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  • Question 1 - A 15-year-old boy, with a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, is showing symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy, with a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, is showing symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Upon conducting liver function tests, it is found that he has elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin. After genetic testing, it is confirmed that he has Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason behind the increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin in Gilbert's syndrome?

      Your Answer: High levels of gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) enzyme

      Correct Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is characterized by a decrease in UDP glucuronosyltransferase levels.
      Enhanced drug effects can occur due to reduced warfarin metabolism caused by CYP2C9 deficiency.
      Elevated GGT levels are often caused by pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medications.
      Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin.
      Disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs, including proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants, and sedatives, can result from reduced CYP2C19 levels.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 2 - A 44-year-old man presents to the emergency department with haematemesis and is referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man presents to the emergency department with haematemesis and is referred for urgent endoscopy, which reveals a 1.5cm ulcer in the first portion of the duodenum. He has a history of generalised anxiety disorder, but takes no prescription or over the counter medications and has no known drug allergies. Lately, he has been experiencing increased fatigue and bloating. On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, and he has no fever. What is the most probable cause of this man's ulcer?

      Your Answer: A high-stress job

      Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori

      Explanation:

      Duodenal ulceration can be caused by various factors, including Helicobacter pylori infection, regular use of NSAIDs, and Crohn’s disease. However, in this particular case, the most likely cause of the patient’s duodenal ulcer is Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium produces enzymes that neutralize stomach acid, allowing it to survive in the stomach and weaken the protective barrier of the stomach and duodenum. Contrary to popular belief, a high-stress job or spicy foods are not the cause of peptic ulcer disease, although they may exacerbate the symptoms. Regular use of NSAIDs is a strong risk factor for peptic ulcer disease, but the patient does not have any of the risk factors for NSAID-induced peptic ulcer disease. Crohn’s disease may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, but it is less likely to be the cause of this man’s duodenal ulcer. Diagnosis of duodenal ulceration can be done through serology, microbiology, histology, or CLO testing.

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.9
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old male is undergoing a Whipples procedure for adenocarcinoma of the pancreas....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male is undergoing a Whipples procedure for adenocarcinoma of the pancreas. During the mobilisation of the pancreatic head, the surgeons come across a large vessel passing over the anterior aspect of the uncinate process. What is the probable identity of this vessel?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The origin of the superior mesenteric artery is the aorta, and it travels in front of the lower section of the pancreas. If this area is invaded, it is not recommended to undergo resectional surgery.

      Anatomy of the Pancreas

      The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.

      The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old man has been admitted to the surgical ward with abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has been admitted to the surgical ward with abdominal pain and rectal bleeding. According to the notes, he has not had a bowel movement in five days. Additionally, he has begun vomiting and his abdomen is swollen.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesions

      Correct Answer: Large bowel obstruction

      Explanation:

      Large bowel obstruction is the most likely diagnosis based on the pattern of symptoms, which include abdominal distension, absence of passing flatus or stool, and late onset or no vomiting.

      Large bowel obstruction occurs when there is a blockage in the passage of food, fluids, and gas through the large intestines. The most common cause of this condition is a tumor, accounting for 60% of cases. Colonic malignancy is often the initial presenting complaint in approximately 30% of cases, especially in more distal colonic and rectal tumors due to their smaller lumen diameter. Other causes include volvulus and diverticular disease.

      Clinical features of large bowel obstruction include abdominal pain, distention, and absence of passing flatus or stool. Nausea and vomiting may suggest a more proximal lesion, while peritonism may be present if there is associated bowel perforation. It is important to consider the underlying causes, such as recent symptoms suggestive of colorectal cancer.

      Abdominal x-ray is still commonly used as a first-line investigation, with a diameter greater than the normal limits of 10-12 cm for the caecum, 8 cm for the ascending colon, and 6.5 cm for recto-sigmoid being diagnostic of obstruction. CT scan is highly sensitive and specific for identifying obstruction and its underlying cause.

      Initial management of large bowel obstruction includes NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Conservative management for up to 72 hours can be trialed if the cause of obstruction does not require surgery, after which further management may be required if there is no resolution. Around 75% of cases will eventually require surgery. IV antibiotics are given if perforation is suspected or surgery is planned. Emergency surgery is necessary if there is any overt peritonitis or evidence of bowel perforation, involving irrigation of the abdominal cavity, resection of perforated segment and ischaemic bowel, and addressing the underlying cause of the obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 5 - You are an FY2 on the gastroenterology ward. A 35-year-old patient being treated...

    Incorrect

    • You are an FY2 on the gastroenterology ward. A 35-year-old patient being treated for Crohn's disease complains of nausea. After considering various anti-emetics, your consultant instructs you to initiate metoclopramide as he believes it will be beneficial in this case due to its distinct mechanism of action.

      What is the unique mechanism of action of metoclopramide as an anti-emetic?

      Your Answer: Somatostatin analogue

      Correct Answer: Blocks dopamine receptors at the CTZ and acts on 5-HT receptors

      Explanation:

      Anti-emetics have different mechanisms of action and are used based on the cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide works by blocking dopamine receptors in the CTZ and acting on 5-HT receptors in the GI tract. On the other hand, 5-HT antagonists like ondansetron block 5-HT3 serotonin receptors in the GI tract, solitary tract nucleus, and CTZ to prevent nausea and vomiting. NK-1 receptor antagonists such as aprepitant reduce substance P to prevent emesis. Somatostatin analogues like octreotide relieve nausea and vomiting caused by bowel obstruction. Vasodilators can produce nitric oxide, which activates guanylyl cyclase and leads to protein kinase G production and subsequent vasodilation.

      Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide

      Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.

      The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.

      In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - You come across a patient in the medical assessment unit who has been...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a patient in the medical assessment unit who has been admitted with a two-day history of haematemesis. An endoscopy revealed bleeding oesophageal varices that were banded and ligated. The consultant informs you that this patient has cirrhosis of the liver due to excessive alcohol consumption.

      What other vein is likely to be dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Femoral vein

      Correct Answer: Superior rectal vein

      Explanation:

      The Relationship between Liver Cirrhosis and Varices

      Liver cirrhosis is a condition that occurs in patients with alcohol-related liver disease due to the accumulation of aldehyde, which is formed during the metabolism of alcohol. The excessive amounts of aldehyde produced cannot be processed by hepatocytes, leading to the release of inflammatory mediators. These mediators activate hepatic stellate cells, which constrict off the inflamed sinusoids by depositing collagen in the space of Disse. This collagen deposition increases the resistance against the sinusoidal vascular bed, leading to portal hypertension.

      To relieve excess pressure, the portal system forces blood back into systemic circulation at portosystemic anastomotic points. These anastomoses exist at various locations, including the distal end of the oesophagus, splenorenal ligament, retroperitoneum, anal canal, and abdominal wall. The high pressure causes the systemic veins to dilate, becoming varices, because the weak thin walls do not oppose resistance and pressure.

      The superior rectal vein is the only vein that forms a collateral blood supply with systemic circulation. Therefore, the pressure from the superior rectal vein is passed onto the systemic veins, causing them to dilate and leading to the formation of haemorrhoids. The other veins listed are part of systemic circulation and have no collateral anastomoses with the portal circulatory system. In summary, liver cirrhosis can lead to varices due to the increased pressure in the portal system, which forces blood back into systemic circulation and causes systemic veins to dilate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - A 48-year-old man is under your care after being diagnosed with pneumonia. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is under your care after being diagnosed with pneumonia. On the day before his expected discharge, he experiences severe diarrhea without blood and needs intravenous fluids. A request for stool culture is made.

      What would the microbiology report likely indicate as the responsible microbe?

      Your Answer: Gram-positive coccus

      Correct Answer: Gram-positive bacillus

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is a type of gram-positive bacillus that can cause pseudomembranous colitis, particularly after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman is having a Whipple procedure for pancreatic head cancer, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is having a Whipple procedure for pancreatic head cancer, with transection of the bile duct. Which vessel is primarily responsible for supplying blood to the bile duct?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Hepatic artery

      Explanation:

      It is important to distinguish between the blood supply of the bile duct and that of the cystic duct. The bile duct receives its blood supply from the hepatic artery and retroduodenal branches of the gastroduodenal artery, while the portal vein does not contribute to its blood supply. In cases of difficult cholecystectomy, damage to the hepatic artery can lead to bile duct strictures.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 9 - You eagerly begin your second laparoscopic cholecystectomy and encounter unexpected difficulties with the...

    Correct

    • You eagerly begin your second laparoscopic cholecystectomy and encounter unexpected difficulties with the anatomy of Calots triangle. While attempting to apply a haemostatic clip, you accidentally tear the cystic artery, resulting in profuse bleeding. What is the most probable source of this bleeding?

      Your Answer: Right hepatic artery

      Explanation:

      The most frequent scenario is for the cystic artery to originate from the right hepatic artery, although there are known variations in the anatomy of the gallbladder’s blood supply.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man complains of dyspepsia and is scheduled for an upper GI...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man complains of dyspepsia and is scheduled for an upper GI endoscopy. The procedure reveals diffuse gastric and duodenal ulcers. Upon conducting a Clo test, Helicobacter pylori infection is confirmed. What is the probable cause of the ulcers?

      Your Answer: Increased urease activity

      Correct Answer: Increased acid production

      Explanation:

      H-Pylori is capable of causing both gastric and duodenal ulcers, but the mechanism behind this is not fully understood. One theory suggests that the organism induces gastric metaplasia in the duodenum by increasing acid levels. This metaplastic transformation is necessary for H-Pylori to colonize the duodenal mucosa and cause ulcers. Therefore, only individuals who have undergone this transformation are at risk for duodenal ulcers caused by H-Pylori.

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 5-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 5-month history of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. He reports passing fresh red blood in his stool and having up to 7 bowel movements a day in the last month. He has lost 6kg in weight over the last 5 months.

      The patient is referred for various investigations.

      What finding would support the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Deep mucosal ulceration

      Correct Answer: Goblet cell depletion

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease has the potential to impact any section of the digestive system, including the oral mucosa and peri-anal region. It is common for there to be healthy areas of bowel in between the inflamed segments. The disease is characterized by deep ulceration in the gut mucosa, with skip lesions creating a distinctive cobblestone appearance during endoscopy.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: APC

      Correct Answer: src

      Explanation:

      Additional genes implicated include MCC, DCC, c-yes, and bcl-2.

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old man experiences a pelvic fracture with a complication involving the junction...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man experiences a pelvic fracture with a complication involving the junction of the membranous urethra and bulbar urethra. What is the most probable direction for the leaked urine to flow?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Anteriorly into the connective tissues surrounding the scrotum

      Explanation:

      The superficial perineal pouch is a compartment that is bordered superficially by the superficial perineal fascia, deep by the perineal membrane (which is the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm), and laterally by the ischiopubic ramus. It contains various structures such as the crura of the penis or clitoris, muscles, viscera, blood vessels, nerves, the proximal part of the spongy urethra in males, and the greater vestibular glands in females. In cases of urethral rupture, the urine will tend to pass forward because the fascial condensations will prevent the urine from passing laterally and posteriorly.

      The Urogenital Triangle and Superficial Perineal Pouch

      The urogenital triangle is a structure formed by the ischiopubic inferior rami and ischial tuberosities, with a fascial sheet attached to its sides, creating the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm. It serves as a pathway for the urethra in males and both the urethra and vagina in females. The membranous urethra is located deep to this structure and is surrounded by the external urethral sphincter.

      In males, the superficial perineal pouch lies superficial to the urogenital diaphragm and contains the bulb of the penis, crura of the penis, superficial transverse perineal muscle, posterior scrotal arteries, and posterior scrotal nerves. Meanwhile, in females, the internal pudendal artery branches to become the posterior labial arteries in the superficial perineal pouch.

      Understanding the anatomy of the urogenital triangle and superficial perineal pouch is crucial in diagnosing and treating urogenital disorders. Proper knowledge of these structures can aid in the identification of potential issues and the development of effective treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old male visits his GP complaining of sudden and severe abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male visits his GP complaining of sudden and severe abdominal pain that extends to his back. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, osteoarthritis, and asthma, and is a smoker. He is currently taking a salbutamol and corticosteroid inhaler. During the examination, his BMI is found to be 35kg/m².

      What is the most probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: BMI of 35

      Correct Answer: Heavy alcohol use

      Explanation:

      Pancreatitis is most commonly caused by heavy alcohol use and gallstones, while osteoarthritis and smoking are not direct contributors. However, the use of a steroid inhaler and a high BMI may also play a role in the development of pancreatitis by potentially leading to hypertriglyceridemia.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - An 73-year-old man with chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) is admitted to your...

    Correct

    • An 73-year-old man with chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) is admitted to your ward. He presents with dyspnea and inability to lie flat. What physical examination findings would indicate a possible diagnosis of cor pulmonale, or right-sided heart failure secondary to COPD?

      Your Answer: Smooth hepatomegaly

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes

      Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.

      Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.

      Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of watery diarrhoea that has persisted...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of watery diarrhoea that has persisted for a month. He denies any alterations to his diet or recent international travel. The patient's weight has remained stable.

      During an abdominal ultrasound, a pancreatic nodule is discovered. Upon biopsy, it is determined that the nodule originates from pancreatic S cells.

      What hormone is expected to be secreted by the pancreatic nodule?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Secretin. S cells in the upper small intestine secrete this gastrointestinal hormone, which promotes the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas. Pancreatic secretinomas, a rare type of gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumor, can cause watery diarrhea.

      Cholecystokinin is another gastrointestinal hormone that promotes the contraction of the gallbladder and the secretion of bile at the ampulla of Vater. However, it does not promote the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas.

      Gastrin is a gastrointestinal hormone that promotes gastric motility and the secretion of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells. It is released by the G cells of the gastric antrum.

      Motilin is a gastrointestinal hormone secreted by M cells within Peyer’s patches of the small intestine, which promotes gastrointestinal motility.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old man needs a urethral catheter before his splenectomy. At what point...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man needs a urethral catheter before his splenectomy. At what point will the catheter encounter its first resistance during insertion?

      Your Answer: Membranous urethra

      Explanation:

      The external sphincter surrounding the membranous urethra causes it to be the least distensible part of the urethra.

      Urethral Anatomy: Differences Between Male and Female

      The anatomy of the urethra differs between males and females. In females, the urethra is shorter and more angled than in males. It is located outside of the peritoneum and is surrounded by the endopelvic fascia. The neck of the bladder is subject to intra-abdominal pressure, and any weakness in this area can lead to stress urinary incontinence. The female urethra is surrounded by the external urethral sphincter, which is innervated by the pudendal nerve. It is located in front of the vaginal opening.

      In males, the urethra is much longer and is divided into four parts. The pre-prostatic urethra is very short and lies between the bladder and prostate gland. The prostatic urethra is wider than the membranous urethra and contains several openings for the transmission of semen. The membranous urethra is the narrowest part of the urethra and is surrounded by the external sphincter. The penile urethra travels through the corpus spongiosum on the underside of the penis and is the longest segment of the urethra. The bulbo-urethral glands open into the spongiose section of the urethra.

      The urothelium, which lines the inside of the urethra, is transitional near the bladder and becomes squamous further down the urethra. Understanding the differences in urethral anatomy between males and females is important for diagnosing and treating urological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old male develops profuse, bloody diarrhoea after taking antibiotics. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male develops profuse, bloody diarrhoea after taking antibiotics. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea is suspected. What would be the expected findings during a colonoscopy?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic bowel

      Correct Answer: Pseudomembranous colitis

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea is a common occurrence after taking certain antibiotics such as clindamycin, amoxicillin, ampicillin, and 3rd generation cephalosporins. This is because antibiotics eliminate the normal gut bacteria, making the bowel susceptible to invasion by Clostridium difficile bacterium.

      The overgrowth of Clostridium difficile can lead to diarrhoea and the development of pseudomembranous colitis, which is characterized by yellow plaques that can be easily dislodged during colonoscopy.

      Ischaemic colitis, on the other hand, is caused by ischaemia to the bowel and is likely to result in ischaemic bowel.

      Microscopic colitis has two subtypes, namely lymphocytic colitis and collagenous colitis. These rare conditions are associated with chronic watery non-bloody diarrhoea and a normal colon appearance during colonoscopy, but biopsies reveal inflammatory changes.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 78-year-old man is assessed by his GP at his assisted living facility....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man is assessed by his GP at his assisted living facility. The nursing staff reports that he has been experiencing frequent loose stools for the past few days and appears to be holding his stomach in pain. There are no signs of dehydration.

      The patient has a medical history of advanced vascular dementia and has had multiple bacterial chest infections recently. He is allergic to penicillin.

      The GP requests a stool sample, conducts blood tests, and prescribes oral vancomycin for the patient.

      What are the expected findings on stool microscopy?

      Your Answer: Gram-positive bacilli

      Explanation:

      The causative organism in pseudomembranous colitis following recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use is Clostridium difficile, a gram-positive bacillus. This woman’s clinical presentation is consistent with C. diff infection, as she has experienced multiple episodes of loose stool with abdominal pain and has risk factors such as residing in a care home and recent antibiotic use for chest infections. While gram-negative comma-shaped bacteria like Vibrio cholerae can cause cholera, it is not found in the UK and is therefore unlikely to be the cause here. Gram-negative rods like Escherichia coli or Campylobacter jejuni can cause diarrhoeal illnesses, but are more associated with bloody diarrhoea and food poisoning, which do not match this woman’s symptoms. Gram-positive rods like Bacillus cereus can cause vomiting or diarrhoeal illness from contaminated food, but antibiotics are not beneficial and vancomycin would not be needed. Given the woman’s risk factors and symptoms, C. diff is the most likely cause.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which statement about peristalsis is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about peristalsis is true?

      Your Answer: Longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food bolus through the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Peristalsis: The Movement of Food Through the Digestive System

      Peristalsis is the process by which food is moved through the digestive system. Circular smooth muscle contracts behind the food bolus, while longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food through the oesophagus. Primary peristalsis spontaneously moves the food from the oesophagus into the stomach, taking about 9 seconds. Secondary peristalsis occurs when food does not enter the stomach, and stretch receptors are stimulated to cause peristalsis.

      In the small intestine, peristalsis waves slow to a few seconds and cause a mixture of chyme. In the colon, three main types of peristaltic activity are recognised. Segmentation contractions are localised contractions in which the bolus is subjected to local forces to maximise mucosal absorption. Antiperistaltic contractions towards the ileum are localised reverse peristaltic waves to slow entry into the colon and maximise absorption. Mass movements are migratory peristaltic waves along the entire colon to empty the organ prior to the next ingestion of a food bolus.

      Overall, peristalsis is a crucial process in the digestive system that ensures food is moved efficiently through the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      10.7
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  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old male is having surgery to remove his appendix due to appendicitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male is having surgery to remove his appendix due to appendicitis. Where is the appendix typically located in the body?

      Your Answer: Post ileal

      Correct Answer: Retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      The majority of appendixes are located in the retrocaecal position. In cases where removal of a retrocaecal appendix proves challenging, mobilizing the right colon can greatly enhance accessibility.

      Appendix Anatomy and Location

      The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.

      McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions

      McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old man has come in for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man has come in for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. However, his faecal calprotectin was slightly elevated, but not high enough to raise suspicion of inflammatory bowel disease.

      He had initially presented with abdominal pain and diarrhoea, along with feelings of discomfort and bloating that were relieved upon defecation. He denied any presence of blood in his stool. You prescribed psyllium husk and scheduled a review in four weeks. He has a medical history of low back pain, migraine, and depression.

      Today, his faecal calprotectin has returned to normal levels. What is the most likely cause of the initial abnormal test result?

      Your Answer: Use of NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Mallory-Weiss syndrome (MWS) is characterized by a rupture in the mucous membrane at the junction of the stomach and oesophagus.

      Faecal Calprotectin: A Screening Tool for Intestinal Inflammation

      Faecal calprotectin is a recommended screening tool for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) by NICE. It is a test that detects intestinal inflammation and can also be used to monitor the response to treatment in IBD patients. The test has a high sensitivity of 93% and specificity of 96% for IBD in adults. However, in children, the specificity falls to around 75%.

      Apart from IBD, other conditions that can cause a raised faecal calprotectin include bowel malignancy, coeliac disease, infectious colitis, and the use of NSAIDs. Therefore, faecal calprotectin is a useful diagnostic tool for detecting intestinal inflammation and can aid in the diagnosis and management of various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.8
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  • Question 23 - A three-week-old infant is brought to the paediatrician with jaundice that started in...

    Incorrect

    • A three-week-old infant is brought to the paediatrician with jaundice that started in the first week of life. The mother reports that the baby has undergone a week of phototherapy, but there has been no improvement in the yellowing. Additionally, the mother has observed that the baby's urine is dark and stools are pale.

      The baby was born via normal vaginal delivery at 39 weeks' gestation without any complications or injuries noted during birth.

      On examination, the baby appears well and alert, with normal limb movements. Scleral icterus is present, but there is no associated conjunctival pallor. The head examination is unremarkable, and the anterior fontanelle is normotensive.

      An abdominal ultrasound reveals an atretic gallbladder with irregular contours and an indistinct wall, associated with the lack of smooth echogenic mucosal lining.

      What additional findings are likely to be discovered in this infant upon further investigation?

      Your Answer: Raised lactate dehydrogenase

      Correct Answer: Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

      Explanation:

      The elevated level of conjugated bilirubin in the baby suggests biliary atresia, which is characterized by prolonged neonatal jaundice and obstructive jaundice. The ultrasound scan also shows the gallbladder ghost triad, which is highly specific for biliary atresia. This condition causes post-hepatic obstruction of the biliary tree, resulting in conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.

      Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia may be caused by prehepatic factors such as haemolysis. However, ABO or Rhesus incompatibility between mother and child typically presents within the first few days of life and resolves with phototherapy. The absence of injury and infection in the child makes these causes unlikely.

      A positive direct Coombs test indicates haemolysis, but this is unlikely as the child did not present with conjunctival pallor and other symptoms of haemolytic disease of the newborn. Raised lactate dehydrogenase is also not found in this baby, which further supports the absence of haemolysis.

      Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children

      Biliary atresia is a condition that affects neonatal children, causing an obstruction in the flow of bile due to either obliteration or discontinuity within the extrahepatic biliary system. The cause of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed that infectious agents, congenital malformations, and retained toxins within the bile may contribute to its development. Biliary atresia occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births and is more common in females than males.

      There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common, affecting over 90% of cases. Symptoms of biliary atresia typically present in the first few weeks of life and include jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and appetite and growth disturbance. Diagnosis is made through various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver.

      Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, with medical intervention including antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery. Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. Prognosis is good if surgery is successful, but in cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      7.6
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man presents with a 6-day history of abdominal pain, nausea, severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a 6-day history of abdominal pain, nausea, severe diarrhoea, fever, and malaise. He had received treatment for community-acquired pneumonia with ceftriaxone 3 weeks ago which has since resolved. Upon examination, he displays a fever of 38.4°C and abdominal distension and tenderness. Blood tests reveal a raised white cell count, leading to suspicion of Clostridium difficile infection.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this case?

      Your Answer: Treat conservatively with IV fluids and antipyrexials

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral vancomycin

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for Clostridium difficile infections is antibiotics, with oral vancomycin being the first line option. IV metronidazole is only used in severe cases and in combination with oral vancomycin. Bezlotoxumab, a monoclonal antibody, may be used to prevent recurrence but is not currently considered cost-effective. Oral clarithromycin is not the preferred antibiotic for this type of infection. Conservative treatment with IV fluids and antipyretics is not appropriate and antibiotics should be administered.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Mr Stent is a 56-year-old man who has been scheduled for a laparoscopic...

    Incorrect

    • Mr Stent is a 56-year-old man who has been scheduled for a laparoscopic right hemicolectomy. However, he has several comorbidities that were discovered during the anaesthetic clinic. These include constipation, a latex allergy, coronary artery disease, moderately raised intracranial pressure due to a benign space occupying brain tumour, and a protein C deficiency. Considering his medical history, which of the following is an absolute contraindication to laparoscopic surgery?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Laparoscopic surgery should not be performed in patients with significantly raised intracranial pressure. It is important to understand the indications, complications, and contraindications of both laparoscopic and open surgery. Thrombophilia can be managed with anticoagulation, constipation is not a contraindication but may increase the risk of bowel perforation, a patient with a latex allergy should have all latex equipment removed and the theatre cleaned, and a patient with coronary artery disease may be at higher risk during anaesthesia but this will be assessed before surgery in the anaesthetics clinic.

      Risks and Complications of Laparoscopy

      Laparoscopy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that involves the insertion of a small camera and instruments through small incisions in the abdomen. While it is generally considered safe, there are some risks and complications associated with the procedure.

      One of the general risks of laparoscopy is the use of anaesthetic, which can cause complications such as allergic reactions or breathing difficulties. Additionally, some patients may experience a vasovagal reaction, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate in response to abdominal distension.

      Another potential complication of laparoscopy is extra-peritoneal gas insufflation, which can cause surgical emphysema. This occurs when gas used to inflate the abdomen during the procedure leaks into the surrounding tissues, causing swelling and discomfort.

      Injuries to the gastro-intestinal tract and blood vessels are also possible complications of laparoscopy. These can include damage to the common iliacs or deep inferior epigastric artery, which can cause bleeding and other serious complications.

      Overall, while laparoscopy is generally considered safe, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential risks and complications associated with the procedure. Patients should discuss these risks with their healthcare provider before undergoing laparoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 78-year-old man reports experiencing discomfort behind his breastbone and occasional backflow of...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man reports experiencing discomfort behind his breastbone and occasional backflow of stomach acid into his mouth, especially after meals and at bedtime, causing sleep disturbance. What is a potential risk factor for GORD?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD)

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a chronic condition where stomach acid flows back up into the oesophagus, causing discomfort and increasing the risk of oesophageal cancer. Obesity is a known risk factor for GORD, as excess weight around the abdomen increases pressure in the stomach. Hiatus hernia, which also results from increased intra-abdominal pressure, is also associated with GORD. This is because the widening of the diaphragmatic hiatus in hiatus hernia reduces the effectiveness of the lower oesophageal sphincter in preventing acid reflux.

      Smoking is another risk factor for GORD, although the exact mechanism by which it weakens the lower oesophageal sphincter is not fully understood. Interestingly, male sex does not appear to be associated with GORD. Overall, the risk factors for GORD can help individuals take steps to prevent or manage this chronic condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A previously healthy woman of 23 years-old presented with acute epigastric pain. On...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy woman of 23 years-old presented with acute epigastric pain. On investigations, a largely elevated lipase was discovered with a normal amylase level, and a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis was made. This patient rarely drinks alcohol, and ultrasonography of the abdomen ruled out gallstones. The results of tests for autoimmune pancreatitis were negative. Twenty days later, imaging tests using magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) revealed the cause of the chronic pancreatitis.

      What was the most probable reason behind the chronic pancreatitis in this 23-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Correct Answer: Pancreas divisum

      Explanation:

      Pancreas divisum is a condition where the dorsal and ventral buds of the pancreas fail to fuse in a portion of the population. This can lead to chronic pancreatitis due to insufficient drainage of pancreatic secretions through the minor papilla instead of the major papilla. Other causes of chronic pancreatitis include autoimmune pancreatitis and cystic fibrosis, but these have been ruled out in this case as the patient is a previously healthy individual with negative autoimmune antibodies. Acute pancreatitis can be caused by mumps or a Trinidadian scorpion bite.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 61-year-old man arrives at the ED less than an hour after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man arrives at the ED less than an hour after experiencing central chest pain that spreads to his left arm. His ECG reveals ST-elevation in the anterior leads, and he is set to undergo urgent PCI. The cardiologist plans to access the femoral artery. What is the accurate surface landmark for identifying the femoral artery?

      Your Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic tubercle

      Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis

      Explanation:

      The mid-inguinal point, which is the surface landmark for the femoral artery, is located at the midpoint between the ASIS and pubic symphysis. It should not be confused with the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is where the deep inguinal ring is located and runs from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle. While the other three options are not specific surface landmarks, it is worth noting that the superficial inguinal ring, which is the exit of the inguinal canal, is typically located superolateral to the pubic tubercle within a range of 1-2 cm.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle

      The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.

      The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - At what level does the aorta penetrate the diaphragm? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what level does the aorta penetrate the diaphragm?

      Your Answer: T11

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      ERETWYI

      Understanding Diaphragm Apertures

      The diaphragm is a muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity and plays a crucial role in respiration. Diaphragm apertures are openings within this muscle that allow specific structures to pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity. The three main apertures are the aortic hiatus at T12, the oesophageal hiatus at T10, and the vena cava foramen at T8. To remember the vertebral levels of these apertures, a useful mnemonic involves counting the total number of letters in the spellings of vena cava (8), oesophagus (10), and aortic hiatus (12).

      In addition to these main apertures, smaller openings in the diaphragm exist in the form of lesser diaphragmatic apertures. These allow much smaller structures to pass through the thoracic cavity into the abdomen across the diaphragm. Examples of lesser diaphragmatic apertures include the left phrenic nerve, small veins, superior epigastric artery, intercostal nerves and vessels, subcostal nerves and vessels, splanchnic nerves, and the sympathetic trunk. Understanding the diaphragm and its apertures is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 30 - A 75-year-old woman with caecal carcinoma is having a right hemicolectomy done via...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman with caecal carcinoma is having a right hemicolectomy done via a transverse incision. During the procedure, the incision is extended medially by dividing the rectus sheath, and a brisk arterial hemorrhage occurs. What vessel is the source of the damage?

      Your Answer: External iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The damaged vessel is the epigastric artery, which has its origin in the external iliac artery (as shown below).

      The Inferior Epigastric Artery: Origin and Pathway

      The inferior epigastric artery is a blood vessel that originates from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament. It runs along the medial edge of the deep inguinal ring and then continues upwards to lie behind the rectus abdominis muscle. This artery is responsible for supplying blood to the lower abdominal wall and pelvic region. Its pathway is illustrated in the image below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      9.8
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  • Question 31 - A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe back pain and no medical history except for a penicillin allergy. Following an MRI, she is diagnosed with osteomyelitis and prescribed a 6-week course of two antibiotics. However, a few days into treatment, she reports abdominal pain and diarrhea. Stool samples reveal the presence of Clostridium difficile toxins, leading to a diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis. Which antibiotic is the most likely culprit for causing the C. difficile colitis?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      The use of clindamycin as a treatment is linked to a significant risk of developing C. difficile infection. This antibiotic is commonly associated with Clostridium difficile colitis. Doxycycline has the potential to cause sensitivity to sunlight and birth defects, while trimethoprim can lead to high levels of potassium in the blood and is also harmful to developing fetuses. Vancomycin, on the other hand, can cause red man syndrome and is among the medications used to treat Clostridium difficile colitis.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 21-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 10-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 10-week history of abdominal pain and tenesmus. He reports experiencing intermittent diarrhea that has been increasing in frequency and has noticed fresh red blood on wiping. During the examination, he exhibits generalized abdominal tenderness, which is most severe when palpating the left iliac fossa. Several tests are ordered.

      What is a characteristic finding associated with his underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Increased goblet cell production

      Correct Answer: Mucosal inflammation

      Explanation:

      Patients with UC have a deficient mucous layer and reduced goblet cell production, while those with Crohn’s disease exhibit an increase in goblet cells. Additionally, Crohn’s disease may present with rose-thorn ulcers in the terminal ileum after a barium swallow, which manifest as deep linear ulcers.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 33 - A 57-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and type II diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and type II diabetes presents to the emergency department with dull chest pain accompanied by sweating and nausea. He is promptly administered oxygen, aspirin, morphine, metoclopramide, atenolol, and nitrates.

      Upon examination, angiography reveals significant blockage in all four coronary vessels. As a result, he is scheduled for an urgent coronary artery bypass graft, which will necessitate the removal of a vein from his lower limb.

      Which nerve is most frequently affected during a vein harvest for CABG?

      Your Answer: Sural nerve

      Correct Answer: Saphenous nerve

      Explanation:

      During a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), the great saphenous vein is often harvested. However, this procedure can lead to damage of the saphenous nerve, which runs closely alongside the vein in the medial aspect of the leg. Saphenous neuralgia, characterized by numbness, heightened sensitivity, and pain in the saphenous nerve distribution area, can result from such injury. Other nerves are not typically affected during a vein harvest for CABG.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 34 - A 10-year-old girl presents to her doctor with a 2-month history of flatulence,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to her doctor with a 2-month history of flatulence, foul-smelling diarrhoea, and a weight loss of 2kg. Her mother reports observing greasy, floating stools during this time.

      During the examination, the patient appears to be in good health. There are no palpable masses or organomegaly during abdominal examination.

      The child's serum anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies are found to be elevated. What is the most probable HLA type for this child?

      Your Answer: HLA-B35

      Correct Answer: HLA-DQ2

      Explanation:

      The HLA most commonly associated with coeliac disease is HLA-DQ2. HLA, also known as human leukocyte antigen or major histocompatibility complex, is expressed on self-cells in the body and plays a role in presenting antigens to the immune system. The child’s symptoms of coeliac disease include fatty, floaty stools (steatorrhoea), weight loss, and positive tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      HLA-A01 is not commonly associated with autoimmune conditions, but has been linked to methotrexate-induced liver cirrhosis.

      HLA-B27 is associated with psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and inflammatory bowel disease.

      HLA-B35 is not commonly associated with autoimmune conditions.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 35 - A 28-year-old man comes to you with a lump in his testicle. As...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to you with a lump in his testicle. As you take his history, you wonder which of the following factors poses the greatest risk for testicular cancer?

      Your Answer: Testicular trauma

      Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Testicular cancer is more likely to occur in men who have had undescended testis, with a 40-fold increase in risk. Other risk factors include being of white ethnicity, being between the ages of 15-35, and not having had testicular trauma.

      Cryptorchidism: Undescended Testis in Boys

      Cryptorchidism is a congenital condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum by the age of 3 months. Although the cause of this condition is mostly unknown, it may be associated with other congenital defects such as abnormal epididymis, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, Wilms tumour, and abdominal wall defects. Retractile testes and intersex conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis.

      Correcting cryptorchidism is important to reduce the risk of infertility, examine the testes for testicular cancer, avoid testicular torsion, and improve cosmetic appearance. Males with undescended testis are at a higher risk of developing testicular cancer, especially if the testis is intra-abdominal.

      The treatment for cryptorchidism is orchidopexy, which is usually performed between 6 to 18 months of age. The procedure involves exploring the inguinal area, mobilizing the testis, and implanting it into a dartos pouch. In cases where the testis is intra-abdominal, laparoscopic evaluation and mobilization may be necessary. If left untreated, the Sertoli cells will degrade after the age of 2 years, and orchidectomy may be a better option for those presenting late in their teenage years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 36 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of abdominal pain, early satiety, lethargy,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of abdominal pain, early satiety, lethargy, and weight loss. After conducting several tests, he is diagnosed with gastric adenocarcinoma following an endoscopic biopsy. What is the most probable histological characteristic that will be observed in the biopsy?

      Your Answer: Auer rods

      Correct Answer: Signet ring cells

      Explanation:

      Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon type of cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over the age of 75, and is more common in males than females. Several risk factors have been identified, including Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, certain dietary habits, smoking, and blood group. Symptoms of gastric cancer can include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. In some cases, lymphatic spread may result in the appearance of nodules in the left supraclavicular lymph node or periumbilical area. Diagnosis is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy, and staging is done using CT. Treatment options depend on the extent and location of the cancer and may include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial or total gastrectomy, and chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 37 - A 55-year-old inpatient needs to undergo a magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) to investigate...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old inpatient needs to undergo a magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) to investigate possible gallstones. However, it was discovered that the patient had consumed a fatty meal in the morning, and the medical team wants to postpone the procedure. The reason being that the patient's gallbladder would be harder to visualize due to the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) in response to the meal.

      What type of cells in the intestine are responsible for secreting CCK?

      Your Answer: L cells

      Correct Answer: I cells

      Explanation:

      The I cells located in the upper small intestine release cholecystokinin, a hormone that triggers the contraction of the gallbladder when fats, proteins, and amino acids are ingested. Additionally, cholecystokinin stimulates the exocrine pancreas, slows down gastric emptying by relaxing the stomach, and induces a feeling of fullness through vagal stimulation.

      K and L cells secrete gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) and glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), respectively. These incretins increase in response to glucose and regulate metabolism. GLP-1 agonists, also known as incretin mimetics, are medications that enhance the effects of these hormones.

      ECL cells, found in the stomach, secrete histamine, which increases acid secretion to aid in digestion.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 38 - A 29-year-old man contacts his primary care physician with concerns about his skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man contacts his primary care physician with concerns about his skin turning yellow. He reports that this change has been occurring gradually over the past few days and is not accompanied by any pain or other symptoms. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he was recently discharged from the hospital after receiving treatment for pyelonephritis. He denies any recent travel outside of his local area.

      The patient's liver function tests reveal the following results:
      - Bilirubin: 32 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
      - ALP: 41 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
      - ALT: 19 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
      - γGT: 26 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 43 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mirizzi syndrome

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation is consistent with Gilbert’s syndrome, which is characterized by an increase in serum bilirubin during times of physiological stress due to a deficiency in the liver’s ability to process bilirubin. This can be triggered by illness, exercise, or fasting.

      Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, typically results in severely abnormal liver function tests with significantly elevated liver enzymes, which is not the case for this patient.

      Hepatitis A is often associated with recent foreign travel and is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea.

      Mirizzi syndrome is a rare condition in which a gallstone becomes lodged in the biliary tree, causing a blockage of the bile duct. It typically presents with upper right quadrant pain and signs of obstructive jaundice.

      While painless jaundice can be a symptom of pancreatic cancer, it is highly unlikely in a 27-year-old patient and is therefore an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 39 - Sophie presents acutely to the hospital with severe epigastric pain that is radiating...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie presents acutely to the hospital with severe epigastric pain that is radiating to the back, nausea and vomiting. Upon questioning, she has suffered from several episodes of biliary colic in the past. A blood test reveals a lipase level of 1000U/L.

      What is the underlying pathophysiology of Sophie's condition?

      Your Answer: An accumulation of pancreatic enzymes causes blockage of the pancreatic ducts and pain

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic enzymes released as a result of inflammation autodigest the pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      The cause of acute pancreatitis is the autodigestion of pancreatic tissue by pancreatic enzymes, which results in tissue necrosis. The patient is experiencing typical symptoms of acute pancreatitis, including epigastric pain that radiates to the back, nausea, and vomiting. The presence of elevated lipase levels, which are more than three times the upper limit of normal, is also indicative of acute pancreatitis. The patient’s history of biliary colic suggests that gallstones may be the underlying cause of this condition.

      During acute pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas triggers the release and activation of pancreatic enzymes, which then begin to digest the pancreatic tissue. This process is known as autodigestion. Autodigestion of fat can lead to tissue necrosis, while autodigestion of blood vessels can cause retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which can be identified by the presence of Grey Turner’s sign and Cullen’s sign.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The most common symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Although rare, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may also be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life, making it useful for late presentations. Imaging, such as ultrasound or contrast-enhanced CT, may also be necessary to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors indicating severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. However, the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is important to diagnose and manage it promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 40 - In individuals with an annular pancreas, what is the most probable location of...

    Correct

    • In individuals with an annular pancreas, what is the most probable location of blockage?

      Your Answer: The second part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is formed from two outgrowths of the foregut, namely the ventral and dorsal buds. As the rotation process takes place, the ventral bud merges with the gallbladder and bile duct, which are located nearby. However, if the pancreas fails to rotate properly, it may exert pressure on the duodenum, leading to obstruction. This condition is often caused by an abnormality in the development of the duodenum, and the most commonly affected area is the second part of the duodenum.

      Anatomy of the Pancreas

      The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.

      The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 41 - A 32-year-old alcoholic woman presents with visible jaundice and confusion and is admitted...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old alcoholic woman presents with visible jaundice and confusion and is admitted to the gastroenterology ward. Upon examination, she has a distended tender abdomen with hepatomegaly and shifting dullness. All her observations are within normal limits. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Hb: 121 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - MCV: 103 g/L (normal range: 82-100 g/L)
      - Bilirubin: 78 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17 µmol/L)
      - ALP: 112 u/L (normal range: 30-100 u/L)
      - ALT: 276 u/L (normal range: 3-40 u/L)
      - AST: 552 u/L (normal range: 3-30 u/L)
      - γGT: 161 u/L (normal range: 8-60 u/L)

      An aspirate of fluid is taken and shows a serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of 14 g/L. What is the most likely diagnosis that explains the SAAG value in this patient?

      Your Answer: Portal hypertension

      Explanation:

      Ascites can be diagnosed by measuring the SAAG value, with a high SAAG gradient (>11g/L) indicating the presence of portal hypertension. In the case of a SAAG value of >11g/L, the ascites is considered a transudate and is likely caused by portal hypertension. This is consistent with the patient’s symptoms, which suggest ascites due to alcoholic liver disease leading to liver cirrhosis and portal hypertension. Other potential causes of ascites would result in an exudative picture with a SAAG value of <11g/L. Biliary ascites is a rare consequence of biliary procedures or trauma, and would present with abdominal distension but not hepatomegaly. While bile is sterile, peritonitis is likely to occur, leading to septic symptoms. However, the SAAG value and the patient’s symptoms make biliary ascites less likely. Bowel obstruction is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms, as it would not explain the presence of jaundice. While a distended abdomen may be present, other features of delirium would also be expected. Additionally, a patient with bowel obstruction would report a history of not passing flatus or bowel movements. Nephrotic syndrome would present with oedema, proteinuria, and hypoalbuminaemia, which are not described in the patient’s symptoms. The raised liver enzymes and macrocytic anaemia are more consistent with liver pathology. Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions. The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 42 - A 67-year-old male is undergoing an elective left colectomy for colon cancer on...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male is undergoing an elective left colectomy for colon cancer on the left side. The left colic artery is responsible for supplying blood to both the upper and lower portions of the descending colon.

      From which artery does the left colic artery originate?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal artery is a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery. It provides blood supply to the anal canal and the lower part of the rectum. It originates from the inferior mesenteric artery and runs downwards towards the anus, where it divides into several smaller branches.

      The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut

      The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.

      The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.

      Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 43 - Whilst conducting a cholecystectomy, a surgeon mistakenly tears the cystic artery. To minimize...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst conducting a cholecystectomy, a surgeon mistakenly tears the cystic artery. To minimize the bleeding, she applies a clamp to a vessel in the hepatoduodenal ligament.

      Which blood vessel is the surgeon probably compressing to manage the hemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Hepatic portal vein

      Correct Answer: Hepatic artery

      Explanation:

      The Pringle manoeuvre, named after James Pringle, involves compressing the hepatic artery in the anterior aspect of the omental foramen to stop blood flow to the cystic artery. This is because the cystic artery is a branch of the right hepatic artery, which in turn is a branch of the (common) hepatic artery. While compressing the aorta proximal to the celiac trunk may also reduce blood flow to the cystic artery, it carries the risk of ischaemic damage to the abdominal viscera and lower limbs. Compressing the hepatic artery is therefore the preferred method as it minimizes unnecessary ischaemia. The hepatic portal vein and inferior vena cava are veins and cannot be compressed to control blood flow to the cystic artery. Similarly, compressing the superior pancreatoduodenal artery, which does not precede the cystic artery, will have no effect on controlling bleeding.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 44 - A 10-year-old girl is undergoing investigation for coeliac disease and has recently undergone...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is undergoing investigation for coeliac disease and has recently undergone biopsies of both the small and large intestinal linings.

      What can be found in the lining of the small intestine but not in that of the large intestine during a normal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Muscularis mucosae

      Correct Answer: Villi

      Explanation:

      The basic structure of the linings in the small and large intestines is similar, consisting of mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa. Both intestines have muscularis mucosae within the mucosa, myenteric nerve plexus innervating the muscularis externa, columnar epithelial cells lining the mucosa, and goblet cells that secrete mucins. However, each intestine has specialized functions. The small intestine is responsible for digesting and absorbing nutrients, which is facilitated by the presence of villi and microvilli on its epithelium, providing a large surface area. These structures are not present in the large intestine.

      Layers of the Gastrointestinal Tract and Their Functions

      The gastrointestinal (GI) tract is composed of four layers, each with its own unique function. The innermost layer is the mucosa, which can be further divided into three sublayers: the epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae. The epithelium is responsible for absorbing nutrients and secreting mucus, while the lamina propria contains blood vessels and immune cells. The muscularis mucosae helps to move food along the GI tract.

      The submucosa is the layer that lies beneath the mucosa and contains Meissner’s plexus, which is responsible for regulating secretion and blood flow. The muscularis externa is the layer that lies beneath the submucosa and contains Auerbach’s plexus, which controls the motility of GI smooth muscle. Finally, the outermost layer of the GI tract is either the serosa or adventitia, depending on whether the organ is intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal. The serosa is responsible for secreting fluid to lubricate the organs, while the adventitia provides support and protection. Understanding the functions of each layer is important for understanding the overall function of the GI tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 45 - A patient presents to the GP with swelling in the groin, on the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to the GP with swelling in the groin, on the right. It does not have a cough impulse. The GP suspects a femoral hernia.

      What is the most common risk factor for femoral hernias in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Correct Answer: Female gender

      Explanation:

      Femoral hernias are more common in women, with female gender and pregnancy being identified as risk factors. A femoral hernia occurs when abdominal viscera or omentum protrudes through the femoral ring and into the femoral canal, with the neck of the hernia located below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. Although males can also develop femoral hernias, the condition is more prevalent in females with a ratio of 3:1.

      Understanding Femoral Hernias

      Femoral hernias occur when a part of the bowel or other abdominal organs pass through the femoral canal, which is a potential space in the anterior thigh. This can result in a lump in the groin area that is mildly painful and typically non-reducible. It is important to differentiate femoral hernias from inguinal hernias, which are located in a different area. Femoral hernias are less common than inguinal hernias and are more prevalent in women, especially those who have had multiple pregnancies.

      Diagnosis of femoral hernias is usually clinical, but ultrasound can also be used. It is important to rule out other possible causes of a lump in the groin area, such as lymphadenopathy, abscess, or aneurysm. Complications of femoral hernias include incarceration, strangulation, bowel obstruction, and bowel ischaemia, which can lead to significant morbidity and mortality.

      Surgical repair is necessary for femoral hernias, as the risk of strangulation is high. This can be done laparoscopically or via a laparotomy. Hernia support belts or trusses should not be used for femoral hernias due to the risk of strangulation. In emergency situations, a laparotomy may be the only option. Understanding the features, epidemiology, diagnosis, complications, and management of femoral hernias is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 46 - Which of the following is not a branch of the abdominal aorta? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a branch of the abdominal aorta?

      Your Answer: Renal artery

      Correct Answer: Superior phrenic artery

      Explanation:

      To remember the order of branches, use the phrase ‘Prostitutes Cause Sagging Swollen Red Testicles [in men] Living In Sin’:

      Phrenic [inferior]
      Celiac
      Superior mesenteric
      Suprarenal [middle]
      Renal
      Testicular [‘in men’ only]
      Lumbars
      Inferior mesenteric
      Sacral

      Note that the superior phrenic artery branches from the aorta in the thorax.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 47 - Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a lump in her groin that appears and disappears. The lump is easily reducible.

      The doctor suspects an indirect inguinal hernia, although it is difficult to differentiate between femoral, direct inguinal, and indirect inguinal hernias in such a young patient.

      Sophie's mother is curious about the cause of her daughter's hernia. What is the pathology of an indirect inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: Protrusion through a through a previous surgical incision

      Correct Answer: Protrusion through the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress

      Explanation:

      Indirect inguinal hernias are caused by the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress, resulting in a protrusion through the deep inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. In males, it may progress into the scrotum, while in females, it may enter the labia. This type of hernia is located lateral to the epigastric vessels.

      On the other hand, direct inguinal hernias are usually caused by weakening in the abdominal musculature, which occurs with age. The protrusion enters the inguinal canal through the posterior wall, which is medial to the epigastric vessels. It may exit through the superficial inguinal ring.

      The tunica vaginalis is a layer that surrounds the testes and contains a small amount of serous fluid, reducing friction between the scrotum and the testes. Meanwhile, the tunica albuginea is a layer of connective tissue that covers the ovaries, testicles, and corpora cavernosa of the penis.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 48 - A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of persistent diarrhoea, abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of persistent diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. He reports experiencing generalised pain and feeling extremely fatigued. The patient denies any blood in his stool and has a past medical history of type 1 diabetes mellitus.

      Upon investigation, the patient's tissue transglutaminase IgA (tTG-IgA) levels are found to be elevated. What is the most probable finding on duodenal biopsy for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-caseating granuloma

      Correct Answer: Villous atrophy

      Explanation:

      Malabsorption occurs in coeliac disease due to villous atrophy, which is caused by an immune response to gluten in the gastrointestinal tract. This can lead to nutritional deficiencies in affected individuals. While coeliac disease is associated with a slightly increased risk of small bowel carcinoma, it is unlikely to occur in a young patient. Crypt hyperplasia, not hypoplasia, is a common finding in coeliac disease. Coeliac disease is associated with a decreased number of goblet cells, not an increased number. Non-caseating granulomas are typically seen in Crohn’s disease, not coeliac disease.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 49 - A 27-year-old man visits his doctor reporting persistent fatigue, weight loss, and intermittent...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man visits his doctor reporting persistent fatigue, weight loss, and intermittent non-bloody diarrhea. He also has a blistering skin rash on his abdomen. His recent blood tests reveal low hemoglobin levels, high mean corpuscular volume, and low vitamin B12 levels. The doctor inquires about the man's diet and finds it to be sufficient, leading to a suspicion of malabsorption. What is the probable cause of the malabsorption?

      Your Answer: Villous atrophy

      Explanation:

      Malabsorption is a common consequence of coeliac disease, which is caused by the destruction of epithelial cells on the villi of the small intestine due to an immune response to gluten. This results in villous atrophy, reducing the surface area of the gastrointestinal tract and impairing absorption. Coeliac disease often leads to B12 deficiency, particularly in the terminal ileum where villous damage is most severe. While decreased gut motility can cause constipation, it does not contribute to malabsorption in coeliac disease. Similarly, down-regulation of brush-border enzymes is not responsible for malabsorption in this condition, although it can occur in response to other immune responses or infections. Although increased gut motility can lead to malabsorption, it is not a mechanism of malnutrition in coeliac disease. Finally, it is important to note that coeliac disease reduces surface area rather than increasing it, which would actually enhance nutrient absorption.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 50 - As a fourth year medical student, you are observing a morning colonoscopy list...

    Incorrect

    • As a fourth year medical student, you are observing a morning colonoscopy list at the hospital. You come across patients who have been referred for imaging due to specific symptoms like rectal bleeding, as well as those who are undergoing routine annual colonoscopies. You are aware that most cases of colorectal cancer are sporadic, with no known genetic predisposition in patients. However, there are also certain genetic mutations that require patients to undergo colonoscopy screening for the development of colorectal cancer.

      Can you provide examples of such genetic mutations?

      Your Answer: CEA, FAP and HNPCC

      Correct Answer: FAP and HNPCC

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 51 - A 49-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of colicky abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of colicky abdominal pain. She states that she has been having on-and-off pain in the upper right quadrant for the past few months, especially after consuming fatty foods.

      Which cells are accountable for generating the hormone linked to this presentation?

      Your Answer: I cells

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is I cells, which are located in the upper small intestine. This patient’s symptoms are consistent with biliary colic, which occurs when the gallbladder contracts against an obstruction, typically a gallstone. Fatty foods stimulate the production of cholecystokinin (CCK) from the I cells in the duodenum, which promotes gallbladder contractility and the release of bile into the small intestine to aid in lipid emulsification.

      B cells are not involved in promoting gallbladder contractility and are instead part of the adaptive immune response. D cells release somatostatin, which decreases insulin production, and are found in the stomach, small intestine, and pancreas. G cells are located in the stomach and secrete gastrin to promote acid secretion by the parietal cells of the stomach.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 52 - An elderly man, aged 72, visits his family doctor with complaints of a...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man, aged 72, visits his family doctor with complaints of a vague abdominal pain that has been bothering him for the past few months. He is unable to pinpoint the exact location of the pain but mentions that it is more severe around the epigastric region. The pain worsens after meals and has resulted in a loss of appetite and recent weight loss. The man denies experiencing any nausea or vomiting and reports only mild constipation. He has a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and dyslipidemia and is currently taking glipizide, insulin injections, atorvastatin, candesartan, and metoprolol as regular medications. Additionally, he is a current smoker with a 25 pack-year history. On examination, the abdomen is soft and non-tender. The man’s vital signs include a heart rate of 62 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 13 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 147/91 mmHg. What is the most likely mechanism responsible for this patient’s symptoms?

      Your Answer: Fibrous scar formation leading to intestinal wall adhering together and obstructing the intestinal lumen

      Correct Answer: Fatty accumulation, foam cell formation and fibrous plaque formation in the wall of blood vessels

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that he may have chronic mesenteric ischemia, which is often caused by atherosclerosis in the arteries supplying the splanchnic circulatory vessels. There is no indication of recent abdominal surgery or an underlying inflammatory process. Constipation is a common issue in elderly individuals, but it is not typically associated with abdominal pain. Meckel diverticulum is a congenital defect that can cause symptoms such as melaena, acute appendicitis, and acute abdominal pain due to ectopic acid secretion. Diverticulitis is characterized by inflammation in the colon, often due to a lack of dietary fiber. Small bowel obstruction due to adhesions is a surgical emergency. Chronic mesenteric ischemia, also known as intestinal angina, is common in individuals with atherosclerotic diseases such as diabetics, smokers, hypertensive patients, and those with dyslipidemia. As the population ages and chronic diseases become more prevalent, the incidence and prevalence of chronic mesenteric ischemia are expected to increase.

      Ischaemia to the lower gastrointestinal tract can result in acute mesenteric ischaemia, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, and ischaemic colitis. Common predisposing factors include increasing age, atrial fibrillation, other causes of emboli, cardiovascular disease risk factors, and cocaine use. Common features include abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, diarrhea, fever, and elevated white blood cell count with lactic acidosis. CT is the investigation of choice. Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an embolism and requires urgent surgery. Chronic mesenteric ischaemia presents with intermittent abdominal pain. Ischaemic colitis is an acute but transient compromise in blood flow to the large bowel and may require surgery in a minority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 53 - During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the...

    Correct

    • During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the oesophagus which structure is divided to allow mobilisation of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer: Azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The azygos vein is divided during oesophagectomy to allow mobilisation. It inserts into the SVC on the right side.

      Treatment Options for Oesophageal Cancer

      Oesophageal cancer is typically treated through surgical resection, with neoadjuvant chemotherapy given prior to the procedure. In situ disease may be managed through endoscopic mucosal resection, while unresectable disease may benefit from local ablative procedures, palliative chemotherapy, or stent insertion. However, resections are not typically offered to patients with distant metastasis or N2 disease, and local nodal involvement is not a contraindication to resection.

      For lower and middle third oesophageal tumours, an Ivor-Lewis procedure is commonly performed. This involves a combined laparotomy and right thoracotomy, with the stomach mobilized through a rooftop incision and the oesophagus removed through a thoracotomy. The chest is then closed with underwater seal drainage and tube drains to the abdominal cavity. Postoperatively, patients will typically recover in the intensive care unit and may experience complications such as atelectasis, anastomotic leakage, and delayed gastric emptying.

      Overall, treatment options for oesophageal cancer depend on the extent of the disease and the patient’s individual circumstances. While surgical resection is the mainstay of treatment, other options such as chemotherapy and local ablative procedures may be considered for unresectable disease.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 54 - A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to the ward. As a healthcare professional, you know that this is a common complication of thyroid surgery. Which nerve is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) that provides motor supply to all but one of the laryngeal muscles and sensory supply to the larynx below the vocal cords. The left nerve loops under the arch of the aorta and passes deep to the inferior constrictor muscle of the pharynx, while the right nerve usually loops under the right subclavian artery. Both nerves pass close to or through the thyroid ligament, making them susceptible to injury during thyroid surgery. Dysfunction of either nerve can result in a hoarse voice.

      The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is the only other nerve among the given options that innervates the larynx. It carries sensory supply to the larynx above the vocal cords, while the external branch supplies the cricothyroid muscle. Dysfunction of the external branch can cause a hoarse voice, but dysfunction of the internal branch will not.

      The greater auricular nerve and transverse cervical nerve are superficial cutaneous nerves that arise from the cervical plexus and supply the skin overlying the mandible, ear auricle, and neck. The phrenic nerve, also arising from the cervical plexus, provides motor innervation to the diaphragm and sensation to the parietal pericardium and pleura adjacent to the mediastinum.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 55 - A 45-year-old female with known type 1 diabetes and Graves' disease presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female with known type 1 diabetes and Graves' disease presents to the GP with worsening fatigue. She describes a history of headaches, shortness of breath and palpitations. Blood tests are taken and the results are displayed below.

      Haemoglobin 79 g/dl
      MCV 103 fl
      White cell count 4.2 mmol/l
      Platelets 220 mmol/l

      What is the most likely vitamin or mineral deficiency in this patient?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Correct Answer: B12

      Explanation:

      Anaemia is characterized by classic symptoms such as headaches, shortness of breath, and palpitations. The primary nutritional factors that can cause anaemia are deficiencies in B12, Folate, and Iron.

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.

      Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 56 - A 56-year-old accountant presents to the hospital with severe abdominal pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old accountant presents to the hospital with severe abdominal pain that has been ongoing for more than 3 hours. The pain is sharp and extends to his back, and he rates it as 8/10 on the pain scale. The pain subsides when he sits up. During the examination, he appears restless, cold, and clammy, with a pulse rate of 124 bpm and a blood pressure of 102/65. You notice some purple discoloration in his right flank, and his bowel sounds are normal. According to his social history, he has a history of excessive alcohol consumption. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paralytic ileus

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Pancreatitis is the most probable diagnosis due to several reasons. Firstly, the patient’s history indicates that he is an alcoholic, which is a risk factor for pancreatitis. Secondly, the severe and radiating pain to the back is a typical symptom of pancreatitis. Additionally, the patient shows signs of jaundice and circulation collapse, with a purple discoloration known as Grey Turner’s sign caused by retroperitoneal hemorrhage. On the other hand, appendicitis pain is usually colicky, localized in the lower right quadrant, and moves up centrally. Although circulation collapse may indicate intestinal obstruction, the absence of vomiting/nausea makes it less likely. Chronic kidney disease can be ruled out as it presents with symptoms such as weight loss, tiredness, bone pain, and itchy skin, which are not present in this acute presentation. Lastly, if there was a significant history of recent surgery, ileus and obstruction would be more likely, and the absence of bowel sounds would support this diagnosis.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 57 - A 22-year-old university student with a history of primary sclerosing cholangitis presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old university student with a history of primary sclerosing cholangitis presents to the gastroenterologists with symptoms suggestive of ulcerative colitis. She has been experiencing bloody diarrhoea and fatigue for the past three months, with an average of seven bowel movements per day. Her medical history includes a childhood hepatitis A infection and an uncomplicated appendicectomy three years ago. She also has a family history of hepatocellular carcinoma.

      During examination, stage 1 haemorrhoids and a scar over McBurney's point are noted. Given her medical history, which condition warrants annual colonoscopy in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A infection

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Annual colonoscopy is recommended for individuals who have both ulcerative colitis and PSC.

      Colorectal Cancer Risk in Ulcerative Colitis Patients

      Ulcerative colitis patients have a significantly higher risk of developing colorectal cancer compared to the general population. The risk is mainly related to chronic inflammation, and studies report varying rates. Unfortunately, patients with ulcerative colitis often experience delayed diagnosis, leading to a worse prognosis. Lesions may also be multifocal, further increasing the risk of cancer.

      Several factors increase the risk of colorectal cancer in ulcerative colitis patients, including disease duration of more than 10 years, pancolitis, onset before 15 years old, unremitting disease, and poor compliance to treatment. To manage this risk, colonoscopy surveillance is recommended, and the frequency of surveillance depends on the patient’s risk stratification.

      Patients with lower risk require a colonoscopy every five years, while those with intermediate risk require a colonoscopy every three years. Patients with higher risk require a colonoscopy every year. The risk stratification is based on factors such as the extent of colitis, the severity of active endoscopic/histological inflammation, the presence of post-inflammatory polyps, and family history of colorectal cancer. Primary sclerosing cholangitis or a family history of colorectal cancer in first-degree relatives aged less than 50 years also increase the risk of cancer. By following these guidelines, ulcerative colitis patients can receive appropriate surveillance and management to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 58 - A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a significant swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a significant swelling in his abdomen. He confesses to consuming more alcohol since losing his job five years ago, but he has no other significant medical history.

      During the examination, the doctor observes shifting dullness. To confirm the suspicion of portal hypertension, the doctor orders liver function tests and an ascitic tap (paracentesis).

      What result from the tests would provide the strongest indication of portal hypertension?

      Your Answer: Cloudy ascitic fluid appearance

      Correct Answer: Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of 13.1 g/L

      Explanation:

      Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions.

      The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

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  • Question 59 - An 80-year-old man comes to his doctor with a complaint of dysphagia that...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to his doctor with a complaint of dysphagia that has been going on for three months. Initially, he could swallow some solid foods, but now he is only able to eat pureed foods. He has no difficulty swallowing liquids. He has a history of heavy smoking and alcohol consumption and is currently taking omeprazole for heartburn. He has lost a significant amount of weight due to his reduced caloric intake.

      What is the likely cause of his dysphagia?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is likely to be the cause of her dysphagia

      Correct Answer: There is likely a structural disorder of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      If a person has difficulty swallowing only solids, it is likely due to a structural disorder in the oesophagus such as cancer, strictures, or webs/rings. On the other hand, if they have difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids, it is probably due to a motility disorder in the oesophagus such as achalasia, scleroderma, or nutcracker oesophagus.

      If the dysphagia is progressive, it may indicate cancer as the cause, as the ability to swallow foods that were previously manageable becomes increasingly difficult over time. Weight loss could also be a result of either cancer or reduced food intake.

      It is important to note that although GORD can cause heartburn, it is not a likely cause of dysphagia.

      Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes

      Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the oesophagus, including cancer, oesophagitis, candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, myasthenia gravis, and globus hystericus. These conditions have distinct features that can help in their diagnosis, such as weight loss and anorexia in oesophageal cancer, heartburn in oesophagitis, dysphagia of both liquids and solids in achalasia, and anxiety in globus hystericus. Dysphagia can also be classified as extrinsic, intrinsic, or neurological, depending on the underlying cause.

      To diagnose dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, a full blood count, and fluoroscopic swallowing studies. Additional tests, such as ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies, may be needed for specific conditions. It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. By understanding the causes and features of dysphagia, healthcare professionals can provide timely and appropriate management for their patients.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 60 - A woman in her 40s is undergoing investigation for bowel cancer. During a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 40s is undergoing investigation for bowel cancer. During a colonoscopy, numerous small growths are found throughout her bowel, indicating the presence of an autosomal dominant familial condition that the clinician had suspected.

      Which gene mutation is commonly associated with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: BCR-ABL

      Correct Answer: APC

      Explanation:

      While a majority of human cancers are linked to p53 malfunction, it should be noted that the APC gene is specifically associated with FAP and not p53.

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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