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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient is diagnosed with an inguinal hernia and is scheduled for open surgical repair. During the procedure, the surgeons opt to use a mesh to reinforce the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. What structures will be located behind the mesh?
Your Answer: External oblique
Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia
Explanation:The posterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the transversalis fascia, the conjoint tendon, and the deep inguinal ring located laterally. The superior wall (roof) is made up of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles, while the anterior wall consists of the aponeurosis of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles. The lower wall (floor) is formed by the inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament.
The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.
The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife. She reports that he woke up with numbness in his left arm and leg. During your examination, you observe nystagmus and suspect that he may have lateral medullary syndrome. What other feature is most likely to be present on his examination?
Your Answer: Ipsilateral facial paralysis
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral dysphagia
Explanation:Lateral medullary syndrome can lead to difficulty swallowing on the same side as the lesion, along with limb sensory loss and nystagmus. This condition is caused by a blockage in the posterior inferior cerebellar artery. However, it does not typically cause ipsilateral deafness or CN III palsy, which are associated with other types of brain lesions. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia are also not typically seen in lateral medullary syndrome. Ipsilateral facial paralysis can occur in lateral pontine syndrome, but not in lateral medullary syndrome.
Understanding Lateral Medullary Syndrome
Lateral medullary syndrome, also referred to as Wallenberg’s syndrome, is a condition that arises when the posterior inferior cerebellar artery becomes blocked. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms that affect both the cerebellum and brainstem. Cerebellar features of the syndrome include ataxia and nystagmus, while brainstem features include dysphagia, facial numbness, and cranial nerve palsy such as Horner’s. Additionally, patients may experience contralateral limb sensory loss. Understanding the symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a concern of small red bumps that are itchy on his abdomen and thighs for the past three days. He noticed yesterday that the rash has become tender. Additionally, he feels fatigued. He went to a water park with his friends five days ago, and no one he knows has had this rash recently.
What is the most probable organism responsible for this rash?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Hot tub folliculitis is primarily caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Diarrhoea, often seen in individuals who have been treated with antibiotics, can be caused by Clostridium difficile infection of the bowel.
Granulomatous diseases are typically caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Boils are commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A Gram-negative Rod Causing Various Infections
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the environment. It is a Gram-negative rod that can cause a range of infections in humans. Some of the infections it causes include chest infections, skin infections such as burns and wound infections, otitis externa, and urinary tract infections.
In the laboratory, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is identified as a Gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose and is oxidase positive. The bacteria produce both an endotoxin and exotoxin A. The endotoxin causes fever and shock, while exotoxin A inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2.
Overall, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a pathogenic bacteria that can cause a variety of infections in humans. Its ability to produce toxins makes it particularly dangerous and difficult to treat. Proper hygiene and infection control measures can help prevent the spread of this bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer experiences severe groin pain upon getting out of bed due to an oestolytic deposit in the proximal femur. X-rays reveal an avulsed lesser trochanter. What muscle is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Gluteus maximus
Correct Answer: Psoas major
Explanation:The lesser trochanter is the insertion point for the psoas major, which contracts during the act of raising the trunk from a supine position. In cases where there are oestolytic lesions in the femur, the lesser trochanter may become avulsed.
The Psoas Muscle: Origin, Insertion, Innervation, and Action
The psoas muscle is a deep-seated muscle that originates from the transverse processes of the five lumbar vertebrae and the superficial part originates from T12 and the first four lumbar vertebrae. It inserts into the lesser trochanter of the femur and is innervated by the anterior rami of L1 to L3.
The main action of the psoas muscle is flexion and external rotation of the hip. When both sides of the muscle contract, it can raise the trunk from the supine position. The psoas muscle is an important muscle for maintaining proper posture and movement, and it is often targeted in exercises such as lunges and leg lifts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old patient visits his doctor 5 days after his last appointment, worried about passing very small amounts of urine for the past 4 days. He was prescribed gentamicin for an infection during his last visit. The doctor suspects gentamicin-induced nephrotoxicity and conducts an examination, finding no abnormalities and normal blood pressure and temperature. The patient's fractional excretion of urine is greater than 4%, and a urine sample is sent to the lab for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity. What would be observed on microscopy if the doctor's suspicion is correct?
Your Answer: Red cell casts
Correct Answer: Brown granular casts
Explanation:The clinical significance of various laboratory findings is summarized in the table below:
Laboratory Finding Clinical Significance
Elevated creatinine and BUN Indicates impaired kidney function
Low serum albumin Indicates malnutrition or liver disease
Elevated liver enzymes Indicates liver damage or disease
Elevated glucose Indicates diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance
Elevated potassium Indicates kidney dysfunction or medication side effect
Elevated sodium Indicates dehydration or excessive sodium intake
Elevated nitrites Indicates urinary tract infection
Elevated white blood cells Indicates infection or inflammation
Elevated red blood cells Indicates dehydration or kidney disease
Elevated platelets Indicates clotting disorder or inflammationDifferent Types of Urinary Casts and Their Significance
Urine contains various types of urinary casts that can provide important information about the underlying condition of the patient. Hyaline casts, for instance, are composed of Tamm-Horsfall protein that is secreted by the distal convoluted tubule. These casts are commonly seen in normal urine, after exercise, during fever, or with loop diuretics. On the other hand, brown granular casts in urine are indicative of acute tubular necrosis.
In prerenal uraemia, the urinary sediment appears ‘bland’, which means that there are no significant abnormalities in the urine. Lastly, red cell casts are associated with nephritic syndrome, which is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. By analyzing the type of urinary casts present in the urine, healthcare professionals can diagnose and manage various kidney diseases and disorders. Proper identification and interpretation of urinary casts can help in the early detection and treatment of kidney problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, weight gain, feeling cold and low mood for the past few months. Upon conducting blood tests, the results show:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 10.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 3.6 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
The doctor diagnoses the patient with hypothyroidism and prescribes levothyroxine. What is the target that this medication binds to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nuclear receptors
Explanation:Levothyroxine exerts its effects by binding to nuclear receptors located within the nucleus of the cell. As a result, the molecule must be lipid-soluble to penetrate the cell membrane and affect gene transcription. Other drugs that work via nuclear receptors include hormone replacements like levothyroxine and steroids such as prednisolone.
Enzymatic binding is an incorrect answer because levothyroxine does not bind to an enzyme in the cytoplasm. Instead, it diffuses into the nucleus of the cell and binds to a receptor there.
GPCR, ion channel, and tyrosine kinase receptor are also incorrect answers. GPCRs are cell membrane-spanning receptors, ion channels are simple, membrane-spanning receptors, and tyrosine kinase receptors lead to phosphorylation of end-targets within the cell. These mechanisms are different from the nuclear receptor mechanism used by levothyroxine.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old pregnant woman is admitted to the hospital and delivers a baby girl at 32 weeks gestation. The newborn displays signs of distress including tachypnoea, tachycardia, expiratory grunting, nasal flaring, and chest wall recession.
What is the cell type responsible for producing the substance that the baby is lacking?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes
Explanation:Types of Pneumocytes and Their Functions
Pneumocytes are specialized cells found in the lungs that play a crucial role in gas exchange. There are two main types of pneumocytes: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 pneumocytes are very thin squamous cells that cover around 97% of the alveolar surface. On the other hand, type 2 pneumocytes are cuboidal cells that secrete surfactant, a substance that reduces surface tension in the alveoli and prevents their collapse during expiration.
Type 2 pneumocytes start to develop around 24 weeks gestation, but adequate surfactant production does not take place until around 35 weeks. This is why premature babies are prone to respiratory distress syndrome. In addition, type 2 pneumocytes can differentiate into type 1 pneumocytes during lung damage, helping to repair and regenerate damaged lung tissue.
Apart from pneumocytes, there are also club cells (previously termed Clara cells) found in the bronchioles. These non-ciliated dome-shaped cells have a varied role, including protecting against the harmful effects of inhaled toxins and secreting glycosaminoglycans and lysozymes. Understanding the different types of pneumocytes and their functions is essential in comprehending the complex mechanisms involved in respiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A newborn with clubbed feet passes away shortly after birth due to severe respiratory distress. The mother did not receive any prenatal care. Autopsy reveals pulmonary hypoplasia.
What other clinical manifestations are likely to be present?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral renal agenesis and oligohydramnios
Explanation:Potter sequence is a condition characterized by oligohydramnios, which can be caused by renal diseases like bilateral renal agenesis, ARPKD, and ADPKD. This condition often leads to pulmonary hypoplasia, clubbed feet, and cranial anomalies in neonates. However, oesophageal atresia, which causes polyhydramnios, is not associated with Potter sequence.
Understanding Autosomal Recessive Polycystic Kidney Disease (ARPKD)
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) is a rare genetic disorder that affects the kidneys and liver. Unlike the more common autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), ARPKD is caused by a defect in a gene on chromosome 6 that encodes fibrocystin, a protein essential for normal renal tubule development.
ARPKD is typically diagnosed during prenatal ultrasound or in early infancy when abdominal masses and renal failure are observed. Newborns with ARPKD may also exhibit features consistent with Potter’s syndrome due to oligohydramnios. The disease progresses rapidly, and end-stage renal failure usually develops in childhood. In addition to kidney involvement, patients with ARPKD often have liver complications such as portal and interlobular fibrosis.
Renal biopsy is a common diagnostic tool for ARPKD, which typically shows multiple cylindrical lesions at right angles to the cortical surface. Early diagnosis and management are crucial in improving outcomes for patients with ARPKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and weight loss that has been going on for 6 weeks. She reports feeling dizzy when she stands up and has noticed a tan all over her body, despite it being early spring in the UK.
Upon conducting a blood test, it is found that she has hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia, with normal full blood count results. A lying-standing blood pressure reading shows a postural drop of 36 mmHg.
What is the most likely cause of this woman's presentation in the UK, given her symptoms and test results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autoimmune adrenal insufficiency
Explanation:The most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms is autoimmune adrenalitis, which is responsible for the majority of cases of hypoadrenalism. In this condition, auto-antibodies attack the adrenal gland, leading to a decrease or complete loss of cortisol and aldosterone production. This results in low blood pressure, electrolyte imbalances, and a significant drop in blood pressure upon standing. The body compensates for the low cortisol levels by producing more adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which can cause the skin to take on a bronze hue.
While iodine deficiency is a common cause of hypothyroidism worldwide, it is not consistent with this patient’s presentation. A mutation in the HFE gene can lead to haemochromatosis, which can cause reduced libido and skin darkening, but it does not match the electrolyte abnormalities described. Pituitary tumors and tuberculosis can also cause hypoadrenalism, but they are less common in the UK compared to autoimmune causes.
Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.
Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.
It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of sudden onset weakness on the right side of his face and arm. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and admits to occasionally forgetting to take his anticoagulant medication. During a complete neurological examination, you assess the corneal reflex. What nerves are involved in the corneal reflex test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ophthalmic nerve and facial nerve
Explanation:The corneal reflex involves the afferent limb of the nasociliary branch of the ophthalmic nerve and the efferent impulse of the facial nerve. The optic nerve carries visual information, the oculomotor nerve supplies motor innervation to extra-ocular muscles, the ophthalmic nerve carries sensation from the orbit, and the facial nerve innervates muscles of facial expression and carries taste and parasympathetic fibers.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old ex-alcoholic patient complains of significant weight loss, jaundice, and experiences pain in his right shoulder. Upon diagnosis, he is found to have hepatocellular carcinoma. Which nerve root is most likely responsible for the shoulder tip pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C4
Explanation:Shoulder Tip Pain and Diaphragmatic Irritation
Shoulder tip pain can be a sign of diaphragmatic irritation, which is caused by the musculo-tendinous structure that is innervated by the phrenic nerve (C3, C4, C5). This irritation can present as shoulder pain because part of the shoulder is supplied by C4 cutaneous nerves. There are many different conditions that can irritate the diaphragm, including diseases of the liver, stomach, kidneys, and lungs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is hospitalized with pneumonia, which is suspected to be a complication of a recent infection. He had visited his doctor a week ago, complaining of a high fever and symptoms resembling a cold. Additionally, he had developed a red rash around his hairline that seemed to be spreading down his neck. Based on this information, what is the primary method of transmission for the initial infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aerosol
Explanation:The most likely mode of transmission for measles is through aerosols. The woman’s symptoms and subsequent rash near the hairline indicate a measles infection, which is highly contagious and can be spread through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. While contaminated surfaces may also transmit the virus, it is not the primary mode of transmission. Measles is not transmitted through the faecal-oral route or intravenously, as it is found in the nose and throat of an infected person and not in their faeces or blood.
Measles: A Highly Infectious Disease
Measles is a viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious viruses known and is spread through aerosol transmission. The incubation period is 10-14 days, and the virus is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop.
The prodromal phase of measles is characterized by irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. These white spots on the buccal mucosa typically develop before the rash. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered for immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. It is a notifiable disease, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unvaccinated child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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When setting up a screening program, which of the following is not a crucial criterion according to Wilson and Junger?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The condition should be potentially curable
Explanation:Screening for a particular condition should meet certain criteria, known as the Wilson and Junger criteria. Firstly, the condition being screened for should be a significant public health concern. Secondly, there should be an effective treatment available for those who are diagnosed with the disease. Thirdly, facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be accessible. Fourthly, there should be a recognizable early stage of the disease. Fifthly, the natural progression of the disease should be well understood. Sixthly, there should be a suitable test or examination available. Seventhly, the test or examination should be acceptable to the population being screened. Eighthly, there should be a clear policy on who should be treated. Ninthly, the cost of screening and subsequent treatment should be economically balanced. Finally, screening should be an ongoing process rather than a one-time event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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During a sigmoid colectomy for colonic cancer in a 56-year-old man, which structure is most vulnerable to damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left ureter
Explanation:The left ureter is the structure that is most commonly encountered and at the highest risk of damage by a careless surgeon, although all of these structures are at risk.
The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.
The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.
The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old businessman comes to his GP complaining of fever, headache, and diarrhoea. He denies having any coughs, nausea, or vomiting. He has a good health history. However, he recently returned from a business trip to India three weeks ago. He has been consuming the same food and drinks as his family since his return, and they are all healthy. During the examination, the man seems dehydrated and has tenderness in the right upper quadrant.
What do you think is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.
While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).
It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Incorrect
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These results were obtained on a 30-year-old male who has presented with tiredness:
Free T4 9.3 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
TSH 49.31 mU/L (0.35-5.50)
What signs might be expected in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Slow relaxation of biceps reflex
Explanation:Diagnosis and Symptoms of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is diagnosed through blood tests that show low levels of T4 and elevated levels of TSH. Physical examination may reveal slow relaxation of tendon jerks, bradycardia, and goitre. A bruit over a goitre is associated with Graves’ thyrotoxicosis, while palmar erythema and fine tremor occur in thyrotoxicosis. In addition to these common symptoms, hypothyroidism may also present with rarer features such as cerebellar features, compression neuropathies, hypothermia, and macrocytic anaemia. It is important to diagnose and treat hypothyroidism promptly to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A previously healthy woman of 23 years-old presented with acute epigastric pain. On investigations, a largely elevated lipase was discovered with a normal amylase level, and a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis was made. This patient rarely drinks alcohol, and ultrasonography of the abdomen ruled out gallstones. The results of tests for autoimmune pancreatitis were negative. Twenty days later, imaging tests using magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) revealed the cause of the chronic pancreatitis.
What was the most probable reason behind the chronic pancreatitis in this 23-year-old woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreas divisum
Explanation:Pancreas divisum is a condition where the dorsal and ventral buds of the pancreas fail to fuse in a portion of the population. This can lead to chronic pancreatitis due to insufficient drainage of pancreatic secretions through the minor papilla instead of the major papilla. Other causes of chronic pancreatitis include autoimmune pancreatitis and cystic fibrosis, but these have been ruled out in this case as the patient is a previously healthy individual with negative autoimmune antibodies. Acute pancreatitis can be caused by mumps or a Trinidadian scorpion bite.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a splenic rupture without any history of trauma. Which infection is known to cause spontaneous splenic rupture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus
Explanation:Generalized lymphadenopathy may be caused by the Epstein-Barr Virus, which can also be linked to splenomegaly. This enlargement has been known to result in spontaneous rupture.
The Anatomy and Function of the Spleen
The spleen is an organ located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Its size can vary depending on the amount of blood it contains, but the typical adult spleen is 12.5cm long and 7.5cm wide, with a weight of 150g. The spleen is almost entirely covered by peritoneum and is separated from the 9th, 10th, and 11th ribs by both diaphragm and pleural cavity. Its shape is influenced by the state of the colon and stomach, with gastric distension causing it to resemble an orange segment and colonic distension causing it to become more tetrahedral.
The spleen has two folds of peritoneum that connect it to the posterior abdominal wall and stomach: the lienorenal ligament and gastrosplenic ligament. The lienorenal ligament contains the splenic vessels, while the short gastric and left gastroepiploic branches of the splenic artery pass through the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament. The spleen is in contact with the phrenicocolic ligament laterally.
The spleen has two main functions: filtration and immunity. It filters abnormal blood cells and foreign bodies such as bacteria, and produces properdin and tuftsin, which help target fungi and bacteria for phagocytosis. The spleen also stores 40% of platelets, utilizes iron, and stores monocytes. Disorders of the spleen include massive splenomegaly, myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, visceral leishmaniasis, malaria, Gaucher’s syndrome, portal hypertension, lymphoproliferative disease, haemolytic anaemia, infection, infective endocarditis, sickle-cell, thalassaemia, and rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is being examined on the geriatric ward during the morning ward round. He reports feeling fine this morning. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, recurrent falls, severe asthma and diverticulosis.
During the examination, the doctor notices twitching of the facial muscles when tapping his face. Other than that, no abnormalities are found.
What could be causing the facial muscle twitching in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:Denosumab has been known to cause hypocalcaemia, which can be identified through the examination finding of facial twitching upon tapping of the face, also known as Chvostek’s sign. This is due to the drug’s ability to inhibit the formation, function, and survival of osteoclasts, which are responsible for releasing calcium into the blood through bone resorption.
On the other hand, lithium is a mood stabilizer that can cause hypercalcaemia by resetting the setpoint for PTH. However, since there is no mention of the patient being on lithium in their medical history, this is unlikely to be the cause of their condition.
Rhabdomyolysis, which can result in hypercalcaemia, is often seen in patients who have experienced falls or prolonged bed rest, particularly in geriatric wards where patients may be less mobile.
Thiazide-like diuretics, such as indapamide, can also cause hypercalcaemia by increasing urinary calcium resorption. However, this usually resolves once the diuretic is discontinued.
Finally, milk-alkali syndrome is a condition characterized by high blood calcium levels caused by excessive intake of calcium and absorbable alkali, often through dietary supplements or antacids taken to prevent osteoporosis.
Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.
The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A routine ECG is performed on a 24-year-old man. Which segment of the tracing obtained indicates the repolarization of the atria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:During the QRS complex, the process of atrial repolarisation is typically not discernible on the ECG strip.
Understanding the Normal ECG
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.
The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.
Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The blood-brain barrier is not easily penetrated by which of the following substances?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrogen ions
Explanation:The blood brain barrier restricts the passage of highly dissociated compounds.
Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.
The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.
The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man is informed of his hypertension during routine check-ups. The physician clarifies that his age increases the likelihood of a secondary cause for his hypertension. What is the primary cause of secondary hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal disease
Explanation:Secondary hypertension is primarily caused by renal disease, while other endocrine diseases like hyperaldosteronism, phaeochromocytoma, and acromegaly are less common culprits. Malignancy and pregnancy typically do not lead to hypertension, although pregnancy can result in pre-eclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure. Certain medications, such as NSAIDs and glucocorticoids, can also induce hypertension.
Secondary Causes of Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can be caused by various factors. While primary hypertension has no identifiable cause, secondary hypertension is caused by an underlying medical condition. The most common cause of secondary hypertension is primary hyperaldosteronism, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. Other causes include renal diseases such as glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, adult polycystic kidney disease, and renal artery stenosis. Endocrine disorders like phaeochromocytoma, Cushing’s syndrome, Liddle’s syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and acromegaly can also result in increased blood pressure. Certain medications like steroids, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, the combined oral contraceptive pill, NSAIDs, and leflunomide can also cause hypertension. Pregnancy and coarctation of the aorta are other possible causes. Identifying and treating the underlying condition is crucial in managing secondary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after being stabbed in the back. The knife has penetrated his spinal column at a perpendicular angle, causing damage to the termination of his spinal cord.
Which spinal level has been affected by the knife's penetration?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L1
Explanation:In adults, the level of L1 is where the spinal cord usually ends.
Lumbar Puncture Procedure
Lumbar puncture is a medical procedure that involves obtaining cerebrospinal fluid. In adults, the procedure is typically performed at the L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace, which is located below the spinal cord’s terminates at L1.
During the procedure, the needle passes through several layers. First, it penetrates the supraspinous ligament, which connects the tips of spinous processes. Then, it passes through the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes. Next, the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, which may cause a give. Finally, the needle passes through the dura mater into the subarachnoid space, which is marked by a second give. At this point, clear cerebrospinal fluid should be obtained.
Overall, the lumbar puncture procedure is a complex process that requires careful attention to detail. By following the proper steps and guidelines, medical professionals can obtain cerebrospinal fluid safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Adrenaline is commonly released into the bloodstream during a normal physiological stress response. Upon entering the systemic circulation, adrenaline interacts with different adrenergic receptors, such as the β1 receptor.
What is the outcome of stimulating this receptor?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive inotropic effect on the myocardium
Explanation:Stimulation of β1 adrenergic receptors leads to the contraction of cardiac muscle. This is because β1 receptor agonism results in positive inotropic and chronotropic effects, which increase the force and rate of cardiac contractions. It is important to note that β2 receptor agonism causes dilation of respiratory smooth muscle, while α2 receptor agonism inhibits insulin release from pancreatic β cells. The negative chronotropic effect on the myocardium is not caused by β1 receptor agonism, but rather by β1 receptor antagonism. Therefore, adrenaline would have a positive chronotropic effect on the myocardium.
Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A study examines the impact of age on male cardiologists. A group is chosen and divided into four categories based on their age. The first group is under 30, the second is between 30 and 45, the third is between 45 and 60, and the fourth is over 60. The group is monitored for the next ten years, and the incidence of heart disease is documented.
What is the dependent variable in this research?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rates of liver cirrhosis
Explanation:Understanding Variables in Research
Variables are characteristics, numbers, or quantities that can be measured or counted. They are also known as data items and can vary between data units in a population. Examples of variables include age, sex, income, expenses, and grades. In a typical study, there are three main variables: independent, dependent, and controlled.
The independent variable is the one that the researcher purposely changes during the investigation. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and changes in response to the independent variable. Controlled variables are those that are not changed during the experiment.
Dependent variables are affected by independent variables but not by controlled variables. For instance, in a weight loss medication study, the dosage of the medication is the independent variable, while the weight of the participants is the dependent variable. The researcher splits the participants into three groups, with each group receiving a different dosage of the medication. After six months, the participants’ weights are measured.
Understanding variables is crucial in research as it helps researchers to identify the factors that influence the outcome of their studies. By manipulating the independent variable, researchers can observe how it affects the dependent variable. Controlled variables help to ensure that the results are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 26
Incorrect
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As the pregnancy progresses, at what stage does the foetus typically begin producing surfactant?
A mother has been informed that she will have to deliver her baby prematurely due to complications in the pregnancy. To decrease the chances of neonatal distress syndrome, doctors have administered steroids to stimulate surfactant production in the foetus. They clarify that the foetus is already generating its own surfactant, and these steroids will enhance the process.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Week 22
Explanation:Lung development in humans begins at week 4 with the formation of the respiratory diverticulum. By week 10, the lungs start to grow as tertiary bronchial buds form. Terminal bronchioles begin to form around week 18. The saccular stage of lung development, which marks the earliest viability for a human fetus, occurs at around 22-24 weeks when type 2 alveolar cells start producing surfactant. By week 30, the primary alveoli form as the mesenchyme surrounding the lungs becomes highly vascular.
The Importance of Pulmonary Surfactant in Breathing
Pulmonary surfactant is a substance composed of phospholipids, carbohydrates, and proteins that is released by type 2 pneumocytes. Its main component, dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine (DPPC), plays a crucial role in reducing alveolar surface tension. This substance is first detectable around 28 weeks and increases in concentration as the alveoli decrease in size. This helps prevent the alveoli from collapsing and reduces the muscular force needed to expand the lungs, ultimately decreasing the work of breathing. Additionally, pulmonary surfactant lowers the elastic recoil at low lung volumes, preventing the alveoli from collapsing at the end of each expiration. Overall, pulmonary surfactant is essential in maintaining proper lung function and preventing respiratory distress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man is having a pancreatectomy for cancer. While removing the gland, which structure will the surgeon not come across behind the pancreas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:At the superior part of the pancreas, the gastroduodenal artery splits into the pancreaticoduodenal and gastro-epiploic arteries.
Anatomy of the Pancreas
The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.
The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following explains the mechanism by which PTH increases serum calcium levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activation of vitamin D to increase absorption of calcium from the small intestine.
Explanation:The activity of the 1-α-hydroxylase enzyme, which converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (the active form of vitamin D), is increased by PTH. Osteoblasts mediate the effects of PTH on osteoclasts, as osteoclasts do not have a PTH receptor.
Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects
Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.
The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.
Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor as she has discovered a lump in her groin. She reports feeling well otherwise and has not experienced any changes in bowel movements or abdominal discomfort. The patient mentions that the lump tends to increase in size throughout the day, particularly when she is busy looking after her grandchildren. She has never undergone abdominal surgery. The doctor suspects a hernia and upon examination, identifies that it can be reduced and locates the hernia's neck, which is situated inferiorly and laterally to the pubic tubercle. What is the probable cause of the patient's groin lump?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral hernia
Explanation:Femoral hernias are more prevalent in women than men, and their location at the neck of the hernia, which is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle, is indicative of a femoral hernia. On the other hand, an inguinal hernia would have its neck located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle, while both direct and indirect inguinal hernias share this characteristic. Since the patient has no surgical history, this cannot be an incisional hernia. A spigelian hernia, on the other hand, occurs when there is a herniation through the spigelian fascia, which is located along the semilunar line.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is scheduled to have an axillary lymph node dissection as a component of her breast cancer treatment. During the surgical approach to the axilla, which fascial layer will be cut?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:The clavipectoral fascia is located beneath the clavicular part of the pectoralis major muscle and serves as a protective barrier for the axillary vessels and nodes. In cases of breast cancer requiring axillary node clearance, the clavipectoral fascia is incised to allow access to the nodal stations. These stations include level 1 nodes located below the pectoralis minor muscle, level 2 nodes situated behind it, and level 3 nodes above it. In some cases, such as during a Patey Mastectomy, surgeons may need to divide the pectoralis minor muscle to access level 3 nodes. However, with the use of sentinel node biopsy and improved techniques, this procedure is becoming less common.
Anatomy of the Axilla
The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.
One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervate and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.
The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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