-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Which cognitive function is the Stroop test intended to detect difficulties with?
Your Answer: Intelligence
Correct Answer: Response inhibition
Explanation:The Stroop test involves presenting words to the subject that spell a color but are written in a different color. The subject is required to identify the color of the text as quickly as possible, rather than reading the word itself. This test assesses the subject’s ability to make an appropriate response when presented with conflicting signals. This ability is believed to originate from the anterior cingulate, which is located between the left and right frontal lobes.
Frontal Lobe Tests
The frontal lobe is responsible for a variety of cognitive functions, including initiation, abstraction, problem-solving, decision-making, response inhibition, and set shifting. Different tests can be used to assess these functions.
Verbal and categorical fluency tests can be used to assess initiation. These tests require individuals to generate as many words of items as possible within a specific category of starting letter.
Proverbs, similarities, and cognitive estimates are examples of tests that can be used to assess abstraction. These tests require individuals to identify similarities between objects of concepts, make judgments based on incomplete information, of estimate quantities.
Tower of London, Cambridge stockings, and gambling tasks are examples of tests that can be used to assess problem-solving and decision-making. These tests require individuals to plan and execute a sequence of actions to achieve a goal of make decisions based on uncertain outcomes.
Alternating sequences, go-no-go test, Luria motor test, trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, and Stroop test are examples of tests that can be used to assess response inhibition and set shifting. These tests require individuals to inhibit prepotent responses, switch between tasks of mental sets, of ignore irrelevant information.
Overall, these tests can provide valuable information about an individual’s frontal lobe functioning and can be used to diagnose and treat various neurological and psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which study utilized the Heinz dilemma to explore the development of children?
Your Answer: Winnacott
Correct Answer: Kohlberg
Explanation:The Heinz dilemma was a scenario used by Kohlberg to explore moral development. It goes as follows: A woman is dying from a rare cancer, and a druggist in the same town has discovered a drug that could save her. However, the druggist is charging ten times the cost of production for the drug. The women’s husband, Heinz, cannot afford the price and asks the druggist to sell it cheaper of let him pay later, but the druggist refuses. In desperation, Heinz breaks into the store to steal the drug for his wife.
The question is whether Heinz should have broken into the store to steal the drug. This dilemma raises ethical questions about the value of human life versus the right to property and profit. Some argue that Heinz was justified in stealing the drug because he was trying to save his wife’s life, and the druggist’s greed was preventing him from doing so. Others argue that stealing is always wrong, regardless of the circumstances, and that Heinz should have found another way to obtain the drug.
Kohlberg used this dilemma to study moral reasoning and development. He believed that people’s responses to moral dilemmas reveal their level of moral reasoning, which progresses through stages of increasing complexity and sophistication. According to Kohlberg, Heinz’s decision to steal the drug would be considered morally justifiable at the higher stages of moral reasoning, where individuals prioritize universal ethical principles over personal gain of social norms.
Overall, the Heinz dilemma highlights the complex nature of moral decision-making and the importance of considering multiple perspectives and ethical principles.
Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.
The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.
The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.
It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
What is the most effective method for distinguishing between Alzheimer's disease and Lewy body dementia?
Your Answer: Functional MRI
Correct Answer: Dat scan
Explanation:It’s important to note that DaT-SCAN and SPECT are not the same thing. DaT-SCAN specifically refers to the radioactive isotope called Ioflupane, which is utilized in the creation of a SPECT image.
Alzheimer’s disease can be differentiated from healthy older individuals by using SPECT imaging to detect temporal and parietal hypoperfusion, according to studies such as one conducted by W. Jagust in 2001. Additionally, SPECT imaging has proven to be a useful tool in distinguishing between Alzheimer’s disease and Lewy body dementia, as demonstrated in a study by Vaamonde-Gamo in 2005. The image provided shows a SPECT scan of a patient with Alzheimer’s disease compared to one with Lewy body dementia, with the latter showing lower perfusion in the occipital cortex and the former showing lower perfusion in medial temporal areas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position?
Your Answer: Rationalisation
Correct Answer: Splitting
Explanation:Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.
On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
What is the enzyme responsible for converting 5-hydroxytryptophan into serotonin?
Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase
Correct Answer: L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase
Explanation:Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown
Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.
The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.
Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Your elderly client informs you that she had a sudden realization that she was a member of Spice Girls. This awareness came out of nowhere.
Is this an instance of:Your Answer: Delusional percept
Correct Answer: Autochthonous delusion
Explanation:Delusions that originate within the mind without any external influence are known as autochthonous. This term, derived from the Greek word for from the soil, emphasizes that the idea is self-generated rather than being triggered by a sensory experience of other external factor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
What is the most frequently reported side-effect of methylphenidate?
Your Answer: Palpitations
Correct Answer: Nausea
Explanation:ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
What is the reason for the induction of CYP1A2, and how does it related to the need for higher doses of clozapine in certain individuals?
Your Answer: Smoking
Explanation:The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
The most probable diagnosis for a patient with an isolated finding of atrophy of the head of caudate nucleus on a CT scan is:
Your Answer: Lewy Body dementia
Correct Answer: Huntington's disease
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.
The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.
The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.
The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.
Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.
In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
What is the characteristic of drugs that are hydrophilic?
Your Answer: They pass poorly through cell membranes
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
The correct order of the psychosexual stages described by Freud are:
Your Answer: Oral anal, phallic, genital, latency
Correct Answer: Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
Explanation:Developmental Stages
There are four main developmental models that are important to understand: Freud’s theory of psychosexual development, Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, and Kohlberg’s theory of moral development.
Freud’s theory of psychosexual development includes five stages: oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital. These stages occur from birth to adulthood and are characterized by different areas of focus and pleasure.
Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development includes eight stages, each with a specific crisis to be resolved. These stages occur from infancy to old age and are focused on developing a sense of self and relationships with others.
Piaget’s theory of cognitive development includes four stages: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. These stages occur from birth to adulthood and are focused on the development of cognitive abilities such as perception, memory, and problem-solving.
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development includes three stages: preconventional, conventional, and postconventional. These stages occur from childhood to adulthood and are focused on the development of moral reasoning and decision-making.
Understanding these developmental models can help individuals better understand themselves and others, as well as provide insight into how to support healthy development at each stage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
What defense mechanisms are present in individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
Your Answer: Projection
Correct Answer: Magical thinking
Explanation:OCD can trigger various defence mechanisms, such as repression, reaction formation, magical thinking, undoing, and isolation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dynamic Psychopathology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
The sella turcica is a saddle-shaped depression in which bone that houses the pituitary gland?
Your Answer: Sphenoid
Explanation:The sphenoid bone contains a saddle-shaped depression known as the sella turcica. The anterior cranial fossa is formed by the frontal, ethmoid, and a portion of the sphenoid bones. The middle cranial fossa is formed by the sphenoid and temporal bones, while the posterior cranial fossa is formed by the occipital and temporal bones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately describes the pharmacokinetics during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Glomerular filtration rate decreases during pregnancy
Correct Answer: Total plasma concentrations of albumin bound drugs decrease during pregnancy
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are significant changes in maternal physiology that can affect the pharmacokinetics of drugs. These changes are most pronounced in the third trimester. One of the most notable changes is an increase in plasma volume, which can lead to haemodilution and a decrease in the concentration of plasma albumin. As a result, the total plasma concentrations of albumin-bound drugs may decrease during pregnancy. Additionally, lipophilic drugs may have an increased volume of distribution due to the increase in plasma volume.
Progesterone levels are also elevated during pregnancy, which can lead to delayed gastric emptying and reduced small intestine motility. This may affect the absorption of drugs, but the overall impact on bioavailability is likely to be relatively small.
The activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes can also change during pregnancy. Estrogens and progesterone can induce some CYP enzymes and inhibit others, leading to altered drug metabolism.
Finally, renal blood flow and the glomerular filtration rate increase during pregnancy, which can enhance the elimination of some drugs. The GFR can increase by up to 50% during pregnancy. These changes in pharmacokinetics during pregnancy must be taken into account when prescribing drugs to pregnant women.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of these literary works was authored by Sigmund Freud?
Your Answer: Ego and Superego
Correct Answer: The Psychopathology of Everyday Life
Explanation:Freud’s The Psychopathology of Everyday Life was written in 1901, while The Interpretation of Dreams was written in 1899, Mourning and Melancholia in 1917, and The Ego and the Id in 1923. Man and Superman was a play written by George Bernard Shaw in 1903 and is unrelated to Freud’s works.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
What is one of the phases in Bowlby's grief model?
Your Answer: Shock
Correct Answer: Disorganisation and despair
Explanation:According to Bowlby’s (1980) model of grief, there are four stages: Numbing, Yearning and searching, Disorganisation and despair, and Reorganisation. Other models of grief may include Shock, Anger (Kubler-Ross, 1969), Awareness of loss, and Conservation-Withdrawal (Sanders, 1989).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Psychological Processes
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
Which adverse drug reaction has the quickest onset?
Your Answer: Type I
Explanation:Immunologic Adverse Drug Reactions
Immunologic adverse drug reactions account for a small percentage of all adverse drug reactions, ranging from 5 to 10%. These reactions are classified using the Gell and Coombs system, which categorizes them into four groups: Type I, Type II, Type III, and Type IV reactions.
Type I reactions occur when a drug-IgE complex binds to mast cells, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. These reactions typically cause anaphylaxis, urticaria, and bronchospasm and occur within minutes to hours after exposure.
Type II reactions occur when an IgG of IgM antibody binds to a cell that has been altered by a drug-hapten. These reactions often manifest as blood abnormalities, such as thrombocytopenia and neutropenia, and their timing is variable.
Type III reactions occur when drug-antibody complexes activate the complement system, leading to fever, rash, urticaria, and vasculitis. These reactions occur 1 to 3 weeks after exposure.
Type IV reactions arise when the MHC system presents drug molecules to T cells, resulting in allergic contact dermatitis and rashes. These reactions occur 2 to 7 days after cutaneous exposure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Which area is Kohlberg recognized for introducing a developmental framework?
Your Answer: Attachment
Correct Answer: Morality
Explanation:Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.
The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.
The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.
It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
What investigation results would indicate a diagnosis of SIADH?
Your Answer: Decreased urine osmolality
Correct Answer: Increased urine sodium
Explanation:Hyponatraemia is a condition where the serum sodium level in a patient falls below 135 mmol/L, with severe hyponatraemia being defined as a level below 120 mmol/L. The causes of hyponatraemia can be classified based on the patient’s fluid status, which can be hypovolaemic, euvolemic, of hypervolaemic. Hypovolaemic hyponatraemia occurs when there is a reduction in extracellular fluid volume and serum sodium levels, often due to gastrointestinal losses. Euvolemic hyponatraemia is the most common type and occurs when the extracellular fluid volume is normal. This type can be caused by conditions such as SIADH, hypothyroidism, primary polydipsia, and medications. Hypervolaemic hyponatraemia is associated with increased extracellular volume and occurs when fluid retention is greater than sodium retention, often due to cardiac and renal failures of liver cirrhosis.
Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
What is the likelihood of a child developing schizophrenia if one of their parents has the condition, based on the Gottesman data?
Your Answer: 46%
Correct Answer: 13%
Explanation:Schizophrenia Risk According to Gottesman
Irving I. Gottesman conducted family and twin studies in European populations between 1920 and 1987 to determine the risk of developing schizophrenia for relatives of those with the disorder. The following table displays Gottesman’s findings, which show the average lifetime risk for each relationship:
General population: 1%
First cousin: 2%
Uncle/aunt: 2%
Nephew/niece: 4%
Grandchildren: 5%
Parents: 6%
Half sibling: 6%
Full sibling: 9%
Children: 13%
Fraternal twins: 17%
Offspring of dual matings (both parents had schizophrenia): 46%
Identical twins: 48% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
What is a true statement about dissociative seizures?
Your Answer: Post event prolactin levels are usually normal
Explanation:The absence of a serum prolactin increase is a characteristic of simple partial seizures, but this test is not reliable for prolonged status epilepticus as prolactin levels may remain normal. To obtain accurate results, blood samples should be taken within 20-30 minutes after the seizure and compared to a baseline sample. However, this test is becoming less common in specialized centers due to the risk of false positive results in cases of syncope and dissociative seizures, as reported by Mellers in 2005.
Dissociative seizures, also known as pseudoseizures of functional seizures, are abnormal paroxysmal manifestations that resemble epileptic seizures but are not related to abnormal epileptiform discharges. They can be caused by physical factors such as hypoglycemia of cardiac dysfunction, but more commonly result from mental of emotional processes. Dissociative seizures are more common in females and tend to have an onset in late adolescence. Distinguishing between true seizures and pseudoseizures can be challenging, but a rise in serum prolactin levels after a seizure is a helpful diagnostic tool. Treatment options for psychogenic nonepileptic seizures are limited, with cognitive-behavioral therapy being the most studied and effective intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
The concept that a teenager may have conflicting desires to excel academically and to maintain a social life was first examined in which theory?
Your Answer: The sick role
Explanation:The Sick Role and Illness Behavior
Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.
According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.
Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.
In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
What is the primary mechanism by which valproate stabilizes mood?
Your Answer: Alpha 2 antagonist
Correct Answer: GABA agonism
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A cohort study aimed to determine the likelihood of postoperative bleeding in elderly patients undergoing surgery while taking anticoagulant medication.
Anticoagulants were categorized into direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and vitamin K antagonists (VKAs).
What were the results of the study?Your Answer: Increased risk of bleeding with other antidepressants but not SSRIs
Correct Answer: Increased risk of bleeding with all antidepressants
Explanation:The use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) can lead to a decrease in platelet aggregation, potentially increasing the risk of bleeding. However, the discovery that other types of antidepressants may also increase the risk of bleeding was unexpected and requires further investigation.
A recent cohort study followed women who were currently using antidepressants, had used them within the past month, had used them within the past 1-5 months, of had never used them. The study found that women who had any current of recent exposure to antidepressants were at a slightly increased risk of experiencing postpartum hemorrhage (with a relative risk of 1.4-1.9).
The study was conducted in the United States and focused on women who received Medicaid, which represents approximately 40% of the US population and includes a higher proportion of economically disadvantaged and minority populations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
What is the term used in Piaget's theory of child development to describe the process of modifying a schema based on new information?
Your Answer: Adaptation
Correct Answer: Accommodation
Explanation:Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts
Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.
The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.
The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.
The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.
Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.
Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which lobe of the brain is responsible for causing Gerstmann's syndrome when it malfunctions?
Your Answer: Non-dominant parietal
Correct Answer: Dominant parietal
Explanation:Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms
The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.
Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.
Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.
In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about thiamine?
Your Answer: It is synthesised in the liver
Correct Answer: It is required for carbohydrate catabolism
Explanation:A lack of vitamin C is commonly linked to gum inflammation and bleeding.
Thiamine Deficiency and Alcohol-Related Brain Disease
Thiamine deficiency is a well-known cause of a neurological disorder called Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (WKS) in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, is an essential nutrient that cannot be produced by the body and must be obtained through the diet. Thiamine is required for the proper functioning of enzymes involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates, the synthesis of neurotransmitters, nucleic acids, fatty acids, and complex sugar molecules, and the body’s defense against oxidative stress.
Three enzymes that require thiamine as a cofactor are transketolase, pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH), and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (KGDH), all of which participate in the breakdown of carbohydrates. Thiamine deficiency leads to suboptimal levels of functional enzymes in the cell, which can cause cell damage in the central nervous system through cell necrosis, cellular apoptosis, and oxidative stress.
Alcoholism can contribute to thiamine deficiency through inadequate nutritional intake, decreased absorption of thiamine from the gastrointestinal tract, and impaired utilization of thiamine in the cells. Giving thiamine to patients with WKS can reverse many of the acute symptoms of the disease, highlighting the importance of this nutrient in the prevention and treatment of alcohol-related brain disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
What statement accurately describes ionotropic receptors?
Your Answer: The onset of their effect is slow compared to metabotropic receptors
Correct Answer: GABA-A is an example of an ionotropic receptor
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
How can the recurring theme in the stigma of mental illness be described?
Your Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Stigma is a negative attribute that sets a person apart from others and can lead to disgrace of discredit. Mental illness is often stigmatized, which can have a significant impact on social relations. A national survey conducted by the Royal College of Psychiatrists in 1998 found that 71% of people believed that those with schizophrenia are violent and unpredictable. Although this figure fell slightly to 66% in 2003, the stigma surrounding mental illness remains a powerful force. People with mental illness are often viewed as victims of pathetic characters, which can further contribute to their social isolation and exclusion. This can have a detrimental effect on their outcomes, particularly in chronic mental disorders, where social networks are crucial. Negative cultural sanctions and myths can also contribute to scapegoating in the wider community.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which option is not a component of the MMSE?
Your Answer: Repeat, 'no ifs, ands or buts'
Correct Answer: Asking name of current prime minister
Explanation:What is the name of the current prime minister? This question is part of the Abbreviated Mental Test Score (AMTS).
Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)
The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)