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  • Question 1 - Which virus is linked to Kaposi's sarcoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which virus is linked to Kaposi's sarcoma?

      Your Answer: Epstein-Barr virus

      Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 8

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers

      Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.

      The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.

      It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following symptoms is least commonly associated with salicylate overdose? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is least commonly associated with salicylate overdose?

      Your Answer: Tinnitus

      Correct Answer: Tremor

      Explanation:

      Salicylate overdose can cause a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory center is initially stimulated, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can later cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of over 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      Salicylates can also cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. It is important to recognize the symptoms of salicylate overdose and seek prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 3 - Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are commonly found in elderly patients with systemic lupus erythematosus...

    Incorrect

    • Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are commonly found in elderly patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). However, they can also be found in around 9% of elderly people without the condition. Therefore, as a test for diagnosing SLE, ANA has low:

      Positive predictive value
      15%

      Sensitivity
      19%

      Specificity
      56%

      Negative predictive value
      9%

      Incidence
      1%

      If a test is falsely positive in 9% of the elderly population then that test has poor specificity.

      Low specificity tests have many false positives (those without the condition test positive).

      Low sensitivity tests have many false negatives (those with the condition are missed).

      Your Answer: Negative predictive value

      Correct Answer: Specificity

      Explanation:

      If a medical test is unable to accurately identify individuals who have a particular condition, it is said to have poor specificity. This means that the test produces a high number of false positives, indicating that individuals who do not have the condition are incorrectly identified as having it. Conversely, if a test has low sensitivity, it misses a significant number of individuals who actually have the condition, resulting in false negatives.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 4 - Which one of the following may be used to calculate the number needed...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following may be used to calculate the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer: ((Control event rate) - (Experimental event rate)) / (Control event rate)

      Correct Answer: 1 / (Absolute risk reduction)

      Explanation:

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 5 - A 7-year-old child with Downs' syndrome is experiencing recurrent ear infections. Upon referral...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child with Downs' syndrome is experiencing recurrent ear infections. Upon referral to an ear and nose specialist, the parents are informed that the child's ear canal is narrowed, hindering proper drainage and increasing the likelihood of infections. Which pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the eustachian tube?

      Your Answer: Third pharyngeal pouch

      Correct Answer: First pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      The 1st pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the eustachian tube, while the 2nd pharyngeal pouch develops into the Palatine tonsils. The 3rd pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the thymus and inferior parathyroid glands, while the 4th pharyngeal pouch forms the superior parathyroid glands. The 5th pharyngeal pouch eventually becomes part of the 4th pharyngeal pouch and develops into the thyroid C-cells.

      Embryology of Branchial (Pharyngeal) Pouches

      During embryonic development, the branchial (pharyngeal) pouches give rise to various structures in the head and neck region. The first pharyngeal pouch forms the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum. The second pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils. The third pharyngeal pouch divides into dorsal and ventral wings, with the dorsal wings forming the inferior parathyroid glands and the ventral wings forming the thymus. Finally, the fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands.

      Understanding the embryology of the branchial pouches is important in the diagnosis and treatment of certain congenital abnormalities and diseases affecting these structures. By knowing which structures arise from which pouches, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying pathophysiology and develop appropriate management strategies. Additionally, knowledge of the embryology of these structures can aid in the development of new treatments and therapies for related conditions.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 6 - A researcher is investigating the function of regulatory proteins in intracellular trafficking. He...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is investigating the function of regulatory proteins in intracellular trafficking. He has discovered and characterized several intracellular proteins labeled with mannose-6-phosphate. To which organelles are these proteins targeted?

      Your Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Lysosome

      Explanation:

      The Golgi apparatus is responsible for adding mannose-6-phosphate to proteins, which facilitates their transport to lysosomes.

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4 week history of weakness that worsens...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4 week history of weakness that worsens towards the end of the day. She has difficulty getting out of her chair in the evening and complains of difficulty keeping her eyes open while driving at night, despite not feeling tired.

      During examination, bilateral facial nerve weakness, complex ophthalmoplegia, and symmetrical proximal power loss (MRC power 4/5) are noted. Repetitive stimulation of movements reveals fatigability.

      What Gell and Coombs hypersensitivity class is likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Type 2

      Correct Answer: Type 5

      Explanation:

      The individual is a young woman who is exhibiting symptoms of proximal myopathy and complex ophthalmoplegia, along with signs of fatigue. These symptoms are indicative of myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder that occurs due to the presence of antibodies that target acetylcholine nicotinic postsynaptic receptors.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 8 - A 73-year-old retired chemist visits a haemato-oncology clinic to review his recent blood...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old retired chemist visits a haemato-oncology clinic to review his recent blood tests. During the consultation, the haematologist explains that the transduction of pro-survival signals from the tumour microenvironment is facilitated by glycoproteins on the cell surface membrane of follicular lymphoma cells. The processing of folded glycoproteins before their expression on the cell surface membrane occurs in several stages. What is the organelle that is involved in the final stage of this process?

      Your Answer: Golgi apparatus

      Explanation:

      The Golgi apparatus plays a crucial role in processing folded proteins that are destined for the cell surface membrane. While proteins are initially synthesized at the ribosomes, they must undergo several quality control stages before they can be expressed on the cell surface. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for the initial quality control of protein folding, while the Golgi apparatus modifies these proteins before they are transported to the cell surface membrane. Lysosomes, on the other hand, are not involved in the processing of folded proteins, but rather in processes such as apoptosis, recycling of intracellular waste, and phagocytosis. Similarly, cytoplasmic ribosomes are not responsible for post-translational modification, but rather for the initial translation of proteins. While proteins may be synthesized at the rough endoplasmic reticulum, they too must undergo processing by the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus before they can be expressed on the cell surface membrane.

      I-Cell Disease: A Lysosomal Storage Disease

      The Golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging molecules that are meant for cell secretion. However, a defect in N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphate transferase can cause I-cell disease, also known as inclusion cell disease. This disease results in the failure of the Golgi apparatus to transfer phosphate to mannose residues on specific proteins.

      I-cell disease is a type of lysosomal storage disease that can cause a range of clinical features. These include coarse facial features, which are similar to those seen in Hurler syndrome. Restricted joint movement, clouding of the cornea, and hepatosplenomegaly are also common symptoms. Despite its rarity, I-cell disease can have a significant impact on affected individuals and their families.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old female visits her doctor at 24 weeks of pregnancy. She underwent...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female visits her doctor at 24 weeks of pregnancy. She underwent a sexual health screening that included a complement fixation test for herpes simplex virus, which came back positive. The doctor explains to her that the antibody tested for is typically the first antibody produced in response to an infection and may indicate a recent or new herpes virus infection. The patient is curious if her baby will be immune to herpes if she has developed antibodies during pregnancy.

      What specific herpes simplex virus antibody was tested in this patient, and what counseling should be provided to her?

      Your Answer: IgM has been tested for - it does not cross the placenta

      Explanation:

      The antibody that fixes complement but does not pass to the fetal circulation is IgM. Complement fixation tests are used to detect IgM and IgG class antibodies against specific microbial antigens, indicating a humoral immune response. IgM is the first antibody released in response to infection and is used in herpes simplex virus complement fixation testing. It does not cross the placenta. IgA is the predominant antibody in breast milk, while IgG is the only antibody that crosses the placenta. Therefore, options regarding IgG would be incorrect in this scenario.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the clinic with deteriorating weakness, blurred vision, and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the clinic with deteriorating weakness, blurred vision, and vomiting. There are no alterations in his mental state.

      During the examination, it is observed that his power is reduced throughout his body, and his speech is slurred. The ingestion of a potentially lethal toxin is suspected, and a reversal agent is given, resulting in a positive outcome.

      What is the mechanism of the toxin that could lead to this clinical manifestation?

      Your Answer: Blocking the release of acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from botulism, which is caused by ingesting a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. This toxin blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to widespread weakness without changes in consciousness. If left untreated, botulism can be fatal.

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a condition where the immune system attacks neuromuscular junctions, resulting in impaired acetylcholine release. This syndrome is often associated with cancer and has a slower onset than botulism.

      Diphtheria toxin, secreted by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, blocks protein synthesis in patients who ingest it. It can cause death in most cases due to necrosis of the heart muscle and liver.

      Poliomyelitis, caused by the polio virus, can result in the destruction of central neurons involved in voluntary muscle activation, leading to acute flaccid paralysis. However, it is important to note that poliomyelitis is caused by a virus, not a toxin.

      Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences

      Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.

      Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.

      On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.

      Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old man experienced sudden onset chest pain and difficulty breathing at home....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man experienced sudden onset chest pain and difficulty breathing at home. Upon examination, an electrocardiogram revealed ST-elevation in the anterior leads, indicating an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He was transported to the nearest primary percutaneous coronary intervention center where he underwent angioplasty and received two stents in the left anterior descending artery. Abciximab was administered during the procedure. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Monoclonal antibody to platelet-derived growth factor

      Correct Answer: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Abciximab is a type of medication that blocks the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor, which has been found to reduce the occurrence of negative coronary events (such as heart attack or death) within the first month after primary angioplasty.

      Another medication commonly used after cardiac stent implantation is clopidogrel, which inhibits ADP receptors and is part of the standard dual antiplatelet therapy.

      Fondaparinux is an indirect factor Xa inhibitor that is often used to treat non-ST elevation myocardial infarctions and unstable angina, but is less frequently used in angioplasty due to the risk of bleeding.

      Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.

      However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.

      There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.

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  • Question 12 - A 46-year-old male visits a tuberculosis clinic to discuss his medication as his...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old male visits a tuberculosis clinic to discuss his medication as his disease has become resistant to one of the drugs he is taking. The doctor explains that the drug is metabolized differently in each person and it is possible that the patient metabolizes the drug too quickly, leading to its rapid clearance from his system. The drug in question is metabolized by N-acetyltransferase, an enzyme in the liver, and has three distinct phenotypes that determine the rate of clearance and clinical response. What is the name of the drug that the patient has developed resistance to?

      Your Answer: Streptomycin

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid’s metabolism in the liver is influenced by acetylator status. Fast acetylators may develop resistance due to rapid clearance, while slow acetylators are at higher risk of hepatotoxicity due to delayed clearance. Ethambutol is metabolized through oxidation, pyrazinamide through oxidation in the liver, and rifampicin is activated through deacetylation in the liver before being excreted in bile and urine.

      Understanding Drug Metabolism: Phase I and Phase II Reactions

      Drug metabolism involves two types of biochemical reactions, namely phase I and phase II reactions. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis, which are mainly performed by P450 enzymes. However, some drugs are metabolized by specific enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. The products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic. On the other hand, phase II reactions involve conjugation, where glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate, and other groups are typically involved. The products of phase II reactions are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. The majority of phase I and phase II reactions take place in the liver.

      First-Pass Metabolism and Drugs Affected by Zero-Order Kinetics and Acetylator Status

      First-pass metabolism is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. This effect is seen in many drugs, including aspirin, isosorbide dinitrate, glyceryl trinitrate, lignocaine, propranolol, verapamil, isoprenaline, testosterone, and hydrocortisone.

      Zero-order kinetics describe metabolism that is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated, resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics include phenytoin, salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin), heparin, and ethanol.

      Acetylator status is also an important consideration in drug metabolism. Approximately 50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase. Drugs affected by acetylator status include isoniazid, procainamide, hydralazine, dapsone, and sulfasalazine. Understanding these concepts is important in predicting drug efficacy and toxicity, as well as in optimizing drug dosing.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 13 - What triggers the activation of this complement pathway? ...

    Correct

    • What triggers the activation of this complement pathway?

      Your Answer: Antigen-antibody complexes

      Explanation:

      The activation of the classical complement pathway occurs through the formation of antigen-antibody complexes, specifically those involving IgM or IgG. It should be noted that the alternative complement pathway can be activated by other means, such as the binding of IgA or polysaccharides, while the MBL pathway is activated by the binding of MBL to mannose residues on the surface of pathogens.

      Overview of Complement Pathways

      Complement pathways are a group of proteins that play a crucial role in the body’s immune and inflammatory response. These proteins are involved in various processes such as chemotaxis, cell lysis, and opsonisation. There are two main complement pathways: classical and alternative.

      The classical pathway is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes, specifically IgM and IgG. The proteins involved in this pathway include C1qrs, C2, and C4. On the other hand, the alternative pathway is initiated by polysaccharides found in Gram-negative bacteria and IgA. The proteins involved in this pathway are C3, factor B, and properdin.

      Understanding the complement pathways is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases. Dysregulation of these pathways can lead to autoimmune disorders, infections, and other inflammatory conditions. By identifying the specific complement pathway involved in a disease, targeted therapies can be developed to effectively treat the condition.

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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a sudden loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness upon standing up from a chair. He has a medical history of asthma, migraine, atrial fibrillation, and benign prostate hypertrophy.

      The radiology reports come back normal, but his vital signs show a lying blood pressure of 120/77 mmHg and a standing blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg.

      After reviewing his medication chart, the doctor decides to discontinue a drug that may have caused his current condition.

      Which medication did the doctor discontinue?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Doxazosin is known to cause postural hypotension as an adverse effect. This medication is an alpha-1 blocker and is commonly used to manage hypertension and benign prostate hypertrophy. It is important to note that doxazosin can increase the risk of postural hypotension, especially when used in combination with other antihypertensive medications. As a result, it is likely that this medication would have been discontinued.

      On the other hand, paracetamol and venlafaxine are not typically associated with a decrease in blood pressure. Instead, they may cause an increase in blood pressure.

      Prednisolone, on the other hand, is known to raise blood pressure and would not be the correct answer in this scenario.

      Adrenoceptor Antagonists: Types and Examples

      Adrenoceptor antagonists are drugs that block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on specific receptors in the body. There are two main types of adrenoceptor antagonists: alpha antagonists and beta antagonists. Alpha antagonists block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on alpha receptors, while beta antagonists block their action on beta receptors.

      Examples of alpha antagonists include doxazosin, which blocks alpha-1 receptors, and tamsulosin, which acts mainly on urogenital tract by blocking alpha-1a receptors. Yohimbine is an example of an alpha-2 antagonist, while phenoxybenzamine, previously used in peripheral arterial disease, is a non-selective alpha antagonist.

      Beta antagonists include atenolol, which blocks beta-1 receptors, and propranolol, which is a non-selective beta antagonist. Carvedilol and labetalol are examples of mixed alpha and beta antagonists.

      Overall, adrenoceptor antagonists are important drugs that can be used to treat a variety of conditions, including hypertension, heart failure, and angina.

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  • Question 15 - A 47-year-old male patient presented with complaints of fatigue and lethargy. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male patient presented with complaints of fatigue and lethargy. He is health-conscious and likes to maintain his fitness.

      Upon examination, his blood work revealed a deficiency in vitamin D, for which he was prescribed calcitriol. He was advised to return for a follow-up appointment in two weeks to monitor his blood results.

      During his follow-up appointment, his blood work showed normal results, except for an electrolyte abnormality.

      What is the most likely electrolyte abnormality seen in his blood results?

      Your Answer: High potassium

      Correct Answer: High phosphate

      Explanation:

      The action of calcitriol on the body results in an increase in the reabsorption of phosphate by the kidneys, leading to an increase in plasma phosphate levels. Additionally, calcitriol promotes osteoclast activity, which further contributes to an increase in plasma calcium levels through bone resorption. It should be noted that calcitriol does not have any significant effect on potassium and magnesium levels. On the other hand, the hormone PTH has the opposite effect on plasma phosphate levels, causing a decrease in its concentration.

      Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism

      Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.

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  • Question 16 - A 5-month-old female infant was brought to the hospital due to abdominal distension...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old female infant was brought to the hospital due to abdominal distension and diarrhea. Her birth was complicated and required resuscitation. Upon examination, she showed signs of malnourishment, axial hypotonia, and abnormal facial features. Blood tests revealed elevated levels of long-chain fatty acids. What organelle is responsible for the breakdown of long-chain fatty acids?

      Your Answer: Lysosome

      Correct Answer: Peroxisome

      Explanation:

      The breakdown of long chain fatty acids is primarily carried out by peroxisomes. However, this patient is exhibiting symptoms of Zellweger syndrome, a genetic disorder that impairs peroxisome function.

      The rough endoplasmic reticulum plays a crucial role in the translation and folding of newly synthesized proteins. The nucleus is responsible for housing and regulating DNA, as well as facilitating RNA transcription. Meanwhile, proteasomes are responsible for breaking down proteins that have been marked with ubiquitin.

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of fatigue. Upon conducting...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of fatigue. Upon conducting blood tests, it is revealed that the patient has a megaloblastic, macrocytic anaemia.

      What is the most probable cause of the patient's anaemia?

      Your Answer: Haemolysis

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can be caused by Crohn’s disease, which is indicated by macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia. Malabsorption in cystic fibrosis can lead to various types of vitamin deficiency, particularly fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K due to reduced fat absorption caused by pancreatic insufficiency. Microcytic anaemia is a result of iron deficiency, while hypothyroidism can cause normoblastic, macrocytic anaemia.

      Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a co-factor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.

      However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.

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  • Question 18 - A medication that has its own intrinsic effects but does not treat the...

    Incorrect

    • A medication that has its own intrinsic effects but does not treat the intended condition is known as what?

      Your Answer: A nocebo

      Correct Answer: An active placebo

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 19 - A 90-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department from a nursing home...

    Incorrect

    • A 90-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department from a nursing home with complaints of severe headache and general malaise for a few days. The nursing home staff reports that she appears more confused than usual and has been complaining of a painful and stiff neck. Upon examination, she is found to be pyrexic and tachycardic. A lumbar puncture confirms the diagnosis of meningitis. What is true about the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Rod

      Correct Answer: Catalase negative

      Explanation:

      Meningitis in this age group is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is a type of Gram-positive diplococci that is catalase negative and exhibits alpha hemolysis.

      Meningitis is a serious medical condition that can be caused by various types of bacteria. The causes of meningitis differ depending on the age of the patient and their immune system. In neonates (0-3 months), the most common cause of meningitis is Group B Streptococcus, followed by E. coli and Listeria monocytogenes. In children aged 3 months to 6 years, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common causes. For individuals aged 6 to 60 years, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the primary causes. In those over 60 years old, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Listeria monocytogenes are the most common causes. For immunosuppressed individuals, Listeria monocytogenes is the primary cause of meningitis.

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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old primigravida comes in for her 12-week prenatal check-up. She reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravida comes in for her 12-week prenatal check-up. She reports experiencing a burning sensation when urinating and increased frequency of urination. The patient has a medical history of migraines and hyperthyroidism. Her current vital signs are a blood pressure of 125/85 mmHg, a pulse of 82 beats per minute, and a temperature of 37 ºC. She is taking antibiotics, painkillers, and antithyroid drugs.

      Which medication from her current regimen is most likely to have adverse effects on her pregnancy at this stage?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 21 - You are asked to speak to a 72-year-old man in the respiratory clinic...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to speak to a 72-year-old man in the respiratory clinic regarding his recent diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). He originally presented with a 4-week history of productive cough and night sweats. Samples taken from a broncho-alveolar lavage showed a dense infiltration of macrophages which had formed a granuloma.

      What cytokines are produced by this cell type?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-4

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-1

      Explanation:

      Macrophages are the primary source of IL-1, which plays a crucial role in acute inflammation and the fever response. Th1 cells produce interferon-γ, which activates macrophages. IL-2, produced by T helper 1 cells, is essential for the growth and development of various immune cells, including T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells, to combat infections. T helper 2 cells produce IL-4, which aids in the proliferation and differentiation of B cells, while IL-5 stimulates the production of eosinophils.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 22 - A researcher has developed a new test to detect Alzheimer's disease. He administers...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher has developed a new test to detect Alzheimer's disease. He administers the test to 500 patients.

      Patients with Alzheimer's disease Patients without Alzheimer's disease
      Test positive 200 20
      Test negative 50 230

      What is the sensitivity of the new test?

      Your Answer: 55%

      Correct Answer: 85%

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old patient complains of vaginal discharge and symptoms suggestive of a thrush...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient complains of vaginal discharge and symptoms suggestive of a thrush infection. You decide to prescribe fluconazole.

      What is the mode of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibits squalene epoxidase

      Correct Answer: Inhibits ergosterol production

      Explanation:

      Azoles prevent the production of ergosterol by inhibiting 14 alpha-demethylase.

      Terbinafine hinders the function of squalene epoxidase.

      Nystatin and amphotericin B attach to ergosterol.

      Griseofulvin interacts with microtubules.

      Caspofungin obstructs the synthesis of beta-glucan, a crucial component of the fungal cell wall.

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

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  • Question 24 - A medical research lab is investigating new tests for diabetes in a group...

    Incorrect

    • A medical research lab is investigating new tests for diabetes in a group of 250 elderly patients. The results have been quite inconsistent, and you have been assigned the task of determining the likelihood ratio of a negative test result based on the following information.

      Sensitivity = 60%
      Specificity = 85%

      What is the correct value?

      Your Answer: 1

      Correct Answer: 0.5

      Explanation:

      The correct formula for calculating the likelihood ratio for a negative test result is (1 – sensitivity) divided by specificity. This ratio helps determine how much the odds of having the disease decrease when the test is negative. For example, if the sensitivity is 0.55 and the specificity is 0.9, the likelihood ratio for a negative test result would be 0.5. It is important to remember to subtract the sensitivity from 1, not add it, when using this formula.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 25 - A 75-year-old man has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing an acute...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing an acute coronary syndrome and undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. He has been prescribed aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, and atorvastatin. Can you explain the mechanism of action of aspirin?

      Your Answer: Suppresses production of prostaglandins and thromboxane A2

      Explanation:

      Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme, which results in the suppression of prostaglandins and thromboxane A2 production. This inhibition is non-reversible and affects both COX 1 and 2.

      How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.

      Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and persistent diarrhoea. He recently returned from a trip to Brazil and noticed the symptoms a few days after his return. He initially thought it was food-related, but he also developed an urticarial rash on his abdomen and papulovesicular lesions on the soles of his feet. Stool cultures are ordered to determine the most likely causative agent.

      What is the probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Strongyloides stercoralis

      Explanation:

      The patient in the vignette is likely infected with Strongyloides stercoralis, as he presents with diarrhoea and abdominal pain, along with papulovesicular lesions on the soles of his feet and an urticarial rash. S. stercoralis is a parasitic roundworm that resides in the small intestine and is commonly found in areas with poor sanitation. The other options in the vignette do not match the patient’s symptoms, as they do not involve papulovesicular lesions.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman, who is 30-weeks pregnant, visits her general practitioner with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman, who is 30-weeks pregnant, visits her general practitioner with an itchy vesicular rash. She was recently in contact with a child who had chickenpox and she confesses that she has never had the disease before. The patient is referred to a specialist and prescribed acyclovir. What is the mode of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Pyrophosphate analog which inhibits viral DNA polymerase

      Correct Answer: Guanosine analog which inhibits viral DNA polymerase

      Explanation:

      acyclovir is a medication that works by inhibiting viral DNA replication. It is a guanosine analog that lacks a 3 prime hydroxyl group and has a high affinity for viral DNA polymerase. When acyclovir is used during viral DNA replication, the DNA chain terminates, thereby inhibiting viral DNA replication. This medication is commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus infections.

      Ribavirin is another guanosine analog that works by inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase. It is often used as part of combination therapy to treat chronic hepatitis C infection.

      Interferon-alpha is a human glycoprotein that inhibits the synthesis of mRNA. It is also used to treat chronic hepatitis C infection.

      Oseltamivir, also known as Tamiflu, is effective against influenzae A and B. It works by inhibiting neuraminidase, which is a viral enzyme that targets sialic acid on the surface of infected host cells. By inhibiting neuraminidase, oseltamivir prevents virions from being released from the cell.

      Foscarnet is a pyrophosphate analog that inhibits viral DNA polymerase. It is used to treat cytomegalovirus retinitis in immunocompromised individuals.

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

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  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old man presents to the hospital with severe breathlessness and a productive...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the hospital with severe breathlessness and a productive cough. He has a known history of HIV but is otherwise healthy. On chest X-ray, diffuse ground-glass opacities and widespread pulmonary infiltrates are observed. Sputum cultures confirm the presence of Pneumocystis jiroveci. What is the combination of drugs used as first-line treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole and trimipramine

      Correct Answer: Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, which are combined to create co-trimoxazole. This medication is the first line treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci infections in immunocompromised patients and can also be used for other susceptible infections. Metronidazole is not a part of co-trimoxazole and is used to treat anaerobic bacteria. Trimipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant and sulfadiazine is an older antibiotic that is not commonly used due to increasing bacterial resistance, but neither of these medications are a part of co-trimoxazole.

      Understanding Sulfonamides and Their Adverse Effects

      Sulfonamides are a type of drug that work by inhibiting dihydropteroate synthetase. This class of drugs includes antibiotic sulfonamides such as sulfamethoxazole, sulfadiazine, and sulfisoxazole. Co-trimoxazole, a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, is commonly used in the management of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Non-antibiotic sulfonamides like sulfasalazine and sulfonylureas also exist.

      However, the use of co-trimoxazole may lead to adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia, headache, and rash, including the potentially life-threatening Steven-Johnson Syndrome. It is important to understand the potential risks associated with sulfonamides and to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication.

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  • Question 29 - Which of the following cancers is not linked to human papillomavirus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cancers is not linked to human papillomavirus?

      Your Answer: Tracheal cancer

      Explanation:

      HPV is linked to the following conditions:
      1. The most common type of cervical cancer (HPV 16/18)
      2. Anal cancer
      3. (missing information)

      Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers

      Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.

      The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.

      It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.

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  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old man visits the Medical Assessment Unit with complaints of abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits the Medical Assessment Unit with complaints of abdominal pain. He reports experiencing generalised, colicky abdominal pain for a few weeks. The patient has a medical history of angina, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His regular medications include atorvastatin, metformin, ramipril, sitagliptin, and verapamil. During abdominal examination, he displays tenderness in the left lower quadrant. An abdominal X-ray reveals faecal loading. Which medication is most likely responsible for his presentation?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is known to induce constipation, making it the correct answer. This is a common side effect of calcium channel blockers, including verapamil.

      Ramipril and atorvastatin are not typically linked to changes in bowel movements, whereas sitagliptin and metformin are more commonly associated with diarrhea.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

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