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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old man is about to undergo a surgical procedure and is being...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is about to undergo a surgical procedure and is being catheterised. What changes will occur as the catheter enters his prostatic urethra?

      Your Answer: Resistance will decrease

      Explanation:

      The membranous urethra is narrower than the prostatic urethra, resulting in increased resistance. The prostatic urethra is angled vertically.

      Anatomy of the Prostate Gland

      The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located below the bladder and separated from the rectum by Denonvilliers fascia. It receives its blood supply from the internal iliac vessels, specifically the inferior vesical artery. The gland has an internal sphincter at its apex, which can be damaged during surgery and result in retrograde ejaculation.

      The prostate gland has four lobes: the posterior lobe, median lobe, and two lateral lobes. It also has an isthmus and three zones: the peripheral zone, central zone, and transition zone. The peripheral zone, which is the subcapsular portion of the posterior prostate, is where most prostate cancers occur.

      The gland is surrounded by various structures, including the pubic symphysis, prostatic venous plexus, Denonvilliers fascia, rectum, ejaculatory ducts, lateral venous plexus, and levator ani. Its lymphatic drainage is to the internal iliac nodes, and its innervation comes from the inferior hypogastric plexus.

      In summary, the prostate gland is a small but important gland in the male reproductive system. Its anatomy includes lobes, zones, and various surrounding structures, and it plays a crucial role in ejaculation and prostate health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 2 - As a physician on the surgical ward, you are evaluating a patient who...

    Correct

    • As a physician on the surgical ward, you are evaluating a patient who has been experiencing dysphagia of both solids and liquids for the past 6 years. A barium swallow revealed a 'bird's beak' appearance, and the patient was diagnosed with achalasia. Despite previous medical treatments using oesophago-gastroduodenoscopy (OGD), the patient's condition has not improved, and it has been determined that surgical intervention is necessary.

      What is the preferred surgical treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Heller's cardiomyotomy

      Explanation:

      Surgical intervention should be considered for patients with achalasia who experience recurrent or persistent symptoms. The recommended procedure is Heller’s cardiomyotomy, which is particularly suitable for young patients who would require lifelong dilations or botulinum toxin injections, those who have not responded to multiple nonsurgical treatments, those who choose surgery as their initial treatment, and those who are at high risk of perforation with pneumatic dilation due to previous surgery in the oesophagogastric junction. It is important to note that Billroth’s operation is a different surgical procedure that involves removing the pylorus and anastomosing the proximal stomach directly to the duodenum, while Whipple’s procedure is typically performed for pancreatic cancer.

      Understanding Achalasia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Achalasia is a medical condition characterized by the failure of oesophageal peristalsis and relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to the degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus. This results in a contracted LOS and a dilated oesophagus above it. It is a condition that typically presents in middle-aged individuals and is equally common in both men and women.

      The clinical features of achalasia include dysphagia of both liquids and solids, heartburn, regurgitation of food, and variation in the severity of symptoms. If left untreated, it may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia, and even malignant changes in a small number of patients. To diagnose achalasia, oesophageal manometry is considered the most important diagnostic test. It shows excessive LOS tone that doesn’t relax on swallowing. A barium swallow may also be used to show a grossly expanded oesophagus, fluid level, and a ‘bird’s beak’ appearance. A chest x-ray may show a wide mediastinum and fluid level.

      The preferred first-line treatment for achalasia is pneumatic (balloon) dilation, which is less invasive and has a quicker recovery time than surgery. However, patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur. Surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms occur. In some cases, intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin is used in patients who are a high surgical risk. Drug therapy, such as nitrates and calcium channel blockers, may also have a role in treatment but is limited by side-effects. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options for achalasia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 3 - A 73-year-old man is undergoing an open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. The aneurysm...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man is undergoing an open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. The aneurysm is located in a juxtarenal location and surgical access to the neck of aneurysm is difficult. Which one of the following structures may be divided to improve access?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      During juxtarenal aortic surgery, the neck of the aneurysm can cause stretching of the left renal vein, which may lead to its division. This can worsen the nephrotoxic effects of the surgery, especially when a suprarenal clamp is also used. However, intentionally dividing the Cisterna Chyli will not enhance access and can result in chyle leakage. Similarly, dividing the transverse colon is not beneficial and can increase the risk of graft infection. Lastly, dividing the SMA is unnecessary for a juxtarenal procedure.

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old accountant presents to the hospital with severe abdominal pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old accountant presents to the hospital with severe abdominal pain that has been ongoing for more than 3 hours. The pain is sharp and extends to his back, and he rates it as 8/10 on the pain scale. The pain subsides when he sits up. During the examination, he appears restless, cold, and clammy, with a pulse rate of 124 bpm and a blood pressure of 102/65. You notice some purple discoloration in his right flank, and his bowel sounds are normal. According to his social history, he has a history of excessive alcohol consumption. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Pancreatitis is the most probable diagnosis due to several reasons. Firstly, the patient’s history indicates that he is an alcoholic, which is a risk factor for pancreatitis. Secondly, the severe and radiating pain to the back is a typical symptom of pancreatitis. Additionally, the patient shows signs of jaundice and circulation collapse, with a purple discoloration known as Grey Turner’s sign caused by retroperitoneal hemorrhage. On the other hand, appendicitis pain is usually colicky, localized in the lower right quadrant, and moves up centrally. Although circulation collapse may indicate intestinal obstruction, the absence of vomiting/nausea makes it less likely. Chronic kidney disease can be ruled out as it presents with symptoms such as weight loss, tiredness, bone pain, and itchy skin, which are not present in this acute presentation. Lastly, if there was a significant history of recent surgery, ileus and obstruction would be more likely, and the absence of bowel sounds would support this diagnosis.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 5 - You are working on a general surgical receiving ward when a 70-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • You are working on a general surgical receiving ward when a 70-year-old woman is admitted from the emergency department with sudden and severe abdominal pain that radiates to her back. The patient reports that she is normally healthy, but has been struggling with rheumatoid arthritis for the past few years, which is improving with treatment. She does not consume alcohol and has had an open cholecystectomy in the past, although she cannot recall when it occurred.

      Blood tests were conducted in the emergency department:

      - Hb 140 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets 350 * 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC 12.9 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Amylase 1200 U/L (70-300)

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis can be caused by azathioprine.

      It is important to note that the symptoms and blood tests suggest acute pancreatitis. The most common causes of this condition are gallstones and alcohol, but these have been ruled out through patient history. Although there is a possibility of retained stones in the common bile duct after cholecystectomy, it is unlikely given the time since the operation.

      Other less common causes include trauma (which is not present in this case) and sodium valproate (which the patient has not been taking).

      Therefore, the most likely cause of acute pancreatitis in this case is azathioprine, an immunosuppressive medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, which is known to have a side effect of acute pancreatitis.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man is having a left hemicolectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is having a left hemicolectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons come across a tubular structure located at the inferior aspect of psoas major. What is the most probable identity of this structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left ureter

      Explanation:

      The left colon is positioned anterior to the left ureter. The iliac vessels are usually in closer proximity to the sigmoid colon and upper rectum, which are not typically located above the L4 vertebrae.

      Anatomy of the Ureter

      The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.

      In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - Which of the following is most crucial in offering assistance to the duodenojejunal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most crucial in offering assistance to the duodenojejunal flexure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ligament of Trietz

      Explanation:

      The ligament of Trietz, also known as the suspensory muscle of the duodenum, holds great significance. On the other hand, the ligament of Treves is situated between the caecum and ileum.

      Anatomy of the Duodenum

      The duodenum is the first and widest part of the small bowel, located immediately distal to the pylorus. It is around 25 cm long and comprises four parts: superior, descending, horizontal, and ascending. The horizontal part is the longest segment and passes transversely to the left with an upward deflection. The duodenum is largely retroperitoneal, except for the first 2-3 cm of the superior part and the final 1-2 cm.

      The medial relations of the duodenum include the superior pancreatico-duodenal artery and the pancreatic head. The descending part is closely related to the commencement of the transverse colon, while the horizontal part crosses in front of the right ureter, right psoas major, right gonadal vessels, and IVC. The ascending part runs to the left of the aorta and terminates by binding abruptly forwards as the duodenojejunal flexure.

      The region of the duodenojejunal flexure is fixed in position by the suspensory muscle of the duodenum, which blends with the musculature of the flexure and passes upwards deep to the pancreas to gain attachment to the right crus of the diaphragm. This fibromuscular band is known as the ligament of Treitz. The duodenum has important anterior and posterior relations, including the superior mesenteric vessels, the root of the small bowel, the left sympathetic trunk, the left psoas major, the left gonadal vessels, the left kidney, and the uncinate process of the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 8 - A different patient undergoes a femoral hernia repair and during the operation, the...

    Incorrect

    • A different patient undergoes a femoral hernia repair and during the operation, the surgeon decides to enter the abdominal cavity to resect small bowel. A transverse incision is made two thirds of the way between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis. Which of the structures listed below will remain intact?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior lamina of the rectus sheath

      Explanation:

      At this level, the incision is situated beneath the arcuate line and there is a lack of posterior wall in the rectus sheath.

      The rectus sheath is a structure formed by the aponeuroses of the lateral abdominal wall muscles. Its composition varies depending on the anatomical level. Above the costal margin, the anterior sheath is made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, with the costal cartilages located behind it. From the costal margin to the arcuate line, the anterior rectus sheath is composed of the external oblique aponeurosis and the anterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis. The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the posterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis and transversus abdominis. Below the arcuate line, all the abdominal muscle aponeuroses are located in the anterior aspect of the rectus sheath, while the transversalis fascia and peritoneum are located posteriorly. The arcuate line is the point where the inferior epigastric vessels enter the rectus sheath.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old man complains of abdominal pain indicative of mesenteric ischaemia and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man complains of abdominal pain indicative of mesenteric ischaemia and is rushed to the operating room for an urgent laparotomy. During the procedure, it is discovered that the affected portion of the bowel extends from the splenic flexure of the colon to the rectum. Can you determine the vertebral level at which the obstructed artery branches off from the aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The hindgut, which is a segment of the gut, receives its blood supply from the inferior mesenteric artery. This artery originates from the aorta at the L3 vertebrae.

      The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut

      The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.

      The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.

      Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-day history of rectal bleeding. He has had diarrhoea eight times in the past 24 hours with visible blood mixed with stool. He also complains of nausea and abdominal pain. His past medical history includes ulcerative colitis, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He is currently taking mesalazine enteric coated 800 mg twice daily, amlodipine 10mg once daily and metformin 500mg twice daily.

      Upon examination, he appears pale and has a temperature of 38ºC. His heart rate is 108/min with a blood pressure of 112/74mmHg. Abdominal exam shows generalised tenderness and guarding, but no rebound tenderness. His blood results are as follows:

      - Hb 137 g/L Male: (135-180)
      - Platelets 550 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 14.1 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Na+ 144 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 3.4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 8.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 134 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - CRP 110 mg/L (< 5)
      - ESR 45 mm/hr Men: < (age / 2)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent hospital admission

      Explanation:

      A severe flare-up of ulcerative colitis necessitates urgent hospital admission for IV corticosteroids. This is the correct answer as the patient’s symptoms indicate a severe flare-up according to Truelove and Witts’ severity index. The patient is experiencing more than 6 bowel movements per day with systemic upset (fever and tachycardia) and an ESR of over 30. NICE recommends urgent hospital admission for assessment and treatment with IV corticosteroids.

      If the exacerbation is mild or moderate, oral corticosteroids may be appropriate. Therefore, send home with a course of oral corticosteroids is an incorrect answer.

      Gastroenteritis requires oral rehydration therapy, but this patient’s symptoms suggest an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Therefore, oral rehydration therapy is an incorrect answer.

      Loperamide may be used in the management of ulcerative colitis, but urgent hospital assessment is necessary due to the patient’s hemodynamic compromise. Therefore, send home with loperamide and send home with safety net advice alone are incorrect answers.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a 14-day history of profuse, watery diarrhoea. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a 14-day history of profuse, watery diarrhoea. She denies the presence of blood. There is no history of recent travel. The diarrhoea is stopping her from going to work, and so she has been forced to take unpaid leave. She wants to return to work as she is the sole breadwinner for the family.

      On examination, she is apyrexial but looks clinically dehydrated.

      After ruling out infection and inflammatory bowel disease, you prescribe a short course of loperamide to help slow down her bowel movements.

      What is the mechanism of action of the prescribed anti-diarrhoeal medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Agonist of μ-opioid receptors in the myenteric plexus of the large intestine

      Explanation:

      The myenteric plexus of the large intestine’s μ-opioid receptors are targeted by loperamide.

      Antidiarrhoeal Agents: Opioid Agonists

      Antidiarrhoeal agents are medications used to treat diarrhoea. Opioid agonists are a type of antidiarrhoeal agent that work by slowing down the movement of the intestines, which reduces the frequency and urgency of bowel movements. Two common opioid agonists used for this purpose are loperamide and diphenoxylate.

      Loperamide is available over-the-counter and is often used to treat acute diarrhoea. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the intestines, which reduces the contractions of the muscles in the intestinal wall. This slows down the movement of food and waste through the intestines, allowing more time for water to be absorbed and resulting in firmer stools.

      Diphenoxylate is a prescription medication that is often used to treat chronic diarrhoea. It works in a similar way to loperamide, but is often combined with atropine to discourage abuse and overdose.

      Overall, opioid agonists are effective at treating diarrhoea, but should be used with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional. They can cause side effects such as constipation, dizziness, and nausea, and may interact with other medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old female patient presents to the gastroenterology clinic complaining of recurrent epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female patient presents to the gastroenterology clinic complaining of recurrent epigastric pain and acid reflux that has not responded to antacids or proton-pump inhibitors. Upon gastroscopy, an ulcer is discovered in the descending duodenum and a tumor is found in the antrum of the stomach. What type of cell is the origin of this tumor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G cells

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is synthesized by the G cells located in the antrum of the stomach.

      Based on the symptoms presented, it is probable that the patient has a gastrinoma. This type of tumor produces an excess of gastrin, which stimulates the production of hydrochloric acid, leading to the development of peptic ulcers. Normally, gastrin is secreted by the G cells located in the antrum of the stomach.

      Other cells found in the stomach include S cells, which produce secretin, I cells, which produce CCK, and D cells, which produce somatostatin. However, there is no such cell as an H cell in the stomach.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 13 - What is the most frequent reason for mesenteric infarction to occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent reason for mesenteric infarction to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute embolism affecting the superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric infarcts can be caused by various factors such as prolonged atrial fibrillation, ventricular aneurysms, and post myocardial infarction.

      Understanding Mesenteric Vessel Disease

      Mesenteric vessel disease is a condition that affects the blood vessels supplying the intestines. It is primarily caused by arterial embolism, which can result in infarction of the colon. The most common type of mesenteric vessel disease is acute mesenteric embolus, which is characterized by sudden onset abdominal pain followed by profuse diarrhea. Other types include acute on chronic mesenteric ischemia, mesenteric vein thrombosis, and low flow mesenteric infarction.

      Diagnosis of mesenteric vessel disease involves serological tests such as WCC, lactate, CRP, and amylase, as well as CT angiography scanning in the arterial phase with thin slices. Management of the condition depends on the severity of symptoms, with overt signs of peritonism requiring laparotomy and mesenteric vein thrombosis being treated with medical management using IV heparin. In cases where surgery is necessary, limited resection of necrotic bowel may be performed with the aim of relooking laparotomy at 24-48 hours.

      The prognosis for mesenteric vessel disease is generally poor, with the best outlook being for acute ischaemia from an embolic event where surgery occurs within 12 hours. Survival rates may be as high as 50%, but this falls to 30% with treatment delay. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if symptoms of mesenteric vessel disease are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old man undergoes an abdomino-perineal excision of the colon and rectum and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man undergoes an abdomino-perineal excision of the colon and rectum and is now experiencing impotence. What is the probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Damage to the hypogastric plexus during mobilisation of the inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause is injury to the autonomic nerves.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old woman with caecal carcinoma is having a right hemicolectomy done via...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman with caecal carcinoma is having a right hemicolectomy done via a transverse incision. During the procedure, the incision is extended medially by dividing the rectus sheath, and a brisk arterial hemorrhage occurs. What vessel is the source of the damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The damaged vessel is the epigastric artery, which has its origin in the external iliac artery (as shown below).

      The Inferior Epigastric Artery: Origin and Pathway

      The inferior epigastric artery is a blood vessel that originates from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament. It runs along the medial edge of the deep inguinal ring and then continues upwards to lie behind the rectus abdominis muscle. This artery is responsible for supplying blood to the lower abdominal wall and pelvic region. Its pathway is illustrated in the image below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - During a radical gastrectomy, the surgeons detach the omentum and ligate the right...

    Incorrect

    • During a radical gastrectomy, the surgeons detach the omentum and ligate the right gastro-epiploic artery. What vessel does it originate from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery originates from the upper portion of the duodenum and travels downwards behind it until it reaches the lower border. At this point, it splits into two branches: the right gastro-epiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery. The right gastro-epiploic artery moves towards the left and passes through the layers of the greater omentum to connect with the left gastro-epiploic artery.

      The Gastroduodenal Artery: Supply and Path

      The gastroduodenal artery is responsible for supplying blood to the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head through the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries. It commonly arises from the common hepatic artery of the coeliac trunk and terminates by bifurcating into the right gastroepiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

      To better understand the relationship of the gastroduodenal artery to the first part of the duodenum, the stomach is reflected superiorly in an image sourced from Wikipedia. This artery plays a crucial role in providing oxygenated blood to the digestive system, ensuring proper functioning and health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 17 - Secretions from which of the following will contain the highest levels of potassium?...

    Incorrect

    • Secretions from which of the following will contain the highest levels of potassium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectum

      Explanation:

      The rectum can produce potassium-rich secretions, which is why resins are given to treat hyperkalemia and why patients with villous adenoma of the rectum may experience hypokalemia.

      Potassium Secretions in the GI Tract

      Potassium is secreted in various parts of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The salivary glands can secrete up to 60mmol/L of potassium, while the stomach secretes only 10 mmol/L. The bile, pancreas, and small bowel also secrete potassium, with average figures of 5 mmol/L, 4-5 mmol/L, and 10 mmol/L, respectively. The rectum has the highest potassium secretion, with an average of 30 mmol/L. However, the exact composition of potassium secretions varies depending on factors such as disease, serum aldosterone levels, and serum pH.

      It is important to note that gastric potassium secretions are low, and hypokalaemia (low potassium levels) may occur in vomiting. However, this is usually due to renal wasting of potassium rather than potassium loss in vomit. Understanding the different levels of potassium secretion in the GI tract can be helpful in diagnosing and treating potassium-related disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man is scheduled for a splenectomy. What is the most posteriorly...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is scheduled for a splenectomy. What is the most posteriorly located structure of the spleen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lienorenal ligament

      Explanation:

      The phrenicocolic ligament provides the antero-lateral connection, while the gastro splenic ligament is located anteriorly to the lienorenal ligament. These ligaments converge around the vessels at the splenic hilum, with the lienorenal ligament being the most posterior.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Spleen

      The spleen is a vital organ in the human body, serving as the largest lymphoid organ. It is located below the 9th-12th ribs and has a clenched fist shape. The spleen is an intraperitoneal organ, and its peritoneal attachments condense at the hilum, where the vessels enter the spleen. The blood supply of the spleen is from the splenic artery, which is derived from the coeliac axis, and the splenic vein, which is joined by the IMV and unites with the SMV.

      The spleen is derived from mesenchymal tissue during embryology. It weighs between 75-150g and has several relations with other organs. The diaphragm is superior to the spleen, while the gastric impression is anterior, the kidney is posterior, and the colon is inferior. The hilum of the spleen is formed by the tail of the pancreas and splenic vessels. The spleen also forms the apex of the lesser sac, which contains short gastric vessels.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the spleen is crucial in comprehending its functions and the role it plays in the human body. The spleen’s location, weight, and relations with other organs are essential in diagnosing and treating spleen-related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 19 - As an observer in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning watching...

    Incorrect

    • As an observer in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning watching a colonoscopy list. A number of patients who arrive during the morning are individuals with Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC), who are being screened to detect any early signs of colorectal cancer. What is the lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer for individuals with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man experiences a pelvic fracture with a complication involving the junction...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man experiences a pelvic fracture with a complication involving the junction of the membranous urethra and bulbar urethra. What is the most probable direction for the leaked urine to flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anteriorly into the connective tissues surrounding the scrotum

      Explanation:

      The superficial perineal pouch is a compartment that is bordered superficially by the superficial perineal fascia, deep by the perineal membrane (which is the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm), and laterally by the ischiopubic ramus. It contains various structures such as the crura of the penis or clitoris, muscles, viscera, blood vessels, nerves, the proximal part of the spongy urethra in males, and the greater vestibular glands in females. In cases of urethral rupture, the urine will tend to pass forward because the fascial condensations will prevent the urine from passing laterally and posteriorly.

      The Urogenital Triangle and Superficial Perineal Pouch

      The urogenital triangle is a structure formed by the ischiopubic inferior rami and ischial tuberosities, with a fascial sheet attached to its sides, creating the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm. It serves as a pathway for the urethra in males and both the urethra and vagina in females. The membranous urethra is located deep to this structure and is surrounded by the external urethral sphincter.

      In males, the superficial perineal pouch lies superficial to the urogenital diaphragm and contains the bulb of the penis, crura of the penis, superficial transverse perineal muscle, posterior scrotal arteries, and posterior scrotal nerves. Meanwhile, in females, the internal pudendal artery branches to become the posterior labial arteries in the superficial perineal pouch.

      Understanding the anatomy of the urogenital triangle and superficial perineal pouch is crucial in diagnosing and treating urogenital disorders. Proper knowledge of these structures can aid in the identification of potential issues and the development of effective treatment plans.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man visits his doctor for the third time complaining of general...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his doctor for the third time complaining of general fatigue and feeling mentally cloudy. Upon conducting another blood test, the doctor discovers that the patient has extremely low levels of vitamin B12. The diagnosis is pernicious anemia caused by antibodies against intrinsic factor. What are the cells in the gastrointestinal tract responsible for secreting intrinsic factor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      The cause of pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune response that targets intrinsic factor and possibly gastric parietal cells, leading to their destruction. These cells are responsible for producing intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine.

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.

      Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up of her COPD. She informs the healthcare provider that she has quit smoking, resulting in fewer COPD exacerbations, none of which required hospitalization. However, she has observed a slight increase in her weight and swelling in her ankles.

      During the physical examination, the patient's weight is noted to be 76kg, up from her previous weight of 72kg. The healthcare provider listens to her heart and lungs and detects normal breath and heart sounds. The patient has bilateral edema that extends up to her mid-calves.

      What other examination findings may be evident, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth hepatomegaly

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that they have developed cor pulmonale due to COPD, resulting in right-sided heart failure. On examination, signs of fluid congestion such as peripheral edema, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), ascites, and hepatomegaly may be present. Therefore, the most likely finding would be an enlarged liver with a firm, smooth, tender, and pulsatile edge.

      Caput medusae, which refers to the swelling of superficial veins in the epigastric area, is unlikely to occur in a new presentation of cor pulmonale.

      Narrow pulse pressure is a characteristic of aortic stenosis, which causes left ventricular dysfunction. However, this patient only shows signs of right-sided heart failure.

      A palpable thrill, which indicates turbulent flow across a heart valve, may be felt in severe valvular disease that causes left ventricular dysfunction. Murmurs are often present in valvular disease, but not in this patient’s case.

      Reverse splitting of the second heart sound may occur in aortic stenosis or left bundle branch block, which can cause left ventricular dysfunction.

      Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes

      Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.

      Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.

      Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old man is scheduled for a radical prostatectomy to treat prostate gland...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is scheduled for a radical prostatectomy to treat prostate gland carcinoma. Which lymph nodes will the tumour primarily drain into?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac

      Explanation:

      The prostate lymphatic drainage goes mainly to the internal iliac nodes, with the sacral nodes also involved.

      Anatomy of the Prostate Gland

      The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located below the bladder and separated from the rectum by Denonvilliers fascia. It receives its blood supply from the internal iliac vessels, specifically the inferior vesical artery. The gland has an internal sphincter at its apex, which can be damaged during surgery and result in retrograde ejaculation.

      The prostate gland has four lobes: the posterior lobe, median lobe, and two lateral lobes. It also has an isthmus and three zones: the peripheral zone, central zone, and transition zone. The peripheral zone, which is the subcapsular portion of the posterior prostate, is where most prostate cancers occur.

      The gland is surrounded by various structures, including the pubic symphysis, prostatic venous plexus, Denonvilliers fascia, rectum, ejaculatory ducts, lateral venous plexus, and levator ani. Its lymphatic drainage is to the internal iliac nodes, and its innervation comes from the inferior hypogastric plexus.

      In summary, the prostate gland is a small but important gland in the male reproductive system. Its anatomy includes lobes, zones, and various surrounding structures, and it plays a crucial role in ejaculation and prostate health.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following is more frequently observed in individuals with Crohn's disease...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is more frequently observed in individuals with Crohn's disease compared to those with ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fat wrapping of the terminal ileum

      Explanation:

      Smoking has been found to exacerbate Crohn’s disease, and it also increases the risk of disease recurrence after resection. Patients with ileal disease, which is the most common site of the disease, often exhibit fat wrapping of the terminal ileum. The mesenteric fat in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is typically dense, hard, and prone to significant bleeding during surgery. During endoscopy, the mucosa in Crohn’s disease patients is described as resembling cobblestones, while ulcerative colitis patients often exhibit mucosal islands (pseudopolyps).

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old male develops profuse, bloody diarrhoea after taking antibiotics. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male develops profuse, bloody diarrhoea after taking antibiotics. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea is suspected. What would be the expected findings during a colonoscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomembranous colitis

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea is a common occurrence after taking certain antibiotics such as clindamycin, amoxicillin, ampicillin, and 3rd generation cephalosporins. This is because antibiotics eliminate the normal gut bacteria, making the bowel susceptible to invasion by Clostridium difficile bacterium.

      The overgrowth of Clostridium difficile can lead to diarrhoea and the development of pseudomembranous colitis, which is characterized by yellow plaques that can be easily dislodged during colonoscopy.

      Ischaemic colitis, on the other hand, is caused by ischaemia to the bowel and is likely to result in ischaemic bowel.

      Microscopic colitis has two subtypes, namely lymphocytic colitis and collagenous colitis. These rare conditions are associated with chronic watery non-bloody diarrhoea and a normal colon appearance during colonoscopy, but biopsies reveal inflammatory changes.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after collapsing at home. According...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after collapsing at home. According to his wife, he had complained of sudden lower back pain just before the collapse. Upon examination, he appears pale and hypotensive, leading you to suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Can you determine at which level the affected structure terminates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The section of the aorta that runs through the abdomen, known as the abdominal aorta, extends from the T12 vertebrae to the L4 vertebrae. This area is particularly susceptible to developing an aneurysm, which is most commonly seen in men over the age of 65. Risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms include smoking, diabetes, high blood pressure, and high cholesterol levels. Symptoms are often absent until the aneurysm ruptures, causing sudden and severe pain in the lower back or abdomen, as well as a drop in blood pressure and consciousness. To detect potential aneurysms, the NHS offers a one-time ultrasound screening for men over the age of 65 who have not previously been screened.

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 27 - A 78-year-old man reports experiencing discomfort behind his breastbone and occasional backflow of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man reports experiencing discomfort behind his breastbone and occasional backflow of stomach acid into his mouth, especially after meals and at bedtime, causing sleep disturbance. What is a potential risk factor for GORD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD)

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a chronic condition where stomach acid flows back up into the oesophagus, causing discomfort and increasing the risk of oesophageal cancer. Obesity is a known risk factor for GORD, as excess weight around the abdomen increases pressure in the stomach. Hiatus hernia, which also results from increased intra-abdominal pressure, is also associated with GORD. This is because the widening of the diaphragmatic hiatus in hiatus hernia reduces the effectiveness of the lower oesophageal sphincter in preventing acid reflux.

      Smoking is another risk factor for GORD, although the exact mechanism by which it weakens the lower oesophageal sphincter is not fully understood. Interestingly, male sex does not appear to be associated with GORD. Overall, the risk factors for GORD can help individuals take steps to prevent or manage this chronic condition.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old female is hospitalized with acute pancreatitis. What factor would indicate a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female is hospitalized with acute pancreatitis. What factor would indicate a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucose 15.8mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Prognostic Score is a useful tool for assessing the severity of acute pancreatitis. If three or more of the following criteria are present within the first 48 hours, it is likely that the patient is experiencing severe pancreatitis and should be referred to the High Dependency Unit or Intensive Care Unit. Conversely, if the score is less than three, severe pancreatitis is unlikely. The criteria include: age over 55 years, white blood cell count over 15 x 109/L, urea over 16 mmol/L, glucose over 10 mmol/L, pO2 less than 8 kPa (60 mm Hg), albumin less than 32 g/L, calcium less than 2 mmol/L, LDH over 600 units/L, and AST/ALT over 200 units. Based on these criteria, the only option that meets the threshold for severe pancreatitis is a glucose level of 15.8 mmol/L.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old male presents with suspected ureteric colic. Where is the stone most...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with suspected ureteric colic. Where is the stone most likely to be visualized on a KUB style x-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The tips of the transverse processes between L2 and L5

      Explanation:

      The stones in the ureter can be seen at the anterior of L2 to L5, as well as over the sacro-iliac joints.

      Anatomy of the Ureter

      The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.

      In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old soldier sustains a gunshot wound to the abdomen resulting in severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old soldier sustains a gunshot wound to the abdomen resulting in severe damage to the abdominal aorta. The surgeons opt to place a vascular clamp just below the diaphragm to control the bleeding. What is the potential risk of injury to one of the vessels during this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior phrenic arteries

      Explanation:

      The inferior phrenic arteries, which are the first branches of the abdominal aorta, are most vulnerable. On the other hand, the superior phrenic arteries are located in the thorax. The area around the diaphragmatic hiatus could be a valuable location for aortic occlusion, but keeping the clamp on for more than 10-15 minutes typically results in unfavorable results.

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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