-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old female presents to a dermatology appointment with several new scaly plaques on her scalp that are causing itching and redness, especially around the occipital region. She has a past medical history of chronic plaque psoriasis that is typically managed well with topical treatment and emollients. The dermatologist confirms a diagnosis of scalp psoriasis. What is the best course of action for treating her recent diagnosis?
Your Answer: Phototherapy
Correct Answer: Topical betamethasone valerate
Explanation:When it comes to managing scalp psoriasis, the approach is slightly different from managing plaque psoriasis. The first-line treatment typically involves using potent corticosteroids topically. Among the options, betamethasone valerate is the best answer as it is a potent corticosteroid that can be prescribed as a shampoo or mousse for easier application. For severe and extensive psoriasis, oral methotrexate may be recommended, but this is not applicable to the patient in question. Phototherapy is also an option for extensive psoriasis, but not for this patient who has well-controlled chronic plaque psoriasis. If no improvement is seen after 8 weeks of using a topical potent corticosteroid, second-line treatment may involve using topical vitamin D.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man with a history of Wilson’s disease and mild osteoarthritis presents with features of nephrotic syndrome.
Which medication is the most likely cause for his condition?Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Correct Answer: d-Penicillamine
Explanation:Pharmacologic Treatments and Complications: A Review
Secondary membranous nephropathy can be caused by autoimmune diseases, infectious diseases, malignancy, and exposure to certain drugs such as captopril, gold, lithium, or penicillamine. Treatment with chelating agents like D-penicillamine is the mainstay of treatment for Wilson’s disease, but it can cause proteinuria in up to 30% of patients. Hydroxychloroquine is used for active rheumatoid arthritis but can cause ocular toxicity. Methotrexate is used for severe Crohn’s disease and rheumatoid arthritis but can cause bone marrow suppression. Topical NSAIDs are unlikely to cause systemic side-effects, while sulfasalazine can cause rare but serious side-effects in patients with G6PD deficiency. It is important to monitor patients closely for complications when using these pharmacologic treatments.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
You assess a patient's eye and discovered that both pupils constrict when focusing on a nearby object but fail to narrow when exposed to bright light. What is the most frequent reason for this pupillary response in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Neurosyphilis
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:In the UK, diabetes mellitus is now the most frequent cause of Argyll-Robertson pupil, as neurosyphilis is no longer commonly observed due to effective antibiotic treatment. This condition is not caused by sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia or gonorrhoea, nor is it associated with optic neuritis, which instead causes a Marcus Gunn pupil or Relative afferent pupillary defect.
Argyll-Robertson Pupil: A Classic Pupillary Syndrome
The Argyll-Robertson Pupil (ARP) is a classic pupillary syndrome that is sometimes observed in neurosyphilis. It is characterized by small, irregular pupils that do not respond to light but do respond to accommodation. A useful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA).
The ARP can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis. It is important to note that the presence of an ARP may indicate underlying neurological or systemic disease and should prompt further evaluation and management. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying condition can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with a complaint of a foul odor in her vaginal area. Upon examination, clue cells are detected. What treatment option would you suggest for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metronidazole 2g stat dose
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days
Explanation:The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis in this patient is metronidazole, but high doses of this medication are not safe for breastfeeding. Fluconazole is used to treat thrush, while azithromycin is used for Chlamydia. Clarithromycin is prescribed for pneumonia, strep throat, and H. pylori infections.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong desire for sugary foods during the winter months. He reports that his symptoms are more severe in the winter than in the summer. He has no history of other mental health issues or physical problems. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bipolar affective disorder
Correct Answer: Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)
Explanation:Differentiating Seasonal Affective Disorder from Other Depressive Disorders
Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that occurs in a regular temporal pattern, typically beginning in autumn or winter and ending in spring or summer. Unlike classic major depression, SAD is characterized by symptoms of hyperphagia, hypersomnia, and weight gain. The cause of SAD is believed to be a malfunction of the light-sensitive hormone melatonin during winter. Treatment involves phototherapy, which exposes individuals to bright light for several hours a day.
Reactive depression, on the other hand, is a subtype of major depression that occurs as a result of an external event, such as a relationship breakdown or bereavement. There is no indication of a stressful life event in the presented vignette.
Bipolar affective disorder is characterized by distinct episodes of depression and mania, which is not evident in the vignette. Dysthymia is a persistent depression of mood that does not fully meet the criteria for a diagnosis of major depression and does not have a definite seasonal variation like SAD.
Finally, double depression occurs when one or more episodes of major depression occur on a background of dysthymia. It is important to differentiate SAD from other depressive disorders to provide appropriate treatment and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of scrotal swelling and discomfort that has been going on for three months. Upon examination, there is swelling on one side of the scrotum that illuminates when light is shone on it. The swelling is soft and painless, and the testis cannot be fully felt due to the presence of fluid. What is the best next step to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently for testicular ultrasound
Explanation:An ultrasound is necessary for adult patients with a hydrocele to rule out any underlying causes, such as a tumor. Although the most common cause of a non-acute hydrocele is unknown, it is crucial to exclude malignancy first. Therefore, providing reassurance or reevaluating the patient at a later time would only be appropriate after a testicular ultrasound has ruled out cancer. Testicular biopsy should not be used to investigate suspected testicular cancer as it may spread the malignancy through seeding along the needle’s track. While a unilateral hydrocele may be an uncommon presentation of a renal carcinoma invading the renal vein, a CTAP would not be the initial investigation in this case. If malignancy is confirmed, CT may be useful in staging the malignancy.
A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles occur when the processus vaginalis remains open, allowing peritoneal fluid to drain into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within a few months. Non-communicating hydroceles occur when there is excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles can develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.
The main feature of a hydrocele is a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually located anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum and can be transilluminated with a pen torch. If the hydrocele is large, the testis may be difficult to palpate. Diagnosis can be made clinically, but ultrasound is necessary if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.
Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation, such as an ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause, such as a tumor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which of the following causes of gastroenteritis has the lengthiest incubation period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giardiasis
Explanation:Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.
There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a stiff and painful left shoulder that limits all movements. He is left-handed and can no longer participate in his favorite hobbies due to the discomfort. Adhesive capsulitis is suspected. What factors are linked to this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Adhesive capsulitis is a condition that may occur in diabetic patients, as well as those with a history of myocardial infarction, lung disease, or neck disease. It is more common in females aged 40-60 years, and typically affects the non-dominant hand. Prolonged immobilization or disuse of the arm due to pain from another cause may also lead to adhesive capsulitis. There is no known correlation with activity.
Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)
Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man is recuperating after experiencing his initial bout of gout. He continues to experience some persistent discomfort in his big toe. He has no predisposing factors for gout and no signs of gouty tophi upon examination. At what point would it be appropriate to initiate uric acid-lowering treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Once his symptoms of acute gout have resolved
Explanation:It is now recommended to offer allopurinol to all patients after their first gout attack, without delay. However, it is advised to wait until the inflammation has subsided before discussing urate-lowering therapy with the patient. If the attacks are too frequent, allopurinol can be considered even before the inflammation has completely settled. These recommendations are provided by the 2017 British Society for Rheumatology and NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A child is admitted with wheeze and an urticarial rash, which began 10 minutes after ingestion of amoxicillin for a chest infection.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 1
Explanation:Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Mechanisms
Hypersensitivity reactions are exaggerated immune responses that can cause tissue damage and disease. There are five types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with a different mechanism and clinical presentation.
Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) and mast cell degranulation, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators. This type of reaction is responsible for allergies and anaphylaxis and is treated with antihistamines, epinephrine, and steroids.
Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are antibody-mediated and involve the interaction of antibodies with antigens on target cells. Examples include haemolytic anaemia of the newborn and Goodpasture Syndrome.
Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions are immune complex-mediated and occur when immune complexes are deposited in tissues, leading to inflammation. Examples include rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus.
Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are delayed and involve the activation of sensitised T-helper cells, leading to the accumulation of macrophages and cytotoxic T-cells. Examples include chronic transplant rejection and contact dermatitis.
Type 5 hypersensitivity reactions are receptor-mediated or autoimmune and occur when antibodies bind to cell surface receptors. Examples include Grave’s disease and myasthenia gravis.
Understanding the mechanisms of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old woman presents with post-menopausal bleeding. She has experienced multiple episodes over the past 6 months. The bleeding is heavy enough to require sanitary pads, but she denies any clots. She reports no bowel or urinary symptoms and has not experienced any weight loss. She went through menopause at 50 years old and took hormone replacement therapy for 2 years to alleviate hot flashes and mood swings. She has one child who was born via spontaneous vaginal delivery 45 years ago. There is no family history of gynaecological issues. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:When women experience postmenopausal bleeding (PMB), it is important to rule out the possibility of endometrial cancer. The first step is to conduct a speculum examination to check for any visible abnormalities. For women over 40 years old, an endometrial biopsy and hysteroscopy should be performed to diagnose endometrial cancer. Risk factors for this type of cancer include advanced age, never having given birth, using unopposed estrogen therapy, starting menstruation at an early age and experiencing menopause later in life, being overweight, and having submucosal fibroids that typically calcify after menopause.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old G3P0+2 woman comes for a routine antenatal check at 14 weeks gestation to her general practitioner. She has a medical history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia, epilepsy, hypertension, antiphospholipid syndrome, and dyslipidemia. Her current medications include lamotrigine, labetalol, atorvastatin, low molecular weight heparin, and clozapine. Additionally, she has started taking nitrofurantoin for a urinary tract infection. What medication should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin
Explanation:Statin therapy is not recommended during pregnancy
The correct statement is that all statins, including atorvastatin, are not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus. While there is no conclusive evidence of teratogenicity, there have been reports of adverse outcomes such as intrauterine growth restriction and fetal demise in women taking statins during the first trimester. Lipophilic statins like atorvastatin can cross the placenta and reach similar concentrations in both the mother and fetus.
Clozapine is not a contraindication during pregnancy, as it is an atypical antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia that is unresponsive to other medications. While caution is advised when using clozapine during pregnancy, it is not considered a contraindication.
Lamotrigine is also not contraindicated during pregnancy, as it is generally considered safe for use in pregnant women. Unlike many other antiepileptic drugs, lamotrigine has not been associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations.
Low-molecular-weight-heparin is also not contraindicated during pregnancy, and is often prescribed for women with antiphospholipid syndrome to prevent blood clots. This medication does not cross the placenta and is considered safe for use during pregnancy.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
As a healthcare professional, you are providing dietary recommendations to a middle-aged patient who has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and is struggling with obesity. According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following should not be promoted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Food products specifically targeted at diabetics
Explanation:According to NICE, it is not recommended to consume foods that are marketed exclusively for individuals with diabetes.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
You are a foundation year two doctor in general practice. Eighteen days ago you reviewed a twenty-three-year-old complaining of posterior heel pain with morning pain and stiffness. He has a past medical history of asthma and anxiety. The symptoms are exacerbated with activity. You advised him to rest and take simple analgesia, however, his symptoms have not eased. He is anxious to step up his treatment.
What is the next management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Physio
Explanation:The recommended approach for managing Achilles tendonitis is to advise the patient to rest, take NSAIDs, and seek physiotherapy if symptoms persist beyond 7 days. However, it is important to note that ibuprofen should be avoided in patients with asthma. Simply reiterating the need for rest may not address the patient’s desire for more aggressive treatment options. Referring the patient to orthopaedics would not be appropriate, but a referral to rheumatology may be considered if the symptoms do not improve. While steroids may provide some benefit, the evidence is mixed and injecting them directly into the tendon can increase the risk of tendon rupture.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman comes in for her 8th week of pregnancy and reports an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. She is currently in good health and not experiencing any symptoms. However, she expresses concern about not being vaccinated against rubella as a child due to her parents' anti-vaccine beliefs. She is aware of the potential harm rubella can cause to her developing fetus and blood tests confirm that she is not immune to the virus.
What advice should be given to her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can have the MMR vaccine postnatally
Explanation:In the case of a pregnant woman who is not immune to rubella, it is recommended to offer the MMR vaccination after giving birth. Rubella can cause severe harm to the developing foetus, especially during the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy. Although congenital rubella syndrome is now rare due to widespread MMR vaccination, there has been a resurgence of measles, mumps, and rubella outbreaks in developed countries due to the anti-vaccination movement. The woman should avoid contact with individuals who may have rubella and cannot receive the vaccine while pregnant. Referral to an obstetrician is not necessary at this time since the woman is asymptomatic and in good health. The MMR vaccine should not be administered at 20 weeks of pregnancy, and if the woman is not immune, it should be offered postnatally. If there is a suspicion of rubella based on the woman’s clinical presentation, the local Health Protection Team should be notified, but this is not necessary in this case since there is no suspicion.
Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.
The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.
If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.
If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and altered dietary habits with a preference for salty foods. She lost her job as a teacher because of inappropriate social behaviour. There is no memory deficit. Neurological examination is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)
Explanation:Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a rare form of dementia that typically affects younger patients, with onset between 55 and 65 years old. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, early memory impairment is not a characteristic symptom of FTD. Instead, early personality and behavior changes are core features. Consensus guidelines suggest diagnostic criteria that include insidious onset and gradual progression, decline in social interpersonal conduct, early impairment in regulation of personal conduct, early emotional blunting, and early loss of insight. Supportive diagnostic features may include behavioral disorders, speech and language changes, and physical signs. Other forms of dementia, such as Alzheimer’s disease, diffuse Lewy body disease (LBD), multiple sclerosis (MS), and vascular dementia, have different characteristic symptoms and diagnostic criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old man has come back from a vacation at the beach in Tenerife with a fresh rash on his neck and arms. The rash consists of patches that are coppery brown in color and lighter than the surrounding skin. There is no itching or pain associated with the rash. When examined with a Wood's light, the affected areas show yellow-green fluorescence.
What is the recommended initial treatment for this skin condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo
Explanation:Ketoconazole shampoo is the recommended first-line therapy for treating pityriasis versicolor, a fungal infection caused by Malassezia furfur that commonly affects the trunk, neck, and arms following sun exposure. While the rash is usually asymptomatic, an emollient may help with any associated itch or irritation, but it is not sufficient to treat the underlying fungal infection. Oral antifungals like itraconazole may be necessary for extensive or unresponsive cases, but for limited non-extensive disease, ketoconazole shampoo is the preferred treatment. Topical steroids and vitamin D analogues are not effective in treating pityriasis versicolor.
Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that may be hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and it is most commonly found on the trunk. The patches may become more noticeable following a suntan, and scaling is a common symptom. Mild pruritus may also occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it is more likely to occur in those who are immunosuppressed, malnourished, or have Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal medications, with ketoconazole shampoo being the recommended option due to its cost-effectiveness for larger areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed. Scrapings may also be sent for confirmation of the diagnosis. Understanding the features, predisposing factors, and management of pityriasis versicolor can help individuals recognize and effectively treat this common fungal infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been bothering him for the past few days. He reports feeling a sudden 'pop' while lifting a heavy object, and now experiences severe pain that radiates from his back down his left leg. During the examination, he reports experiencing paraesthesia on the lateral aspect of his left foot and the posterior aspect of his thigh. Muscle strength is normal, but the left knee reflex is reduced. The straight leg raise test is positive on the left side. Which nerve root is most likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A highly active 12-year-old boy who plays football for his local team reports knee pain for several months. Upon examination, tenderness is noted over the tibial tuberosity.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease
Explanation:Common Causes of Knee Pain in Young Patients
Knee pain is a common complaint among young patients, especially those who are active in sports. Here are some of the most common causes of knee pain in this population:
1. Osgood-Schlatter disease: This condition is caused by overuse of quadriceps, putting strain on the patellar ligament attachment to the tibia, which is not yet fully developed. The key clinical examination finding is tenderness over the tibial tuberosity, and there may well be a bony lump over the area as well.
2. Patellar subluxation: This describes the temporary but recurring lateral subluxation of the patella. Patients may describe the knee ‘giving way’ or feeling it move out of place, most commonly during activity such as running or jumping.
3. Chondromalacia patellae: This is caused by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. Patients will describe anterior knee pain, which is worse after sitting for a prolonged length of time, or for activities including walking down the stairs, jumping, running or climbing.
4. Osteoarthritis: This is a disease of older age, owing to degeneration of the articular cartilage. It is often seen in the weight-bearing areas, including the knee and hip, as well as in the hands.
5. Osteochondritis dissecans: This is caused by separation of subchondral bone articular cartilage from the joint surface, and affects the knee in 75% of cases. It tends to present in teenagers and young adults, with a vague and achy joint pain that is made worse by activity, and may be accompanied by swelling.
It is important to note that knee pain in children could also be due to hip pathology, such as SUFE (slipped upper femoral epiphysis). Proper diagnosis and management are crucial for the long-term health of the joint.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with raised intraocular pressure (IOP) and loss of peripheral vision. She also has diabetes.
Which of the following treatments would ophthalmology have initiated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Latanoprost
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Open-Angle Glaucoma and Treatment Options
Chronic open-angle glaucoma (COAG) is a progressive and irreversible optic neuropathy that can lead to significant visual loss if left untreated. It is the second leading cause of irreversible blindness in developed countries. Patients with COAG may not present with any symptoms until late in the disease course, making early detection and treatment crucial.
The first-line treatment for COAG is a prostaglandin analogue, such as latanoprost. Other options include pilocarpine, a cholinergic parasympathomimetic agent, and brinzolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. More than one agent may be needed concurrently to achieve the target intraocular pressure (IOP).
Beta-blockers, such as timolol, may also be used as an alternative or adjuvant therapy, but should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma. Sodium cromoglicate eye drops are not effective in the management of COAG or ocular hypertension (OHT).
OHT is a major risk factor for developing COAG, but COAG can also occur without raised IOP. Age thresholds for treatment recommendations only apply when vision is currently normal and treatment is purely preventative. Patients experiencing peripheral vision loss should be evaluated for COAG regardless of age.
Early detection and appropriate treatment can help prevent significant visual loss in patients with COAG.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman complains of pressure-type headache and brief visual disturbance upon standing.
What is the most indicative feature that supports the diagnosis of idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An enlarged blind spot and constriction of the visual field
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)
Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH) is a headache syndrome that is characterized by raised cerebrospinal fluid pressure in the absence of an intracranial mass lesion or ventricular dilatation. While IIH is associated with visual field defects, reduced visual acuity is not a common presenting feature. Instead, an enlarged blind spot and constriction of the visual field are the classic findings in a patient with papilloedema. Additionally, IIH does not typically present with motor weakness or a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
It is important to note that a past history of deep venous thrombosis or lateralized motor weakness would raise suspicions about the possibility of cranial venous thrombosis, which can also cause raised intracranial pressure and papilloedema. Reduced visual acuity, on the other hand, is more consistent with an optic nerve lesion such as optic neuritis.
In summary, understanding the symptoms of IIH can help healthcare professionals differentiate it from other conditions and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man is admitted to Resus with a suspected anterior myocardial infarction. An ECG on arrival confirms the diagnosis and thrombolysis is prepared. The patient is stable and his pain is well controlled with intravenous morphine. Clinical examination shows a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg, pulse 90 bpm and oxygen saturations on room air of 97%. What is the most appropriate management with regards to oxygen therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No oxygen therapy
Explanation:There are now specific guidelines regarding the use of oxygen during emergency situations. Please refer to the provided link for more information.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old man has been referred due to a tremor and bradykinesia, leading to a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms are now interfering with his work as an accountant and overall quality of life. What initial treatment is he likely to receive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levodopa
Explanation:Patients with newly diagnosed Parkinson’s who experience motor symptoms that negatively impact their quality of life should be provided with levodopa.
Management of Parkinson’s Disease: Medications and Considerations
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized expertise in movement disorders for diagnosis and management. However, all healthcare professionals should be familiar with the medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease due to its prevalence. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2017 to aid in the management of Parkinson’s disease.
For first-line treatment, levodopa is recommended if motor symptoms are affecting the patient’s quality of life. If motor symptoms are not affecting the patient’s quality of life, dopamine agonists (non-ergot derived), levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors may be used. NICE provides tables to aid in decision-making regarding the use of these medications, taking into account their effects on motor symptoms, activities of daily living, motor complications, and adverse events.
If a patient continues to have symptoms despite optimal levodopa treatment or has developed dyskinesia, NICE recommends the addition of a dopamine agonist, MAO-B inhibitor, or catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor as an adjunct. Other considerations in Parkinson’s disease management include the risk of acute akinesia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome if medication is not taken or absorbed, the potential for impulse control disorders with dopaminergic therapy, and the need to adjust medication if excessive daytime sleepiness or orthostatic hypotension develops.
Specific medications used in Parkinson’s disease management include levodopa, dopamine receptor agonists, MAO-B inhibitors, amantadine, COMT inhibitors, and antimuscarinics. Each medication has its own set of benefits and potential adverse effects, which should be carefully considered when selecting a treatment plan. Overall, the management of Parkinson’s disease requires a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual needs and circumstances of each patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of left knee pain and irritability. The child had recently recovered from a viral respiratory tract infection and is currently asymptomatic and without fever. Upon examination, the joint is painful to move but not hot or red, and the child is able to bear weight. Laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin level of 140 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), platelet count of 450 * 109/L (150-400), white cell count of 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), CRP of 29 mg/L (<5), and ESR of 32 mm/hr (0-10). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Understanding Septic Arthritis in Children
Septic arthritis is a condition that affects children and can lead to permanent joint damage and systemic infection if not treated promptly. It has an incidence of around 4-5 per 100,000 children and is more common in boys, with a M:F ratio of 2:1. The hip, knee, and ankle are the most commonly affected joints. Symptoms of septic arthritis include joint pain, limp, fever, and lethargy. Signs of the condition include a swollen and red joint, with minimal movement possible.
To diagnose septic arthritis, joint aspiration is necessary to culture the affected area. This will show a raised white blood cell count. Inflammatory markers in the blood will also be raised, and blood cultures will be taken. The Kocher criteria are used to diagnose septic arthritis and include a fever of over 38.5 degrees Celsius, non-weight bearing, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and raised white cell count (WCC).
Understanding septic arthritis in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment to reduce the risk of permanent joint damage and systemic infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman presents with a two day history of increasing dysuria. During examination, inflamed blisters are observed on the outer labia.
What is the most suitable treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Understanding Genital Herpes and Treatment Options
Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the herpes simplex viruses (HSV-1 or HSV-2). It presents as clusters of papules and vesicles on the outer genitals in both men and women, usually appearing 4-7 days after sexual exposure to HSV for the first time. Unfortunately, there is no cure for genital herpes, but treatment with aciclovir can reduce the duration of symptoms. Other treatment options include antibiotics like azithromycin and clindamycin for bacterial infections, antifungal agents like fluconazole for fungal infections, and metronidazole for anaerobic bacteria and protozoa. It is important to seek medical attention and start treatment as soon as possible to manage symptoms and prevent transmission to others.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to her General Practitioner for a hypertension review. She has been taking 8 mg of perindopril per day for the last three years. Her average home blood pressure (BP) readings are 150/92 mmHg.
On examination, she is obese, with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. On investigation, her renal function is normal, as is urine dipstick testing. There is no evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy on the electrocardiogram. She is not diabetic.
What is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to amlodipine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Uncontrolled Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. When first-line treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is not effective, there are several options for adjusting medication to better control blood pressure.
Switching to a calcium-channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended as a second-line treatment. Thiazide-like diuretics may also be considered. For patients over 55 years old without diabetes, or those of black African or Afro-Caribbean family origin without diabetes, calcium-channel blockers should be started as first-line treatment.
Increasing the dose of perindopril erbumine beyond the maximum of 8 mg is not safe and may cause renal impairment. Adding atenolol is reserved for patients with known coronary artery disease or inadequately controlled hypertension on maximal doses of other medications.
Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide are no longer recommended by NICE guidance. Instead, thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide are recommended as a second-line alternative to calcium-channel blockers if hypertension is not adequately controlled on maximal doses of first-line treatment.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite medication adjustments, referral for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring may be necessary to determine the best course of action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a firm, round swelling over the angle of his jaw that has been growing for two years. The patient is having difficulty shaving his beard due to the size of the swelling. The GP suspects a sebaceous cyst and the patient is eager for treatment to alleviate his symptoms. What is the best course of action to prevent further discomfort?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical excision
Explanation:To prevent the sebaceous cyst from recurring, it is necessary to surgically remove the entire structure. This can be done by a general practitioner or a surgical team, but funding for the procedure may be limited due to its lower clinical priority. Patients may opt to have the surgery done privately. Incision and drainage or fine needle aspiration may provide temporary relief, but the cyst is likely to return. Intralesional steroids are not recommended in this case, as there is no infection present. Oral antibiotics are also unnecessary. Complete surgical excision offers the best chance for long-term resolution of the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Sebaceous Cysts
Sebaceous cysts refer to a group of cysts that include both epidermoid and pilar cysts. However, the term is not entirely accurate and should be avoided if possible. Epidermoid cysts occur when there is an overgrowth of epidermal cells in the dermis, while pilar cysts, also known as trichilemmal cysts or wen, originate from the outer root sheath of the hair follicle. These cysts can appear anywhere on the body, but are most commonly found on the scalp, ears, back, face, and upper arm, and will typically have a punctum.
To prevent recurrence, it is essential to remove the entire cyst wall during excision. While sebaceous cysts are generally harmless, they can become infected and cause discomfort or pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which of the following viruses is linked to nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus
Explanation:EBV is linked to the development of Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
Conditions Associated with Epstein-Barr Virus
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is linked to several conditions, including malignancies and non-malignant conditions. The malignancies associated with EBV infection include Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and HIV-associated central nervous system lymphomas. Burkitt’s lymphoma is currently believed to be associated with both African and sporadic cases.
Apart from malignancies, EBV infection is also associated with a non-malignant condition called hairy leukoplakia. This condition is characterized by white patches on the tongue and inside of the cheeks. It is often seen in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS.
In summary, EBV infection is linked to several conditions, including both malignant and non-malignant ones. Understanding the association between EBV and these conditions is crucial for developing effective prevention and treatment strategies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman has just been diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma and has started her first day of chemotherapy. However, she has been feeling unwell since then and her U&E results show abnormalities such as hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and hypocalcaemia. What prophylaxis is used to prevent the complication that this woman has experienced?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:Tumour lysis syndrome is characterized by high levels of potassium and phosphate, as well as low levels of calcium. This is evident in the case history of a lymphoma patient who has started chemotherapy. Allopurinol is the most commonly used prophylaxis, with rasburicase as an alternative. Diuretics are not recommended due to the potential to exacerbate acute kidney injury. It is important to note that steroids and radiotherapy are not common causes of tumour lysis syndrome.
Understanding Tumour Lysis Syndrome
Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is a life-threatening condition that can occur during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. Although it can happen without chemotherapy, it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Patients at high risk of TLS should be given prophylactic medication such as IV allopurinol or IV rasburicase to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase, an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin, which is more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups should be given oral allopurinol during chemotherapy cycles to avoid the condition. However, rasburicase and allopurinol should not be given together in the management of tumour lysis syndrome as this reduces the effect of rasburicase.
TLS occurs when tumour cells break down and release chemicals into the body, leading to high levels of potassium and phosphate and a low level of calcium. It should be suspected in any patient presenting with an acute kidney injury in the presence of high phosphate and uric acid levels. From 2004, TLS has been graded using the Cairo-Bishop scoring system, which considers abnormality in two or more of the following within three days before or seven days after chemotherapy: uric acid, potassium, phosphate, and calcium. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome is when laboratory tumour lysis syndrome is present along with increased serum creatinine, cardiac arrhythmia or sudden death, or seizure.
In summary, understanding tumour lysis syndrome is critical in the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. Prophylactic medication can be given to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis, and the Cairo-Bishop scoring system can be used to grade the severity of the condition. Early detection and management of TLS can improve patient outcomes and prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy presents with dizzy spells and a swollen left calf. She has a postural drop in systolic blood pressure of >20 mmHg, low platelet count, and abnormal sodium and potassium levels. She has also had three spontaneous miscarriages and exhibits jerky explosive movements of her limbs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-phospholipid syndrome
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Thrombocytopenia, Deep Vein Thrombosis, Recurrent Miscarriages, and Chorea
Antiphospholipid Syndrome:
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a disorder characterized by the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies that cause thrombosis and recurrent miscarriages. The patient’s symptoms of deep vein thrombosis, three spontaneous miscarriages, and chorea are consistent with this diagnosis. The blood test shows thrombocytopenia, which is also a common finding in antiphospholipid syndrome. The diagnosis requires a positive test on at least two occasions, 6 weeks apart, in one or more of the antiphospholipid antibody assays. Treatment involves lifelong anticoagulation with warfarin in patients with a history of thrombosis.Uncontrolled Epilepsy:
The patient’s explosive jerky movements of the limbs may indicate poorly controlled epilepsy. However, this diagnosis does not explain all of her other symptoms.Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP):
ITP is a disorder that causes a low platelet count and a characteristic purpuric rash. However, the absence of a rash and the multitude of other clinical signs make a diagnosis of ITP insufficient to explain the patient’s presentation.Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH):
SIADH is a disorder that causes water retention and hyponatremia. However, the patient’s symptoms do not fit with this diagnosis.Dehydration:
Severe dehydration may present with postural hypotension and an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis. However, dehydration alone cannot explain the patient’s other symptoms.Conclusion:
Based on the patient’s clinical features, antiphospholipid syndrome is the most likely diagnosis. Further testing is needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)