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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old patient receiving haemodialysis three times a week through a tunnelled internal...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient receiving haemodialysis three times a week through a tunnelled internal jugular line arrives at the dialysis unit feeling well.

      However, 15 minutes after starting haemodialysis he develops a fever, his blood pressure drops rapidly and he becomes unwell. He is sweaty and appears confused.

      He still passes small volumes of urine and has a history of diverticular disease.

      What could be the possible reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Perforated diverticulum

      Correct Answer: Haemodialysis line infection

      Explanation:

      Rapidly Unwell Patient on Haemodialysis: Consider Line Infection

      When a patient who was previously healthy becomes rapidly unwell after starting haemodialysis, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a line infection. Symptoms may include low blood pressure, sweating, and a fever. Although haemodialysis lines are silver-coated to reduce the risk of infection, line infection remains a significant problem. During haemodialysis, blood is returned to the patient through the infected line, causing a rapid bacteraemia and systemic inflammatory response that can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure.

      While other conditions such as urinary tract or lower respiratory tract infections and perforated diverticulum are possible, they are less likely to present as rapidly as a line infection. Patients with end-stage renal failure are at higher risk of cardiovascular disease, including myocardial infarction, but chest pain that develops after a drop in blood pressure may indicate a secondary rather than primary cause. Although a fever is more suggestive of infection, it is important to obtain an ECG and check for signs of myocardial infarction. In summary, when a patient on haemodialysis becomes rapidly unwell, line infection should be considered as a potential cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      32.3
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  • Question 2 - As an Emergency department doctor, a 50-year-old man presents with intense left flank...

    Incorrect

    • As an Emergency department doctor, a 50-year-old man presents with intense left flank pain that extends to his groin. He reports that the pain began yesterday. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the following results were obtained:
      - Haemoglobin +++
      - Urobilinogen Negative
      - Bilirubin Negative
      - Protein Negative
      - Glucose Negative
      - Nitrites Negative
      - Leucocytes Negative
      - Ketones +

      What could be the possible cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Renal calculus

      Explanation:

      Renal Calculi: Causes and Symptoms

      Renal calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, can be caused by various factors such as reduced urine output, changes in medication, and diet. These factors can lead to the formation of stones in the urinary tract, which can cause inflammation and damage to the lining of the urinary tract. Patients with renal calculi may experience symptoms such as blood in their urine due to the damage caused by the stones. Additionally, ketones may be present in the urine, indicating reduced oral intake due to severe pain.

      In summary, renal calculi can be caused by various factors and can lead to symptoms such as blood in the urine and reduced oral intake. It is important for patients to seek medical attention if they suspect they may have renal calculi to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of general malaise....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of general malaise. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:

      Adjusted calcium: 2.3 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
      Phosphate: 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      PTH: 8.09 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
      Urea: 7.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
      Creatinine: 145 μmol/L (60-120)
      25 OH Vit D: 48 nmol/L (optimal >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Chronic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Creatinine and Calcium Homeostasis in CKD 3 Patients

      In patients with CKD 3, elevated creatinine levels indicate a decline in kidney function. However, interpreting creatinine levels can be challenging without considering factors such as body habitus and muscle mass. To determine the severity of CKD 3, an eGFR calculation can be performed, which typically results in a value of 30-59 ml/min/1.73m2.

      Patients with CKD 3 may experience multiple abnormalities in calcium homeostasis. While plasma concentrations of calcium and phosphate are usually normal at this stage, subtle changes may occur as CKD3 progresses towards CKD 4. For example, reduced hydroxylation of vitamin D by the kidney enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase can lead to a slight increase in PTH levels.

      Vitamin D insufficiency is common in CKD3 patients and can be caused by various risk factors such as old age, immobility, institutionalization, and darker skin color. While suboptimal levels of vitamin D may contribute to calcium homeostasis abnormalities, it is not the only factor to consider in CKD3 management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      41.4
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  • Question 4 - In the treatment of autoimmunity and to prevent rejection following solid organ transplantation,...

    Correct

    • In the treatment of autoimmunity and to prevent rejection following solid organ transplantation, various immunosuppressant drugs are used, each with its own mechanism of action and specific side effects. However, all of them carry the risk of increased susceptibility to infection and malignancy. At what age is new onset of diabetes after transplantation (NODAT) commonly associated with medication?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus

      Explanation:

      New Onset Diabetes After Transplantation (NODAT)

      New onset diabetes after transplantation (NODAT) is a condition that is becoming increasingly common among transplant recipients. It is estimated that between 5-20% of recipients develop NODAT within the first year after transplantation, and up to 30% in the longer term. The use of prednisolone is often associated with NODAT, especially in patients who had impaired glucose tolerance before the transplant. However, calcineurin inhibitors such as ciclosporin and tacrolimus are also known to increase the risk of NODAT. The risk of NODAT with ciclosporin is around 5%, while it can be as high as 20% with tacrolimus. Sirolimus, another immunosuppressive drug, is also believed to be diabetogenic, with similar rates to ciclosporin. It is worth noting that cyclophosphamide is not used in transplantation immunotherapy, while azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are not associated with NODAT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      55.2
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  • Question 5 - A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for two years complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for two years complains that her bags, previously clear, have become cloudy.

      She is in good health, with slight abdominal discomfort, and has successfully instilled fluid, although she only removed 1.5 liters from a 2-liter bag instilled earlier. Her abdomen is soft and only slightly tender.

      What is the probable complication?

      Your Answer: Fibrin blockages of the catheter

      Correct Answer: Peritonitis

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Treatment of PD Peritonitis

      Peritonitis in patients undergoing peritoneal dialysis (PD) may not present with typical symptoms seen in non-dialysis patients. Patients may only experience mild abdominal discomfort or tenderness, or may not have any symptoms at all. The most common sign of PD peritonitis is a cloudy bag, which indicates bacterial growth. In severe cases, the fluid may resemble pea soup. It is important to note that any patient with a cloudy bag should be treated for PD peritonitis immediately with antibiotics, such as vancomycin, administered intraperitoneally, and oral antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin. PD exchanges should continue during treatment to flush out the peritoneal cavity.

      While surgical problems, such as appendicitis, can occur in PD patients, they typically present with local peritonism and symptoms like vomiting. Constipation may cause abdominal discomfort and outflow problems, but it does not cause cloudy bags. Fibrin can block the catheter and cause abnormal fluid appearance, but it tends to appear as strands rather than a cloudy bag and does not cause abdominal discomfort or tenderness. It is important for PD patients to be aware of the symptoms of PD peritonitis and seek immediate treatment if they notice a cloudy bag or any other concerning symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      43.1
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  • Question 6 - In the treatment of autoimmunity and to prevent rejection following solid organ transplantation,...

    Incorrect

    • In the treatment of autoimmunity and to prevent rejection following solid organ transplantation, there are various immunosuppressant drugs available. Despite their effectiveness, these drugs come with unwanted side effects, such as an increased risk of infection and malignancy. However, specific side effects may vary depending on the drug's mechanism of action. Which immunosuppressant drug is linked to an elevated risk of bladder cancer in the long run and can cause haemorrhagic cystitis? Additionally, is this drug safe for use in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Cyclophosphamide

      Explanation:

      Cyclophosphamide and its Effects on the Body

      Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug that is commonly used to treat autoimmune diseases such as ANCA associated vasculitis and systemic lupus erythematosus. Once it is metabolized in the liver, it is converted into its active form, phosphoramide mustard, which causes DNA crosslinking and apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells, including lymphocytes.

      However, the drug can also produce a toxic compound called acrolein, which is harmful to the urothelium. Since the drug is excreted by the kidney, the bladder can accumulate high concentrations of acrolein, leading to potential damage. To prevent this, patients are often pre-hydrated to ensure that urine remains dilute and high concentrations are avoided.

      In some cases, mesna is used to prevent urothelial damage. Mesna is believed to act as an antioxidant and can be particularly useful for patients receiving high doses of therapy. By taking these precautions, the harmful effects of cyclophosphamide can be minimized, allowing patients to receive the benefits of the drug without experiencing unnecessary harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 7 - Dr. Patel is a nephrologist who has five patients attending his clinic. The...

    Incorrect

    • Dr. Patel is a nephrologist who has five patients attending his clinic. The patients' results are as follows:
      Adam Ahmed Bella Brownie Charlie Chen David Davis
      Urine protein mg/24 hrs: 150 4000 3000 200 300
      Haematuria: Present Absent Present Present Absent
      Oedema: Absent Present Present Absent Absent
      Serum albumin g/l: 24 18 26 17 32
      Serum creatinine µmol/l: 430 110 280 560 120

      Which patient is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bella Barnard

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low serum albumin levels, high urinary protein levels, and marked pitting edema. Only individuals who meet all three criteria are diagnosed with this syndrome. Other features of nephrotic syndrome include little or no hematuria, glomerular pathology as the cause, marked hyperlipidemia that increases cardiovascular risk, reduced immunoglobulins that increase the risk of infection, and loss of certain proteins that increase the risk of thrombosis, including renal vein thrombosis. Creatinine levels can be normal or elevated.

      The causes of nephrotic syndrome include glomerulonephritis, such as minimal change disease and membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, diabetic nephropathy, amyloid (AL form), and connective tissue disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus. the diagnostic criteria and features of nephrotic syndrome is crucial for early detection and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 8 - A patient in his 60s visits his GP clinic complaining of general malaise,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in his 60s visits his GP clinic complaining of general malaise, severe itch, and breathlessness that have been progressively worsening for several months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained: adjusted calcium of 2.0 mmol/L (normal range: 2.2-2.4), phosphate of 2.8 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0), PTH of 12.53 pmol/L (normal range: 1.05-6.83), urea of 32.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.8), creatinine of 540 µmol/L (normal range: 60-120), 25 OH Vit D of 32 nmol/L (optimal level >75), and eGFR of 8 ml/min/1.73m2. What is the most effective treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dialysis

      Explanation:

      Dialysis as the Best Option for CKD 5 Patients with Severe Symptoms

      Patients with CKD 5 and an eGFR less than 15 ml/min/1.73m2 are likely to benefit most from dialysis, especially when they experience severe symptoms. Itch, for instance, is a common symptom of uraemia that can be very difficult to treat. On the other hand, breathlessness is often due to fluid buildup in the peritoneum and pleurae, which can be addressed by dialysis. While patients with CKD 5 are regularly reviewed by a renal department, the decision to start dialysis is usually made in a non-emergency setting.

      In cases where patients experience side effects that are difficult to treat without dialysis, supplementing calcium or vitamin D may not significantly change their current condition. Moreover, supplementing phosphate would be inappropriate as most patients with CKD 5 already have high serum phosphate levels and should be on a low phosphate diet. Therefore, dialysis remains the best option for CKD 5 patients with severe symptoms, as it can effectively address the underlying causes of their discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 39-year-old man is discovered on the roadside after a single-vehicle car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man is discovered on the roadside after a single-vehicle car accident. The duration of his lying there is uncertain. Upon the arrival of paramedics, his GCS is 10, and his blood pressure is 92/66 mmHg with a pulse of 96 bpm. Upon arrival at the Emergency department, his blood test results reveal a urea level of 44 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5 - 7.5) and a creatinine level of 620 µmol/l (normal range: 60 - 110). A catheterization procedure produces 50 mls of brown-colored urine. What additional blood test should be requested to determine the cause of his kidney dysfunction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyolysis and Compartment Syndrome

      Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that can occur as a result of various factors, including trauma, crush injury, compartment syndrome, ischaemia, severe electrolyte disturbances, bacterial and viral infections, inherited metabolic disorders, and certain drugs. In order to diagnose rhabdomyolysis, a CK test should be requested.

      One of the common causes of rhabdomyolysis is trauma, such as a road traffic accident. In such cases, it is important to rule out compartment syndrome, which can develop due to the effects of rhabdomyolysis on muscle fibres. Compartment syndrome is characterized by a disruption to the oxygen supply to the muscle, leading to ATP depletion and a build-up of intracellular calcium. This can cause myocyte swelling and impaired function, leading to hypovolaemia and excess fluid sequestration.

      Restoring the blood supply can cause reperfusion injury, which can further damage the myocytes and cause them to swell further, leading to the development of compartment syndrome. Therefore, it is crucial to address compartment syndrome in trauma patients in order to improve their clinical picture. By the causes and effects of rhabdomyolysis and compartment syndrome, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old previously healthy teacher visits her doctor complaining of headache and itching....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old previously healthy teacher visits her doctor complaining of headache and itching. During her urine test, protein (3+) and blood (1+) are detected, but there are no splinter haemorrhages. What other bedside examination would be beneficial in evaluating her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Further Testing for Kidney Disease

      Assessing kidney disease at the bedside involves several steps, including urinalysis, blood pressure measurement, and assessment of volume status. However, further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause of the disease. Blood testing for U&Es, autoantibodies, glucose, HbA1c, complement, and ANCA serology, as well as hepatitis and HIV viral screening, can provide valuable information.

      In this case, the patient presents with features consistent with kidney disease, including an abnormal urinalysis. While diabetes could be a possible cause, the patient’s age makes it less likely. Therefore, additional testing is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the disease. Checking the patient’s blood pressure is also important, as hypertension is often associated with renal diseases. Aggressive management of hypertension can help prevent the progression of chronic renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 11 - You are considering commencing a patient in their 60s on cilazapril. In discussion...

    Incorrect

    • You are considering commencing a patient in their 60s on cilazapril. In discussion with the patient you mention that this is an ACE inhibitor.
      The patient asks you what 'ACE' is.
      What is the primary function of 'ACE'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2

      Explanation:

      The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a pathway in the body that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance. It begins with the production of angiotensinogen in the liver, which is then converted to angiotensin 1 by the enzyme renin, produced in the kidneys. Angiotensin 1 is then converted to angiotensin 2 by the enzyme ACE, found in the lungs and kidneys. Angiotensin 2 has several functions, including the stimulation of aldosterone production by the adrenal gland. This hormone promotes the retention of sodium and water in the body, leading to an increase in blood volume and blood pressure.

      This pathway is commonly tested in medical school and beyond due to its clinical relevance in conditions such as hypertension and heart failure. the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is crucial in the management of these conditions, as medications that target this pathway can be used to lower blood pressure and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman with known CKD stage 4 due to type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with known CKD stage 4 due to type 2 diabetes and obesity is admitted with cellulitis that has not responded to oral antibiotics. MRSA is detected in swabs, and she is started on IV vancomycin. She is also taking carbamazepine, omeprazole, warfarin, and chloramphenicol eye drops. Three days later, the laboratory urgently calls to report her vancomycin level is 54 (therapeutic range 10-20), and regular dosing is immediately stopped. What is the most likely cause of her elevated levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inadequate renal clearance

      Explanation:

      Vancomycin and its Clearance in CKD Patients

      Vancomycin is a drug that is primarily cleared through the kidneys. In patients with stage 4 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the drug may accumulate in the body due to regular dosing in excess of what the kidneys can handle. This can lead to high levels of vancomycin in the bloodstream. However, liver enzyme inhibitors such as omeprazole and carbamazepine do not affect vancomycin clearance. Therefore, they are unlikely to increase the drug levels in the body.

      Warfarin, on the other hand, does not affect liver enzymes but may be altered by enzyme inducers or inhibitors. It is important to monitor warfarin levels in patients taking vancomycin to avoid any potential drug interactions. Although obesity may affect the volume of distribution of vancomycin, dosing for normal renal function is unlikely to lead to high levels in obese patients. Overall, it is crucial to consider the patient’s renal function and adjust the vancomycin dose accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 13 - As a locum GP, you have been presented with blood results for five...

    Incorrect

    • As a locum GP, you have been presented with blood results for five patients you have never met before. The results are as follows:

      Patient A: Adjusted calcium - 2.8 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L, PTH - 8.09 pmol/L, Urea - 7.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 132 μmol/L, Albumin - 36 g/L.

      Patient B: Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L, PTH - 7.2 pmol/L, Urea - 5 mmol/L, Creatinine - 140 μmol/L, Albumin - 38 g/L.

      Patient C: Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L, Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L, PTH - 12.53 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 540 μmol/L, Albumin - 28 g/L.

      Patient D: Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L, Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L, PTH - 2.05 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 190 μmol/L, Albumin - 40 g/L.

      Patient E: Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L, PTH - 5.88 pmol/L, Urea - 4.6 mmol/L, Creatinine - 81 μmol/L, Albumin - 18 g/L.

      Your task is to identify which patient is likely to have acute kidney injury (AKI). Take your time to carefully review the results and make an informed decision.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient D

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Indicators of Dehydration and Kidney Function

      The biochemical indicators in a patient’s blood can provide insight into their kidney function and hydration status. In cases of dehydration leading to acute renal failure (ARF) or acute kidney injury (AKI), there may be slight elevations in calcium and phosphate levels, indicating some haemoconcentration. However, the urea level is typically significantly higher compared to a more modest increase in creatinine. A urea level of 32 mmol/L is commonly seen in AKI, whereas in stable chronic kidney disease (CKD), it would typically be associated with a much higher creatinine level.

      CKD often presents with multiple biochemical abnormalities that are not typically seen in AKI. These include hypocalcaemia, increased levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) as a compensatory response to hypocalcaemia, and anemia due to erythropoietin and iron deficiency. Patients with primary hyperparathyroidism, such as Patient A and B, may have inappropriately high PTH levels with mild hypercalcaemia. Patient C, on the other hand, has CKD with secondary hyperparathyroidism. Finally, Patient E has normal blood indicators, suggesting no significant kidney or hydration issues.

      Overall, the biochemical indicators of dehydration and kidney function can aid in diagnosing and managing ARF, AKI, and CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up. During the examination, her urine test shows positive results for protein. Upon reviewing her medical records, it is discovered that this is the first time she has had proteinuria. What further tests should be conducted to investigate this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ACR (albumin:creatinine ratio) and microbiology

      Explanation:

      Investigating Proteinuria in Diabetic Patients

      Proteinuria or microalbuminuria is a significant finding in diabetic patients. It indicates an increased risk of developing diabetic nephropathy in type 1 diabetes and an additional risk factor for cardiovascular disease in type 2 diabetes. When a diabetic patient presents with proteinuria, it is crucial to rule out infection, which is a common cause of increased urinary protein excretion. A urine microbiology test can identify the presence of infection, while an albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) can quantify the degree of proteinuria and allow for future monitoring. Although HbA1c, serum urea/creatinine, and plasma glucose are standard tests for monitoring diabetic patients, they do not help quantify urinary protein loss or exclude infection. A high HbA1c in this situation could indicate longstanding poor glycemic control or poor glycemic control for several weeks due to infection. Therefore, ACR and urine microbiology are the most useful investigations to investigate proteinuria in diabetic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old male patient complains of swelling and is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male patient complains of swelling and is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. What is a frequently occurring complication of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of pneumococcal pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic Syndrome and its Complications

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by three main symptoms: hypoalbuminemia, proteinuria, and edema. Patients with this condition are at an increased risk of developing complications such as thrombosis, infections, and hyperlipidemia. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is also a possible complication of nephrotic syndrome, although not all patients with the condition will have a history of established renal disease prior to presentation. The risk of developing CKD depends on the underlying cause of the nephrotic syndrome.

      One unusual complication of nephrotic syndrome is hypercalcemia, which is not commonly seen in this condition. Abnormal plasma protein proportions can cause changes in the binding of electrolytes, drugs, and other solutes, leading to low ionized calcium levels. In severe cases, this may result in symptoms of hypocalcemia. However, in CKD, hypocalcemia is a common occurrence and can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism.

      In summary, the symptoms and complications of nephrotic syndrome is crucial for proper management and treatment of the condition. While hypercalcemia is not a common complication, patients with nephrotic syndrome are at an increased risk of developing thrombosis, infections, and hyperlipidemia. Additionally, the risk of developing CKD depends on the underlying cause of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 16 - A 14-year-old girl presents with proteinuria at 1500 mg/24 hours. Upon examination, her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with proteinuria at 1500 mg/24 hours. Upon examination, her urine reveals the presence of significant amounts of large proteins, including albumin and transferrin. What could be the possible reason for her proteinuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerular proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Glomerular Proteinuria

      Although a small amount of protein is typically found in urine, an elevated level of protein indicates a potential health issue. The diagram below illustrates the various sources of protein in urine, with glomerular proteinuria being the likely cause in this case due to the presence of larger proteins. This type of proteinuria can result in significant loss of protein through urine. It is important to identify the underlying cause of glomerular proteinuria and seek appropriate medical treatment to prevent further damage to the kidneys. Proper management can help reduce the risk of complications and improve overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 17 - You are part of the transplant team on call and have been asked...

    Incorrect

    • You are part of the transplant team on call and have been asked to assess a potential kidney donor. The patient is an 86-year-old man who has been in the ICU for ten days due to severe pneumonia. He has required ventilatory support, inotropes, and filtration during his stay. His creatinine levels have rapidly risen since admission, with a current level of 350 umol/l. However, a sample taken six months ago by his GP showed a creatinine level of 95 umol/l. The patient's medical history includes hypertension and a malignant melanoma that was treated to remission three years ago with a hemicolectomy, but no adjuvant therapy was required. His screening colonoscopies have been normal in the years since.

      What factor would lead you to decide against this patient as a potential donor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Donor Evaluation for Organ Transplantation

      This patient’s stay in the ICU has been complicated, but the only absolute contraindication to organ donation is malignancy. Although the patient had a limited malignancy without evidence of spread, the risk of cancer in the recipient is too high due to potential micrometastases and immunosuppression. The only other absolute contraindications are HIV or CJD associated illness.

      Despite being elderly, a kidney from a relatively healthy 85-year-old donor could be a good match for an elderly recipient in their mid-70s. The patient’s creatinine levels suggest acute tubular necrosis and delayed graft function, but this is likely due to severe sepsis and the patient’s previous normal creatinine levels indicate good baseline renal function. The need for inotropes also suggests acute tubular necrosis, but this is consistent with the patient’s septic shock and acute illness, which could potentially improve after transplantation.

      In summary, organ donation evaluation involves considering absolute contraindications such as malignancy, HIV, or CJD associated illness. Age and medical history of the donor and recipient are also important factors to consider. The patient’s current condition and potential for recovery after transplantation should also be taken into account.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 18 - Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?

      Patient A:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
      PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
      Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 132 μmol/L
      Albumin - 36 g/L

      Patient B:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L
      PTH - 7.2 pmol/L
      Urea - 5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 140 μmol/L
      Albumin - 38 g/L

      Patient C:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
      PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
      Albumin - 28 g/L

      Patient D:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
      PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 190 μmol/L
      Albumin - 40 g/L

      Patient E:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
      PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
      Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
      Albumin - 18 g/L

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient B

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism and its Complications

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to elevated calcium levels and low serum phosphate. This condition can go undiagnosed for years, with an incidental finding of elevated calcium often being the first clue. However, complications can arise from longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism, including osteoporosis, renal calculi, and renal calcification.

      Osteoporosis occurs due to increased bone resorption under the influence of high levels of PTH. Renal calculi are also a common complication, as high levels of phosphate excretion and calcium availability can lead to the development of calcium phosphate renal stones. Additionally, calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma can cause renal impairment, which can develop gradually over time.

      Patients with longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism are at risk of impaired renal function, which is less common in patients with chronic kidney disease of other causes. While both conditions may have elevated PTH levels, hypocalcaemia is more common in chronic kidney disease due to impaired hydroxylation of vitamin D. the complications of primary hyperparathyroidism is crucial for early diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man undergoing haemodialysis experiences leg cramps towards the end of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man undergoing haemodialysis experiences leg cramps towards the end of his three-hour session. These cramps persist throughout the evening after dialysis and gradually subside. What substance are we removing excessively that could be causing these cramps?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing cramps due to too much fluid being removed during dialysis, leading to hypoperfusion of muscles. Hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, and hypocalcaemia can also cause cramps, but are less likely to be the cause in this case. Removal of urea is unlikely to cause any symptoms.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old man has just finished a round of chemotherapy for leukemia. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has just finished a round of chemotherapy for leukemia. During a routine check-up, he is discovered to have proteinuria with a level of 1000 mg/24 hours. Upon examination, there are no red cell casts present in his urine. What could be the probable reason for his proteinuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tubular proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Causes of Tubular Proteinuria

      Tubular proteinuria is a condition where proteins are excreted in the urine due to damage to the renal tubules. One common cause of this condition is chemotherapy, particularly ifosphamide and platinum-based agents. Other causes include Fanconi’s syndrome, heavy metal poisoning, tubulointerstitial disease, and the use of certain drugs such as gentamicin. Diabetes, infections, and transplant rejection can also lead to tubular proteinuria.

      In summary, there are various factors that can cause tubular proteinuria, and it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. Patients who have undergone chemotherapy should be monitored for signs of renal tubular damage, and any medication that may contribute to the condition should be reviewed. Early detection and management of tubular proteinuria can help prevent further kidney damage and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 21 - As a locum GP, you are tasked with reviewing blood results for five...

    Incorrect

    • As a locum GP, you are tasked with reviewing blood results for five patients you have never met before. The following results have been provided for each patient:

      Patient A: Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L, PTH - 8.09 pmol/L, Urea - 7.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 132 μmol/L, Albumin - 36 g/L

      Patient B: Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L, PTH - 7.2 pmol/L, Urea - 5 mmol/L, Creatinine - 140 μmol/L, Albumin - 38 g/L

      Patient C: Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L, Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L, PTH - 12.53 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 540 μmol/L, Albumin - 28 g/L

      Patient D: Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L, Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L, PTH - 2.05 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 190 μmol/L, Albumin - 40 g/L

      Patient E: Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L, PTH - 5.88 pmol/L, Urea - 4.6 mmol/L, Creatinine - 81 μmol/L, Albumin - 18 g/L

      Your task is to identify which patient is likely to have CKD 5.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient C

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of Patient C’s Lab Results

      Patient C’s lab results indicate chronic kidney disease (CKD) rather than acute renal failure (ARF). The creatinine result corresponds to an eGFR of less than 15 ml/min/1.73m2, which is consistent with CKD 5 in a male or female aged 20-80-years-old. Additionally, the patient has hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and an elevation of parathyroid hormone, which are metabolic changes commonly seen in CKD 4-5 but not in ARF of short duration. The relatively higher creatinine result compared to urea also suggests CKD rather than ARF, where dehydration can lead to even higher urea levels.

      It is likely that this patient is already dialysis-dependent or will require regular review by a nephrology team. The decision to start dialysis is based on various factors, including fluid overload, hyperkalaemia, uraemic symptoms, life expectancy, and patient/clinician preference. Most patients start dialysis with an eGFR of around 10 ml/min/1.73m2.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 22 - A 44-year-old woman underwent a kidney transplant four years ago due to end...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman underwent a kidney transplant four years ago due to end stage renal failure caused by lupus nephritis. The transplant was from her sister, and she received anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) induction and plasma exchange pre-transplant due to low-grade donor specific antibodies. She has been stable on tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil and prednisolone, with only one episode of acute cellular rejection at six months post-transplant. During her four-year follow-up, she presented with a creatinine level of 150 umol/l and high blood pressure at 150/95 mmHg, which increased to 160 umol/l in a repeat sample one month later. She was admitted for further investigations and biopsy, which revealed double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane, without inflammatory infiltrate and negative C4d. Donor specific antibodies were still present, but titres were low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transplant glomerulopathy

      Explanation:

      Pathological Processes in Renal Transplant Patients

      Double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane is a characteristic feature of transplant glomerulopathy, a chronic antibody-mediated rejection that affects up to 15% of renal transplant patients at five years post-transplant. Acute cellular rejection, on the other hand, is characterized by interstitial inflammation, tubulitis, and/or arthritis, and is unlikely to occur in patients on stable medication doses. Acute humoral rejection, which is characterized by C4d deposition, capillaritis, and/or arthritis, is another possible pathological process in renal transplant patients.

      BK viral nephropathy, which occurs in 1-8% of renal transplant patients, is associated with T cell depleting agents such as ATG. Biopsy findings in BK viral nephropathy typically show nuclear viral inclusions in the tubular epithelial cells, which can be limited to the medulla in early disease, and tubulointerstitial inflammation. Urine cytology can also be used to detect decoy cells and urothelial cells with characteristic nuclear viral inclusions, thus avoiding the need for biopsy.

      Finally, acute calcineurin inhibitor (CNI) toxicity is unlikely in patients on stable doses of tacrolimus, but almost all patients develop chronic CNI nephrotoxicity. Biopsy findings in chronic CNI nephrotoxicity typically show interstitial fibrosis, tubular atrophy, and arteriolar hyalinosis. In the case of this patient, some background CNI toxicity is likely, but the biopsy findings are more consistent with transplant glomerulopathy as the primary pathological process.

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  • Question 23 - A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with severe abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with severe abdominal pain and hypotension. A CT scan reveals a ruptured diverticular abscess, and he undergoes a Hartmann's procedure and faecal peritonitis washout. postoperatively, he is transferred to HDU and given broad spectrum IV antibiotics. During surgery, he had poor urine output and low blood pressure, prompting the anaesthetist to administer fluids. The next day, the F1 for surgery notes that the patient had a urine output of 5 mls per hour for three hours and then complete anuria overnight. His blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg, and his CVP is 10 cm. What is the probable cause of his anuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute Tubular Necrosis and Tubulo-Interstitial Nephritis

      Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is a condition that occurs when the kidneys experience prolonged hypotension and poor perfusion, leading to the death of tubular epithelium. This can result in complete anuria, which is the absence of urine output. While a blocked catheter is unlikely, a bladder scan should be performed to rule it out. ATN can also be caused by nephrotoxins and sepsis. The condition usually recovers over a few days to weeks, but if the patient has underlying renal disease, the recovery may be partial, leading to long-term chronic kidney disease (CKD). Therefore, pre-renal failure should be corrected as quickly as possible to prevent irreversible damage.

      Tubulo-interstitial nephritis (TIN) is a histological diagnosis that occurs when the tubules and interstitium of the kidney become inflamed due to drugs or infections. This can lead to the release of cytokines and infiltration by acute inflammatory cells, particularly lymphocytes and eosinophils. If the causative agent is removed, TIN can resolve. However, if it persists, tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis may occur, leading to end-stage renal failure. Oral steroids can be used to dampen the inflammation and prevent fibrosis, but they need to be started early in the disease course.

      In summary, ATN and TIN are two conditions that can cause kidney damage and lead to CKD or end-stage renal failure. While ATN is caused by prolonged hypotension and poor perfusion, TIN is caused by drugs or infections. Early intervention is crucial to prevent irreversible damage and promote recovery.

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  • Question 24 - A patient who had her PD catheter inserted into her abdomen complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who had her PD catheter inserted into her abdomen complains that the first bag of the morning is often difficult to instil, and she cannot remove any fluid after the four hour dwell. Later in the day, this is better, and she can usually remove the fluid from the morning and instil the next bag and remove it after the dwell. What is the most probable reason for this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Catheter kinking

      Explanation:

      Common Issues with Peritoneal Dialysis Catheters

      Kinking of the catheter is a common issue that occurs shortly after insertion. This can cause problems with both fluid inflow and outflow, and symptoms may vary depending on the patient’s position. Catheter malposition is another early issue that can be painful and uncomfortable for the patient. If absorption of PD fluid is occurring, patients may experience signs of fluid overload, such as swollen ankles, indicating a need for a higher concentration of osmotic agent in the fluid. Constipation is a consistent cause of outflow obstruction, while leakage can be noticed as fluid coming from the exit site or swelling around the site as fluid leaks into subcutaneous tissues. It is important to monitor for these common issues and address them promptly to ensure the success of peritoneal dialysis treatment.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 25 - A 44-year-old man presents with nephrotic syndrome and is undergoing further investigations to...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man presents with nephrotic syndrome and is undergoing further investigations to determine the underlying cause.

      Under what condition would corticosteroids be the most successful in reversing the nephrotic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minimal change disease

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Different Types of Glomerulonephritis

      Glomerulonephritis (GN) is a group of kidney diseases that affect the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys. While there is no known effective treatment for IgA nephropathy, long-term corticosteroid therapy has shown favourable response in some cases. On the other hand, 80% of adults with minimal change GN can respond to steroids, but it may take up to 16 weeks for remissions to occur. Unfortunately, membranous GN does not respond to steroid treatment. Lastly, there is no specific treatment available to cause regression of amyloid deposits. It is important to note that treatment options may vary depending on the type of GN and individual patient factors.

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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with joint pain, weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with joint pain, weight loss, a vasculitic rash, and overall fatigue. Upon examination, she has elevated inflammatory markers, blood and protein in her urine, and positive MPO ANCA antibodies. She is urgently referred to renal physicians and undergoes a renal biopsy, which reveals crescentic glomerulonephritis. The diagnosis is microscopic polyangiitis. What is the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for ANCA Vasculitis

      In patients with a new diagnosis of ANCA vasculitis and multi-organ involvement, it is crucial to start reducing inflammation as soon as possible. The most appropriate initial therapy is IV steroids due to their rapid onset of action. Azathioprine is used for maintenance therapy and preventing relapse, but it takes several weeks to have its full effect and is not suitable for organ-threatening disease. Cyclophosphamide is the next choice of treatment and is often used in combination with IV steroids. Plasma exchange is used in severe cases, but its benefit over other therapies is still unclear. Rituximab is becoming more popular as an alternative to cyclophosphamide and has been shown to be as effective at inducing remission. However, all patients will receive IV steroids before receiving a definitive agent such as cyclophosphamide or rituximab. In patients with pulmonary haemorrhage or rapid deterioration, plasma exchange should be considered as a means of reducing antibody titres. Proper treatment is essential for managing ANCA vasculitis and preventing further complications.

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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with symptoms of a vasculitic rash, joint...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with symptoms of a vasculitic rash, joint pains, and swollen ankles. He reports feeling unwell, fatigued, and experiencing weight loss. During the visit, his urine dipstick shows blood and protein, and urgent blood tests reveal worsening kidney function with elevated inflammatory markers. The doctor suspects microscopic polyangiitis and requests an autoimmune screening. What autoantibody is expected to be positive in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: p-ANCA with MPO specificity

      Explanation:

      ANCA and its association with small vessel vasculitides

      Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are a characteristic feature of small vessel vasculitides such as microscopic polyangiitis (MPA) and granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). These antibodies can also be seen in eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (eGPA), previously known as Churg-Strauss syndrome. ANCA has two staining patterns, cytoplasmic (c-ANCA) and perinuclear (p-ANCA), which are detected through immunofluorescence. These antibodies are directed against proteins within the cytoplasmic granules of neutrophils. In most cases, c-ANCA has specificity for proteinase 3 (PR3) and p-ANCA has specificity for myeloperoxidase (MPO).

      In patients with GPA, ANCA positivity is observed in approximately 90% of cases, with 80-90% being c-ANCA positive with PR3 specificity. In contrast, in patients with MPA, approximately 60% are p-ANCA positive with MPO specificity, and around 35% have c-ANCA.

      The history of the patient in question is more consistent with MPA, and therefore, the most likely test to be positive is p-ANCA with MPO specificity. ANA is usually associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, which could present with similar symptoms, but the patient’s age and sex are more in line with ANCA vasculitis.

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  • Question 28 - A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a retired teacher with occasional international travel. On examination, his body weight was 40 kg with some oral ulcers.
      Tests revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 1.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.4 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
      Eosinophils 0.8 × 109/l 0.1–0.4 × 109/l
      Urine Protein 2+
      Cholesterol 4.5 <5.2 mmol/l
      Which of the following tests is next indicated for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD4 count

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of HIV Nephropathy

      HIV infection is a high possibility in a patient with risk factors and presenting with emaciation, oral ulcers, and lymphopenia. A CD4 count and HIV serological testing should be done urgently. HIV nephropathy is a common complication, with focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis being the most common pathological diagnosis. Other variants include membranoproliferative nephropathy, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, and IgA nephropathy. Treatment involves ACE inhibitors and antiretroviral therapy, with dialysis being necessary in end-stage disease. Renal biopsy is required to confirm the diagnosis, but HIV testing should be performed first. Serum IgA levels are elevated in IgA nephropathy, while serum complement levels and anti-nuclear factor are needed in SLE-associated nephropathy or other connective tissue diseases or vasculitis. However, the lack of systemic symptoms points away from these diagnoses.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 29 - As a locum GP, you come across a 40-year-old woman who is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • As a locum GP, you come across a 40-year-old woman who is experiencing chills, pelvic discomfort, and painful urination. This patient has no history of diabetes. What are the possible urinalysis results that you might expect in this scenario?

      A) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: +, Glucose: +++, Nitrites: Negative, Leucocytes: +, Ketones: Negative

      B) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: Negative, Glucose: +, Nitrites: +++, Leucocytes: ++, Ketones: +++

      C) Haemoglobin: +++, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: Negative, Glucose: Negative, Nitrites: +++, Leucocytes: +++, Ketones: Negative

      D) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: Negative, Bilirubin: Negative, Protein: Negative, Glucose: Negative, Nitrites: ++++, Leucocytes: Negative, Ketones: +++

      E) Haemoglobin: Negative, Urobilinogen: +, Bilirubin: +, Protein: Negative, Glucose: Negative, Nitrites: +++, Leucocytes: Negative, Ketones: Negative

      It is important to note that the urinalysis results may vary depending on the individual patient's condition and medical history. As a healthcare professional, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination and analysis to determine the appropriate diagnosis and treatment plan for the patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C

      Explanation:

      Urinalysis Findings in Urinary Tract Infection

      Urinary tract infection (UTI) is a common condition that can be diagnosed through urinalysis. Nitrites and leucocytes are typically present in large amounts in the urine of patients with UTI. Blood may also be present due to inflammation in the bladder or contamination from menstrual bleeding. In some cases, a small amount of glucose may be detected as the body responds to infection by releasing cortisol and adrenaline, which can increase blood glucose levels. However, the presence of protein on urinalysis is usually based on measurement of albumin only, and bacterial proteins are not typically detected using this method. Overall, urinalysis can provide valuable information for diagnosing and managing UTI.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and overweight...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and overweight presents to his GP with severe hypertension. Upon investigation, he is diagnosed with renal artery stenosis. What is a risk factor for the development of renal artery stenosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Renal Artery Stenosis and its Risk Factors

      Renal artery stenosis is a common cause of hypertension that occurs when the renal arteries become narrowed, reducing blood flow to the kidneys. This condition can be unilateral or bilateral and can lead to the release of renin, which stimulates aldosterone production through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).

      Individuals with a history of COPD are likely to have a smoking history of at least 20-pack years, if not more. Although COPD can be caused by other factors such as alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency or coal mining, the presence of COPD in a patient’s medical history should raise suspicion of a smoking history.

      The most common cause of renal artery stenosis is atherosclerotic disease, which shares similar risk factors with cardiovascular and peripheral vascular disease. These risk factors include smoking, hypertension, female gender, hypercholesterolemia with low HDL cholesterol and high LDL cholesterol, diabetes, and peripheral vascular disease and erectile dysfunction, which are indicative of arteriopathy/atherosclerosis.

      In summary, renal artery stenosis is a condition that can lead to hypertension and is commonly caused by atherosclerotic disease. Individuals with a history of COPD should be evaluated for smoking history, and those with risk factors for cardiovascular and peripheral vascular disease should be monitored for the development of renal artery stenosis.

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      • Nephrology
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