort study to compare the incidence of hypertension in individuals aged 40-50 years who consume high amounts of salt versus those who consume low amounts of salt. What statistical parameters should they calculate to determine the required sample size in each group for detecting a significant difference, if any?

      Your Answer: Specificity

      Correct Answer: Power

      Explanation:

      Power refers to the likelihood of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, thereby avoiding a type II error. The positive predictive value indicates the probability of individuals with a positive screening test actually having the disease, while the negative predictive value indicates the probability of individuals with a negative screening test not having the disease. Specificity refers to the proportion of individuals without the condition who receive a negative test result. A type I error, or false positive, occurs when a researcher erroneously rejects a true null hypothesis, while a type II error, or false negative, occurs when a researcher mistakenly accepts a false null hypothesis.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old man comes to the smoking cessation clinic seeking help to quit...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the smoking cessation clinic seeking help to quit smoking. He is motivated to quit after witnessing his brother's death from lung cancer.

      What health condition is the patient more susceptible to if he successfully quits smoking?

      Your Answer: Cervical cancer

      Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Smoking is a protective factor against only one type of cancer, which is endometrial cancer (3), as found by a meta-analysis. However, smoking is a risk factor for all the other types of cancer mentioned.

      For bladder cancer (1), it is suggested that the aromatic amines found in cigarettes are a known carcinogen of the bladder, thus contributing to the increased risk of bladder cancer with smoking.

      Although smoking is a well-established co-factor for the development of cervical cancer (2), the mechanism by which smoking increases the risk is not known, although there are two theories.

      Smoking has been found to cause numerous DNA changes in laryngeal cancer (4), including TP53 gene mutations.

      Smoking is also theorized to cause renal cell cancer (5) as cigarette smoke induces oxidative stress and injury in the kidney, and free radicals in cigarettes can cause DNA damage that may lead to the development of cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old male with ankylosing spondylitis presents to his GP for examination. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male with ankylosing spondylitis presents to his GP for examination. During palpation of the carotid pulse, the GP observes a pulse that quickly rises and falls. Upon auscultation of the heart, the GP detects a high-pitched early diastolic murmur that is decrescendo in nature. What cardiac abnormality is indicated by these examination findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Aortic regurgitation results in an early diastolic murmur, which is caused by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle through an incompetent aortic valve. This condition also leads to a rapid rise in the carotid pulse due to the forceful ejection of blood from an overloaded left ventricle, followed by a rapid fall due to the backflow of blood into the left ventricle. Patients with aortic regurgitation may also experience an ejection murmur, which is caused by the turbulent ejection of blood from the overloaded left ventricle. Aortic regurgitation can be caused by various factors, including aortic root dilation associated with ankylosing spondylitis, Marfan syndrome, or aortic dissection, as well as aortic valve leaflet disease resulting from calcific degeneration, congenital bicuspid aortic valve, rheumatic heart disease, or infective endocarditis.

      Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. The most common causes of AR due to valve disease include rheumatic fever, calcific valve disease, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, AR due to aortic root disease can be caused by conditions such as aortic dissection, hypertension, and connective tissue diseases like Marfan and Ehler-Danlos syndrome.

      The features of AR include an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. In severe cases, a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur may also be present. Suspected AR should be investigated with echocardiography.

      Management of AR involves medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery in symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
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  • Question 10 - Which option is false regarding the trigeminal nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is false regarding the trigeminal nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The posterior scalp is supplied by the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the posterior scalp is provided by the C2-C3 nerves.

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea and vomiting that started 3 hours ago. The vomit contains some food content but no blood. He also reports experiencing abdominal pain, but is unable to pinpoint the location. On examination, his heart rate is 90 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 140/88 mmHg. The emergency physician observes that he has red palms and ascites in his abdomen. The following blood results are obtained:

      - Hemoglobin: 128 g/L
      - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 82 U/L
      - Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 38 U/L

      Further questioning reveals that the man used to engage in binge drinking and currently consumes more than 60 units of alcohol per week since his divorce 15 years ago and recent job loss. Based on this information, what pathological feature is likely to be observed on liver biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Excess collagen and extracellular matrix deposition in periportal and pericentral zones leading to the formation of regenerative nodules

      Explanation:

      Patients with this condition typically exhibit the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies.

      Scoring Systems for Liver Cirrhosis

      Liver cirrhosis is a serious condition that can lead to liver failure and death. To assess the severity of the disease, doctors use scoring systems such as the Child-Pugh classification and the Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD). The Child-Pugh classification takes into account five factors: bilirubin levels, albumin levels, prothrombin time, encephalopathy, and ascites. Each factor is assigned a score of 1 to 3, depending on its severity, and the scores are added up to give a total score. The total score is then used to grade the severity of the disease as A, B, or C.

      The MELD system uses a formula that takes into account a patient’s bilirubin, creatinine, and international normalized ratio (INR) to predict their survival. The formula calculates a score that ranges from 6 to 40, with higher scores indicating a higher risk of mortality. The MELD score is particularly useful for patients who are on a liver transplant waiting list, as it helps to prioritize patients based on their risk of mortality. Overall, both the Child-Pugh classification and the MELD system are important tools for assessing the severity of liver cirrhosis and determining the best course of treatment for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - In the Vaughan Williams classification of antihypertensives, lisinopril is an example of a:...

    Incorrect

    • In the Vaughan Williams classification of antihypertensives, lisinopril is an example of a:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class IV agent

      Explanation:

      The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics

      The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.

      Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.

      Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.

      Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.

      Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.

      Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.

      It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following statements about interleukin 1 (IL-1) is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about interleukin 1 (IL-1) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is released mainly by macrophages/monocytes

      Explanation:

      The Role of Interleukin 1 in the Immune Response

      Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a crucial mediator of the immune response, secreted primarily by macrophages and monocytes. Its main function is to act as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation. Additionally, IL-1 increases the expression of adhesion molecules on the endothelium, leading to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. This can cause shock in sepsis, making IL-1 one of the mediators of this condition. Along with IL-6 and TNF, IL-1 also acts on the hypothalamus, causing pyrexia.

      Due to its significant role in the immune response, IL-1 inhibitors are increasingly used in medicine. Examples of these inhibitors include anakinra, an IL-1 receptor antagonist used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, and canakinumab, a monoclonal antibody targeted at IL-1 beta used in systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and adult-onset Still’s disease. These inhibitors help to regulate the immune response and manage conditions where IL-1 plays a significant role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
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  • Question 14 - In a 5-year-old with a single palmar crease, prominent supra-orbital ridge, brush spots,...

    Incorrect

    • In a 5-year-old with a single palmar crease, prominent supra-orbital ridge, brush spots, slanted ears and hypotonia, what is the most probable underlying mechanism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Down’s Syndrome is primarily caused by non-disjunction during maternal meiosis, with a small percentage of cases resulting from reciprocal or Robertsonian translocations.

      Features of Down’s Syndrome

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects individuals in various ways. The clinical features of Down’s syndrome include distinct facial characteristics such as upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Other physical features include a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between the big and first toe. Hypotonia, or low muscle tone, is also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      In addition to physical features, individuals with Down’s syndrome may also experience cardiac complications, with congenital heart defects present in 40-50% of cases. These can include endocardial cushion defect, ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome can include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

      Overall, Down’s syndrome can affect individuals in a variety of ways, with physical and medical features that can impact their daily lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 63-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic with a recent diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. She is prescribed a brief course of steroids and a disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug. Which joint is predominantly impacted by rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synovial

      Explanation:

      There are three main types of joints: synovial, cartilaginous, and fibrous. Synovial joints have a fibrous capsule with ligaments that check excessive movements. Some synovial joints have an intra-articular disc made of fibrocartilage. Cartilaginous joints can grow while resisting forces and eventually become synostoses. Fibrous joints include sutures, which slowly become rigid synostoses, syndesmoses, which allow some movement, and gomphoses, which anchor teeth into alveolar sockets.

      Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old falls in the garden. She arrives at the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old falls in the garden. She arrives at the emergency department with left leg pain and is unable to bear weight. Upon examination, her left leg is shortened and externally rotated. An x-ray is conducted in the emergency department, revealing an intracapsular fracture of the left neck of femur. The medical team reviews the imaging and expresses concern about osteonecrosis of the femoral head.

      Which artery's damage is the most concerning in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial circumflex femoral artery

      Explanation:

      The medial femoral circumflex artery is the primary supplier of blood to the femoral head. This artery wraps around the back of the femur to provide blood to the neck and head of the femur. In cases of femoral neck fractures, damage to this artery can occur, leading to a disruption of blood supply and resulting in osteonecrosis of the femoral head.

      The deep femoral artery, also known as the profunda femoris, is a branch of the femoral artery that supplies the deep tissues of the thigh. It branches into the lateral and medial femoral circumflex arteries and the perforating arteries, but it does not directly supply the femoral head. It is not typically affected in cases of femoral neck fractures and is therefore not the correct answer.

      The femoral artery is responsible for providing blood supply to the lower limb, but it does not directly supply the femoral head. It is not typically affected in cases of femoral neck fractures and is therefore not the correct answer.

      The lateral femoral circumflex artery wraps around the front and side of the femur to supply the femoral neck and musculature on the lateral aspect of the thigh. While it does provide some blood supply to the femoral head, it is not the primary supplier and is therefore not the correct answer.

      The popliteal artery is a continuation of the femoral artery at the adductor hiatus and supplies the knee, lower leg, and foot. It is not directly involved in the blood supply to the femoral head and is therefore not the correct answer.

      Anatomy of the Femur: Structure and Blood Supply

      The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip joint to the knee joint. It consists of a rounded head that articulates with the acetabulum and two large condyles at its inferior aspect that articulate with the tibia. The superior aspect of the femur comprises a head and neck that pass inferolaterally to the body and the two trochanters. The neck meets the body of the femur at an angle of 125o and is demarcated from it by a wide rough intertrochanteric crest. The greater trochanter has discernible surfaces that form the site of attachment of the gluteal muscles, while the linea aspera forms part of the origin of the attachments of the thigh adductors.

      The femur has a rich blood supply, with numerous vascular foramina existing throughout its length. The blood supply to the femoral head is clinically important and is provided by the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head. It is important to note that the neck is covered by synovial membrane up to the intertrochanteric line, and the posterior aspect of the neck is demarcated from the shaft by the intertrochanteric crest. Understanding the anatomy of the femur, including its structure and blood supply, is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions related to this bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 17 - Surgery can trigger a significant stress response in individuals, leading to the release...

    Incorrect

    • Surgery can trigger a significant stress response in individuals, leading to the release of high levels of adrenaline from the adrenal glands. This adrenaline has the potential to activate various adrenergic receptors, including the α1 receptor. What happens when this receptor is activated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old man with Crohn's disease presents to his general practitioner with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with Crohn's disease presents to his general practitioner with complaints of worsening dyspnea. Upon initial investigations, he is diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. Which part of his intestine may be currently affected by his Crohn's disease due to this deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is where iron absorption primarily occurs. Inflammatory conditions affecting this area can hinder iron absorption and potentially result in anaemia. The ascending colon, ileum, and jejunum are not the main sites of iron absorption, as they primarily absorb water, vitamin B12 and bile acids, and sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids, respectively.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications

      Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.

      On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - In scientific experimentation, what is the term used to describe the movement of...

    Incorrect

    • In scientific experimentation, what is the term used to describe the movement of charged particles or solutes in a liquid medium due to an electric field?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Electrophoresis: Separating Molecules Based on Charge and Mass

      Electrophoresis is a technique that separates solutes, molecules, or nucleic acids based on their mass and charge. It involves the migration of charged particles in a liquid medium under the influence of an electric field. The apparatus consists of two electrodes placed at either end of a support medium, or gel, which is suspended in a buffer solution. The sample is inserted into a well and a current is applied. Over time, positively charged solutes move towards the negative electrode, while negatively charged substances move towards the positive electrode. Once the migration is complete, the gel is removed and stained to color the substance being tested for, such as protein.

      This technique is widely used in medical testing, but it requires a higher degree of operational and interpretive skill than many other tests, which is why it often takes longer to get a result. Electrophoresis has various uses and adaptations, such as standard electrophoresis for protein detection in the diagnosis of myeloma, identification of unusual lipid fractions in patients with inherited diseases, and detection of viral DNA through Southern Blotting. There is also Northern blotting, primarily a research technique at present, which uses electrophoresis to separate RNA. Additionally, Western blotting is used to test for the presence of antibodies to DNA through protein separation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 21 - Where is the area postrema located in the brain? A 16-year-old girl was...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the area postrema located in the brain? A 16-year-old girl was prescribed erythromycin for her severe acne, but after three days, she had to stop taking it due to severe nausea that made her unable to function.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Floor of the 4th ventricle

      Explanation:

      The vomiting process is initiated by the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which receives signals from various sources such as the gastrointestinal tract, hormones, and drugs. This zone is located in the area postrema, which is situated on the floor of the 4th ventricle in the medulla. It is noteworthy that the area postrema is located outside the blood-brain barrier. The nucleus of tractus solitarius, which is also located in the medulla, contains autonomic centres that play a role in the vomiting reflex. This nucleus receives signals from the chemoreceptor trigger zone. The vomiting centres in the brain receive inputs from different areas, including the gastrointestinal tract and the vestibular system of the inner ear.

      Vomiting is the involuntary act of expelling the contents of the stomach and sometimes the intestines. This is caused by a reverse peristalsis and abdominal contraction. The vomiting center is located in the medulla oblongata and is activated by receptors in various parts of the body. These include the labyrinthine receptors in the ear, which can cause motion sickness, the over distention receptors in the duodenum and stomach, the trigger zone in the central nervous system, which can be affected by drugs such as opiates, and the touch receptors in the throat. Overall, vomiting is a reflex action that is triggered by various stimuli and is controlled by the vomiting center in the brainstem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 22 - A teenage girl and her mother come to the doctor's office with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl and her mother come to the doctor's office with concerns about ambiguous genitalia. Upon conducting a thorough medical history and various tests, the doctor diagnoses the girl with congenital adrenal hyperplasia. What is the reason for adrenal hyperplasia being a characteristic of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inefficient cortisol synthesis

      Explanation:

      Low cortisol production and compensatory adrenal hyperplasia are caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency, leading to increased androgen production and ambiguous genitalia. The enzymes 11-beta hydroxylase and 17-hydroxylase are also involved. Testosterone and estrogen synthesis is not affected as they are produced in the testes and ovaries, respectively. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is not caused by aldosterone synthesis, despite it occurring in the adrenal cortex.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic condition that affects the adrenal glands and can result in various symptoms depending on the specific enzyme deficiency. One common form is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which can cause virilization of female genitalia, precocious puberty in males, and a salt-losing crisis in 60-70% of patients during the first few weeks of life. Another form is 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, which can also cause virilization and precocious puberty, as well as hypertension and hypokalemia. A third form is 17-hydroxylase deficiency, which typically does not cause virilization in females but can result in intersex characteristics in boys and hypertension.

      Overall, congenital adrenal hyperplasia can have significant impacts on a person’s physical development and health, and early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing symptoms and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a stab wound to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a stab wound to her forearm following a robbery. Upon examination, there is numbness observed in the thenar eminence and weakness in finger and wrist flexion. Which nerve is the most probable to have been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the thenar eminence and controlling finger and wrist flexion. Its palmar cutaneous branch supplies sensation to the skin on the lateral side of the palm, including the thenar eminence. The median nerve directly innervates the flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus muscles, which are responsible for wrist flexion, as well as the flexor digitorum superficialis and lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles via the anterior interosseous nerve, which control finger flexion. Damage to the median nerve can result in weakness in these movements.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 24 - Which interleukin is accountable for the growth of B cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which interleukin is accountable for the growth of B cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IL-4

      Explanation:

      The proliferation and differentiation of B cells is attributed to IL-4. Macrophages produce IL-1, an acute inflammatory protein. T cell proliferation is encouraged by IL-2. Myeloid cells undergo proliferation and differentiation due to IL-3.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 25 - A man in his early 50s visits his doctor regarding a recent high...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 50s visits his doctor regarding a recent high cholesterol result. The doctor suggests prescribing a type of medication known as a statin to lower his cholesterol levels.

      What specific enzyme do statins target?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes

      Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.

      For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.

      The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.

      Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 26 - A patient with intricate mental health issues and multiple medications presents at the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with intricate mental health issues and multiple medications presents at the clinic with concerns about weight gain. Which of the following medications is probable to be the cause of this side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is a prevalent side effect of antipsychotics.

      While antipsychotics are successful in treating schizophrenia, they often lead to weight gain and an increased likelihood of developing type 2 diabetes. The most rapid weight gain typically occurs within the first six months of starting antipsychotic treatment.

      In particular, Olanzapine and Clozapine are associated with a high risk of weight gain. They stimulate appetite and result in overeating, as well as disrupt glucose regulation.

      Schizophrenia management guidelines were published by NICE in 2009. The guidelines recommend that first-line treatment for schizophrenia should involve oral atypical antipsychotics. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients. It is important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification due to the high rates of cardiovascular disease in schizophrenic patients, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare professionals should take necessary measures to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 26-year-old man has been in a car accident and his right leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man has been in a car accident and his right leg has been trapped for 5 hours during transportation. During examination, his foot is found to be insensate and there is only a weakly felt dorsalis pedis pulse. Which of the following biochemical abnormalities is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      The patient is expected to suffer from compartment syndrome, which may lead to delayed diagnosis and muscle necrosis. Muscle necrosis can cause the release of potassium, and there is a high probability of renal dysfunction, which can result in elevated serum potassium levels.

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.

      There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.

      It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 28 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the hospital with a sudden onset headache. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the hospital with a sudden onset headache. She reports no history of trauma prior to the headache. The pain began at the back of her head while she was watching TV and quickly reached its peak intensity within 2 seconds, rated at 10/10. She has never experienced a headache before.

      The patient also reported photophobia and neck stiffness after the headache. Neurological examination did not reveal any focal deficits, and her Glasgow Coma Scale score was 15/15.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      If you experience a sudden headache in the occipital region, it could be a sign of subarachnoid haemorrhage. This is especially true if you also develop sensitivity to light and stiffness in the neck. To investigate this possibility, a CT scan of the head may be ordered. If the results are inconclusive, a lumbar puncture with xanthochromia screen may be performed.

      In contrast, intracerebral haemorrhage typically causes focal neurological deficits or a decrease in consciousness. It is often associated with risk factors such as hypertension and diabetes.

      Extradural haemorrhage, on the other hand, usually occurs after head trauma, particularly to the temporal regions. It is caused by injury to the middle meningeal artery and can cause a lucid patient to lose consciousness gradually over several hours. As intracranial pressure increases, patients may also experience focal neurological deficits and cranial nerve palsies.

      There are different types of traumatic brain injury, including focal (contusion/haematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury). Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing following deceleration, causing disruption and tearing of axons. Intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to (coup) or contralateral (contre-coup) to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is a characteristic of the Leydig cells in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic of the Leydig cells in the testes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Produce testosterone

      Explanation:

      The production of testosterone in response to LH is carried out by Leydig cells, not Sertoli cells in the testes.

      Leydig cells are responsible for the secretion of testosterone when LH is released from the anterior pituitary gland. On the other hand, Sertoli cells are referred to as nurse cells because they provide nourishment to developing sperm during spermatogenesis. These cells have an elongated shape, secrete androgen-binding protein and tubular fluid, support the development of sperm during spermatogenesis, and form the blood-testes barrier.

      Endocrine Changes During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body, including endocrine changes. Progesterone, which is produced by the fallopian tubes during the first two weeks of pregnancy, stimulates the secretion of nutrients required by the zygote/blastocyst. At six weeks, the placenta takes over the production of progesterone, which inhibits uterine contractions by decreasing sensitivity to oxytocin and inhibiting the production of prostaglandins. Progesterone also stimulates the development of lobules and alveoli.

      Oestrogen, specifically oestriol, is another major hormone produced during pregnancy. It stimulates the growth of the myometrium and the ductal system of the breasts. Prolactin, which increases during pregnancy, initiates and maintains milk secretion of the mammary gland. It is essential for the expression of the mammotropic effects of oestrogen and progesterone. However, oestrogen and progesterone directly antagonize the stimulating effects of prolactin on milk synthesis.

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by the syncitiotrophoblast and can be detected within nine days of pregnancy. It mimics LH, rescuing the corpus luteum from degenerating and ensuring early oestrogen and progesterone secretion. It also stimulates the production of relaxin and may inhibit contractions induced by oxytocin. Other hormones produced during pregnancy include relaxin, which suppresses myometrial contractions and relaxes the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis, and human placental lactogen (hPL), which has lactogenic actions and enhances protein metabolism while antagonizing insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, and sudden-onset shortness of breath. Upon diagnosis, she is found to have a pulmonary embolism and is later discovered to have Factor V Leiden. What is the underlying mechanism that causes this condition to lead to blood clots?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activated protein C resistance

      Explanation:

      The Factor V Leiden mutation causes activated protein C resistance, resulting in excess clotting due to inefficient inactivation of factor V. This is the correct answer.

      Antiphospholipid antibodies binding to plasma membranes is not the correct answer as it is a mechanism of blood clot formation in antiphospholipid syndrome (APS).

      High levels of platelets in the blood is also not the correct answer as it is not implicated in Factor V Leiden. Thrombocytosis, or high levels of platelets, can lead to clots but is not related to this mutation.

      Low levels of factor V in the blood is also not the correct answer as factor V deficiency is a rare inherited bleeding disorder, not a clotting disorder. It is a form of haemophilia.

      Understanding Factor V Leiden

      Factor V Leiden is a common inherited thrombophilia, affecting around 5% of the UK population. It is caused by a mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein, resulting in activated factor V being inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal. This leads to activated protein C resistance, which increases the risk of venous thrombosis. Heterozygotes have a 4-5 fold risk of venous thrombosis, while homozygotes have a 10 fold risk, although the prevalence of homozygotes is much lower at 0.05%.

      Despite its prevalence, screening for Factor V Leiden is not recommended, even after a venous thromboembolism. This is because a previous thromboembolism itself is a risk factor for further events, and specific management should be based on this rather than the particular thrombophilia identified.

      Other inherited thrombophilias include Prothrombin gene mutation, Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency. The table below shows the prevalence and relative risk of venous thromboembolism for each of these conditions.

      Overall, understanding Factor V Leiden and other inherited thrombophilias can help healthcare professionals identify individuals at higher risk of venous thrombosis and provide appropriate management to prevent future events.

      Condition | Prevalence | Relative risk of VTE
      — | — | —
      Factor V Leiden (heterozygous) | 5% | 4
      Factor V Leiden (homozygous) | 0.05% | 10
      Prothrombin gene mutation (heterozygous) | 1.5% | 3
      Protein C deficiency | 0.3% | 10
      Protein S deficiency | 0.1% | 5-10
      Antithrombin III deficiency | 0.02% | 10-20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular System (1/3) 33%
Haematology And Oncology (0/1) 0%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Reproductive System (0/1) 0%
Passmed