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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP clinic urgently seeking advice as she had...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP clinic urgently seeking advice as she had unprotected sex last night. She has recently started taking the combined oral contraceptive pill but missed two pills because she forgot to bring them along while on vacation. She is currently in the first week of a new pack. What steps should her GP take now?

      Your Answer: Advise her to take an extra pill today, no extra precautions needed

      Correct Answer: Advise her to take an extra pill today, use barrier contraception for the next 7 days and prescribe emergency contraception

      Explanation:

      If a patient misses 2 pills in the first week of their combined oral contraceptive pill pack and has had unprotected sex during the pill-free interval or week 1, emergency contraception should be considered. The patient should take the missed pills as soon as possible and use condoms for the next 7 days. For patients who have only missed 1 pill, they should take it as soon as possible without needing extra precautions. If extra barrier contraception is needed for patients on the combined oral contraceptive pill, it should be used for at least 7 days. Patients on the progesterone-only pill only need barrier contraception for 2 days. Missing 1 pill at any time throughout a pack or starting a new pack 1 day late generally does not affect protection against pregnancy. Taking more than 2 contraceptive pills in a day is not recommended as it does not provide extra contraceptive effects and may cause side effects.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 1-year history of amenorrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 1-year history of amenorrhoea and a milky discharge from both breasts. She is not taking any medications and a pregnancy test is negative. What is the next recommended test?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      The patient’s amenorrhea and galactorrhea are caused by hyperprolactinemia, which requires initial management to exclude hypothyroidism, chronic renal failure, and pregnancy as underlying causes. A CT scan is not necessary in this scenario. However, after excluding primary hypothyroidism and chronic renal failure, formal visual field testing can be done to investigate potential changes in keeping with a pituitary adenoma. An MRI head can also be done to look for a pituitary adenoma. Although a mammogram is not relevant in this case, the patient should still undergo breast screening. If the discharge were bloody, a mammogram would be necessary to rule out breast carcinoma.

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  • Question 3 - A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of occasional vaginal bleeding. She reports...

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    • A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of occasional vaginal bleeding. She reports that her last menstrual cycle was 22 months ago. She denies experiencing any discomfort, painful urination, or changes in bowel movements, and notes that these episodes only occur after sexual intercourse. The patient has been regularly screened for cervical cancer.
      During an abdominal and pelvic examination, no abnormalities are detected. The patient is promptly referred to a specialist for further evaluation, and test results are pending.
      What is the primary reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is the cause of PMB in a minority of patients, with vaginal atrophy being the most common cause. Approximately 90% of patients with PMB do not have endometrial cancer.

      Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding

      Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.

      To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.

      Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.

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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP and reports experiencing postcoital bleeding for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP and reports experiencing postcoital bleeding for the past three months. She denies any pain during intercourse and has not noticed any abnormal vaginal discharge except for the bleeding. She continues to have regular menstrual cycles. What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Uterine fibroids

      Correct Answer: Cervical polyps

      Explanation:

      Postcoital Bleeding

      Postcoital bleeding is a condition that occurs when there is trauma to superficial lesions within the vaginal tract. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including cervical trauma, cervical polyps, endometrial and cervical carcinoma, cervicitis, and vaginitis. In some cases, invasive cervical carcinoma may be found in those who are referred to the hospital, accounting for 3.8% of cases.

      Vaginitis is also a possibility, but it is more common in elderly patients with low estrogen levels. On the other hand, salpingo-oophoritis, which is usually caused by pelvic inflammatory disease from sexually transmitted infections, typically presents with deep dyspareunia and purulent vaginal discharge. However, post-coital bleeding is highly unlikely to be caused by salpingo-oophoritis.

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  • Question 5 - A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her doctor seeking advice on...

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    • A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her doctor seeking advice on contraceptive options post-childbirth. She expresses interest in the contraceptive implant after a thorough discussion. The patient has no medical issues and does not intend to breastfeed. When can she start this treatment?

      Your Answer: Immediately following childbirth

      Explanation:

      It is safe to insert a contraceptive implant after childbirth. The manufacturer of the most commonly used implant in the UK, Nexplanon®, recommends waiting at least 4 weeks postpartum for breastfeeding women. While there is no evidence of harm to the mother or baby, it is not recommended to insert an implant during pregnancy due to potential complications. It may take some time for fertility to return after pregnancy.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 19-year-old female patient visits her doctor urgently seeking emergency contraception after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female patient visits her doctor urgently seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 80 hours ago. She is currently on day 20 of her menstrual cycle. The doctor discovers that the patient was previously prescribed ellaOne (ulipristal acetate) for a similar situation just 10 days ago. What would be an appropriate emergency contraception method for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ellaOne (ulipristal acetate) pill

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old female visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She has recently started a new relationship after a divorce and wishes to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her BMI is 32 kg/m², and she is an ex-smoker, having quit two years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day. During her teenage years, she experienced frequent migraines without aura, and she has a medical history of factor V Leiden disease and gestational hypertension during her 2-year-old daughter's pregnancy. What is the most significant contraindication to the combined oral contraceptive based on her medical history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden

      Explanation:

      The combined oral contraceptive has only one absolute contraindication in a patient’s history, which is factor V Leiden (a UKMEC 4 level indicating an unacceptable health risk). Other elements of the patient’s history fall into UKMEC 3, where the disadvantages generally outweigh the benefits. However, it is important to note that some concurrent UKMEC 3 contraindications may become absolute contraindications when combined. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully study guidelines before prescribing.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea attends the clinic with her mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea attends the clinic with her mother. She tells you that her mother has had a hysterectomy to treat menorrhagia, which found growths in the uterus. She is worried that the condition is hereditary, how this will affect her fertility and whether she is at risk of cancer.
      Which of the following is most suitable for a definitive diagnosis of the condition described in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Fibroids: Ultrasound vs CT Scan vs MRI

      Fibroids, or leiomyomatas, are common tumours of smooth muscle origin found in the uterus and cervix. They can cause symptoms such as heavy periods, dysmenorrhoea, and lower abdominal pain. Risk factors include Afro-Caribbean origin, obesity, nulliparity, and family history. Clinical examination may reveal a palpable abdominal mass or a uterus palpable on bimanual examination, but ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool. CT scans are reserved for complex cases, while MRI is used for localisation and characterisation of fibroids. A full blood count is also important to diagnose and treat anaemia associated with heavy periods.

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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. She had an appendicectomy 10 years ago. She denies any recent per-vaginal (PV) bleeding and her last menstrual period was six weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right iliac fossa. She also complains of right shoulder tip pain.
      Observations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Heart rate 110 beats per minute 60–100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg <120/<80 mmHg
      Respiratory rate (RR) 16 breaths per minute 12–20 breaths per minute
      O2 saturation 98% 94–99%
      Temperature 37.2°C 36.5–37.5°C
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured ectopic

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Severe Iliac Fossa Pain in Reproductive-Age Women

      Severe, sudden-onset pain in the right or left iliac fossa is a common symptom of ectopic pregnancy in reproductive-age women. This pain may be accompanied by vaginal bleeding, shoulder tip pain, syncopal episodes, and shock. To rule out pregnancy, a urinary beta human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone (b-HCG) test should be performed, followed by a transvaginal ultrasound scan to confirm the diagnosis.

      Ovarian torsion may also cause iliac fossa pain, but it is unlikely to cause referred shoulder pain. Appendicitis is not a consideration in this scenario, as the patient does not have an appendix. Irritable bowel syndrome and inflammatory bowel disease are also unlikely diagnoses, as the patient’s tachycardia and right iliac fossa tenderness and guarding are not consistent with these conditions. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to differentiate between these potential causes of severe iliac fossa pain in reproductive-age women.

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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old female presents with an ectopic pregnancy and requires surgical intervention. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with an ectopic pregnancy and requires surgical intervention. During laparoscopy, what is the most common location for the ectopic pregnancy to be found?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      The most frequent location for ectopic pregnancy is the ampulla of the fallopian tube. While other sites are also feasible, the ampulla is the most prevalent, making it the most suitable response.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: The Pathophysiology

      Ectopic pregnancy is a medical condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. According to statistics, 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube, with most of them happening in the ampulla. However, if the implantation occurs in the isthmus, it can be more dangerous. The remaining 3% of ectopic pregnancies can occur in the ovary, cervix, or peritoneum.

      During ectopic pregnancy, the trophoblast, which is the outer layer of the fertilized egg, invades the tubal wall, leading to bleeding that may dislodge the embryo. The natural history of ectopic pregnancy involves three possible outcomes: absorption, tubal abortion, or tubal rupture.

      Tubal abortion occurs when the embryo dies, and the body expels it along with the blood. On the other hand, tubal absorption occurs when the tube does not rupture, and the blood and embryo are either shed or converted into a tubal mole and absorbed. However, if the tube ruptures, it can lead to severe bleeding, shock, and even death.

      In conclusion, understanding the pathophysiology of ectopic pregnancy is crucial in diagnosing and managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Early detection and prompt treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 11 - A hairy 27-year-old woman visits the medical clinic with concerns about her missing...

    Incorrect

    • A hairy 27-year-old woman visits the medical clinic with concerns about her missing menstrual cycles. What is one of the diagnostic criteria for polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oligomenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Although clinical features such as infrequent or absent ovulation and hyperandrogenism can suggest PCOS, NICE CKS recommends using specific diagnostic criteria. To diagnose PCOS, at least 2 out of 3 of the following criteria should be present: infrequent or no ovulation, signs of hyperandrogenism or elevated testosterone levels, and polycystic ovaries or increased ovarian volume on ultrasonography. It is important to note that a high BMI is not part of the diagnostic criteria, but signs of insulin resistance such as acanthosis nigricans may aid in diagnosis.

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.

      To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.

      To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cm³.

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  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old girl is brought in by her parents who are concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought in by her parents who are concerned about her lack of menstruation. They have noticed that all her friends have already started their periods and are worried that something may be wrong with her. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
      FSH 12 IU/L (4-8)
      LH 13 IU/L (4-8)
      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      If a patient with primary amenorrhea has elevated FSH/LH levels, it may indicate gonadal dysgenesis, such as Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and bleeding that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and bleeding that has persisted for three days. Upon conducting a pregnancy test, it is discovered that she is pregnant. She is immediately referred to the emergency department where an ultrasound scan confirms a right-sided tubal ectopic pregnancy with a visible heartbeat.

      The patient has previously had an ectopic pregnancy that was managed with a left-sided salpingectomy. Although she has no children, she hopes to have a family in the future. There is no history of any sexually transmitted infections.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: salpingostomy

      Explanation:

      Surgical intervention is necessary for the management of ectopic pregnancy.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 14 - A 30 year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of heavy periods that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of heavy periods that are causing disruption to her daily life and work. She is currently trying to conceive. Which treatment option would be most suitable for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Tranexamic acid is the recommended first-line non-hormonal treatment for menorrhagia, particularly for this patient who is trying to conceive. The contraceptive pill and IUS are not suitable options, and endometrial ablation is not recommended for those who wish to have children in the future. As the patient’s periods are painless, mefenamic acid is not necessary. Tranexamic acid is an anti-fibrinolytic that prevents heavy menstrual bleeding by inhibiting plasminogen activators. This treatment aligns with the guidelines set by NICE for managing heavy menstrual bleeding.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman visits her local pharmacy with concerns about needing the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her local pharmacy with concerns about needing the emergency contraceptive pill. She explains that she had unprotected sex with her partner of 5 years 2 days ago and did not use any form of contraception. She recently gave birth to a baby boy 4 weeks ago and is currently formula-feeding him.

      What advice would be most suitable in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action required

      Explanation:

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe dysmenorrhoea for a prolonged period and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe dysmenorrhoea for a prolonged period and seeks consultation at the gynaecological clinic. The consultant suspects adenomyosis as the underlying cause but wants to confirm the diagnosis and exclude other possible pathologies before initiating treatment. What is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI Pelvis

      Explanation:

      MRI is the most effective imaging technique for diagnosing adenomyosis, which is the presence of endometrial tissue in the myometrium. While ultrasound can also aid in diagnosis, it is not as reliable as MRI. Laparoscopy is used to diagnose endometriosis, but it cannot detect adenomyosis as it occurs within the uterine wall. CT is not a suitable imaging technique for adenomyosis as it cannot differentiate between different types of tissue. Hysterosalpingography is used for imaging the uterine lining and fallopian tubes, typically during fertility treatment, but it cannot provide an image of the myometrium.

      Understanding Adenomyosis

      Adenomyosis is a medical condition that occurs when endometrial tissue grows within the muscular walls of the uterus. This condition is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. Symptoms of adenomyosis include painful menstrual cramps, heavy menstrual bleeding, and an enlarged and tender uterus.

      To diagnose adenomyosis, doctors typically use magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) as it is the most effective method. Treatment options for adenomyosis include managing symptoms with pain relief medication, using tranexamic acid to control heavy bleeding, and administering gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists to reduce estrogen levels. In severe cases, uterine artery embolization or hysterectomy may be necessary. Hysterectomy is considered the definitive treatment for adenomyosis.

      In summary, adenomyosis is a condition that affects the uterus and can cause painful menstrual cramps, heavy bleeding, and an enlarged uterus. It is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI, and treatment options include managing symptoms, medication, and surgery.

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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain in recent months. The pain is not relieved by ibuprofen and is aggravated during sexual activity. During the clinical examination, adnexal tenderness is observed. The GP suspects that endometriosis may be the underlying cause of her dysmenorrhoea. What is the most suitable initial investigation for suspected endometriosis cases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Endometriosis: Methods and Recommendations

      Endometriosis is a common cause of dysmenorrhoea, and various investigations are available to diagnose it. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS) as the first-line investigation for suspected endometriosis. TVUS can detect ovarian endometriomas or involvement of structures like the uterosacral ligament. However, a definitive diagnosis of endometriosis can only be made by laparoscopy, which is a minimally invasive procedure. Laparotomy with biopsy is rarely used due to longer recovery times and increased risk of complications. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pelvis is not recommended as the first-line investigation, but it may be considered if there is suspicion of deep endometriosis affecting other organs like the bowel or bladder. Transabdominal ultrasound is only considered if TVUS cannot be done. In conclusion, TVUS and laparoscopy are the preferred methods for investigating endometriosis, with other investigations being considered only in specific situations.

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  • Question 18 - A 43-year-old woman presents to the clinic to discuss contraception. She has not...

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    • A 43-year-old woman presents to the clinic to discuss contraception. She has not had a period for 10 months. Her blood pressure reading in clinic is 120/76 mmHg and she smokes 10 cigarettes per day. She has a history of successfully treated breast cancer 3 years ago. Which contraceptive method would you recommend?

      As this woman has not had a period for 10 months, she may be entering the perimenopausal period. However, as she is under the age of 50, she still requires contraception. Based on her past history of breast cancer, hormonal methods of contraception are not recommended due to the potential risks. Therefore, a copper intrauterine device (Cu-IUD) would be the best option for her. According to the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use, the Cu-IUD is a UKMEC Category 1 for women with a history of breast cancer. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each contraceptive method with the patient before making a final decision.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Copper Intrauterine Device (Cu-IUD)

      Explanation:

      This individual has reached the postmenopausal stage, indicated by the absence of menstruation for 12 consecutive months. However, despite being postmenopausal, she still requires contraception as she is below the age of 50. According to guidelines, women who use non-hormonal contraception can discontinue after one year of amenorrhea if they are over 50 years old, and after two years if they are under 50 years old. Given her history of breast cancer, a copper coil is the most suitable option as all other hormonal methods are classified as UKMEC Category 3, which may pose an unacceptable risk.

      Women over 40 years old still need effective contraception until menopause. All methods of contraception are generally safe for this age group, except for the COCP and Depo-Provera which have some limitations. COCP use may help maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms, but a pill with less than 30 µg ethinylestradiol may be more suitable for women over 40. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density and may cause a delay in the return of fertility for up to 1 year for women over 40. The FSRH provides guidance on how to stop different methods of contraception based on age and amenorrhea status. HRT cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The POP may be used with HRT as long as the HRT has a progesterone component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progesterone component of HRT.

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  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her recent cervical screening test. The test showed normal cytology and was negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV). In her previous screening test 18 months ago, she had normal cytology but tested positive for hrHPV. What guidance should you provide to the patient based on her latest screening test result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Return to routine recall in 3 years time

      Explanation:

      If the result of the first repeat smear for cervical cancer screening at 12 months is negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can resume routine recall. This means they should undergo screening every 3 years from age 25-49 years or every 5 years from age 50-64 years. However, if the repeat test is positive again, the patient should undergo another HPV test in 12 months. If there is dyskaryosis on a cytology sample, the patient should be referred for colposcopy.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the GP with a three-day history of vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the GP with a three-day history of vaginal itching and thick, non-odorous white discharge. She had a similar complaint four months ago but has no other medical history. The patient is married and sexually active with her husband, and her menstrual cycle is regular, following a 28-day cycle. Vaginal pH testing shows a value of 4.3. What further tests should be conducted before initiating treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None needed, the diagnosis is clinical

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis does not require a high vaginal swab if the symptoms are highly suggestive. In fact, the diagnosis can be made clinically based on the patient’s symptoms. For example, if a patient presents with thickened, white discharge that resembles cottage cheese and vaginal itching, along with a normal vaginal pH, it is very likely that they have vaginal candidiasis. It is important to note that glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is not necessary for diagnosis unless the patient has recurrent episodes of vaginal candidiasis, which may indicate diabetes mellitus. Additionally, a midstream urine sample is not useful in diagnosing vaginal candidiasis and should only be used if a sexually-transmitted infection is suspected.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

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  • Question 21 - A 36-year-old patient undergoing IVF for tubal disease presents with abdominal discomfort, nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old patient undergoing IVF for tubal disease presents with abdominal discomfort, nausea, and vomiting four days after egg retrieval. She has a history of well-controlled Crohn's disease and is currently taking azathioprine maintenance therapy. On examination, her abdomen appears distended. What is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome

      Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is a potential complication that can occur during infertility treatment. This condition is believed to be caused by the presence of multiple luteinized cysts in the ovaries, which can lead to high levels of hormones and vasoactive substances. As a result, the permeability of the membranes increases, leading to fluid loss from the intravascular compartment.

      OHSS is more commonly seen following gonadotropin or hCG treatment, and it is rare with Clomiphene therapy. Approximately one-third of women undergoing in vitro fertilization (IVF) may experience a mild form of OHSS. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has classified OHSS into four categories: mild, moderate, severe, and critical.

      Symptoms of OHSS can range from abdominal pain and bloating to more severe symptoms such as thromboembolism and acute respiratory distress syndrome. It is important to monitor patients closely during infertility treatment to detect any signs of OHSS and manage the condition appropriately. By understanding OHSS and its potential risks, healthcare providers can work to minimize the occurrence of this complication and ensure the safety of their patients.

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  • Question 22 - A 16-year-old girl is brought to the general practitioner by her mother who...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought to the general practitioner by her mother who is concerned about her. She has experienced irregular and unpredictable uterine bleeding during the last 2 years. Her menses started at age 14 and have always varied in amount, duration and timing. The mother states that her older daughter who is 22 years old now had normal menses at teenage years. There is no adnexal mass or tenderness.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Young Women

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a common problem among young women, especially within the first years of menarche. There are several possible causes, including anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding, cervical cancer, ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding, submucosal leiomyoma, and prolactinoma.

      Anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding occurs when the hormonal axis that regulates the menstrual cycle is not fully matured. This can lead to irregular and unpredictable bleeding due to the lack of ovulation and the resulting hyperoestrogenic state that induces endometrial hyperplasia.

      Cervical cancer is associated with human papillomavirus infection and other risk factors such as smoking, early intercourse, multiple sexual partners, oral contraceptive use, and immunosuppression. It can cause vaginal spotting, post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and vaginal discharge.

      Ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding is caused by excessive production of vasoconstrictive prostaglandins in the endometrium during a menstrual period. This can result in more severe and prolonged bleeding associated with painful uterine contractions.

      Submucosal leiomyoma is a benign neoplastic mass that protrudes into the intrauterine cavity and can cause metrorrhagia or menorrhagia. It is rare in young women.

      Prolactinoma can result in oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea or anovulation and metromenorrhagia by inhibiting the action of hypothalamic gonadotrophin-releasing hormone on the anterior pituitary gland. This leads to reduced follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone secretion, resulting in abnormal uterine bleeding.

      In conclusion, abnormal uterine bleeding in young women can have various causes, and a proper diagnosis is essential for appropriate treatment. Anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding is the most likely cause in this case due to the patient’s age.

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  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department accompanied by her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department accompanied by her mother. She complains of a 3-day history of right iliac fossa and suprapubic pain. She does not complain of vomiting, although she does mention that she has lost her appetite. Her bowel habit is regular and she describes no urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago and she should be starting her period soon. On asking, she states that she has never been sexually active.
      Examination reveals suprapubic tenderness and some right iliac fossa tenderness, inferior to McBurney’s point. Her vitals are normal otherwise. Her blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 123 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 35 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
      Amylase 35 U/l < 200 U/l
      LFTs Normal
      Her urine dipstick shows 1+ of leukocytes, 1+ of proteins and a trace of blood, but is otherwise normal.
      Which of the following tests is the next step in investigating this girl?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests and Imaging for Lower Abdominal Pain in Women

      Lower abdominal pain in women can have various causes, including appendicitis, urinary tract infection, ovarian or tubal pathology, pelvic inflammatory disease, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, mesenteric adenitis, and other less common pathologies. To determine the cause of the pain, several diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can be used.

      Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test is essential for every woman of reproductive age admitted with lower abdominal pain. This test helps determine the pregnancy status, which can guide further investigations. An abdominal/pelvic ultrasound can detect acute ovarian and other gynecological pathology. It is also useful in assessing biliary pathology and involvement in pancreatitis. However, it is not very sensitive in detecting appendicitis.

      If the diagnosis is uncertain, admitting the patient for observation and review in 12 hours can help determine if any other signs or symptoms develop or change. A CT scan would be inappropriate without checking the patient’s pregnancy status, as it could be harmful to the fetus. However, it can be useful in delineating acute intestinal pathology such as inflammatory bowel disease, bowel obstruction, and renal calculi.

      Finally, an erect chest X-ray can help determine if there is bowel perforation by assessing for air under the diaphragm. This investigation is critical in the presence of a peritonitic abdomen.

      In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can help determine the cause of lower abdominal pain in women and guide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 24 - Sarah is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with you. She is in a committed relationship with another woman and they have regular unprotected intercourse. Sarah has no medical history and is currently undergoing gender reassignment using oestrogen and antiandrogen therapy, but has not had any surgical interventions yet. What would be the most suitable form of contraception to recommend for Sarah?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barrier methods such as condoms

      Explanation:

      If a patient was assigned male at birth and is undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone, there may be a decrease or cessation of sperm production. However, this cannot be considered a reliable method of contraception. In the case of a trans female patient, who was assigned male at birth, hormonal treatments cannot be relied upon for contraception. There is a possibility of her female partner becoming pregnant, and therefore, barrier methods are recommended. Hormonal contraceptives are not suitable for this patient, and the copper IUD is not an option as she does not have a uterus.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies.

      For individuals engaging in vaginal sex where there may be a risk of pregnancy and/or sexually transmitted infections, condoms and dental dams are recommended. Cervical screening and human papillomavirus vaccinations should also be offered to sexually active individuals with a uterus. Those engaging in anal sex and rimming should be advised of the risk of hepatitis A & B and offered vaccinations. Individuals at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of the availability of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis as required.

      For patients seeking permanent contraception, a fallopian tube occlusion or a vasectomy may be the most appropriate solution and neither would be affected by hormonal therapy. Testosterone therapy does not provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimes are not recommended in patients undergoing testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and the intrauterine system and injections may also suspend menstruation. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices do not interact with hormonal regimes but can exacerbate menstrual bleeding.

      In patients assigned male at birth, there may be a reduction or cessation of sperm production with certain therapies, but the variability of effects means they cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms should be recommended in those patients engaging in vaginal sex wishing to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Emergency contraception may be required in patients assigned female at birth following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either of the available oral emergency contraceptive options may be considered. The non-hormonal intrauterine device may also be an option, but it may have unacceptable side effects in some patients.

      Overall, the guidance stresses the importance of individualized care and communication in contraceptive and sexual health decisions for transgender and non-binary individuals.

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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), has...

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    • A 32-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), has been struggling with persistent hirsutism and acne since her teenage years. She expresses that this is now impacting her self-confidence and she has not seen any improvement with over-the-counter acne treatments. When asked about her menstrual cycles, she reports that they are still irregular and she has no plans to conceive at the moment. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol

      Explanation:

      Co-cyprindiol is a medication that combines cyproterone acetate and ethinyl estradiol. It is commonly used to treat women with PCOS who have hirsutism and acne. Cyproterone acetate is an anti-androgen that reduces sebum production, leading to a reduction in acne and hirsutism. It also inhibits ovulation and induces regular withdrawal bleeds. However, it should not be used solely for contraception due to its higher risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other conventional contraceptives.

      Topical retinoids are a first-line treatment for mild to moderate acne. They can be used alone or in combination with benzoyl peroxide.

      Clomiphene citrate is a medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It has been associated with increased rates of pregnancy.

      Desogestrel is a progesterone-only pill that induces regular bleeds and provides contraception. However, its effect on improving acne and hirsutism is inferior to combination drugs like co-cyprindiol.

      Isotretinoin is a medication that regulates epithelial cell growth and is used to treat severe acne resistant to other treatments. It is highly teratogenic and should only be started by an experienced dermatologist in secondary care. Adequate contraceptive cover is necessary, and patients should avoid conception for two years after completing treatment.

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  • Question 26 - A 14-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She reports that her daughter has not yet had her first period, although her two sisters both experienced menarche at the age of 12. She also reports a history of red-green colour blindness and an inability to smell. On physical examination, there is little axillary and pubic hair, and the patient is noted to be Tanner stage II.
      Which one of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ↓ GnRH, ↓ LH, ↓ FSH, ↓ oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hormonal Patterns in Hypogonadism: A Guide to Diagnosis

      Hypogonadism is a condition that affects the production of hormones necessary for sexual development. One form of hypogonadism is Kallmann syndrome, which is characterized by delayed or absent puberty and an inability to smell. This condition is caused by a defect in the release or action of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), leading to gonadal failure. As a result, we expect to see reduced levels of GnRH, luteinising hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and oestrogen in affected individuals.

      Secondary hypogonadism, on the other hand, is caused by a problem in the pituitary gland. This can result in increased levels of GnRH, but decreased levels of LH, FSH, and oestrogen.

      Primary hypogonadism, such as in Klinefelter’s and Turner syndrome, is characterized by problems with the gonads. In these cases, we expect to see increased levels of GnRH, LH, and FSH, but decreased levels of oestrogen.

      Ectopic or unregulated oestrogen production can also cause hormonal imbalances, leading to decreased levels of GnRH, LH, and FSH, but increased levels of oestrogen.

      It is important to understand these hormonal patterns in order to diagnose and treat hypogonadism effectively. By identifying the underlying cause of the condition, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve sexual development and overall health.

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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about post-coital bleeding. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about post-coital bleeding. She has experienced this three times, but reports no pain, discharge, or bleeding between periods. She is currently taking the combined contraceptive pill and is sexually active with a consistent partner. The patient has never been pregnant and is anxious due to her family history of endometrial cancer in her grandmother. During the examination, the GP observes a small area of redness surrounding the cervical os. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined contraceptive pill use

      Explanation:

      The likelihood of cervical ectropion is higher in individuals who take the COCP due to increased levels of oestrogen. Based on the patient’s medical history and examination results, cervical ectropion appears to be the most probable diagnosis. This condition is more prevalent during puberty, pregnancy, and while taking the pill. Endometrial cancer is improbable in a young person, and the presence of cervical ectropion on examination supports this straightforward diagnosis. Although chlamydia infection can cause cervicitis, the patient’s sexual history does not suggest this diagnosis, and the pill remains the most likely cause. It is recommended to undergo STI screenings annually.

      Understanding Cervical Ectropion

      Cervical ectropion is a condition that occurs when the columnar epithelium of the cervical canal extends onto the ectocervix, where the stratified squamous epithelium is located. This happens due to elevated levels of estrogen, which can occur during the ovulatory phase, pregnancy, or with the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The term cervical erosion is no longer commonly used to describe this condition.

      Cervical ectropion can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge and post-coital bleeding. However, ablative treatments such as cold coagulation are only recommended for those experiencing troublesome symptoms. It is important to understand this condition and its symptoms in order to seek appropriate medical attention if necessary.

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  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m2, having lost a significant amount of weight after undergoing gastric sleeve surgery a year ago. She is a non-smoker and has never been pregnant. Her blood pressure is 119/78 mmHg.

      The patient is interested in long-acting reversible contraceptives but does not want a coil. She also wants a contraceptive that can be discontinued quickly if she decides to start a family. What would be the most suitable contraceptive option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nexplanon implantable contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Contraception for Obese Patients

      Obesity is a risk factor for venous thromboembolism in women taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). To minimize this risk, the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) recommends that women with a body mass index (BMI) of 30-34 kg/m² should use the COCP with caution (UKMEC 2), while those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or higher should avoid it altogether (UKMEC 3). Additionally, the effectiveness of the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be reduced in patients weighing over 90kg.

      Fortunately, there are other contraceptive options available for obese patients. All other methods of contraception have a UKMEC of 1, meaning they are considered safe and effective for most women, regardless of their weight. However, it’s important to note that patients who have undergone gastric sleeve, bypass, or duodenal switch surgery cannot use oral contraception, including emergency contraception, due to the lack of efficacy.

      In summary, obese patients should be aware of the increased risk of venous thromboembolism associated with the COCP and consider alternative contraceptive options. It’s important to discuss these options with a healthcare provider to determine the best choice for each individual patient.

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  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department worried that she cannot locate...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department worried that she cannot locate the threads of her intra-uterine device and is unable to schedule an appointment with her primary care physician. She reports no pain, fever, or unusual discharge. She has a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days, and her last period was a week ago.

      During a speculum examination, the threads are not visible, so a transvaginal ultrasound is performed. The device is detected, and the threads are discovered to have retracted into the cervical canal. The threads are brought back into view. Additionally, a 4 cm multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow is found in the right ovary.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for biopsy of cyst

      Explanation:

      When a complex ovarian cyst is discovered, there should be a high level of suspicion for ovarian cancer and a biopsy should be performed. The IOTA criteria can be used to determine if a cyst is likely benign or malignant. If any of the ‘M rules’ are present, such as an irregular solid tumor, ascites, at least 4 papillary structures, an irregular multilocular solid tumor with a diameter of at least 100mm, or very strong blood flow, the patient should be referred to a gynecology oncology department for further evaluation. In this case, the patient has a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow, so a referral to the gynecology oncology service for biopsy is necessary. It is important not to reassure the patient that the cyst is benign just because it is asymptomatic, as many ovarian cancers are asymptomatic until a late stage. It is also not appropriate to immediately perform surgery, as the cyst may be benign and not require urgent intervention. Yearly ultrasounds may be appropriate for simple ovarian cysts of a certain size, but in this case, further investigation is necessary due to the concerning features of the cyst. While cysts under 5 cm in diameter are often physiological and do not require follow-up, the presence of a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow warrants further investigation.

      Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts

      Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.

      Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.

      Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.

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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of not having had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of not having had a period for 7 months. She stopped taking the pill 9 months ago to try to conceive. She reports having always had irregular and heavy periods, which is why she started taking the pill at 16. She admits to gaining around 4 kg recently. She took a pregnancy test yesterday, which was negative. There is no other relevant medical or family history. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Women who would otherwise experience symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome may not realize they have the condition if they are using the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.

      To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.

      To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cm³.

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