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Question 1
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A 78-year-old woman is admitted to a geriatric ward and is found to have an unsafe swallow by the speech and language therapy team. As a result, the ward team is instructed to keep her nil by mouth. The doctor is asked to prescribe maintenance fluids for her. She weighs 60kg and is 157cm tall. Which of the following fluid regimes correctly replaces potassium for this patient?
Your Answer: 30 mmol K+ per 12 hours
Explanation:Fluid Therapy Guidelines for Junior Doctors
Fluid therapy is a common task for junior doctors, and it is important to follow guidelines to ensure patients receive the appropriate amount of fluids. The 2013 NICE guidelines recommend 25-30 ml/kg/day of water, 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium, and chloride, and 50-100 g/day of glucose for maintenance fluids. For an 80 kg patient, this translates to 2 litres of water and 80 mmol potassium for a 24 hour period.
However, the amount of fluid required may vary depending on the patient’s medical history. For example, a post-op patient with significant fluid losses will require more fluids, while a patient with heart failure should receive less to avoid pulmonary edema.
When prescribing for routine maintenance alone, NICE recommends using 25-30 ml/kg/day of sodium chloride 0.18% in 4% glucose with 27 mmol/l potassium on day 1. It is important to note that the electrolyte concentrations of plasma and commonly used fluids vary, and large volumes of 0.9% saline can increase the risk of hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis. Hartmann’s solution contains potassium and should not be used in patients with hyperkalemia.
In summary, following fluid therapy guidelines is crucial for junior doctors to ensure patients receive the appropriate amount of fluids based on their medical history and needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient visits his primary care physician complaining of a recent exacerbation of his chronic cough. He reports experiencing similar episodes in the past, during which his typically yellow sputum becomes thicker and slightly tinged with blood. The patient has a history of hypertension and bronchiectasis, and has received multiple courses of antibiotics for these exacerbations. Upon examination, the patient appears relatively healthy but continues to cough. Crackles are heard upon chest auscultation. Given the patient's medical history and likely diagnosis, the physician decides to obtain a sputum sample. What organism is most likely to be observed upon culturing?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:The most common organism associated with bronchiectasis is Haemophilus influenzae, making it the correct answer for an acute exacerbation of this condition. While Klebsiella pneumonia is also a possibility, it is less frequently seen and typically associated with pneumonia in patients with alcohol dependence. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an incorrect answer, as it is more commonly found in patients with cystic fibrosis than bronchiectasis. Staphylococcus aureus is also less commonly isolated in bronchiectasis, and is more commonly associated with other infective conditions such as infective endocarditis and skin infections, as well as being a secondary bacterial cause of pneumonia following influenzae.
Managing Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency. The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Spacing:
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency.
The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease.
The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 75-year-old man in the respiratory ward is diagnosed with a left-sided pleural effusion after presenting to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. An ultrasound-guided pleural aspiration is performed and the fluid is sent to the lab for analysis. The results show a pleural fluid protein level of 30 g/L (normal value < 10 g/dL) and a pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level of 220 IU/L (normal value <50% plasma concentration). Unfortunately, the serum protein and LDH levels are not available. Based on these findings, what is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:If the level of LDH in an effusion is greater than 2/3rds of the upper limit of LDH in the serum, it indicates an exudate according to Light’s criteria.
Investigating and Managing Pleural Effusion: BTS Guidelines
Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate and manage this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided guidelines.
Imaging is an essential part of the investigation process, and the BTS recommends performing posterioranterior (PA) chest x-rays in all patients. Ultrasound is also recommended as it increases the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and is sensitive for detecting pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is increasingly performed to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions.
Pleural aspiration is another crucial step in the investigation process. The BTS recommends using ultrasound to reduce the complication rate. A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used, and fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. Other characteristic pleural fluid findings include low glucose in rheumatoid arthritis and tuberculosis, raised amylase in pancreatitis and oesophageal perforation, and heavy blood staining in mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, and tuberculosis.
In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should be placed.
For managing recurrent pleural effusion, options include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as opioids to relieve dyspnoea. The BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to investigating and managing pleural effusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 54-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of erectile dysfunction. He reports no recent stressors or changes in his lifestyle or diet. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD), and osteoarthritis. His current medications include gliclazide, indapamide, metformin, omeprazole, and paracetamol. The doctor suspects that one of his medications is responsible for his erectile dysfunction. Which medication is the most likely culprit?
Your Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:Indapamide, a thiazide-like diuretic, is known to cause sexual dysfunction and is the most likely medication responsible for this man’s erectile dysfunction. Gliclazide, metformin, and omeprazole, on the other hand, are not associated with sexual dysfunction. Gliclazide is used to manage diabetes mellitus and can cause gastrointestinal upset and hypoglycemia. Metformin is also used to manage diabetes mellitus and can cause nausea, vomiting, constipation, and rare adverse effects such as B12 deficiency and lactic acidosis. Omeprazole is a proton-pump inhibitor used to control excess stomach acid production and can cause gastrointestinal side-effects and electrolyte disturbances such as hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While loop diuretics are better for reducing overload, thiazide diuretics have a role in the treatment of mild heart failure. Bendroflumethiazide was commonly used for managing hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Like any medication, thiazide diuretics have potential adverse effects. Common side effects include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence are also possible. Rare adverse effects include thrombocytopaenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
To manage hypertension, current NICE guidelines recommend using thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide or chlorthalidone as first-line treatment. If blood pressure is not adequately controlled, a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor can be added. If blood pressure remains high, a thiazide-like diuretic can be combined with a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor. In some cases, a beta-blocker or aldosterone antagonist may also be added. Regular monitoring and adjustment of medication is necessary to ensure optimal blood pressure control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 58-year-old man is discovered to have a prolonged corrected QT interval (QTc) of 480 ms on his pre-operative ECG. The anaesthetist suggests modifying one of his medications before the surgery. Which of the following drugs are recognized to cause QTc prolongation?
Your Answer: Sotalol
Explanation:Sotalol is the only beta blocker known to cause long QT syndrome. Tricyclic antidepressants, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, and haloperidol can also cause QTc prolongation, while benzodiazepines and short-acting beta-receptor agonists are not known to have this effect.
Understanding Long QT Syndrome
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.
LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old male patient for discussion of his recent oral glucose tolerance test. He has a family history of type 2 diabetes and he wanted to be tested for it. He has no symptoms. You inform him that based on the result of his oral glucose tolerance test, he has impaired glucose tolerance. What is the accepted definition of impaired glucose tolerance?
Your Answer: Fasting glucose <7 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) and 2 hour glucose >7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL) but <11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL)
Correct Answer:
Explanation:WHO Recommendations for Diabetes and Intermediate Hyperglycaemia Diagnosis
The World Health Organization (WHO) has established diagnostic criteria for diabetes and intermediate hyperglycaemia. According to the 2006 recommendations, a fasting plasma glucose level of 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) or higher, or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) or higher indicates diabetes. On the other hand, impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is diagnosed when the fasting plasma glucose level is less than 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) and the 2-hour plasma glucose level is between 7.8 and 11.1 mmol/L (140 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL). Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is diagnosed when the fasting plasma glucose level is between 6.1 and 6.9 mmol/L (110 mg/dL to 125 mg/dL) and the 2-hour plasma glucose level is less than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL), if measured.
It is important to note that if the 2-hour plasma glucose level is not measured, the status of the individual is uncertain as diabetes or IGT cannot be excluded. These recommendations serve as a guide for healthcare professionals in diagnosing and managing diabetes and intermediate hyperglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old junior doctor presents to the Emergency department with complaints of a severe headache and neck stiffness. He reports experiencing mild diarrhoea over the past few days and some coryzal symptoms. On examination, his blood pressure is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 85 and regular, and his temperature is 37.8℃. He displays signs consistent with severe meningism, but there are no skin rashes or other signs of vasculitis.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 138 g/L (135-177)
- White cells: 8.9 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet: 183 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 141 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.4 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 92 µmol/L (79-118)
- Lumbar puncture: lymphocytosis, slightly raised protein, normal glucose.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Enterovirus meningitis
Explanation:Enterovirus Meningitis: The Commonest Cause of Viral Meningitis in Adults
Enterovirus meningitis is the most common cause of viral meningitis in adults. The symptoms of a mild diarrhoeal illness and a runny nose, along with the lumbar puncture findings, are consistent with this diagnosis. The management of viral meningitis is conservative, with adequate hydration and analgesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 86-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from his nursing home. He was unable to move around this morning and he developed difficulty in his speech.
Upon examination, he appears alert and distressed. A neurological examination shows 1/5 strength in his left upper limb and 3/5 strength in his left lower limb. The right side of both the upper and lower limb is normal in strength. A sensory examination reveals sensory loss on both the upper and lower limb on the left side. He is unable to see objects on his left side in both eyes.
Based on the symptoms, what is the most likely location of the lesion?Your Answer: Right middle cerebral artery
Explanation:The middle cerebral artery is associated with contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower. It also causes contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.
When a stroke occurs, the location of the lesion in the brain can determine the specific effects on the body. Depending on which artery is affected, different symptoms may arise. For example, a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery can lead to contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a stroke in the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.
If the stroke occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, the individual may experience contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. In the case of Weber’s syndrome, which involves branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain, the person may have an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremities.
Other types of strokes include those affecting the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, which can lead to ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss and contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, as well as ataxia and nystagmus. A stroke in the anterior inferior cerebellar artery can cause similar symptoms to Wallenberg’s syndrome, but with the addition of ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness.
Finally, lacunar strokes are small, localized strokes that often occur in individuals with hypertension. They typically present with isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia, and commonly affect the basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male has presented to the GP diabetic clinic for a medication and blood result review. He has been well-controlled on metformin 1g twice-a-day for his type 2 diabetes. However, his recent HbA1c result is 60 mmol/mol. The patient has a history of heart failure and the GP emphasizes the significance of lifestyle and dietary advice.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Increase dose of metformin
Correct Answer: Prescribe DPP-4 inhibitor
Explanation:If the HbA1c level in type 2 diabetes mellitus is above 58 mmol/mol, a second drug should be added.
When a patient’s HbA1c result indicates poor glucose control, it may be due to various factors such as tolerance, adherence, or lifestyle issues. In such cases, the next step is to prescribe a second medication, which could be a DPP-4 inhibitor, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor, based on the patient’s needs and after weighing the risks and benefits of each option.
The standard dose of metformin is 500g daily, which can be increased up to a maximum of 2g daily, divided into separate doses. However, if the patient is already on 2g, the dose cannot be increased further. Thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone are not recommended for patients with heart failure and are rarely used as first or second-line therapies.
Since the patient’s HbA1c levels exceed 58 mmol/mol, an additional intervention is necessary, along with reinforcing lifestyle and dietary advice. Insulin is typically reserved for patients who do not respond to double or triple therapy.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20 mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, pleuritic chest pain that worsens on inspiration. She also experiences shortness of breath. She has no significant medical history or family history. Upon examination, she appears dyspnoeic, and a positive D-dimer test leads to a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, confirmed by a subsequent CT pulmonary angiogram. There is no clear cause for the embolism. As a result, she is started on anticoagulation therapy. How long should this treatment continue?
Your Answer: Lifelong
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:The typical duration of treatment for unprovoked pulmonary embolisms is 6 months, with first-line treatment now being direct oral anticoagulants. Patients are usually reviewed after 3 months, and if no cause was found, treatment is continued for a further 3 months. 3 months would be appropriate for provoked embolisms, but as there was no clear cause in this case, 6 months is more appropriate. 4 months is not a standard duration of treatment, and 12 months is not usual either, although the doctor may decide to extend treatment after review. In some cases, lifelong anticoagulation may be recommended if an underlying prothrombotic condition is found, but for this patient, 6 months is appropriate.
Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.
Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.
In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.
Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with his son. The son reports that his father's memory has been declining for the past 8 months and he has been experiencing fluctuations in attention and consciousness. The patient has also reported seeing dogs and children running around in his living room. The patient has a medical history of resting tremors, rigidity, and shuffling gait for the past 10 years. However, there is no history of mood swings or urinary or bowel incontinence. On examination, there are no postural changes in his blood pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Parkinson's disease dementia
Explanation:Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) and Parkinson’s disease dementia (PDD) share similar features such as tremors, rigidity, postural instability, fluctuating cognition, and hallucinations. However, they can be differentiated based on the time of onset of dementia compared to motor symptoms. PDD is diagnosed if a patient had a Parkinson’s disease diagnosis for at least 1 year before the emergence of dementia. In contrast, DLB would have dementia occurring first followed by motor symptoms. This patient has had 8 years of preceding motor symptoms before the onset of dementia, making PDD more likely. It is important to distinguish between the two as their management varies significantly. Levodopa is the mainstay of treatment in PDD, whereas rivastigmine is the drug of choice in DLB. Treating this patient as DLB may miss out on important elements of treatment needed in patients with PDD. Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and multiple system atrophy are not likely diagnoses in this case as they have different clinical features.
Understanding Lewy Body Dementia
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.
Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient presents with central chest pain and is diagnosed with non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. Aspirin and fondaparinux are administered. What is the mode of action of fondaparinux?
Your Answer: Activates antithrombin III
Explanation:Fondaparinux operates in a comparable manner to low-molecular weight heparin.
Parenteral Anticoagulation: Fondaparinux and Direct Thrombin Inhibitors
Parenteral anticoagulants are used to prevent venous thromboembolism and manage acute coronary syndrome. While unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin are commonly used, fondaparinux and direct thrombin inhibitors are also effective options. Fondaparinux activates antithrombin III, which enhances the inhibition of coagulation factors Xa. It is administered subcutaneously. On the other hand, direct thrombin inhibitors like bivalirudin are typically given intravenously. Dabigatran is a type of direct thrombin inhibitor that can be taken orally and is classified as a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC).
Overall, these parenteral anticoagulants are essential in preventing and managing blood clots. Fondaparinux and direct thrombin inhibitors work by targeting specific factors in the coagulation cascade, making them effective options for patients who cannot tolerate other anticoagulants. It is important to note that these medications require careful monitoring and dosing adjustments to prevent bleeding complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (CKD) visits his doctor for routine blood tests. The following results are obtained:
Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 135 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 6.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 130 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 6.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 11.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 186 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Calcium 1.2 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 4.5 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Question: Which of the above results indicates a chronic disease course in this patient, rather than an acute one?Your Answer: Calcium
Explanation:Distinguishing between Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
One of the most effective ways to differentiate between acute kidney injury (AKI) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) is through the use of renal ultrasound. In most cases, patients with CKD will have small kidneys that are bilateral. However, there are some exceptions to this rule, including individuals with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, diabetic nephropathy in its early stages, amyloidosis, and HIV-associated nephropathy.
In addition to renal ultrasound, there are other features that can suggest CKD rather than AKI. For example, individuals with CKD may experience hypocalcaemia due to a lack of vitamin D. By identifying these distinguishing factors, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with kidney disease. Proper diagnosis is crucial, as the treatment and management of AKI and CKD differ significantly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of sharp chest pain on the left side and difficulty breathing. He has a medical history of COPD and uses a salbutamol inhaler. Upon examination, there is decreased chest expansion and breath sounds on the left side, as well as hyper-resonance on percussion. A chest x-ray reveals a 2.1 cm left-sided pneumothorax at the lung hilum. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Needle aspiration with a 16G cannula
Correct Answer: Chest drain
Explanation:For a patient with a history of COPD, a pneumothorax is classified as secondary. If the pneumothorax is greater than 2 cm or the patient is experiencing shortness of breath, the recommended first-line treatment is a chest drain, not aspiration. However, if the pneumothorax is primary and greater than 2 cm or the patient is breathless, or if the secondary pneumothorax is between 1-2 cm, needle aspiration may be indicated. If a patient is admitted for observation, they may receive high flow oxygen unless they are oxygen sensitive. Admission for observation is recommended for a secondary pneumothorax measuring less than 1 cm or a secondary pneumothorax measuring 1-2 cm that is aspirated and subsequently measures less than 1 cm. A primary pneumothorax measuring less than 2 cm may be considered for discharge.
Management of Pneumothorax: BTS Guidelines
Pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) has published updated guidelines for the management of spontaneous pneumothorax, which can be primary or secondary. Primary pneumothorax occurs without any underlying lung disease, while secondary pneumothorax is associated with lung disease.
The BTS guidelines recommend that patients with a rim of air less than 2 cm and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with a larger rim of air or shortness of breath should undergo aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, patients over 50 years old with a rim of air greater than 2 cm or shortness of breath should undergo chest drain insertion. Aspiration may be attempted for those with a rim of air between 1-2 cm, but chest drain insertion is necessary if aspiration fails.
For iatrogenic pneumothorax, observation is usually sufficient, but chest drain insertion may be necessary in some cases. Ventilated patients and those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) may require chest drain insertion. If a patient has persistent or recurrent pneumothorax, video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) may be necessary.
Patients should be advised to avoid smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes. Fitness to fly is an absolute contraindication, but patients may travel 1 week after successful drainage if there is no residual air. Scuba diving should be permanently avoided unless the patient has undergone bilateral surgical pleurectomy and has normal lung function and chest CT scan postoperatively.
Overall, the BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the management of pneumothorax, taking into account the type of pneumothorax, patient characteristics, and potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 55-year-old man of black African origin presents to his GP for a review of his home blood pressure monitoring diary. The diary shows an average blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while his clinic reading today is 145/92 mmHg. The patient has a medical history of type two diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and takes metformin. He has no allergies and is not on any other medications. What is the best course of action for managing his blood pressure?
Your Answer: Prescribe losartan
Explanation:For black TD2M patients diagnosed with hypertension, the first-line antihypertensive should be an angiotensin II receptor blocker, such as Losartan. This is because ARBs are more effective at reducing blood pressure in black African or African-Caribbean patients with diabetes compared to ACE inhibitors. Amlodipine, bendroflumethiazide, and doxazosin are not recommended as first-line antihypertensives for this patient population. Thiazide-like diuretics are only used if blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite treatment with an ACE inhibitor or ARB and a calcium-channel blocker. Alpha-blockers are not used unless blood pressure is not controlled with multiple antihypertensive medications.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20 mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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What is the process by which inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) work?
Your Answer: Hyperpolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane following neurotransmitter binding
Explanation:Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials (IPSPs)
Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) are electrical charges generated in response to synaptic input that prevent the generation of additional action potentials in the postsynaptic neuron. This potential is generated after the postsynaptic action potential has fired, causing the membrane potential to become more negative, similar to the refractory period in the action potential sequence of events. IPSPs can be produced by the opening of chemical-gated potassium channels or GABA receptor chloride channels. The end result is a push of the membrane potential to a more negative charge, decreasing the likelihood of additional stimuli depolarizing it.
IPSPs are the opposite of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs), which promote the generation of additional postsynaptic action potentials. It is important to note that only hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane following neurotransmitter binding is correct. The other options are physiologically nonsensical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and develops acute kidney injury (AKI) on the third day of admission. His eGFR drops from 58 to 26 ml/min/1.73 m2 and creatinine rises from 122 to 196 umol/L. Which of his usual medications should be discontinued?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a sudden decrease in kidney function, which can be defined by a decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or a decrease in urine output. AKI can be caused by various factors such as prerenal, renal, or postrenal causes. Medications can also cause AKI, and caution should be taken when prescribing ACE inhibitors to patients with declining renal function. In the event of an AKI, certain medications such as ACE inhibitors, A2RBs, NSAIDs, diuretics, aminoglycosides, metformin, and lithium should be temporarily discontinued. Atorvastatin and bisoprolol are safe to prescribe in patients with kidney disease, while finasteride and tamsulosin can be prescribed for benign prostatic hyperplasia but should be used with caution in patients with poor renal function.
Understanding Acute Kidney Injury: A Basic Overview
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where the kidneys experience a reduction in function due to an insult. In the past, the kidneys were often neglected in acute medicine, resulting in slow recognition and limited action. However, around 15% of patients admitted to the hospital develop AKI. While most patients recover their renal function, some may have long-term impaired kidney function due to AKI, which can result in acute complications, including death. Identifying patients at increased risk of AKI is crucial in reducing its incidence. Risk factors for AKI include chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, and the use of drugs with nephrotoxic potential.
AKI has three main causes: prerenal, intrinsic, and postrenal. Prerenal causes are due to a lack of blood flow to the kidneys, while intrinsic causes relate to intrinsic damage to the kidneys themselves. Postrenal causes occur when there is an obstruction to the urine coming from the kidneys. Symptoms of AKI include reduced urine output, fluid overload, arrhythmias, and features of uraemia. Diagnosis of AKI is made through blood tests, urinalysis, and imaging.
The management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review being crucial. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Prompt review by a urologist is required for patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction, while specialist input from a nephrologist is necessary for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male with a past of chronic alcohol abuse comes in with a two-day history of worsening confusion. During the examination, he appears drowsy, has a temperature of 39°C, a pulse of 110 beats per minute, and a small amount of ascites. The CNS examination reveals a left-sided hemiparesis with an upward left plantar response. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cerebrovascular accident
Correct Answer: Cerebral abscess
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for a Man with Chronic Alcohol Abuse
This man, who has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, is exhibiting symptoms of a fever and left-sided hemiparesis. The most probable diagnosis for this individual would be cerebral abscess. It is unlikely that a subdural hematoma or a simple cerebrovascular accident (CVA) would explain the fever, nor would they be associated with hemiparesis. Delirium tremens or encephalopathy would not be linked to the hemiparesis either. Therefore, cerebral abscess is the most likely diagnosis for this man with chronic alcohol abuse who is experiencing a fever and left-sided hemiparesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of fever, headache, and neck stiffness. She has no significant past medical history and no allergies.
Her vital signs are currently stable, and there are no visible rashes on examination. The patient is fully alert and oriented with a GCS of 15/15.
After consulting with a senior physician, it is determined that a lumbar puncture is necessary. However, due to departmental constraints, it is unlikely that the procedure can be performed within the next hour.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone immediately
Explanation:When patients are suspected of having viral meningitis, doctors often prescribe antibiotics as a precaution until the results of a lumbar puncture are available. This is especially true for elderly patients or those with weakened immune systems. If a young patient presents with symptoms such as fever, headache, and neck stiffness, doctors may perform tests like Kernig’s or Brudzinski’s signs to help diagnose the condition. However, because bacterial meningitis can be very dangerous, doctors may start treatment before a definitive diagnosis is made. Even if the likelihood of bacterial meningitis is low, delaying treatment could have serious consequences for the patient. Viral meningitis is more common and less severe than bacterial meningitis, but it can be difficult to distinguish between the two based on symptoms alone. Therefore, doctors may prescribe antibiotics as a precaution if a lumbar puncture cannot be performed within an hour. In this case, intravenous ceftriaxone would be the appropriate treatment. IV fluconazole is used to treat severe fungal infections, but it is unlikely to be necessary in an otherwise healthy patient. IV amoxicillin is typically reserved for patients who are immunocompromised, under 6 months old, or over 60 years old, as it can help protect against Listeria monocytogenes.
Understanding Viral Meningitis
Viral meningitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the leptomeninges and cerebrospinal fluid in the subarachnoid space caused by a viral agent. It is a more common and less severe condition compared to bacterial meningitis. Although approximately 3,000 cases of confirmed viral meningitis are reported yearly, the actual number of cases is likely to be much higher as patients often do not seek medical attention.
The causes of viral meningitis include non-polio enteroviruses such as coxsackievirus and echovirus, mumps, herpes simplex virus (HSV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes zoster viruses, HIV, and measles. Patients at the extremes of age, immunocompromised patients, and intravenous drug users are at higher risk of developing viral meningitis.
Common symptoms of viral meningitis include headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, confusion, and fever. Focal neurological deficits on examination and seizures suggest a meningoencephalitis. A lumbar puncture is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and cerebrospinal fluid findings in viral meningitis include lymphocyte-predominant cell differential, glucose levels of 2.8 – 4.2 mmol/L or 2/3 paired serum glucose mmol/L, and protein levels of 0.5 – 1 g/dL.
Management of viral meningitis involves supportive treatment while awaiting the results of the lumbar puncture. If there is any suspicion of bacterial meningitis or encephalitis, broad-spectrum antibiotics with CNS penetration such as ceftriaxone and acyclovir intravenously should be administered. Generally, viral meningitis is self-limiting, and symptoms improve over the course of 7 – 14 days. acyclovir may be used if the patient is suspected of having meningitis secondary to HSV. Complications are rare in immunocompetent patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 70-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of leg pains. He has been suffering from diabetic neuropathy in both legs for the last 6 years and has tried various medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, and gabapentin. He inquires if there are any additional measures that can be taken to alleviate his pain in the long run. What would be the most suitable answer?
Your Answer: Refer him to the pain management clinic
Explanation:In cases of resistant diabetic neuropathy, pain management clinics may be considered for the management of pain. If a patient has already tried common medications for neuropathic pain and has almost reached the limit of care, referral to a pain management clinic is the most appropriate step. NICE recommends referral for patients with severe or worsening pain, or those whose pain impairs their daily life. Cannabis sativa extract and morphine are not typically used for neuropathic pain unless recommended by a specialist. Tramadol may be used for breakthrough pain in the acute setting, but is not suitable for long-term management of neuropathic pain. Advising a patient to improve their diabetic control will not necessarily improve their current pain, but may limit further neuropathy from occurring.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent symptoms three weeks after a flare of ulcerative colitis. Despite daily use of topical mesalazine, he reports passing stool with a small amount of blood up to three times daily. His vital signs are within normal limits, and blood tests reveal elevated WBC and ESR levels. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Add oral budesonide, continue topical mesalazine
Correct Answer: Add oral mesalazine, continue topical mesalazine
Explanation:If a patient with distal ulcerative colitis experiences a mild-moderate flare that does not respond to topical aminosalicylates, oral aminosalicylates should be added as an adjunct therapy. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are typical of a mild flare according to Truelove and Witt’s criteria. As his symptoms are not improving with topical treatment, oral mesalazine should be added while continuing the topical mesalazine. Oral steroids are not currently indicated for this patient’s mild flare. It is important to continue the topical therapy alongside the oral therapy for optimal management. If symptoms do not improve within two weeks, the patient should schedule a follow-up appointment.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 75-year-old man has been experiencing abdominal discomfort and distension for the past two days. He has not had a bowel movement in a week and has not passed gas in two days. He seems sluggish and has a temperature of 35.5°C. His pulse is 56 BPM, and his abdomen is not tender. An X-ray of his abdomen reveals enlarged loops of both small and large bowel. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pseudo-obstruction
Explanation:Pseudo-Obstruction and its Causes
Pseudo-obstruction is a condition that can be caused by various factors, including hypothyroidism, hypokalaemia, diabetes, uraemia, and hypocalcaemia. In the case of hypothyroidism, the slowness and hypothermia of the patient suggest that this may be the underlying cause of the pseudo-obstruction. However, other factors should also be considered.
It is important to note that pseudo-obstruction is a condition that affects the digestive system, specifically the intestines. It is characterized by symptoms that mimic those of a bowel obstruction, such as abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. However, unlike a true bowel obstruction, there is no physical blockage in the intestines.
To diagnose pseudo-obstruction, doctors may perform various tests, including X-rays, CT scans, and blood tests. Treatment options may include medications to stimulate the intestines, changes in diet, and surgery in severe cases.
Overall, it is important to identify the underlying cause of pseudo-obstruction in order to provide appropriate treatment and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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Samantha is a 52-year-old female who visits her doctor with complaints of dysuria and increased urinary frequency for the past day. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking candesartan and spironolactone. During her teenage years, she had two simple urinary tract infections. Upon examination, a urinary dipstick reveals leukocytes ++, nitrites ++ and microscopic haematuria. The doctor diagnoses her with a urinary tract infection and prescribes trimethoprim 200mg BD for three days.
After three days, Samantha returns to the clinic with improved urinary tract infection symptoms but complains of decreased urine output, nausea, and swelling in both legs. To investigate further, the doctor orders a full blood count and renal function bloods. What electrolyte disturbances might be expected to be found on Samantha's bloods?Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Trimethoprim can lead to tubular dysfunction, which can result in hyperkalemia and an increase in serum creatinine levels.
This statement is accurate, as trimethoprim can block the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a type 4 hyperkalemic distal renal tubular acidosis. In this patient’s case, the use of trimethoprim, along with her regular medications, has caused acute kidney injury. It is important to avoid using trimethoprim in patients taking renin angiotensin antagonist drugs or potassium-sparing diuretics, or to monitor renal function closely.
However, the statement that hypercalcemia is a common occurrence in acute kidney injury is incorrect. Hypocalcemia is more commonly seen in this condition. Similarly, hypernatremia is not a common finding in acute kidney injury, as hyponatremia is more frequently observed. On the other hand, hyperphosphatemia is a common occurrence in acute kidney injury due to phosphate retention.
Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy
Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This can potentially interact with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim can also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug can competitively inhibit the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the drug. Additionally, trimethoprim can block the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It can also inhibit creatinine secretion, often leading to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.
When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. As such, manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of using this antibiotic and to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnea. A chest x-ray is performed, and pleural fluid is aspirated for analysis. The pleural fluid results reveal:
- Fluid Protein 58 g/L (normal range: 10-20g/L)
- Fluid LDH 1048 IU/L (less than 50% of plasma concentration)
- Fluid Glucose 1.2 mmol/L (normal range: 4-11 mmol/L)
- Fluid pH 7.23 (normal range: 7.60-7.64)
- Cell Cytology shows normal cytology with benign reactive changes
His admission blood results are as follows:
- Hb 145 g/L (normal range: 135-180)
- Platelets 376 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
- Total Protein 73 g/L (normal range: 60-83)
- PT 11.2 s (normal range: 11-13.5)
- LDH 145 IU/L (normal range: 135-225)
- Glucose 5.8 mmol/L (normal range: 4-8)
- pH 7.38 (normal range: 7.35-7.45)
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Insert a chest drain and commence antibiotic therapy
Explanation:Prompt drainage alongside antibiotic therapy is necessary for the management of an empyema. Therefore, the correct course of action is to insert a chest drain and commence antibiotic therapy. The diagnosis of empyema can be confirmed using Light’s criteria, which indicates an exudative effusion with a pleural fluid protein to serum protein ratio greater than 0.5 and/or a pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH ratio greater than 0.6. A pleural fluid pH <7.3 and a very low pleural glucose concentration (<1.6 mmol/L) are also indicative of empyema. The normal cell cytology makes malignancy unlikely. The patient's platelet and PT levels are appropriate for chest drain insertion, so there is no need to refer for investigation under the oncology team or to gastroenterology to investigate for liver cirrhosis. Starting IV antibiotics alone is insufficient for managing an empyema, as prompt drainage is necessary to give antibiotics the best chance of success. A chest drain is a tube that is inserted into the pleural cavity to allow air or liquid to move out of the cavity. It is used in cases of pleural effusion, pneumothorax, empyema, haemothorax, haemopneumothorax, chylothorax, and some cases of penetrating chest wall injury in ventilated patients. However, there are relative contraindications to chest drain insertion, such as an INR greater than 1.3, a platelet count less than 75, pulmonary bullae, and pleural adhesions. The patient should be positioned in a supine position or at a 45º angle, and the area should be anaesthetised using local anaesthetic injection. The drainage tube is then inserted using a Seldinger technique and secured with either a straight stitch or an adhesive dressing. Complications that may occur include failure of insertion, bleeding, infection, penetration of the lung, and re-expansion pulmonary oedema. The chest drain should be removed when there has been no output for > 24 hours and imaging shows resolution of the fluid collection or pneumothorax. Drains inserted in cases of penetrating chest injury should be reviewed by the specialist to confirm an appropriate time for removal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a regular diabetes check-up. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, iron-deficiency anaemia, splenectomy, depression, and chronic kidney disease stage 5, which requires haemodialysis. He is currently taking ferrous sulphate, metformin, citalopram, and amoxicillin. The HBA1c result shows 38 mmol/mol, but the GP suspects that this reading may be inaccurate. What could be the possible reasons for this?
Your Answer: Haemodialysis
Explanation:Haemodialysis, sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and hereditary spherocytosis are conditions that can cause premature red blood cell death, leading to invalid results when measuring HbA1c levels. HbA1c is a form of haemoglobin that indicates the three-month average blood sugar level. Haemodialysis, in particular, can result in lower-than-expected HbA1c levels due to its reduction of red blood cell lifespan. Amoxicillin and citalopram are not known to affect HbA1c levels, while drugs like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can increase erythrocyte destruction and cause inappropriately low HbA1c levels. Iron-deficiency anaemia, on the other hand, can cause higher-than-expected HbA1c levels, making it crucial to treat the condition to accurately track diabetic control.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.
The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, we can calculate the average plasma glucose level by multiplying HbA1c by 2 and subtracting 4.5. Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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A 25-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of painful urination and a discharge from the tip of his penis for the past week. He denies having any fever, abdominal pain, joint pain, or blood in his urine. He is sexually active and has had intercourse with three different women in the last two months. On examination, there are no abnormalities noted in his genital area. What is the most suitable investigation for the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nucleic acid amplification tests on first-catch urine sample
Explanation:Chlamydia trachomatis infection is a common cause of non-specific urethritis, which presents with dysuria and urethral discharge.
The most probable diagnosis in this case is chlamydia, which may also be accompanied by gonorrhea infection. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are used to diagnose chlamydia, and both urethral swab and first-catch urine samples can be used for this purpose. However, first-catch urine is preferred as it is less invasive and equally sensitive as a urethral swab.
While midstream urinalysis is appropriate for diagnosing urinary tract infections, the absence of haematuria or abdominal pain and the presence of urethral discharge make it less likely than chlamydia infection. Collecting discharge for microscopy and culture may be helpful in diagnosing bacterial vaginosis.
Full blood count and liver function tests are not useful in diagnosing chlamydia. However, in female patients with advanced chlamydia who have developed pelvic inflammatory disease, these tests may be crucial in diagnosing Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome.
Understanding Urethritis in Men
Urethritis is a condition that primarily affects men and is characterized by dysuria and/or urethral discharge. However, it can also be asymptomatic in some cases. The condition is traditionally divided into two types: gonococcal and non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU), which is now referred to as non-specific urethritis (NSU). The most common causes of NSU are Chlamydia trachomatis, Ureaplasma urealyticum, and Mycoplasma genitalium.
To diagnose NSU, a urethral swab is taken and Gram stained to check for the presence of leukocytes and Gram-negative diplococci. Chlamydia is now increasingly diagnosed using urinary nucleic acid amplification tests. If left untreated, NSU can lead to complications such as epididymitis, subfertility, and reactive arthritis.
The management of NSU involves either a seven-day course of oral doxycycline or a single dose of oral azithromycin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is currently admitted to the antenatal ward after giving birth 5 hours ago. She experienced antepartum haemorrhage during labour and lost approximately 1200 ml of blood. Upon arrival at the ward, she complained of feeling weak, prompting a blood test to check for anaemia. The results are as follows:
- Hb 66 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
- Platelets 302 * 109/L (150-400)
- WBC 9.4 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
The patient has no significant medical history, is not taking any regular medications, and has not received any blood transfusions in the past. Based on these results, should the patient be given a transfusion of packed red blood cells? What is the transfusion threshold for this patient?Your Answer: Yes - transfusion threshold is 70 g/L
Explanation:According to the 2015 NICE guidance, patients without acute coronary syndrome should receive a packed red blood cell transfusion if their Hb level falls below 70 g/L. As the patient’s Hb level is 66 g/L, she should receive a transfusion. The transfusion threshold is not 50 g/L, 65 g/L, 80 g/L, or 100 g/L.
Guidelines for Red Blood Cell Transfusion
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for the use of blood products, specifically red blood cells. These guidelines recommend different transfusion thresholds for patients with and without acute coronary syndrome (ACS). For patients without ACS, the transfusion threshold is 70 g/L, while for those with ACS, it is 80 g/L. The target hemoglobin level after transfusion is 70-90 g/L for patients without ACS and 80-100 g/L for those with ACS. It is important to note that these thresholds should not be used for patients with ongoing major hemorrhage or those who require regular blood transfusions for chronic anemia.
When administering red blood cells, it is crucial to store them at 4°C prior to infusion. In non-urgent scenarios, a unit of RBC is typically transfused over a period of 90-120 minutes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that red blood cell transfusions are administered safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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A 45-year-old man has been referred to the hepatology clinic by his GP due to concerns of developing chronic liver disease. The patient reports feeling increasingly fatigued over the past few years, which he attributes to poor sleep and low libido causing relationship problems with his partner. During examination, the hepatologist notes the presence of gynaecomastia, palmar erythema, and grey skin pigmentation. Blood tests are ordered to investigate the underlying cause.
The following results were obtained:
Bilirubin: 18 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP: 110 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT: 220 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT: 90 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin: 37 g/L (35 - 50)
Ferritin: 1,250 ng/mL (20 - 230)
What is the initial treatment that should be offered to this patient?Your Answer: Venesection
Explanation:Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.
The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to the clinic with 4 unprovoked episodes of rapid bilateral upper and lower limb muscle contraction and relaxation lasting approximately 15 seconds before stopping. He reports falling to the ground during these episodes but denies any loss of consciousness and is able to resume his activities afterward. Upon taking a collateral history, it is determined that there is no incontinence or tongue biting. There is no history of head injury. What is the most probable treatment for this patient's diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:For males with myoclonic seizures, sodium valproate is the recommended first-line treatment. This patient is experiencing clonus, which is the contracting and relaxing of both upper and lower limbs. Myoclonic epilepsy is the likely diagnosis as there are no signs of loss of consciousness, incontinence, tongue-biting, or postictal fatigue. Sodium valproate is the correct choice as it has been proven effective for this use through high-quality evidence. However, it is contraindicated for women of childbearing potential due to its teratogenic effects. Ethosuximide is not appropriate as it is used for absence seizures, which are characterized by staring blankly and being unresponsive, and typically occur in children aged 3-10 years. Lamotrigine is a third-line treatment option for myoclonic seizures in men, and levetiracetam is the second-line option for men and the first-line option for women of childbearing potential. In this case, it is best to try the first-line option of sodium valproate as the patient has not yet received any treatment and is male. If sodium valproate is unsuccessful, then levetiracetam may be considered.
Treatment for Epilepsy
Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The condition is characterized by recurrent seizures, which can be debilitating and life-threatening. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures and improve quality of life.
According to NICE guidelines, AEDs should be started after the second epileptic seizure. However, if a patient has a neurological deficit, brain imaging shows a structural abnormality, the EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity, or the patient or their family considers the risk of having a further seizure unacceptable, AEDs may be started after the first seizure. It is important to note that sodium valproate should not be used during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age unless clearly necessary due to the risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children.
The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, lamotrigine or levetiracetam are the first-line treatments, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine.
In summary, treatment for epilepsy involves the use of AEDs to control seizures and improve quality of life. The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy, and sodium valproate should be used with caution in women of childbearing age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 30
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A 32-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with symptoms of fever and headache after returning from a trip to central America. He has no significant medical history or regular medications. Upon investigation, he is diagnosed with Plasmodium vivax and completes a course of acute treatment without adverse effects. It is confirmed that he has no allergies. What is the appropriate treatment to initiate at this point?
Your Answer: Primaquine
Explanation:Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment
Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome, and Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.
The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is observed in Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae has a cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage, which may cause relapse following treatment.
In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. However, in areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. Pregnant women should avoid ACTs. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.
Overall, non-falciparum malaria has distinct causes, features, and treatment options that should be considered for effective management.
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- Medicine
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