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  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic.
    Her daughter has noticed a progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic.
      Her daughter has noticed a progressive behavioural change in her mother. She is more aggressive whilst demanding attention. She giggles uncontrollably for no apparent reason, and has been seen wandering outside their house without proper clothing. She has also become more forgetful over the last six months.
      She is physically well and has no problems with her heart, blood pressure of diabetes. She is on no medication. You conduct cognitive testing and refer the woman for an EEG.
      What is the most probable EEG finding?

      Your Answer: Increased delta waves

      Correct Answer: Normal EEG

      Explanation:

      The individual’s age, behavioral changes, disinhibition, and fatuous giggling suggest a diagnosis of frontal lobe dementia, which is further supported by their physical examination. The absence of focal abnormalities on EEG rules out the possibility of vascular dementia. Typically, EEG results are normal during the early stages of this condition and remain so until the advanced stages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      80.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A child jumps from one subject to another without any clear link between...

    Incorrect

    • A child jumps from one subject to another without any clear link between them. What is the most appropriate term to describe this occurrence?

      Your Answer: Tangentiality

      Correct Answer: Derailment

      Explanation:

      Formal Thought Disorders

      In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.

      There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.

      Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.

      Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.

      Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.

      Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.

      Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.

      Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A teenage male patient taking risperidone reports sexual dysfunction and is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage male patient taking risperidone reports sexual dysfunction and is diagnosed with elevated prolactin levels. What would be the most appropriate alternative medication?

      Your Answer: Amisulpride

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Sexual side effects are rare when using aripiprazole.

      Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects

      Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.

      Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.

      Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.

      Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
      Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
      Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
      Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
      Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
      Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
      Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
      Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
      Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
      Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Pimozide + + – + + + +++
      Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
      Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++

      Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is a true statement about the QTc interval? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the QTc interval?

      Your Answer: The Bazett formula over corrects the QTc at heart rates > 100 bpm

      Explanation:

      To obtain an accurate measurement of the QT interval, it is recommended to measure it in lead II of leads V5-6. The Bazett formula may not provide accurate corrections for heart rates above 100 bpm of below 60 bpm, but it can be used to estimate the QT interval at a standard heart rate of 60 bpm through the corrected QT interval (QTc).

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In which hypothalamic nuclei are leptin receptors found in the highest concentration? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which hypothalamic nuclei are leptin receptors found in the highest concentration?

      Your Answer: Preoptic

      Correct Answer: Arcuate

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Hypothalamus

      The hypothalamus is a vital part of the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. It receives and integrates sensory information about the internal environment and directs actions to control internal homeostasis. The hypothalamus contains several nuclei and fiber tracts, each with specific functions.

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms. Neurons in the SCN have an intrinsic rhythm of discharge activity and receive input from the retina. The SCN is considered the body’s master clock, but it has multiple connections with other hypothalamic nuclei.

      Body temperature control is mainly under the control of the preoptic, anterior, and posterior nuclei, which have temperature-sensitive neurons. As the temperature goes above 37ºC, warm-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering parasympathetic activity to promote heat loss. As the temperature goes below 37ºC, cold-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering sympathetic activity to promote conservation of heat.

      The hypothalamus also plays a role in regulating prolactin secretion. Dopamine is tonically secreted by dopaminergic neurons that project from the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus into the anterior pituitary gland via the tuberoinfundibular pathway. The dopamine that is released acts on lactotrophic cells through D2-receptors, inhibiting prolactin synthesis. In the absence of pregnancy of lactation, prolactin is constitutively inhibited by dopamine. Dopamine antagonists result in hyperprolactinemia, while dopamine agonists inhibit prolactin secretion.

      In summary, the hypothalamus is a complex structure that regulates various bodily functions, including circadian rhythms, body temperature, and prolactin secretion. Dysfunction of the hypothalamus can lead to various disorders, such as sleep-rhythm disorder, diabetes insipidus, hyperprolactinemia, and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the accuracy of psychiatric diagnosis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the accuracy of psychiatric diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Is increased by semi-structured interviews

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric diagnosis reliability can be measured through observer and interview methods. With skilled practitioners, psychiatric diagnoses are now as reliable as clinical judgments in other medical fields, and sometimes even more so. To increase reliability and reduce disagreement, structured of standardized interviews can be used, along with definitions for all psychopathology items covered by the interview and operational definitions to ensure consistent diagnoses. The WHO conducted field trials in 1986, which showed almost global acceptability, coverage, and inter-rater reliability of psychiatric diagnostic categories. While reliability and validity are independent, reliability sets a limit on validity. Diagnostic criteria and standardized interview schedules have been proven to increase psychiatric diagnosis reliability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Disinhibition is most likely to occur as a result of dysfunction in which...

    Incorrect

    • Disinhibition is most likely to occur as a result of dysfunction in which of the following regions?

      Your Answer: Left frontal lobe

      Correct Answer: Right frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric and behavioral disturbances in individuals with frontal lobe lesions show a pattern of lateralization. Lesions in the left hemisphere are more commonly linked to depression, especially if they affect the prefrontal cortex’s dorsolateral region. Conversely, lesions in the right hemisphere are linked to impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression.

      Cerebral Dysfunction: Lobe-Specific Features

      When the brain experiences dysfunction, it can manifest in various ways depending on the affected lobe. In the frontal lobe, dysfunction can lead to contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, lack of initiative, Broca’s aphasia, and agraphia (dominant). The temporal lobe dysfunction can result in Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant), homonymous upper quadrantanopia, and auditory agnosia (non-dominant). On the other hand, the non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction can lead to anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia. Meanwhile, the dominant parietal lobe dysfunction can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lastly, occipital lobe dysfunction can lead to visual agnosia, visual illusions, and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which cytochrome gene plays the most significant role in the metabolism of antidepressants?...

    Incorrect

    • Which cytochrome gene plays the most significant role in the metabolism of antidepressants?

      Your Answer: 2A6

      Correct Answer: 2D6

      Explanation:

      Debrisoquine hydroxylase is the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing several antidepressants, such as tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), venlafaxine, and others. Approximately 5 out of 100 individuals are poor metabolisers, which can lead to increased side effects from medications that rely on CYP2D6 for metabolism. Conversely, ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher than average doses of these medications due to their highly active forms of the enzyme.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in a female...

    Incorrect

    • What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in a female adult?

      Your Answer: 440

      Correct Answer: 470

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is a true statement about priapism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about priapism?

      Your Answer: It is treated with oral alpha adrenergic antagonists

      Correct Answer: It is associated with chlorpromazine use

      Explanation:

      Females can experience priapism of the clitoris.

      Priapism: A Painful and Persistent Erection

      Priapism is a condition characterized by a prolonged and painful erection, which can occur in males and even in the clitoris. Although rare, certain medications such as antipsychotics and antidepressants have been known to cause priapism. The primary mechanism behind this condition is alpha blockade, although other mechanisms such as serotonin-mediated pathways have also been suggested. Some of the drugs most commonly associated with priapism include Trazodone, Chlorpromazine, and Thioridazine. Treatment involves the use of alpha-adrenergic agonists, which can be administered orally of injected directly into the penis. Priapism is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as penile amputation, although such cases are extremely rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A teenager with schizophrenia is admitted to the ward. They are assessed and...

    Correct

    • A teenager with schizophrenia is admitted to the ward. They are assessed and appear to have both positive and negative symptoms. Which of the following assessment tools would be most useful in monitoring their psychotic symptoms?

      Your Answer: PANSS

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Assessment Tools: Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS)

      As a language model AI, I am familiar with the rating scales used to assess individuals with schizophrenia. Two of the most commonly used scales are the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and the Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS). While there are many other scales available, these two are particularly important for exam purposes. The BPRS is a tool used to assess the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia, including positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms such as apathy and social withdrawal. The PANSS, on the other hand, is a more comprehensive tool that assesses both positive and negative symptoms, as well as general psychopathology. Both scales are useful in helping clinicians to evaluate the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the method used to identify the mode of inheritance for a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the method used to identify the mode of inheritance for a particular trait?

      Your Answer: Linkage analysis

      Correct Answer: Segregation analysis

      Explanation:

      Segregation and Linkage Analysis in Genetics

      In genetics, segregation analysis is a statistical approach that helps determine the mode of inheritance of a specific phenotype using family data. On the other hand, linkage analysis is a method used to identify the genetic location of a disease gene. The primary objective of linkage analysis is to find a piece of DNA that is inherited by all affected family members and not by any unaffected members. Once this DNA segment is identified, it indicates that the disease gene is located nearby. Both segregation and linkage analysis are crucial tools in genetic research, helping scientists understand the inheritance patterns of genetic traits and diseases. By using these methods, researchers can identify the genetic basis of various disorders and develop effective treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the name of the attitude assessment scale that typically employs a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the attitude assessment scale that typically employs a seven-point scale and presents bipolar options like 'strong' of 'weak'?

      Your Answer: Likert Scale

      Correct Answer: Semantic Differential Scale

      Explanation:

      Attitude scales are used to measure a person’s feelings and thoughts towards something. There are several types of attitude scales, including the Thurstone scale, Likert scale, semantic differential scale, and Gutman scale. The Thurstone scale involves creating a list of statements and having judges score them based on their negativity of positivity towards an issue. Respondents then indicate whether they agree of disagree with each statement. The Likert scale asks respondents to indicate their degree of agreement of disagreement with a series of statements using a five-point scale. The semantic differential scale presents pairs of opposite adjectives and asks respondents to rate their position on a five- of seven-point scale. The Gutman scale involves a list of statements that can be ordered hierarchically, with each statement having a corresponding weight. Respondents’ scores on the scale indicate the number of statements they agree with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following substances strongly activates CYP3A4? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following substances strongly activates CYP3A4?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is known for its ability to induce CYP3A4, which can lead to increased metabolism of not only itself but also other drugs. This often necessitates dosage adjustments for other medications. Alcohol, on the other hand, induces CYP2E1. Fluoxetine and paroxetine are potent inhibitors of CYP3A4, while reboxetine is an inhibitor of CYP3A4 with minimal clinical significance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the frequency of the A allele in the population of 400...

    Incorrect

    • What is the frequency of the A allele in the population of 400 diploid individuals, given that 15 individuals have the AA genotype and 25 have the Aa genotype?

      Your Answer: 0.25

      Correct Answer: 0.07

      Explanation:

      Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Allele Frequency

      Allele frequency refers to the proportion of a population that carries a specific variant at a particular gene locus. It can be calculated by dividing the number of individual alleles of a certain type by the total number of alleles in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that both allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation unless specific disturbing influences are introduced. To remain in equilibrium, five conditions must be met, including no mutations, no gene flow, random mating, a sufficiently large population, and no natural selection. The Hardy-Weinberg Equation is used to predict the frequency of alleles in a population, and it can be used to estimate the carrier frequency of genetic diseases. For example, if the incidence of PKU is one in 10,000 babies, then the carrier frequency in the general population is 1/50. Couples with a previous child with PKU have a 25% chance of having another affected child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      73.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are evaluating a child whom you suspect may have a diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a child whom you suspect may have a diagnosis of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). You determine that using an assessment tool would be helpful in confirming your diagnosis.
      Which of the following assessment tools would be most advantageous for your evaluation?

      Your Answer: Stanford-Binet test

      Correct Answer: Millon clinical multiaxial inventory

      Explanation:

      The Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory-III (MCMI-III) is a self-report questionnaire that can be utilized to evaluate personality disorders. It is designed to provide information on a patient’s personality traits, clinical syndromes, and overall psychological functioning.

      The Cambridge Neuropsychological Test Automated Battery (CANTAB) is a computer-based cognitive assessment system that measures various cognitive functions such as attention, memory, and executive function. It is commonly used in research and clinical settings to assess cognitive impairment in patients with neurological disorders.

      The Hayling-Brixton tests are neuropsychological tests that evaluate executive function, specifically response inhibition and initiation. These tests are often used to assess patients with brain injuries of neurological disorders.

      The Luria-Nebraska Battery is a comprehensive neuropsychological battery that assesses various functions such as motor skills, memory, rhythm, reading, and writing. It is commonly used to evaluate patients with brain injuries of neurological disorders.

      The Stanford-Binet test is an intelligence test that measures cognitive abilities such as verbal and nonverbal reasoning, spatial perception, and quantitative reasoning. It is commonly used in educational and clinical settings to assess intellectual functioning.

      For further reading on these assessments, additional information can be found through Pearson, the publisher of the MCMI-III.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Where are Lewy bodies commonly located within the basal ganglia in individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • Where are Lewy bodies commonly located within the basal ganglia in individuals with Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: The caudate nucleus

      Correct Answer: The pars compacta

      Explanation:

      The midbrain contains a section called the pars compacta, which is made up of neurons that produce dopamine and is situated next to the pars reticulata. Parkinson’s disease is identified by the loss of these dopamine-producing neurons in this area.

      Parkinson’s Disease Pathology

      Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects the central nervous system. The pathology of Parkinson’s disease is very similar to that of Lewy body dementia. The macroscopic features of Parkinson’s disease include pallor of the substantia nigra (midbrain) and locus coeruleus (pons). The microscopic changes include the presence of Lewy bodies, which are intracellular aggregates of alpha-synuclein. Additionally, there is a loss of dopaminergic cells from the substantia nigra pars compacta. These changes contribute to the motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Understanding the pathology of Parkinson’s disease is crucial for developing effective treatments and improving the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following scenarios would indicate that there is no linkage based...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following scenarios would indicate that there is no linkage based on the LOD score?

      Your Answer: -2

      Correct Answer: -3

      Explanation:

      Linkage and LOD Scores in Genetics

      In genetics, when genes are located close to each other on a chromosome, they tend to be inherited together and are referred to as linked genes. Conversely, genes that are far apart of located on different chromosomes are inherited independently and are said to follow independent assortment. To determine the relative distance between two genes, scientists can analyze the offspring of an organism that displays two strongly linked traits and calculate the percentage of offspring where the traits do not co-segregate.

      To determine if there is evidence for linkage between two genes, scientists use a statistical method called the LOD score (logarithm of the odds). A LOD score of >3 is considered significant evidence for linkage, while a LOD score of <-2 excludes linkage. The LOD score is calculated by comparing the likelihood of the observed data under the assumption of linkage to the likelihood of the data under the assumption of independent assortment. The LOD score provides a measure of the strength of evidence for linkage between two genes and is widely used in genetic research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is not a recognized symptom associated with hyponatremia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a recognized symptom associated with hyponatremia?

      Your Answer: Chest pain

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the primary component of alpha-synuclein? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary component of alpha-synuclein?

      Your Answer: Neurofibrillary tangles

      Correct Answer: Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is a neurodegenerative disorder that is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopically, there is cerebral atrophy, but it is less marked than in Alzheimer’s disease, and the brain weight is usually in the normal range. There is also pallor of the substantia nigra and the locus coeruleus, which are regions of the brain that produce dopamine and norepinephrine, respectively.

      Microscopically, Lewy body dementia is characterized by the presence of intracellular protein accumulations called Lewy bodies. The major component of a Lewy body is alpha synuclein, and as they grow, they start to draw in other proteins such as ubiquitin. Lewy bodies are also found in Alzheimer’s disease, but they tend to be in the amygdala. They can also be found in healthy individuals, although it has been suggested that these may be pre-clinical cases of dementia with Lewy bodies. Lewy bodies are also found in other neurodegenerative disorders such as progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration, and multiple system atrophy.

      In Lewy body dementia, Lewy bodies are mainly found within the brainstem, but they are also found in non-brainstem regions such as the amygdaloid nucleus, parahippocampal gyrus, cingulate cortex, and cerebral neocortex. Classic brainstem Lewy bodies are spherical intraneuronal cytoplasmic inclusions, characterized by hyaline eosinophilic cores, concentric lamellar bands, narrow pale halos, and immunoreactivity for alpha synuclein and ubiquitin. In contrast, cortical Lewy bodies typically lack a halo.

      Most brains with Lewy body dementia also show some plaques and tangles, although in most instances, the lesions are not nearly as severe as in Alzheimer’s disease. Neuronal loss and gliosis are usually restricted to brainstem regions, particularly the substantia nigra and locus ceruleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Before administering regular doses of which long-acting injectable antipsychotic medication, a test dose...

    Incorrect

    • Before administering regular doses of which long-acting injectable antipsychotic medication, a test dose must be given?

      Your Answer: Paliperidone

      Correct Answer: Zuclopenthixol

      Explanation:

      According to the Maudsley Guidelines, it is recommended to administer a test dose for all first generation antipsychotics. Following the test dose, it is advised to wait 4-10 days before administering the next dose.

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which movement disorder is most likely to be managed through suppression? ...

    Correct

    • Which movement disorder is most likely to be managed through suppression?

      Your Answer: Stereotypies

      Explanation:

      Movement Disorders: Key Features

      Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:

      Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

      Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

      Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.

      Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.

      Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.

      Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.

      Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.

      Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.

      Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.

      Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.

      Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.

      Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.

      It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      82.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the enzyme responsible for converting 5-hydroxytryptophan into serotonin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme responsible for converting 5-hydroxytryptophan into serotonin?

      Your Answer: Tryptophan hydroxylase

      Correct Answer: L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase

      Explanation:

      Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown

      Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.

      The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.

      Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What type of chromosome is most vulnerable to Robertsonian translocations? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of chromosome is most vulnerable to Robertsonian translocations?

      Your Answer: Metacentric

      Correct Answer: Acrocentric

      Explanation:

      Robertsonian translocations can involve chromosomes with very small p arms, which are known as acrocentric chromosomes.

      Understanding Centromeres

      A centromere is a crucial part of DNA that connects two sister chromatids. It plays a vital role in cell division by keeping the sister chromatids aligned and allowing the chromosomes to be lined up during metaphase. The position of the centromere divides the chromosome into two arms, the long (q) and the short (p). Chromosomes are classified based on the position of the centromere. Metacentric chromosomes have arms of roughly equal length, and they can be formed by Robertsonian translocations. Acrocentric chromosomes can also be involved in Robertsonian translocations. Monocentric chromosomes have only one centromere and form a narrow constriction, while holocentric chromosomes have the entire length of the chromosome acting as the centromere. Understanding the role and classification of centromeres is essential in comprehending the process of cell division.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An important function of hepatic metabolism is to make a drug: ...

    Incorrect

    • An important function of hepatic metabolism is to make a drug:

      Your Answer: More lipid soluble

      Correct Answer: More water soluble

      Explanation:

      Understanding Biotransformation: A Metabolic Process for Excretion

      Biotransformation is a metabolic process that occurs primarily in the liver, but also in other organs such as the kidneys, intestine, adipose, skin, and lungs. Its main function is to facilitate the excretion of both exogenous and endogenous substances by altering their chemical structures through a series of reactions. Enzymes found in the cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, and mitochondria of cells catalyze these reactions, which can cause the substrate to become inactive, active, of even toxic.

      Biotransformation is divided into three phases. Phase I reactions involve oxidation, reduction, of hydrolysis of the drug, yielding a polar, water-soluble metabolite that is often still active. Phase II reactions consist of adding hydrophilic groups to the original molecule, a toxic intermediate, of a nontoxic metabolite formed in phase I, to increase its polarity. The most common method is conjugation with glucuronic acid, but other groups such as sulphate, amino acids, acetate, and methyl can also be added. Phase III reactions occur post-phase II, where a chemical substance can undergo further metabolism and excretion through active transport into the urinary of hepatobiliary system.

      Understanding biotransformation is crucial in pharmacology and toxicology, as it affects the efficacy and toxicity of drugs and other substances. By facilitating the excretion of these substances, biotransformation helps maintain homeostasis in the body and prevent accumulation of potentially harmful compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following does not provide evidence for a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not provide evidence for a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism?

      Your Answer: Hyporeflexia

      Explanation:

      Both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism can lead to the development of pretibial myxoedema, while hyporeflexia is typically only observed in cases of hypothyroidism.

      Thyroid Examination Findings

      Hypothyroidism:

      – Weight gain (with decreased appetite)
      – Intolerance to cold
      – Lethargy
      – Constipation
      – Menstrual disturbances
      – Decreased perspiration

      Exam findings:

      – Hair loss
      – Bradycardia
      – Periorbital puffiness and dry skin
      – Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
      – Myxoedema
      – Hyporeflexia

      Hyperthyroidism:

      – Weight loss (with increased appetite)
      – Intolerance to heat
      – Palpitations
      – Menstrual disturbances

      Exam findings:

      – Hair loss
      – Tachycardia
      – Warm, moist, and smooth skin
      – Tremor
      – Brisk reflexes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Who is recognized for discovering the therapeutic effects of lithium on mania? ...

    Correct

    • Who is recognized for discovering the therapeutic effects of lithium on mania?

      Your Answer: Cade

      Explanation:

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the most probable outcome of a blockage in the anterior cerebral...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable outcome of a blockage in the anterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer: Motor aphasia

      Explanation:

      The frontal part of the brain responsible for motor function is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is a distinguishing characteristic of normal pressure hydrocephalus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a distinguishing characteristic of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

      Your Answer: Papilledema

      Correct Answer: Incontinence

      Explanation:

      Headache, nausea, vomiting, papilledema, and ocular palsies are symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, which are not typically present in cases of normal pressure hydrocephalus.

      Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of chronic communicating hydrocephalus, which occurs due to the impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by the arachnoid villi. Although the CSF pressure is typically high, it remains within the normal range, and therefore, it does not cause symptoms of high intracranial pressure (ICP) such as headache and nausea. Instead, patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus usually present with a classic triad of symptoms, including incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, and wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.

      The classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus, also known as Hakim’s triad, includes gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. On the other hand, non-communicating hydrocephalus results from the obstruction of CSF flow in the third of fourth ventricle, which causes symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, such as headache, vomiting, hypertension, bradycardia, altered consciousness, and papilledema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the accurate statement about the pathology of Huntington's disease? ...

    Correct

    • What is the accurate statement about the pathology of Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer: There is marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.

      The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.

      The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.

      The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.

      Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.

      In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      63.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (1/8) 13%
Classification And Assessment (3/5) 60%
Psychopharmacology (4/10) 40%
Assessment (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/5) 20%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (0/1) 0%
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