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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting 20g of paracetamol. N-acetyl cysteine was started immediately. What is the mechanism of action of N-acetyl cysteine?

      Your Answer: Replenishes glutathione

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine depletes glutathione reserves by providing cysteine, which is an essential precursor in glutathione production.

      Glutathione within the liver can normally detoxify these minuscule quantities of NAPQI and prevent tissue damage.
      N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the mainstay of therapy for acetaminophen toxicity.

      Paracetamol overdose:
      The liver normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. During an overdose, the conjugation system becomes saturated leading to oxidation by cytochrome P450 (predominately CYP2E1) mixed-function oxidases. This produces a toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI).

      Normally glutathione acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. If glutathione stores run-out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death.

      Other uses: In COPD, cystic fibrosis, and other lung conditions, nebulized NAC has mucolytic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided...

    Correct

    • A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show: Hb: 130g/l Platelets: 359*109/L, WBC: 10*109/L, CRP: 89mg/l Which of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Which one of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: History of Epstein Barr virus infection

      Correct Answer: Night sweats

      Explanation:

      Night sweats are a B symptom in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and imply a poor prognosis.

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:

      Stage
      I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)

      II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)

      III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)

      IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites

      Suffix
      A: No B symptoms

      B: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats—poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren Syndrome. The foetus would be at a risk for which of the following?

      Your Answer: Complete heart block

      Correct Answer: All correct

      Explanation:

      Women with Sjögren syndrome are likely to experience more complications during pregnancy than women without an autoimmune disease as the anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies cross the placenta and lead to various life threatening complications. Studies show a high incidence of poor fetal outcomes for these patients. Congenital heart block, neonatal lupus, congestive cardiac failure, hydrops fetalis can all be caused as a result of Sjogren syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his...

    Incorrect

    • A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his brother had the same condition. What is the echocardiographic finding that is related to the highest risk of sudden cardiac death?

      Your Answer: A gradient of 10 mmHg across the left ventricular outflow tract

      Correct Answer: Significant thickening of the interventricular septum

      Explanation:

      There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
      -family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
      -unexplained recent syncope
      -large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ≥ 30 mm)
      -multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
      -hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken ecstasy (MDMA)?

      Your Answer: A pyrexia of 40°C

      Explanation:

      MDMA commonly known as ecstasy or molly, is a psychoactive drug primarily used as a recreational drug. The desired effects include altered sensations, increased energy, empathy, and pleasure. Features of MDMA abuse include hyponatraemia, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and hyperthermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric pain. Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of peptic ulceration rather than chronic pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Relieved by food

      Explanation:

      Relief of symptoms with food suggests duodenal ulceration, for which the pain gets worse on an empty stomach. In chronic pancreatitis, you would expect worsening of symptoms with food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain for one hour. His ECG confirmed the diagnosis of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and he was treated with thrombolysis. Two days later he developed sudden onset breathlessness and became unwell. On examination he had bibasal crepitation and a systolic murmur at the apex which radiated to the axilla. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ruptured papillary muscle

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause for acute breathlessness is due to papillary muscle rupture which causes mitral regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and low-grade temperature. Yesterday he developed extensive painful ulceration of his mouth and gums. On examination his temperature is 37.4ºC, pulse 84 / min and there is submandibular lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Explanation:

      This man has gingivostomatitis, a characteristic feature of primary herpes simplex virus infection. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is often the initial presentation during the first (primary) herpes simplex infection. It is of greater severity than herpes labialis (cold sores) which is often the subsequent presentations. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is the most common viral infection of the mouth.
      Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis (PHGS) is caused predominantly by HSV-1 and affects mainly children. Prodromal symptoms, such as fever, anorexia, irritability, malaise and headache, may occur in advance of disease. Sub-mandibular lymphadenitis, halitosis and refusal to drink are usual concomitant findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      57.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27 year-old ballet instructor presents with 1-day history of left-sided facial weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year-old ballet instructor presents with 1-day history of left-sided facial weakness and an increased sensitivity to noise in her left ear. She is very anxious because 2 years ago she had some problems with her vision and was told that multiple sclerosis was a possibility. Her medical history is significant only for type 1 diabetes mellitus managed with insulin, and she is also taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. Upon examination, she has a lower motor neuron lesion of the left VII (facial) nerve with Bell's phenomenon present and difficulty closing her left eye. There is no objective hearing loss and no sensory signs. Examination of the auditory meatus and canal is unremarkable. The remainder of the neurological examination appears normal. The next management step in her care should be:

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain and cervical spine

      Correct Answer: Eye patch and artificial tears

      Explanation:

      From the given history and physical examination findings, this patient has Bell’s palsy. There is no evidence to suggest involvement of any other cranial nerves, which might raise suspicion of a cerebello-pontine angle space-occupying lesion. With her history of possible optic neuritis, there is a possibility that the lesion is in fact a manifestation of multiple sclerosis, although this should be differentiated by examination of an upper motor neuron lesion (with sparing of the forehead facial muscles because of bilateral innervation). In light of her diabetes and the limited evidence of benefit from corticosteroid use, the most sensible first management step for her would be meticulous eye care to avoid corneal ulceration, as a result of the difficulty she is having closing her left eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      105.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ‘off-legs’. On examination in...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ‘off-legs’. On examination in the emergency department, she looks dry and uremic.   Investigations reveal:
      • K+ 7.2 mmol/L
      • Na+ 145 mmol/L
      • Creatinine 512 μmol/L
      • Urea 36.8 mmol/L
      Which TWO of the following measures are most appropriate in her immediate management?

      Your Answer: ECG & IV Calcium gluconate bolus

      Explanation:

      First and foremost, the patient should be put on ECG monitoring to identify the cardiac state, and because of the markedly raised serum potassium, a calcium gluconate bolus will have the immediate effect of moderating the nerve and muscle performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain and...

    Correct

    • A 50 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain and acute ST elevation myocardial infarction was diagnosed. He was treated with streptokinase. 2 days later he was sweating excessively and he was found to be hypotensive. Which of the following cannot be considered as a reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Hypotensive effect of streptokinase

      Explanation:

      Hypotensive effect of streptokinase occurs during the streptokinase infusion which is usually transient. Acute mitral regurgitation due to rupture of papillary muscles, ventricular septal defects and reinfarctions (left or right) are known to cause hypotension after 24 hrs. Pulmonary embolism is less likely but cannot be excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      85.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old complains of fatigue, headache and blurred vision in the left eye....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old complains of fatigue, headache and blurred vision in the left eye. Moreover, she is unable to comb her hair. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      The patient is in a suitable age for developing temporal arteritis and the fact that she’s unable to comb her hair indicates scalp tenderness or proximal muscle weakness. A high ESR together with increased CRP supports the diagnosis. Temporal artery biopsy is also useful to establish the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A female in her early 20's who has been diagnosed with asthma for...

    Incorrect

    • A female in her early 20's who has been diagnosed with asthma for the past four years visits the office for a review. She has been using Beclomethasone dipropionate inhaler 200mcg bd along with Salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn and her asthma is still uncontrolled. Her chest examination is clear and she has good inhaler technique. What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of her asthma?

      Your Answer: Increase beclomethasone dipropionate to 400mcg bd

      Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      The NICE 2017 guidelines state that in patients who are uncontrolled with a SABA (Salbutamol) and ICS (Inhaled corticosteroid e.g. Beclomethasone), a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) should be added.
      If asthma is uncontrolled in adults (aged 17 and over) on a low dose of ICS as maintenance therapy, offer a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to the ICS and review the response to treatment in 4 to 8 weeks.

      This recommendation is also stated in NICE 2019 guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      61.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she be treated?

      Your Answer: Acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Acyclovir is the correct answer. There has been no documented evidence of harm in pregnancy yet. Chickenpox can cause fetal abnormalities, and varicella zoster Immunoglobulin should be given to the infant immediately after birth (not the mother, won’t help). Steroids will actually make the chicken pox worse. Painkillers only, is obviously the wrong answer and pose severe risk to foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      66
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which was 320 μmol/L at her last clinic visit 3 weeks ago, is brought into the Emergency Department having been found collapsed at home by her partner. She is now fully conscious but complains of a headache.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      One of the most important complications in patients with PKD is being affected by berry aneurysms that may burst, causing a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which seems to be the case in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      81.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An elderly woman is referred with worsening chronic pulmonary disease (COPD). She smokes...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman is referred with worsening chronic pulmonary disease (COPD). She smokes seven cigarettes per day. Her exercise tolerance is only a few yards around the house now. Her FEV1 is 37% of predicted. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer: Give regular low-dose inhaled fluticasone and inhaled long-acting β-agonist

      Correct Answer: Give regular high-dose inhaled fluticasone and inhaled long-acting β-agonist

      Explanation:

      The Stages of COPD:
      Mild COPD or Stage 1—Mild COPD with a FEV1 about 80 percent or more of normal.
      Moderate COPD or Stage 2—Moderate COPD with a FEV1 between 50 and 80 percent of normal.
      Severe COPD or Stage 3—Severe emphysema with a FEV1 between 30 and 50 percent of normal.
      Very Severe COPD or Stage 4—Very severe or End-Stage COPD with a lower FEV1 than Stage 3, or people with low blood oxygen levels and a Stage 3 FEV1.

      This patient has a FEV1 percent of 37 which falls within the stage 3 or severe COPD.
      During stage 3 COPD, you will likely experience significant lung function impairment. Many patients will experience an increase in COPD flare-ups or exacerbations. For some people, the increase in flare-ups means they could need to be hospitalized at times as well.

      Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) use in combination with long-acting β2-agonists (LABAs) was shown to provide improved reductions in exacerbations, lung function, and health status. ICS-LABA combination therapy is currently recommended for patients with a history of exacerbations despite treatment with long-acting bronchodilators alone. The presence of eosinophilic bronchial inflammation, detected by high blood eosinophil levels or a history of asthma or asthma–COPD overlap, may define a population of patients in whom ICSs may be of particular benefit.

      The Towards a Revolution in COPD Health (TORCH) trial was a pivotal, double-blind, placebo-controlled, randomized study comparing salmeterol plus fluticasone propionate (50 and 500 µg, respectively, taken twice daily) with each component alone and placebo over 3 years.26 Patients with COPD were enrolled if they had at least a 10-pack-year smoking history, FEV1 <60% predicted, and an FEV1:FVC ratio ≤0.70.26 Among 6,184 randomized patients, the risk of death was reduced by 17.5% with the ICS-LABA combination vs placebo (P=0.052). ICS-LABA significantly reduced the rate of exacerbations by 25% compared with placebo (P<0.001) and improved health status and FEV1 compared with either component alone or placebo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In which one of the following diseases does the patient have to be...

    Correct

    • In which one of the following diseases does the patient have to be isolated?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Measles and chickenpox are spread by droplets. Thus, patients should be isolated.
      Rheumatic fever and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are immune mediated diseases that don’t require isolation.
      Herpetic gingivostomatitis spreads by direct transmission of infected secretions to the stratified squamous epithelium.
      HSP is not an infectious disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She is managed with antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of the most commonly used first line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      In adults, the most common symptom of meningitis is a severe headache, occurring in almost 90% of cases of bacterial meningitis, followed by nuchal rigidity (the inability to flex the neck forward passively due to increased neck muscle tone and stiffness). Other signs commonly associated with meningitis include photophobia (intolerance to bright light) and phonophobia (intolerance to loud noises).
      In the United Kingdom empirical treatment consists of a third-generation cefalosporin such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. In the USA, where resistance to cefalosporins is increasingly found in streptococci, addition of vancomycin to the initial treatment is recommended. Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and monobactams all act via inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which...

    Correct

    • A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which was not properly followed up, presented with right sided hemiparesis. His blood pressure was 120/70 mmHg. His ECG revealed right bundle branch block with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ostium secundum atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Ostium secundum atrial septal defects are known to cause stroke due to the passage of emboli from the right sided circulation to the left sided circulation. ECG shows tall, peaked P waves (usually best seen in leads II and V2) and prolongation of the PR interval, rSR pattern in leads V3 R and V1 as well as right axis deviation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      173.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 53-year-old gentleman presents with several months’ history of generalised swelling, fatigue, dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old gentleman presents with several months’ history of generalised swelling, fatigue, dyspnoea and several episodes of haemoptysis. There is no significant past medical history and he did not take any regular medication. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and drinks 14 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he is grossly oedematous and has ascites. Cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable and there are no neurological signs or rashes. Investigation results are below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 10.2 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 6.0 × 109/L, Platelets 380 × 109/L, Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 90fl Na+ 145 mmol/L, K+ 3.7 mmol/L, Urea 8.2 mmol/L, Bilirubin 16 μmol/L, Creatinine 180 μmol/L, Albumin 22 g/l Aspartate transaminase 32 iu/l Alkaline phosphatase 120 iu/l Urinalysis: Protein +++ 24 h urinary protein excretion: 5g Chest radiograph: Enlarged right hilum Echocardiogram: Mild left ventricular impairment, no valve lesion Abdominal ultrasound scan: Normal-sized kidneys, no abnormality seen A renal biopsy was performed. What is it most likely to show?

      Your Answer: Necrotising granulomata

      Correct Answer: Thickened glomerular basement membrane with deposits of IgG and C3

      Explanation:

      Renal biopsy in this patient will most likely show thickened glomerular basement membrane with deposits of IgG and C3 as a result of membranous glomerulonephritis that has caused the nephrotic syndrome in this patient. Membranous glomerulonephritis in this case is most likely associated with an underlying bronchial carcinoma, consistent with the patient’s smoking history and physical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      207.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome 10 years ago and takes mebeverine, peppermint tablets and Gaviscon. She is a vegetarian and rarely drinks or smokes. Examination of all systems is normal. Her blood tests show macrocytic anaemia. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals oesophagitis, hypertrophy of the gastric body and multiple duodenal ulcers. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Zollinger–Ellison syndrome

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      507.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 51 year old smoker was recently diagnosed with non small cell lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 51 year old smoker was recently diagnosed with non small cell lung carcinoma. Investigations show presence of a 3 x 3 x 2 cm tumour on the left side of the lower lung lobe. the mass has invaded the parietal pleura. Ipsilateral hilar node is also involved but there is no metastatic spread. What is the stage of this cancer?

      Your Answer: T3 N1 M0

      Correct Answer: T2 N1 M0

      Explanation:

      The tumour has only invaded the visceral pleura and measures 3cm in the greatest dimension. Hence it is designated at T2. Ipsilateral peribronchial and/or hilar lymph node involvement would make it N1. There is no distal metastasis so M would be 0.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 40 year old farmer who is a non-smoker is experiencing increasing shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old farmer who is a non-smoker is experiencing increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He has been having chest tightness and a non-productive cough which becomes worse when he is at the dairy farm. He has no respiratory history of note. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis is the suspected diagnosis. Which factor would be responsible for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cow faeces

      Correct Answer: Contaminated hay

      Explanation:

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:

      ‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
      ‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
      ‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)

      Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.

      EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.

      Examples of EAA include:

      Farmer’s lung
      This is probably the most common occupational form of EAA and is the outcome of an allergic response to a group of microbes, which form mould on vegetable matter in storage. During the handling of mouldy straw, hay or grain, particularly in a confined space such as a poorly ventilated building, inhalation of spores and other antigenic material is very likely.

      There also appears to be a clear relationship between water content of crops, heating (through mould production) and microbial growth, and this would apply to various crops and vegetable matter, with the spores produced likely to cause EAA.

      Farmer’s lung can be prevented by drying crops adequately before storage and by ensuring good ventilation during storage. Respiratory protection should also be worn by farm workers when handling stored crops, particularly if they have been stored damp or are likely to be mouldy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      89.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A man was admitted to the hospital and developed varicella zoster after 48h....

    Correct

    • A man was admitted to the hospital and developed varicella zoster after 48h. Which of the following categories of people should be administered immunoglobulin only?

      Your Answer: All pregnant women who are tested negative for antibodies.

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin should be given to all seronegative women within 4 days. However, it is strongly advised to seek medical care immediately if the disease develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his small phallus. He also has difficulty becoming aroused. On examination, he is slim and has gynecomastia. There is a general paucity of body hair, his penis and testes are small. Which diagnosis fits best with this history and examination?

      Your Answer: True hermaphroditism

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely has Klinefelter’s syndrome.
      Klinefelter syndrome (KS) refers to a group of chromosomal disorders in which the normal male karyotype, 46,XY, has at least one extra X chromosome. XXY aneuploidy, the most common human sex chromosome disorder. It is also the most common chromosomal disorder associated with male hypogonadism and infertility.
      Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia), gynecomastia in late puberty, hyalinization and fibrosis of the seminiferous tubules, elevated urinary gonadotropin levels, and behavioural concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 80 yr. old male patient with ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and dyslipidaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 80 yr. old male patient with ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and dyslipidaemia presented with productive cough, fever with chills and loss of appetite for 4 days. On examination he was unwell and febrile with a temperature of 38.3. His blood pressure was 130/80mmHg and pulse rate was 140 bpm. Respiratory rate was 18 breaths per minute. On auscultation there were crepitations over the left lower zone of his chest. His abdomen was soft and non-tender. ECG showed an irregular narrow complex tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate acute management to treat his tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is acute atrial fibrillation (AF) precipitated by acute pneumonia. History of fever, cough and the auscultation findings support it. So the most appropriate management is treating the pneumonia with antibiotics. Treating the underlying cause will reduce the heart rate. Other responses are helpful in the management of chronic AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform indicates the closure...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform indicates the closure of the tricuspid valve?

      Your Answer: y descent

      Correct Answer: c wave

      Explanation:

      The a wave indicates atrial contraction. The c wave indicates ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole. The v wave indicates venous filling. The x descent indicates the atrium relaxation and the movement of tricuspid valve downward. The y descent indicates the filling of the ventricle after the opening of the tricuspid valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old retired firefighter with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old retired firefighter with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents due to the sensation of light flashes in his right eye. These symptoms have been present for the past 2 days and seem to occur more at the peripheral part of vision. There is no redness or pain in the affected eye. Corrected visual acuity is measured as 6/9 in both eyes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitreous detachment

      Explanation:

      Flashes and floaters are symptoms of vitreous detachment. The patient is at risk of retinal detachment and should be referred urgently to an ophthalmologist.

      The most common causes of a sudden painless loss of vision are as follows:
      – Ischaemic optic neuropathy (e.g. temporal arteritis or atherosclerosis)
      – Occlusion of central retinal vein
      – Occlusion of central retinal artery
      – Vitreous haemorrhage
      – Retinal detachment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness of his arms and legs. Which one of the following urine tests would best indicate lead toxicity?

      Your Answer: Coproporphyrin

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).

      For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      71.6
      Seconds

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