-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman named Priya, who moved to the UK from India 8 years ago, visited her GP with her husband. She was 32 weeks pregnant with her first child. Priya had experienced mild hyperemesis until week 16 but had an otherwise uneventful pregnancy. She reported feeling slightly feverish and unwell, and had developed a rash the previous night.
Upon examination, Priya appeared healthy, with a temperature of 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation of 99% in air, heart rate of 92 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 112/74 mmHg. She had a macular rash with some early papular and vesicular lesions.
Further questioning revealed that Priya had attended a family gathering two weeks ago, where she spent time with her young cousins. One of her cousins was later diagnosed with chickenpox. Priya's husband confirmed that she had never had chickenpox before.
What is the appropriate next step in managing chickenpox in this case?Your Answer: Reassure and send the patient home
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral acyclovir
Explanation:Pregnant women who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and contract chickenpox are typically treated with oral acyclovir if they seek medical attention within 24 hours of developing the rash. Women who were not born and raised in the UK are at a higher risk of contracting chickenpox when they move to the country. The RCOG recommends prescribing oral acyclovir to pregnant women with chickenpox who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and have developed the rash within 24 hours. acyclovir may also be considered for women who are less than 20 weeks pregnant. If a woman contracts chickenpox before 28 weeks of pregnancy, she should be referred to a fetal medicine specialist five weeks after the infection. The chickenpox vaccine cannot be administered during pregnancy, and VZIG is not effective once the rash has developed. In cases where there is clear clinical evidence of chickenpox infection, antibody testing is unnecessary. Pregnant women with chickenpox should be monitored daily, and if they exhibit signs of severe or complicated chickenpox, they should be referred to a specialist immediately. Adults with chickenpox are at a higher risk of complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis, and in rare cases, death, so proper assessment and management are crucial.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with a severe exacerbation of COPD. Despite full intervention, being intubated and ventilated, he fails to respond to treatment and continues to steadily deteriorate. It is believed that the patient is now brain dead.
The patient is unconscious, fails to respond to outside stimulation and it is believed that his heart rate and breathing are only being maintained by the ventilator. The patient has agreed in the past to be an organ donor, and brainstem death verification is sought. The consultant with six years’ experience is present to certify brainstem death; however, a further person is needed for the process.
Which of the following people is most appropriate to certify brainstem death along with the consultant?Your Answer: The coroner
Correct Answer: An ST4 doctor with five years full GMC registration
Explanation:Certification of Brainstem Death: Who Can Verify and Who Cannot
Brain death is the irreversible loss of brain function, including the brainstem. To diagnose brainstem death, all three criteria of apnoea, coma, and absence of brainstem reflexes must be present. The verification of brainstem death is typically done in the ICU, where patients are mechanically ventilated.
According to the guidelines set by the Academy of Medical Royal Colleges, two doctors must verify brainstem death. Both doctors must have at least five years of full medical registration and be trained and competent in performing the assessment. At least one of the two doctors must be a consultant. They must both agree that all three criteria are met and that there is no reversible cause that can be treated.
It is important to note that any doctor who has received training in death certification can certify a death following cardiorespiratory arrest. However, only doctors who meet the above criteria can verify brainstem death.
The coroner is not involved in death verification unless the circumstances of the death are suspicious or meet strict referral criteria.
Nursing staff should not verify death unless they have received specific training. In certifying brainstem death, two qualified doctors, one of whom must be a consultant, and both of whom must have been fully registered with the GMC for at least five years, must perform the tests.
Relatives and next of kin should not be involved in the verification of death. They can be informed of the death as soon as it is confirmed by medical practitioners.
Who Can Verify Brainstem Death? A Guide to Certification.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old retiree comes to the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain and bloating. He reports recurrent belching after meals and a loss of taste for Chinese food, which he used to enjoy. This has been ongoing for the past 8 years. The patient had an upper GI endoscopy 6 years ago, which was reported as normal. He has tried various over-the-counter remedies and was prescribed medication by his primary care physician, but with little relief. What is the next recommended course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Anti-Helicobacter pylori treatment
Correct Answer: Upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic and Treatment Options for Non-Ulcer Dyspepsia in Older Patients
Non-ulcer dyspepsia (NUD) is a common condition characterized by upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms without any identifiable cause. However, in older patients, these symptoms may be indicative of a more serious underlying condition. Therefore, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend upper GI endoscopy for patients over the age of 55 with treatment-resistant symptoms.
Gastric motility studies are indicated in gastric disorders like gastroparesis but are not necessary for NUD diagnosis. Proton pump inhibitors or H2 blockers may be tried if alarm symptoms are not present. Anti-Helicobacter pylori treatment may also be considered. However, acupuncture is not validated as an effective treatment for NUD.
In summary, older patients with NUD should undergo endoscopic evaluation to rule out any serious underlying conditions. Treatment options include proton pump inhibitors, H2 blockers, and anti-Helicobacter pylori treatment, but acupuncture is not recommended.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic with a history of two episodes of right-sided bronchial pneumonia in the past 2 months, which have not completely resolved. He has been a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day since he was 16 years old. On examination, he has signs consistent with COPD and right-sided consolidation on respiratory examination. His BMI is 18. Further investigations reveal a right hilar mass measuring 4 x 2 cm in size on chest X-ray, along with abnormal laboratory values including low haemoglobin, elevated WCC, and corrected calcium levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus
Explanation:Types of Bronchial Carcinomas
Bronchial carcinomas are a type of lung cancer that originates in the bronchial tubes. There are several types of bronchial carcinomas, each with their own characteristics and treatment options.
Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus is the most common type of bronchial carcinoma, accounting for 42% of cases. It typically occurs in the central part of the lung and is strongly associated with smoking. Patients with squamous cell carcinoma may also present with hypercalcemia.
Bronchial carcinoids are rare and slow-growing tumors that arise from the bronchial mucosa. They are typically benign but can become malignant in some cases.
Large cell bronchial carcinoma is a heterogeneous group of tumors that lack the organized features of other lung cancers. They tend to grow quickly and are often found in the periphery of the lung.
Small cell bronchial carcinoma is a highly aggressive type of lung cancer that grows rapidly and spreads early. It is strongly associated with smoking and is often found in the central part of the lung.
Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus is the least associated with smoking and typically presents with lesions in the lung peripheries rather than near the bronchus.
In summary, the type of bronchial carcinoma a patient has can vary greatly and can impact treatment options and prognosis. It is important for healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and classify the type of bronchial carcinoma to provide the best possible care for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and distention. They have not had a bowel movement in 4 days and have not passed gas in 1 day. During the examination, hyperactive bowel sounds are heard, and a digital rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. An urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast reveals a suspicious large localized lesion in the descending colon, causing bowel obstruction and severely dilated bowel loops.
What is the most appropriate initial surgical option for this patient?Your Answer: Loop ileostomy
Correct Answer: Loop colostomy
Explanation:The preferred surgical procedure for obstructing cancers in the distal colon is a loop colostomy. This involves creating a stoma with two openings, one connected to the functioning part of the bowel and the other leading into the distal colon to dysfunction and decompress it. The stoma can be reversed at a later time. However, other procedures such as AP resection, ileocolic anastomosis, and ileostomy are not appropriate for this patient’s descending colon mass.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight following a road traffic accident. He sustained extensive bruising to his chest from the steering wheel. The nurses are concerned as he has become hypotensive and tachycardic. There is a history of a previous inferior myocardial infarction some 7 years ago, but nil else of note. On examination his BP is 90/50 mmHg, pulse is 95/min and regular. He looks peripherally shut down. There are muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus.
Investigations – arterial blood gas - reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
pH 7.29 7.35–7.45
pO2 11.9 kPa 11.2–14.0 kPa
pCO2 6.1 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
ECG Widespread anterior T wave inversion
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypotension, Tachycardia, and Muffled Heart Sounds Following a Road Traffic Accident: Cardiac Tamponade, Myocarditis, NSTEMI, Pericarditis, and STEMI
A 67-year-old man presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and poor peripheral perfusion following a road traffic accident with a steering wheel injury. On examination, muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus are noted, and an ECG shows widespread anterior T-wave inversion. The patient has a history of inferior wall MI seven years ago. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals respiratory acidosis.
The differential diagnosis includes cardiac tamponade, myocarditis, NSTEMI, pericarditis, and STEMI. While myocarditis can cause similar symptoms and ECG changes, the presence of muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus suggests fluid in the pericardium and cardiac tamponade. NSTEMI and STEMI can also cause acute onset of symptoms and ECG changes, but the absence of ST elevation and the history of trauma make cardiac tamponade more likely. Pericarditis can cause muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus, but the absence of peripheral hypoperfusion and the presence of non-specific ST-T changes on ECG make it less likely.
In conclusion, the clinical scenario is most consistent with traumatic cardiac tamponade, which requires urgent echocardiography for confirmation and possible guided pericardiocentesis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her general practitioner complaining of a chronic cough, weight loss and haemoptysis. She smokes ten cigarettes a day. You understand that she has begun anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) antibody treatment around 9 months earlier. On examination, her rheumatoid appears quiescent at present.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
possible left upper lobe fibrosis
Haemoglobin 109 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 295 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 61 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
C-reactive protein (CRP) 55 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis on a chest X-ray. Several possible causes need to be considered, including active pulmonary tuberculosis, lymphoma, rheumatoid lung disease, bronchial carcinoma, and invasive aspergillosis. While anti-TNF antibody medication for rheumatoid arthritis may increase the risk of tuberculosis and aspergillosis, it is important to rule out other potential etiologies based on clinical examination, imaging studies, and laboratory tests. The presence of soft, fluffy, and ill-defined lesions on chest X-ray may suggest active tuberculosis, while the absence of upper lobe fibrosis may argue against lymphoma or radiotherapy-induced fibrosis. Pulmonary nodules and lung fibrosis at the lung bases are more typical of rheumatoid lung disease, but calcified nodes with upper lobe fibrosis are unusual. Bronchial carcinoma may be a concern given the patient’s age and smoking history, but typically lymph nodes are not calcified. Invasive aspergillosis is more likely in immunosuppressed patients and can be detected by a CT scan and a serum galactomannan test. A comprehensive differential diagnosis can guide further evaluation and management of this complex case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 28-year-old man has been brought to the emergency department at 16:00 after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has disclosed that he attempted suicide due to feeling overwhelmed with his postgraduate studies and has been feeling particularly lonely since he moved to university. The patient has admitted to taking 25 paracetamol tablets throughout the day since waking up at 07:00, but cannot recall when he last took some of the tablets, except that it was before 14:00. What would be the most appropriate course of action now?
Your Answer: Immediately administer IV acetylcysteine
Explanation:Patients who have taken a staggered paracetamol overdose should be treated with acetylcysteine, regardless of their plasma paracetamol concentration. Therefore, the correct approach for this patient is to administer IV acetylcysteine immediately. This is based on the 2012 Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) review of paracetamol overdose management. Activated charcoal is not appropriate in this case, as it should only be given within 1 hour of ingestion. IV naloxone is also not suitable as there is no evidence of an opioid overdose.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial flushing and developed a red rash on his face a few months ago. Upon examination, there are numerous erythaematous papules scattered across his cheeks and his nose appears red and bulbous.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Correct Answer: Acne rosacea
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Acne Rosacea, Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus, Seborrhoeic Dermatitis, Acne Vulgaris, and Nodulocystic Acne
Skin conditions can be a source of discomfort and embarrassment for many people. Here are five common skin conditions and their features:
Acne Rosacea is a chronic rash that affects the central face, typically in those aged 30 to 60. Symptoms include facial flushing, telangiectasia, rhinophyma, papules, and pustules. Treatment options include topical metronidazole and oral antibiotics.
Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect various organs, including the skin. Common dermatological signs include a butterfly malar rash and discoid lupus.
Seborrhoeic Dermatitis is a chronic or relapsing form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp, face, and upper trunk. Symptoms include indurated hyperpigmented plaques and creases around the nose, behind ears, and within eyebrows.
Acne Vulgaris is a common variety of acne that affects the pilosebaceous unit. It is most common in young adults with high levels of sex hormones and is graded according to the number of comedones and inflammatory lesions seen.
Nodulocystic Acne is a severe form of acne that affects the face, chest, and back, mainly in men. Symptoms include multiple inflamed and uninflamed nodules and scars.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and distention. She has been feeling unwell for the past 4 hours and she has vomited three times. Her past medical history includes hypertension and an appendicectomy in her late 40s. On examination, her abdomen is distended but not peritonitic, with absent bowel sounds. Her electrolytes were assessed and are as follows:
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 105 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
What is the first-line management for her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nasogastric tube insertion and intravenous fluids with additional potassium
Explanation:The initial medical management for small bowel obstruction involves the insertion of a nasogastric tube to decompress the small bowel and the administration of intravenous fluids with additional potassium. This is the correct answer as the patient is exhibiting classic symptoms of small bowel obstruction, including intense abdominal pain and early vomiting, and has a history of abdominal surgery that could have caused adhesions, the most common cause of this condition. The intravenous fluids are necessary to replace electrolytes, particularly potassium, which can be lost due to the increased peristalsis and enlargement of the proximal bowel segment. Antibiotics and intravenous fluids would be the appropriate treatment for acute pancreatitis, which presents with different symptoms and causes. Surgery is not the first-line management for small bowel obstruction, and sigmoidoscope insertion with a flatus tube is not appropriate as the patient has small bowel obstruction, not large bowel obstruction.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old shop stocking agent presents to her GP with complaints of pain in both wrists and numbness and tingling at night. She reports needing to shake her wrists in the morning to regain feeling in her fingers. Upon examination, there is no evidence of neurovascular compromise in her hands, but Phalen's test is positive. Grip strength is reduced, and wrist range of motion is normal. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wrist splinting +/- steroid injection
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe breathlessness after being exposed to smoke during a house fire. He reports vomiting twice and experiencing a headache and dizziness.
Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachypnoeic with good air entry, and his oxygen saturations are at 100% on air. He appears drowsy, but his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15, and there are no signs of head injury on his neurological examination.
What is the initial step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-flow oxygen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Smoke Inhalation Injury
Smoke inhalation injury can lead to carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and vomiting. It is important to note that normal oxygen saturation may be present despite respiratory distress due to the inability of a pulse oximeter to differentiate between carboxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, any conscious patient with suspected CO poisoning should be immediately treated with high-flow oxygen, which can reduce the half-life of carboxyhaemoglobin from up to four hours to 90 minutes.
Cyanide poisoning, which is comparatively rare, can also be caused by smoke inhalation. The treatment of choice for cyanide poisoning is a combination of hydroxocobalamin and sodium thiosulphate.
Hyperbaric oxygen may be beneficial for managing patients with CO poisoning, but high-flow oxygen should be provided immediately while waiting for initiation. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen include an unconscious patient, COHb > 25%, pH < 7.1, and evidence of end-organ damage due to CO poisoning. Bronchodilators such as nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium may be useful as supportive care in cases of inhalation injury where signs of bronchospasm occur. However, in this case, compatible signs such as wheeze and reduced air entry are not present. Metoclopramide may provide symptomatic relief of nausea, but it does not replace the need for immediate high-flow oxygen. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the administration of high-flow oxygen in patients with suspected smoke inhalation injury. Managing Smoke Inhalation Injury: Treatment Options and Priorities
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man presents with a three-month history of typical dyspepsia symptoms, including epigastric pain and a 2-stone weight loss. Despite treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, he has not experienced any relief. He now reports difficulty eating solids and frequent post-meal vomiting. On examination, a palpable mass is found in the epigastrium. His full blood count shows a haemoglobin level of 85 g/L (130-180). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of stomach
Explanation:Alarm Symptoms of Foregut Malignancy
The presence of alarm symptoms in patients over 55 years old, such as weight loss, bleeding, dysphagia, vomiting, blood loss, and a mass, are indicative of a malignancy of the foregut. It is crucial to refer these patients for urgent endoscopy, especially if dysphagia is a new onset symptom. However, it is unfortunate that patients with alarm symptoms are often treated with PPIs instead of being referred for further evaluation. Although PPIs may provide temporary relief, they only delay the diagnosis of the underlying tumor.
The patient’s symptoms should not be ignored, and prompt referral for endoscopy is necessary to rule out malignancy. Early detection and treatment of foregut malignancy can significantly improve patient outcomes. Therefore, it is essential to recognize the alarm symptoms and refer patients for further evaluation promptly. Healthcare providers should avoid prescribing PPIs as a first-line treatment for patients with alarm symptoms and instead prioritize timely referral for endoscopy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
You are asked to see a patient on the Pediatric Ward who is suffering from severe eclampsia. Two hours previously, she began to bleed profusely from her cannula site. After checking her coagulation screen, you are suspicious she has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
Which one of the following test result would you expect in a diagnosis of DIC?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elevated prothrombin time (PT)
Explanation:Understanding DIC: Symptoms and Diagnostic Tests
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by abnormal clotting and bleeding at the same time. This widespread disorder of clotting is caused by both thrombin and plasmin activation. Acutely, haemorrhage often occurs as the clotting factors are exhausted. The severity of the condition is variable but can lead to severe organ failure.
To diagnose DIC, doctors typically perform a full blood picture, coagulation screen, and a group-and-save test. Tests for DIC include elevated prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Platelet counts in DIC are typically low, especially in acute sepsis-associated DIC, but may be increased in malignancy-associated chronic DIC. Fibrinogen level is also tested, as it falls in DIC.
Symptoms of DIC include abnormal bleeding, such as from the gums or nose, and bruising easily. Patients may also experience organ failure, such as kidney or liver failure. Treatment for DIC typically involves addressing the underlying cause, such as sepsis or cancer, and providing supportive care, such as blood transfusions or medications to prevent clotting.
In summary, DIC is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you experience symptoms of abnormal bleeding or organ failure, seek medical attention immediately.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with vomiting and abdominal distension. He has been experiencing absolute constipation for the past three days and his abdomen has become increasingly distended. He also reports feeling nauseous and has been vomiting for the last day. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and takes ramipril.
Upon examination, the patient has a soft but significantly distended abdomen that is tympanic to percussion. Loud bowel sounds are audible. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 87 bpm, blood pressure of 135/87 mmHg, and temperature of 36.8ºC. An abdominal x-ray reveals a 'coffee-bean' sign, indicating a sigmoid volvulus.
What is the initial management approach for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decompression via rigid sigmoidoscopy and flatus tube insertion
Explanation:Flatus tube insertion is the primary management approach for unruptured sigmoid volvulus.
In elderly patients, sigmoid volvulus is a common condition that can be initially treated without surgery by decompressing the bowel using a flatus tube. This approach is preferred as surgery poses a higher risk in this age group. Flatus tube decompression typically leads to resolution of the volvulus without recurrence. If flatus tube decompression fails or recurrence occurs despite multiple attempts, the next step is to insert a percutaneous colostomy tube to decompress the volvulus.
Conservative management is not appropriate for patients with absolute constipation as the volvulus can become ischemic and perforate, which is associated with a high mortality rate. Anti-muscarinic agents are used to treat pseudo-obstruction, not volvulus. There is no evidence to support the need for a Hartmann’s procedure as perforation is not a concern.
Understanding Volvulus: A Condition of Twisted Colon
Volvulus is a medical condition that occurs when the colon twists around its mesenteric axis, leading to a blockage in blood flow and closed loop obstruction. Sigmoid volvulus is the most common type, accounting for around 80% of cases, and is caused by the sigmoid colon twisting on the sigmoid mesocolon. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, occurs in around 20% of cases and is caused by the caecum twisting. This condition is more common in patients with developmental failure of peritoneal fixation of the proximal bowel.
Sigmoid volvulus is often associated with chronic constipation, Chagas disease, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and psychiatric conditions like schizophrenia. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, is associated with adhesions, pregnancy, and other factors. Symptoms of volvulus include constipation, abdominal bloating, abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting.
Diagnosis of volvulus is usually done through an abdominal film, which shows signs of large bowel obstruction alongside the coffee bean sign for sigmoid volvulus. Small bowel obstruction may be seen in caecal volvulus. Management of sigmoid volvulus involves rigid sigmoidoscopy with rectal tube insertion, while caecal volvulus usually requires operative management, with right hemicolectomy often being necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old primigravida patient presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of light per-vaginal spotting. Based on her last menstrual period date, she is 8 weeks and 4 days gestation and has not yet undergone any scans. She reports no abdominal pain or flooding episodes and has no prior medical history. A transvaginal ultrasound scan reveals a closed cervical os with a single intrauterine gestational sac, a 2 mm yolk sac, and a crown-rump length measuring 7.8mm, without cardiac activity. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Missed miscarriage
Explanation:A diagnosis of miscarriage can be made when a transvaginal ultrasound shows a crown-rump length greater than 7mm without cardiac activity. In this case, the patient has experienced a missed miscarriage, as the ultrasound revealed an intrauterine foetus of a size consistent with around 6 weeks gestation, but without heartbeat. The closed cervical os and history of spotting further support this diagnosis. A complete miscarriage, inevitable miscarriage, and partial miscarriage are not applicable in this scenario.
Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of mild abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and is otherwise feeling well. On examination, she is tender in the right iliac fossa and has a small amount of blood in the vaginal vault with a closed cervical os. There is no cervical excitation. Her vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, heart rate of 80 bpm, temperature of 36.5ºC, saturations of 99% on air, and respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute. A urine dip reveals blood only, and a urinary pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for immediate assessment at the Early Pregnancy Unit
Explanation:A woman with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be immediately referred for assessment due to the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. Arranging an outpatient ultrasound or reassuring the patient is not appropriate. Urgent investigation is necessary to prevent the risk of rupture. Expectant management may be appropriate for a woman with vaginal bleeding and no pain or tenderness, but not for this patient who has both.
Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management
Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.
To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.
A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.
In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 4-week-old infant boy born at 37 weeks gestation by caesarian section is presented to his pediatrician for a routine check-up. The pediatrician observes that the neonate's urethral meatus is situated on the ventral aspect of the penile shaft, instead of the distal glans penis. What other congenital anomaly is this neonate more likely to have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism
Explanation:Hypospadias is often accompanied by cryptorchidism in neonates, indicating a potential issue with embryological urogenital migration that may be linked to endocrine disruptions during pregnancy, such as low serum androgens. Imperforate anus, obstructive uropathy with a patent urachus, and posterior urethral valve are not associated with hypospadias and would present with different symptoms or complications.
Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis
Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.
Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of progressive distal sensory loss and weakness of both legs and arms. The weakness and numbness had extended to the elbows and knees.
On examination, cranial nerves and fundoscopy were normal. Examination of the upper limb revealed bilaterally reduced tone and 3/5 power.
Lower limb examination revealed some mild weakness of hip flexion and extension with marked weakness of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Both knee and ankle jerks were absent and both plantar responses were mute. There was absent sensation to all modalities affecting both feet extending to the knees.
A lumbar puncture was performed and yielded the following data:
Opening pressure 14 cm H2O (5-18)
CSF protein 0.75 g/L (0.15-0.45)
CSF white cell count 10 cells per ml (<5 cells)
CSF white cell differential 90% lymphocytes -
CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells)
Nerve conduction studies showed multifocal motor and sensory conduction block with prolonged distal latencies.
What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (CIDP)
Explanation:The patient’s history is consistent with a subacute sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy, which could be caused by inflammatory neuropathies such as CIDP or paraproteinaemic neuropathies. CIDP is characterized by progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the limbs, and treatment includes corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, and physiotherapy. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute post-infectious neuropathy that is closely linked to CIDP. Cervical spondylosis would cause upper motor neuron signs, while HMSN is a chronic neuropathy with a family history. Multifocal motor neuropathy is a treatable neuropathy affecting motor conduction only.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over. He has been experiencing difficulty standing up from his chair and climbing stairs for the past 6 months. He also reports feeling constantly tired and down, but denies any other symptoms. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. During a routine blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 146 g/L (Male: 135-180), Platelets 268 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 7.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), TSH 4.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5), Creatine kinase 428 U/L (35 - 250), eGFR 68 ml/min (<90), and ESR 42 mm/hr <(age / 2). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyositis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, raised creatine kinase, and no rash is polymyositis. This inflammatory disease is commonly caused by Anti-Jo-1 and is more prevalent in male patients over 40 years old. The absence of a rash is a distinguishing factor from dermatomyositis, which also causes muscle weakness but presents with a rash. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause muscle weakness, and rhabdomyolysis is unlikely due to the chronic nature of the patient’s symptoms and mildly elevated creatine kinase levels. Treatment for polymyositis typically involves corticosteroids and/or immunosuppressants such as methotrexate.
Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness
Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.
One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.
To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.
The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine blood pressure check. As she waits in the reception area, she suddenly experiences severe breathlessness with stridor. She had mentioned to someone else in the room that she was stung by an insect on her way to the clinic. Based on your assessment, you determine that she is having an anaphylactic reaction to the sting. What would be the appropriate dose and route of administration for adrenaline in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intramuscular 1:1000 (500 micrograms)
Explanation:Recommended Injection Route for Anaphylactic Reactions
Anaphylactic reactions require immediate treatment, and one of the most effective ways to administer medication is through injection. The recommended route of injection is intramuscular, which involves injecting the medication into the muscle tissue. While the subcutaneous route can also be used, it is not as effective as the intramuscular route. In some cases, intravenous adrenaline 1:10000 may be used, but only under the supervision of a specialist. It is important to follow the guidelines provided by the Resuscitation Council (UK) for the emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions. By administering medication through the recommended injection route, healthcare providers can effectively manage anaphylactic reactions and potentially save lives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A woman in her early thirties is considering pregnancy while taking paroxetine. She is concerned about any potential negative effects on her pregnancy. What guidance should you provide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is advised that paroxetine be avoided during pregnancy unless the benefits outweigh the risk, as paroxetine can lead to an increased risk of congenital malformations
Explanation:When considering the use of Paroxetine during pregnancy, it is important to note that it can increase the risk of congenital malformations, especially during the first trimester. The use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be carefully evaluated, weighing the potential benefits against the risks. While there is a small increased risk of congenital heart defects when using SSRIs during the first trimester, using them during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all potential risks before deciding to use Paroxetine or any other SSRIs during pregnancy.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old male arrived at the emergency department with a humeral shaft fracture after falling from a rooftop during a party. He admits to taking recreational drugs before the incident but is unsure of what he consumed. After receiving analgesia, he undergoes surgery to fix his fracture with a coaptation splint and functional brace. The next day, he reports suprapubic pain and difficulty urinating, leading to a diagnosis of acute urinary retention. What drug is the probable cause of his urinary retention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morphine sulfate
Explanation:Urinary retention is a common side effect of opioid analgesia, with morphine sulfate being a frequent culprit. While cannabis contains THC, which produces a psychoactive effect, it is not typically associated with acute urinary retention. Cocaine overdose can cause cardiovascular and sympathetic effects, but not an increased risk of urinary retention. Ketamine use may lead to ketamine bladder syndrome, which causes urinary frequency and urgency rather than retention.
Drugs that can cause urinary retention
Urinary retention is a condition where a person is unable to empty their bladder completely. This can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Some drugs that may lead to urinary retention include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline, anticholinergics such as antipsychotics and antihistamines, opioids, NSAIDs, and disopyramide. These drugs can affect the muscles that control the bladder, making it difficult to urinate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man received a two unit blood transfusion 1 hour ago. He reports feeling a strange sensation in his chest, like his heart is skipping a beat. You conduct an ECG which reveals tall tented T waves in multiple leads.
An arterial blood gas (ABG) test shows:
Na+: 136 mmol/l (normal 135–145 mmol/l)
K+: 7.1 mmol/l (normal 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
Cl–: 96 mmol/l (normal 95–105 mmol/l).
What immediate treatment should be administered based on these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia: Calcium Gluconate, Normal Saline Bolus, Calcium Resonium, Insulin and Dextrose, Dexamethasone
Understanding Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where the potassium levels in the blood are higher than normal. This can lead to ECG changes, palpitations, and a high risk of arrhythmias. There are several treatment options available for hyperkalaemia, each with its own mechanism of action and benefits.
One of the most effective treatments for hyperkalaemia is calcium gluconate. This medication works by reducing the excitability of cardiomyocytes, which stabilizes the myocardium and protects the heart from arrhythmias. However, calcium gluconate does not reduce the potassium level in the blood, so additional treatments are necessary.
A normal saline bolus is not an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia. Similarly, calcium resonium, which removes potassium from the body via the gastrointestinal tract, is slow-acting and will not protect the patient from arrhythmias acutely.
Insulin and dextrose are commonly used to treat hyperkalaemia. Insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, which decreases serum potassium levels. Dextrose is needed to prevent hypoglycaemia. This treatment reduces potassium levels by 0.6-1.0 mmol/L every 15 minutes and is effective in treating hyperkalaemia. However, it does not acutely protect the heart from arrhythmias and should be given following the administration of calcium gluconate.
Dexamethasone is not a treatment for hyperkalaemia and should not be used for this purpose.
In conclusion, calcium gluconate is an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia and should be administered first to protect the heart from arrhythmias. Additional treatments such as insulin and dextrose can be used to reduce potassium levels, but they should be given after calcium gluconate. Understanding the different treatment options for hyperkalaemia is essential for providing appropriate care to patients with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old patient with psoriasis, hypothyroidism and psychotic depression complains of painful aphthous-like ulcers that started 3 weeks ago after beginning a new medication. Which medication is the most probable cause of their symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate is known to cause mucositis, while lithium can lead to thyrotoxicosis but not oral ulcers. Levothyroxine may also cause thyrotoxicosis but not mouth ulcers. Atorvastatin does not typically cause mouth ulcers, with the most common side effects being myalgia and skin flushing. It is important to note that only methotrexate has mucositis listed as a side effect in the BNF.
Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.
The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.
When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.
In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman who is 13 weeks pregnant had pre-eclampsia in her previous pregnancy and underwent a caesarean section at 36 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure has been normal since then and today. What intervention should be suggested to decrease the likelihood of pre-eclampsia recurrence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-dose aspirin
Explanation:Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mmHg. Upon examination, there were no other notable findings. Can you identify which of the following indicates a possible diagnosis of secondary hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Differentiating between Nephritic Syndrome and Essential Hypertension
When evaluating a patient with hypertension, it is important to consider the presence of other symptoms and laboratory findings that may suggest an underlying condition. In this case, the presence of proteinuria indicates a nephritic syndrome, which is not consistent with a diagnosis of essential hypertension. On the other hand, features such as left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) and arteriolar narrowing (AV nipping) are commonly seen in patients with hypertension.
It is also important to note that the patient’s normal renal clearance and normal potassium levels are compatible with essential hypertension. Therefore, while hypertension may be the primary diagnosis, it is important to consider the possibility of an underlying nephritic syndrome and perform further testing if necessary. By carefully evaluating all available information, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old patient, with learning difficulties and poorly controlled epilepsy, is admitted following a tonic−clonic seizure which resolved after the administration of lorazepam by a Casualty officer. Twenty minutes later, a further seizure occurred that again ceased with lorazepam. A further 10 minutes later, another seizure takes place.
What commonly would be the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Managing Status Epilepticus: Medications and Treatment Options
Epilepsy is a manageable condition for most patients, but in some cases, seizures may not self-resolve and require medical intervention. In such cases, benzodiazepines like rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam are commonly used. However, if seizures persist, other drugs like iv phenytoin may be administered. Paraldehyde is rarely used, and topiramate is more commonly used for seizure prevention. If a patient experiences status epilepticus, informing the intensive care unit may be appropriate, but the priority should be to stop the seizure with appropriate medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and weakness. She has been experiencing difficulty getting up from chairs, lifting objects, and climbing stairs for the past 2 months. However, she has no issues with other movements like knitting or writing. Upon examination, she has bilateral hip and shoulder weakness. Blood tests reveal the following results: calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5), free thyroxine (T4) 12.4 pmol/L (9.0 - 18), creatine kinase (CK) 1752 U/L (35 - 250), and ESR 62 mm/hr (< 40). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyositis
Explanation:Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness
Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.
One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.
To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.
The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which therapy is unsuitable for the given condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical excision for a cavernous haemangioma 3 cm × 4 cm on the arm
Explanation:Cavernous Haemangiomas and Alopecia Areata: Conditions and Treatment Options
Cavernous haemangiomas are benign growths that typically appear within the first two weeks of life. They are usually found on the face, neck, or trunk and are well-defined and lobulated. Surgical excision is not recommended, but treatment may be necessary if the growths inhibit normal development, such as obstructing vision in one eye. Treatment options include systemic or local steroids, sclerosants, interferon, or laser treatment.
Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that causes hair loss in discrete areas. Treatment options include cortisone injections into the affected areas and the use of topical cortisone creams. It is important to note that both conditions require medical attention and treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and treatment, individuals with cavernous haemangiomas and alopecia areata can manage their conditions and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
You are a junior doctor working at an inpatient psychiatry unit. You have been asked to assess a patient by the nursing staff as they are currently occupied by a distressed patient and relative. The patient you've been asked to review has known schizophrenia and wishes to leave the unit. However, following consultation with the patient, you are concerned they are exhibiting features of an acute psychotic episode.
Which section of the Mental Health Act (2007) could be used to detain the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Section 5(2)
Explanation:Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act (2007)
The Mental Health Act (2007) provides a legal framework for patients with confirmed or suspected mental disorders that pose a risk to themselves or the public. The Act outlines specific guidelines for detention, treatment, and the individuals authorized to use its powers. Here are some of the key sections of the Mental Health Act:
Section 5(2): This section allows for the temporary detention of a patient already in the hospital for up to 72 hours, after which a full Mental Health Act assessment must be conducted. A doctor who is fully registered (FY2 or above) can use this section to detain a patient.
Section 3: This section is used for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, with the exact mental disorder being treated stated on the application. It can be renewed for a further six months if required, and the patient has the right to appeal.
Section 2: This section allows for compulsory admission for assessment of presumed mental disorder. The section lasts for 28 days and must be signed by two doctors, one of whom is approved under Section 12(2), usually a consultant psychiatrist, and another doctor who knows the patient in a professional capacity, usually their GP.
Section 5(4): This section can be used by psychiatric nursing staff to detain a patient for up to 6 hours while arranging review by appropriate medical personnel for further assessment and either conversion to a Section 5(2). If this time elapses, there is no legal right for the nursing staff to detain the patient. In this scenario, the nursing staff are unavailable to assess the patient.
Section 7: This section is an application for guardianship. It is used for patients in the community where an approved mental health practitioner (AMHP), usually a social worker, requests compulsory treatment requiring the patient to live in a specified location, attend specific locations for treatment, and allow access for authorized persons.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with confusion and tremors. He reports excessive sweating earlier in the day. During the examination, hyperreflexia is observed. The patient has a medical history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Additionally, he has been experiencing back pain and has been prescribed tramadol. What is the probable reason for this man's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome
Explanation:The symptoms of serotonin syndrome include hyperreflexia, confusion, tremor, and sweating. Patients who take multiple drugs that affect serotonin, such as tramadol and an SSRI, are at risk of developing this condition. While delirium can cause confusion, it is less likely to cause tremors and sweating, especially considering the patient’s medication history. Alzheimer’s disease is a slowly progressing condition that leads to a decline in cognitive function over time.
Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a displaced femoral shaft fracture. No other injuries are found during the primary or secondary surveys. The fracture is treated with closed, antegrade intramedullary nailing. The next day, the patient becomes increasingly confused and agitated. Upon examination, he is pyrexial, hypoxic with SaO2 at 90% on 6 litres O2, tachycardic, and normotensive. A non-blanching petechial rash is observed over the torso during systemic examination. What is the most probable explanation for this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fat embolism
Explanation:This individual displays physical indications and a recent injury that are consistent with fat embolism syndrome. In the early stages, meningococcal sepsis is not commonly linked to hypoxia. Likewise, pyrexia is not typically associated with pulmonary emboli.
Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment
Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.
Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or trauma, but does admit to smoking around ten cigarettes a day since his early teenage years. Upon examination, the doctor suspects a potential spontaneous pneumothorax and proceeds to insert a chest drain for treatment. In terms of the intercostal spaces, which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The direction of fibres of the external intercostal muscle is downwards and medial
Explanation:Anatomy of the Intercostal Muscles and Neurovascular Bundle
The intercostal muscles are essential for respiration, with the external intercostal muscles aiding forced inspiration. These muscles have fibers that pass obliquely downwards and medial from the lower border of the rib above to the smooth upper border of the rib below. The direction of these fibers can be remembered as having one’s hands in one’s pockets.
The intercostal neurovascular bundle, which includes the vein, artery, and nerve, lies in a groove on the undersurface of each rib, running in the plane between the internal and innermost intercostal muscles. The vein, artery, and nerve lie in that order, from top to bottom, under cover of the lower border of the rib.
When inserting a needle or trocar for drainage or aspiration of fluid from the pleural cavity, it is important to remember that the neurovascular bundle lies in a groove just above each rib. Therefore, the needle or trocar should be inserted just above the rib to avoid the main vessels and nerves. Remember the phrase above the rib below to ensure proper insertion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving despite having regular sexual intercourse. The woman reports having a 28-day menstrual cycle, maintaining a normal diet, and not engaging in strenuous physical activity. During examination, her blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, pulse is 68 and regular, and BMI is 24 without abnormalities found in her abdomen. What blood test would be most effective in determining if she is ovulating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:Hormonal Tests for Ovulation and Pregnancy
In order to determine whether ovulation is occurring in a woman with a regular 28 day cycle, the most useful test is the measurement of day 21 progesterone levels. On the other hand, if a woman suspects she may be pregnant, a urinary pregnancy test can detect the presence of beta HCG hormone.
If a woman is experiencing absent periods and a pregnancy test is negative, measuring prolactin levels may be useful. This is especially true if there are other signs of hyperprolactinaemia, such as milk leakage on nipple stimulation.
It is important to note that oestrogen levels are not helpful in determining whether ovulation is occurring. However, if polycystic ovarian syndrome is suspected, measuring the LH/FSH ratio may be useful. By the different hormonal tests available, women can better monitor their reproductive health and seek appropriate medical attention when necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old patient is undergoing treatment with recombinant human growth hormone (GH). What is a known side effect of GH therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure
Explanation:Side Effects of Recombinant Human Growth Hormone Treatment
Recombinant human growth hormone (hGH) treatment is associated with several side effects. One of the most common side effects is raised intracranial pressure (ICP) with a normal MRI, which is a secondary form of idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH). This is believed to be caused by the antidiuretic effect of hGH, particularly in patients with impaired renal homeostasis. However, in patients with intact homeostatic mechanisms, hGH can elevate plasma renin and aldosterone, which counteracts the antidiuretic effect. If IIH is diagnosed, hGH treatment should be stopped and resumed at a lower dose if IIH resolves.
Aside from IIH, other recognized side effects of hGH include slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), malignancies, gynaecomastia, and impaired glucose metabolism. However, melanoma, osteoporosis, prostatic hypertrophy, and prolongation of the QT interval are not commonly recognized side effects of hGH treatment. It is important to monitor patients closely for these side effects and adjust treatment accordingly to minimize any potential harm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right-sided back pain and dysuria that has been bothering her for the past two days. The pain is constant and severe, and it radiates from her renal angle to her groin. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.1ºC, her heart rate is 101 bpm, her blood pressure is 139/91 mmHg, and she has a tender renal angle with a palpable mass on the right side of her abdomen. What is the most appropriate investigation to evaluate her abdominal mass?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the renal tract
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms is a ureteric stone causing obstruction in the right kidney, resulting in hydronephrosis. A physical examination may reveal a palpable mass. To confirm the diagnosis, an ultrasound of the renal tract is the best initial investigation as it can detect any obstruction in the renal tract. It is important to avoid exposing the patient to unnecessary radiation, especially if they are under 20 years old or women of childbearing age. The first-line treatment for hydronephrosis is a nephrostomy, which is performed under ultrasound guidance. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis without contrast is recommended to identify the cause of the obstruction. Contrast agents are not useful in this situation as they make stones invisible on the scan. An intravenous urogram is also not helpful as it does not provide 3-dimensional images of the kidneys. A urine dip may show blood, which could suggest stone pathology, but it cannot determine the cause of the palpable mass.
Hydronephrosis is a condition where the kidney becomes swollen due to urine buildup. There are various causes of hydronephrosis, including pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, calculi, tumors of the renal pelvis, stenosis of the urethra, urethral valve, prostatic enlargement, extensive bladder tumor, and retroperitoneal fibrosis. Unilateral hydronephrosis is caused by one of these factors, while bilateral hydronephrosis is caused by a combination of pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, and tumors of the renal pelvis.
To investigate hydronephrosis, ultrasound is the first-line test to identify the presence of hydronephrosis and assess the kidneys. IVU is used to assess the position of the obstruction, while antegrade or retrograde pyelography allows for treatment. If renal colic is suspected, a CT scan is used to detect the majority of stones.
The management of hydronephrosis involves removing the obstruction and draining urine. In cases of acute upper urinary tract obstruction, a nephrostomy tube is used, while chronic upper urinary tract obstruction is treated with a ureteric stent or a pyeloplasty. The CT scan image shows a large calculus in the left ureter with accompanying hydroureter and massive hydronephrosis in the left kidney.
Overall, hydronephrosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving following two unprovoked seizures in 48 hours. What advice do you give the patient regarding their ability to drive their car?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They must inform the DVLA and will be unfit to drive for at least six months
Explanation:If an individual experiences a seizure, they must inform the DVLA. Depending on the circumstances, they may be unfit to drive for six months or up to five years if they drive a bus or lorry. It is important to note that the DVLA must always be informed of any neurological event that could affect driving ability. An assessment by a DVLA medical examiner is not conducted, but a private or NHS neurologist should evaluate the individual’s fitness to drive.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
Which statement about breast screening is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In young patients with a BRCA mutation, mammographic screening has a low sensitivity for detecting tumours
Explanation:Breast Cancer Screening and Genetic Mutations
In younger patients, mammograms may not be as effective in detecting breast cancer due to denser breast tissue. MRI and ultrasound may be more helpful in these cases. However, mammography is more sensitive in older patients as their breast tissue is generally less dense. Routine mammographic screening for women aged 50-70 can reduce breast cancer mortality by 25%. The value of screening for women aged 40-49 is still debated, and there is no evidence for routine screening below this age. Patients with BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations should receive screening at a younger age due to increased risk.
The most common genetic change in human neoplasia is p53 mutations, which are associated with more aggressive breast cancer and worse overall survival. However, the frequency of p53 mutations in breast carcinoma is lower than in other solid tumors, with an overall frequency of approximately 20%. Certain types of breast carcinoma, such as medullary, have a higher frequency of p53 mutations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Miscellaneous
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old man with HIV and a CD4 count of 46 is found to have 'owl's eye' inclusion bodies on histological tissue staining. Which virus is this finding suggestive of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV and Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
CMV is a virus that typically affects individuals with a weakened immune system. While a CD4 count of less than 400 is often used as a threshold for diagnosis, CMV disease is rare in HIV-positive patients unless their CD4 count drops below 50. A positive PCR result can confirm a diagnosis of CMV, which should be treated with ganciclovir. On the other hand, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which have a distinct owl’s eye appearance.
In summary, CMV and Hodgkin’s lymphoma are two distinct medical conditions that require different approaches to diagnosis and treatment. While CMV is an opportunistic virus that affects immunocompromised individuals, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that can affect anyone. By the key differences between these two conditions, healthcare professionals can provide more effective care to their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old male victim of an acid attack has been brought to the resus department. He has sustained burns on approximately 25% of his body surface area and weighs 60kg. The medical team needs to determine the amount of fluid resuscitation required for the next 24 hours using the Parkland formula based on his weight and the extent of burns. What is the volume of fluid resuscitation that should be administered to this patient over the next 24 hours?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6000mls
Explanation:Fluid Resuscitation for Burns
Fluid resuscitation is necessary for patients with burns that cover more than 15% of their total body area (10% for children). The primary goal of resuscitation is to prevent the burn from deepening. Most fluid is lost within the first 24 hours after injury, and during the first 8-12 hours, fluid shifts from the intravascular to the interstitial fluid compartments, which can compromise circulatory volume. However, fluid resuscitation causes more fluid to enter the interstitial compartment, especially colloid, which should be avoided in the first 8-24 hours. Protein loss also occurs.
The Parkland formula is used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, which is given as 4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)). Fifty percent of the total fluid requirement is given in the first 8 hours, and the remaining 50% is given in the next 16 hours. The resuscitation endpoint is a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults, and the rate of fluid is increased to achieve this.
It is important to note that the starting point of resuscitation is the time of injury, and fluids already given should be deducted. After 24 hours, colloid infusion is begun at a rate of 0.5 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)), and maintenance crystalloid (usually dextrose-saline) is continued at a rate of 1.5 ml x (burn area) x (body weight). Colloids used include albumin and FFP, and antioxidants such as vitamin C can be used to minimize oxidant-mediated contributions to the inflammatory cascade in burns. High tension electrical injuries and inhalation injuries require more fluid, and monitoring of packed cell volume, plasma sodium, base excess, and lactate is essential.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his mother due to complaints of bilateral leg weakness and difficulty walking, which has been progressively worsening over the past few years. The patient's father, who passed away from a heart attack four years ago, also had similar issues with his legs. During the examination, the patient was found to have pes cavus, bilateral foot drop, and a stamping gait. Additionally, he had bilateral areflexia and flexor plantar responses, as well as glove-and-stocking sensory loss to the ankle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth
Explanation:Neurological Conditions: A Comparison
Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome, Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord, Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP), Old Polio, and Peripheral Vascular Disease are all neurological conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system. However, each condition has distinct clinical features and diagnostic criteria.
Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome is a hereditary sensorimotor polyneuropathy that presents with foot drop, pes cavus, scoliosis, and stamping gait. A strong family history supports the diagnosis.
Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord is mostly due to vitamin B12 deficiency and presents with a loss of proprioception and vibration sense, spasticity, and hyperreflexia. Risk factors include malabsorption problems or being vegan.
Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP) causes peripheral neuropathy that is mainly motor. It is associated with anti-GM1 antibody, motor conduction block on nerve conduction studies, and elevated protein in the cerebrospinal fluid. It can be treated with intravenous immunoglobulin, prednisolone, plasmapheresis, and azathioprine.
Old Polio presents with a lower motor neuron pattern of weakness without sensory signs. The signs are often asymmetrical, and the lower limbs are more commonly affected than the upper limbs. Patients may have contractures and fixed flexion deformities from long-standing immobility.
Peripheral Vascular Disease is accompanied by a history of pain, often in the form of calf claudication on walking, and is unlikely to cause the clinical signs described in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man presents to the clinic with an enlarged testicle. During a self-examination in the shower, he noticed that his left testicle was significantly larger than the right. He reports no specific symptoms, but mentions a recent weight loss of 5kg over the past 4 months, which he attributed to a new diet. Additionally, he has been experiencing general fatigue for the past month.
The patient has no significant medical history and takes no regular medications. He is sexually active with his partner of 2 years and denies alcohol, smoking, and recreational drug use. There are no other notable symptoms upon further questioning.
On clinical examination, there is an enlarged, non-tender, left testicle, but no other abnormalities are detected. There is no palpable lymphadenopathy or gynaecomastia.
What is the most appropriate next step in evaluating this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound testes
Explanation:An ultrasound is the initial test for investigating a testicular mass. It is common for there to be a slight size difference between the two testes. The first step is to perform an ultrasound to identify the mass and confirm its presence. If the mass appears to be cancerous, tumor markers should be measured. In cases where the ultrasound results are unclear, an MRI may be necessary.
Understanding Testicular Cancer
Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.
The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.
Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man presents with sepsis due to a non-healing diabetic ulcer. He underwent a below-knee amputation in theatre and is now on his second day of recovery. Despite receiving regular paracetamol (1g four times daily) and morphine 10 mg as needed (maximum 4-hourly), he is requesting morphine every 4 hours and still experiencing pain. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, asthma, and hypertension. What is the most appropriate treatment option for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start patient controlled analgesia
Explanation:Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA) is the most appropriate option for managing post-operative pain, as it allows the patient to self-administer opioid analgesia as needed for breakthrough pain. This method is commonly used in cases involving amputation. Other options, such as adding regular co-codamol or ibuprofen, are not suitable due to the patient’s maximum dose of paracetamol and asthma, respectively. Continuing the current analgesia is also not recommended as the patient is still experiencing pain. Switching from as-required morphine to regular doses would not make a significant difference in pain relief.
Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.
For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.
Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominis Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.
Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, poor feeding, and cough. The infant has received all routine vaccinations. Upon examination, the baby is alert and responsive, but there is increased work of breathing. Coarse crackles and a wheeze can be heard throughout the chest. The infant's heart sounds and ECG are normal, and a lumbar puncture is performed and reported as unremarkable. However, one hour later, the patient experiences a cardiac arrest. What is the most probable underlying cause of this arrest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:The most frequent reason for children’s cardiac arrest is respiratory issues, with bronchiolitis being the most common cause. Bronchiolitis is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and poor feeding, as well as physical examination findings like wheezing, crackles, and increased respiratory effort. Congenital cardiac disease is an incorrect option since the patient has normal cardiac findings and ECG. Croup is also an incorrect option as it causes a distinct barking noise and is more prevalent in children aged 6 months to 2 years. Meningitis is another incorrect option as it typically results in an unwell infant with a fever and rapid breathing, but the analysis of cerebrospinal fluid would show abnormalities, which is not the case for this patient.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man visited his GP complaining of sudden, painless vision loss in his right eye that occurred 2 hours ago. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes requiring insulin, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Upon further inquiry, he mentioned experiencing brief flashes of light before a dense shadow that began in the periphery and moved towards the center. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinal detachment is a condition that can cause a sudden and painless loss of vision. It is characterized by a dense shadow that starts in the peripheral vision and gradually moves towards the center, along with increased floaters and flashes of light.
Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is a condition where the blood flow to the retina of one eye is blocked, resulting in sudden loss of vision in that eye. This is usually caused by an embolus and does not typically present with floaters, flashing lights, or dense shadows.
Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion can cause sudden vision loss in one eye, but it is often described as blurry or distorted vision rather than the symptoms seen in retinal detachment.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man is struggling with hypertension that is not responding to his current medications. His GP added ramipril to his amlodipine and doxazosin two months ago, but his blood pressure remains high at 162/75 mmHg. The GP decides to increase the ramipril dose to 1.25 mg once daily. However, the patient already has mild renal impairment due to his hypertension, so the GP follows NICE guidance and orders further renal function testing in two weeks. Unfortunately, the patient's creatinine level has increased from 150 to 210 μmol/L. What should the GP's next course of action be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to renal services for further investigation
Explanation:Possible Renal Artery Stenosis in Resistant Hypertension
When a patient experiences a rise in their serum creatinine of more than 30% after starting an ACE inhibitor, it may suggest that they have underlying renal artery stenosis causing their resistant hypertension. However, a rise of less than 23% can be considered normal, and it is recommended to repeat blood tests in two weeks to ensure that the creatinine levels are not increasing.
A renal ultrasound may not provide a clear answer, and it is ideal to perform an angiogram to confirm the diagnosis. This can be done as a CT or MR angiogram for planning purposes, or as a combined angiogram with or without angioplasty if renal artery stenosis is found. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of renal artery stenosis in patients with resistant hypertension and a significant rise in serum creatinine after starting an ACE inhibitor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a weak and painful right leg that has been bothering him for a week. Upon examination, the GP observes a foot drop on the right side with 3/5 power for dorsiflexion, as well as a bilateral sensory peripheral neuropathy that is worse on the right side. The GP also notices weakness of wrist extension on the left, which the patient had not previously mentioned. The patient's chest, heart, and abdomen appear normal, and his urine dipstick is clear. His medical history is significant only for asthma, which was diagnosed four years ago.
The patient's FBC reveals a white cell count of 6.7 x109/l (normal range: 4 - 11), with neutrophils at 4.2 x109/l (normal range: 1.5 - 7), lymphocytes at 2.3 x109/l (normal range: 1.5 - 4), and eosinophils at 2.2 x109/l (normal range: 0.04 - 0.4). His ESR is 68mm/hr (normal range: 0 - 15), and his biochemistry is normal except for a raised CRP at 52 mg/l. Nerve conduction studies show reduced amplitude sensory signals bilaterally and patchy axonal degeneration on the right side with reduced motor amplitude.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Mononeuritis Multiplex
Mononeuritis multiplex is a condition characterized by the inflammation of multiple nerves, resulting in both sensory and motor symptoms. While several conditions can cause this, eGPA is the most likely diagnosis for this patient due to his history of adult onset asthma and significantly raised eosinophil count. The painful loss of function, raised inflammatory markers, and reduced amplitude nerve conduction studies also suggest an inflammatory cause of his neuropathy.
While amyloidosis is a possibility, the patient has no history of a disorder that might predispose to secondary amyloid, and no signs of systemic amyloidosis. B12 deficiency and diabetes mellitus are unlikely causes of mononeuritis multiplex, as they do not typically present with this pattern of neuropathy. Lyme disease is also unlikely, as the patient has no rash or arthritis and no history of tick bite.
In summary, while several conditions can cause mononeuritis multiplex, the patient’s history and test results suggest eGPA as the most likely diagnosis. It is important to consider other possibilities, such as amyloidosis, but the inflammatory nature of the patient’s symptoms points towards eGPA as the primary cause.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum check-up. She did not breastfeed and had a normal delivery. She wants to begin using contraception but is worried about any potential delay in her ability to conceive again within the next 1-2 years. What factor is most likely to cause a delay in her return to normal fertility?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone only injectable contraception
Explanation:Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
A mother observes that her 2-year-old son has small eye openings, a small body, and low-set ears. During the examination, the pediatrician also observes a flat philtrum, a sunken nasal bridge, short palpebral fissures, and a thin upper lip. What could be the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal alcohol abuse
Explanation:Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a mother abuses alcohol during pregnancy. This can lead to various physical and developmental abnormalities in the fetus, including intrauterine growth restriction, small head size, underdeveloped midface, small jaw, a smooth ridge between the nose and upper lip, small eye openings, and a thin upper lip. Affected infants may also exhibit irritability and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.
The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.
It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old female who cannot tolerate methotrexate is initiated on azathioprine for her rheumatoid arthritis. During routine blood monitoring, the following results are obtained:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 7.9 g/dl
- Platelets (Plt): 97 * 109/l
- White blood cells (WBC): 2.7 * 109/l
What are the factors that can increase the risk of azathioprine toxicity in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency
Explanation:Before starting treatment with azathioprine, it is important to check for the presence of thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) deficiency, which occurs in approximately 1 in 200 individuals. This deficiency increases the risk of developing pancytopenia related to azathioprine.
Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of new and concerning symptoms. He has a medical history of schizophrenia, which was diagnosed at the age of eighteen and is currently managed with olanzapine. He has not undergone any surgical procedures and is generally in good health.
What are the symptoms he is likely to be experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyuria and polydipsia
Explanation:Long-term use of atypical antipsychotics can result in glucose dysregulation and diabetes, with polyuria and polydipsia being common symptoms. While these drugs are preferred for treating schizophrenia due to their reduced extrapyramidal side effects, they can also cause metabolic dysregulation leading to insulin resistance and diabetes. Diarrhoea is an unlikely side effect, as these drugs tend to cause constipation instead. Sexual dysfunction is a more common side effect than priapism, and the mechanism behind it is not fully understood. Tinnitus is not a likely side effect in this case, as the patient does not have a history of depression or SSRI use. Weight gain is the most common side effect of long-term atypical antipsychotic use, due to the metabolic disturbances they cause.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerning symptoms that have been occurring on and off for the past few months. She reports experiencing episodes of weakness accompanied by rapid, involuntary movements of her arms. Additionally, she has been experiencing persistent tingling sensations, occasional double vision, electric shocks down her arms and trunk when she flexes her neck, and constipation. Based on these symptoms, what would be the most appropriate initial test to diagnose her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI
Explanation:Diagnosing Multiple Sclerosis: The Importance of MRI
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a debilitating disease that affects many individuals, particularly women. Symptoms can range from spastic weakness to loss of vision, making it difficult to diagnose. However, the first line investigation for somebody with MS is an MRI of the brain and spinal cord. This is because MRI is much more sensitive for picking up inflammation and demyelination than a CT scan, and it does not involve irradiation. Additionally, lumbar puncture can be used to detect IgG oligoclonal bands, which are not present in the serum. While other tests such as antibody testing and slit-lamp examination of the eyes may be useful, they are not first line investigations. It is important to diagnose MS early to prevent further damage to myelin sheaths and improve quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
What is a common side effect of olanzapine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Side Effects of Olanzapine
Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause several side effects. One of the most common side effects is akathisia, which is characterized by restlessness and an inability to sit still. Other side effects associated with the use of olanzapine include agranulocytosis, hyperprolactinaemia, hyperglycaemia, depression, and anxiety. Agranulocytosis is a condition where the body’s immune system is unable to produce enough white blood cells, which can lead to infections. Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition where the body produces too much of the hormone prolactin, which can cause breast enlargement and lactation in both men and women. Hyperglycaemia is a condition where the body has high levels of glucose in the blood, which can lead to diabetes. Depression and anxiety are also common side effects of olanzapine, which can be particularly problematic for individuals with pre-existing mental health conditions. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking olanzapine and to speak with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
A 41-year-old female with a history of Leber's optic atrophy visits her doctor. She and her husband are planning to have children and she wants to know the likelihood of passing on her condition. She vaguely remembers her geneticist mentioning something about mitochondria but can't recall the specifics of the inheritance pattern. Assuming her husband does not carry the same gene defect, what is the chance that their child will inherit the condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0%
Explanation:Mitochondrial disorders encompass a range of conditions, such as leigh syndrome, mitochondrial diabetes, MELAS syndrome, and MERFF syndrome.
Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology
Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.
Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old amateur football player arrives at the emergency department complaining of knee pain. During the game, she experienced a popping sensation in her left knee. Upon examination, her knee is swollen, and she cannot fully extend it. Which diagnostic test is most likely to reveal the underlying cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Explanation:When it comes to detecting lateral and medial meniscal tears, an MRI is the most sensitive option available. It surpasses the other choices in terms of sensitivity and should be requested for all patients who are suspected of having a meniscal injury. Ultrasound may be challenging to perform due to the patient’s probable swelling and pain. An X-ray may be necessary for patients with arthritis or a history of repeated meniscal tears.
Understanding Meniscal Tear and its Symptoms
Meniscal tear is a common knee injury that usually occurs due to twisting injuries. Its symptoms include pain that worsens when the knee is straightened, a feeling that the knee may give way, tenderness along the joint line, and knee locking in cases where the tear is displaced. To diagnose a meniscal tear, doctors may perform Thessaly’s test, which involves weight-bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion while the patient is supported by the doctor. If the patient experiences pain on twisting the knee, the test is considered positive.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male law student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe pain in his right upper quadrant. He reports that the pain is sharp and worsens when he takes a breath. Over the past few days, he has been feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath, and he has been coughing up bloody, purulent sputum. He has a fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea. He recently returned from a week-long vacation during which he consumed 20 units of alcohol per day. What is the most probable cause of his presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumonia
Explanation:Upper quadrant abdominal pain can be a symptom of lower lobe pneumonia.
Despite the patient’s complaint of abdominal pain, their other symptoms suggest that they may have pneumonia. The presence of signs of infection (such as fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea), along with shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum, all point towards a diagnosis of pneumonia. This question serves to emphasize that pneumonia can sometimes manifest as abdominal pain, particularly in cases of lower lobe pneumonia.
It is important to note that hepatitis, gallstones, and pancreatitis do not typically cause shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum. Additionally, the patient’s history of high alcohol intake is not relevant to this question.
Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions
Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.
Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.
It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man comes to you with complaints of increasing shortness of breath on exertion over the past year. During the examination, you observe early finger clubbing and bibasal fine crackles on auscultation. You suspect that he may have pulmonary fibrosis.
What is the imaging modality considered the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest
Explanation:Imaging Modalities for Pulmonary Fibrosis and Pulmonary Embolus
When it comes to diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary embolus, there are several imaging modalities available. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest is considered the gold standard for suspected pulmonary fibrosis as it provides detailed images of the lung parenchyma. On the other hand, computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard for suspected pulmonary embolus. A chest X-ray may be useful initially for investigating patients with suspected pulmonary fibrosis, but HRCT provides more detail. Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) chest scan is used for certain patients with suspected pulmonary embolus, but not for pulmonary fibrosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) chest is not commonly used for either condition, as HRCT remains the preferred imaging modality for pulmonary fibrosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man with a history of moderate depression presents to his GP after being prescribed a new medication by his psychiatrist. He reports experiencing a significant increase in appetite and subsequent weight gain, as well as constant fatigue and difficulty concentrating at work.
What medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:If a patient does not respond well to initial depression treatments or experiences adverse effects from their current medication, it is common practice to switch them to a different antidepressant. In such cases, it is reasonable to assume that the patient has already been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, making sertraline an unlikely option. Advanced treatments like lithium and carbamazepine are typically reserved for severe mood disorders and are therefore not probable in this scenario. This leaves…
Switching Antidepressants for Depression
When switching antidepressants for depression, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), it is recommended to cross-taper slowly. This involves gradually reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. Similarly, when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine, withdrawal should occur before starting venlafaxine at a low dose and increasing slowly.
Overall, switching antidepressants for depression should be done with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional to ensure a safe and effective transition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old man is assaulted outside a nightclub and struck with a baseball bat on the left side of his head. He is taken to the emergency department and placed under observation. As his Glasgow coma score (GCS) declines, he falls into a coma. What is the most probable haemodynamic parameter that he will exhibit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia
Explanation:Before coning, hypertension and bradycardia are observed. The brain regulates its own blood supply by managing the overall blood pressure.
Types of Traumatic Brain Injury
Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.
Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman comes to the surgery to renew her prescription for oral contraception. She is in good health, has no symptoms, and is not taking any medications. She does not smoke and has a BMI of 23 kg/m2. However, her blood pressure has been measured at 170/100 mmHg on multiple occasions. A thorough physical examination reveals no abnormalities, and her medical records show no history of hypertension.
The following test results were obtained:
- Sodium: 145 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144)
- Potassium: 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 4.0 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 89 mol/L (normal range: 60-110)
- Bicarbonate: 35 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28)
What is the most likely cause of her visit to the surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome
Explanation:Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism
Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is the most likely diagnosis for a young patient with hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. While the prevalence of this condition in unselected hypertensive patients is around 2%, it should be actively excluded in patients with these symptoms. A spot urine potassium test can be used as an initial investigation for hypokalaemia, with a level above 30 mmol/l indicating that GI loss and laxative abuse are unlikely. An elevated aldosterone:renin ratio is present in primary hyperaldosteronism, and blood test requirements should be discussed with the laboratory before investigation.
While diuretic abuse can cause hypokalaemia, it is much less common than primary hyperaldosteronism, and hypertension is not typically present. Cushing’s syndrome, which is associated with hypokalaemia and alkalosis, can be screened for with a 24-hour urinary cortisol test, but this condition is less likely in a patient without other features of the syndrome. Addison’s disease, or hypoadrenalism, can be screened for with a short Synacthen test, which is used to detect hyperpigmentation, hypotension, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.
In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism should be considered as a potential diagnosis in young patients with hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Proper testing and screening can help rule out other potential causes of these symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
You suspect your colleague John has been taking more ‘sick days’ than needed. You happened to see one of his social media posts of him out for lunch when he was allegedly at home because he was sick.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Speak to your friend in private about what is really going on
Explanation:Appropriate Actions to Take When Concerned About a Friend’s Behavior
When you notice a friend’s behavior that is concerning, it can be difficult to know what to do. However, there are appropriate actions to take that can help your friend and maintain your relationship. The most appropriate action is to speak to your friend in private about what is really going on. This gives your friend the chance to open up to you and share any issues they may be going through. Reporting your friend to their educational or clinical supervisor should be done in stages, starting locally and working your way up. Spreading rumors about your friend is unprofessional and will not solve the issue. Sharing your concerns with another friend who knows your friend well can also be helpful, but it is important to approach your friend first. By taking appropriate actions, you can help your friend and maintain a healthy relationship.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption. His serum amylase level is 1020 u/l, and acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. Which of the following factors is NOT included in the modified Glasgow severity scoring?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum amylase
Explanation:Markers for Severity and Mortality in Pancreatitis
Pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Several markers can help assess the severity of the disease and predict mortality. The modified Glasgow severity score is a useful tool for stratifying patients based on their clinical presentation. A score of 3 or above indicates severe pancreatitis and the need for transfer to the Intensive Therapy Unit.
Serum amylase is a diagnostic marker for pancreatitis, but its levels may be normal even in severe cases. Elevated amylase levels can also occur in other acute conditions, such as acute cholecystitis or intestinal obstruction. Therefore, it should not be used as a serial marker for assessing disease progression. Instead, serial C-reactive protein levels are more useful for this purpose.
Serum albumin is an important marker of mortality in pancreatitis. A fall in albumin level can contribute to peripheral edema and difficulty in maintaining blood pressure. Age is another predictor of mortality, as it is associated with co-morbidities. Corrected calcium is a useful marker for severe pancreatitis, as it indicates the precipitation of calcium in the abdomen, causing hypocalcemia. Finally, white cell count is a marker of inflammation and can indicate the spread of the disease.
In conclusion, a combination of these markers can help clinicians assess the severity of pancreatitis and predict mortality. Early recognition and management of severe cases can improve outcomes and reduce morbidity and mortality.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman is admitted with an unstable open tib-fib fracture after a road traffic collision. There is neurovascular compromise; however, there is no overt bleeding, and the decision is made to bleep the on-call consultants in vascular and trauma and orthopaedics to take the patient to theatre. She is on warfarin for atrial fibrillation (AF), and her international normalised ratio (INR) is currently 3.2 (normal value <1.1).
What is the most appropriate intervention before surgery, with regard to her INR?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer Prothrombinex™ 35–50 iu/kg
Explanation:Interventions for High INR in Emergency Surgery
When a patient requires emergency surgery and has a high INR, urgent reversal of anticoagulation is necessary. Administering Prothrombinexâ„¢ intravenously can act as a rapid reversal agent before taking the patient to theatre. While the benefits of surgery may outweigh the risks, the raised INR should not be ignored. Oral vitamin K is typically used when a patient’s INR is >10.0, but no overt bleeding is present and the patient is not due for theatre. If the patient is going to theatre the following day, 3 mg of vitamin K IV would be appropriate. Fresh frozen plasma is a second-line intervention to Prothrombinexâ„¢. It is crucial to retest the INR a few hours after administering vitamin K and take further actions based on the subsequent result.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of lethargy. He denies any other systemic symptoms. During the physical examination, a non-pulsatile mass is palpated in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen, which does not move with respiration. Additionally, he has pale conjunctivae. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to local colorectal service
Explanation:The presence of an abdominal mass along with symptoms of lethargy and pallor may indicate the likelihood of colorectal cancer, which could also lead to anaemia.
Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.
The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
Which diagnostic test is most effective in identifying the initial stages of Perthes' disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI
Explanation:Legg-Calvé-Perthes’ Disease: Diagnosis and Imaging
Legg-Calvé-Perthes’ disease is a condition where the femoral head undergoes osteonecrosis, or bone death, without any known cause. The diagnosis of this disease can be established through plain x-rays of the hip, which are highly useful. However, in the early stages, MRI and contrast MRI can provide more detailed information about the extent of necrosis, revascularization, and healing. On the other hand, a nuclear scan can provide less detail and expose the child to radiation. Nevertheless, a technetium 99 bone scan can be helpful in identifying the extent of avascular changes before they become evident on plain radiographs.
In summary, Legg-Calvé-Perthes’ disease is a condition that can be diagnosed through plain x-rays of the hip. However, MRI and contrast MRI can provide more detailed information in the early stages, while a technetium 99 bone scan can help identify the extent of avascular changes before they become evident on plain radiographs. It is important to consider the risks and benefits of each imaging modality when diagnosing and monitoring this disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
As a junior doctor on a surgical ward, you are tasked with admitting a 65-year-old woman with cholecystitis. She is scheduled for emergency surgery to remove her gallbladder the next day and is the first on the list. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin 1g twice daily. Her recent HbA1c has come back elevated at 95 mmol/mol, but she has not yet seen her GP to discuss this. Her admission bloods show normal renal function. The ward nurse asks for guidance on how to manage the patient's diabetes mellitus during the perioperative period. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A variable rate insulin infusion should be started
Explanation:Patients with diabetes who are on insulin and are either undergoing major surgery or have poorly controlled diabetes will typically require a variable rate intravenous insulin infusion (VRIII). However, if the patient is only missing one meal and is on oral antidiabetic treatment, medication manipulation on the day of surgery may suffice. It is important to check hospital guidelines and discuss the patient with the surgical and anaesthetic team.
If the patient’s recent HbA1c shows poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, a VRIII is likely necessary. The decision to omit metformin in the peri-operative period depends on the risk of acute kidney injury. If the patient has a low risk and is only missing one meal, they can continue their metformin, but should omit the lunchtime dose if taken three times a day. If there is a higher risk or the patient is missing more than one meal, metformin should be omitted from the time they start fasting.
Leaving poorly controlled diabetes untreated during surgery increases the risk of complications such as wound and respiratory infections and post-operative kidney injury. Therefore, a VRIII is the safer option. Long-term insulin treatment can be assessed by the patient’s community team once the patient is medically stable.
If the patient is listed for emergency surgery, managing their diabetes peri-operatively is appropriate to prevent their condition from worsening. However, if the surgery is elective, it may be best to wait until the diabetes is better managed.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old male comes to your clinic with an inflamed left big toe, and you diagnose it as his second gout episode this year. His recent blood tests show normal kidney function. What is the next best step to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence allopurinol once the inflammation has settled and the patient is no longer in pain
Explanation:The administration of Allopurinol should commence after the subsiding of inflammation and relief from pain in the patient.
Allopurinol is a medication used to prevent gout by inhibiting xanthine oxidase. Traditionally, it was believed that urate-lowering therapy (ULT) should not be started until two weeks after an acute attack to avoid further attacks. However, the evidence supporting this is weak, and the British Society of Rheumatology (BSR) now recommends delaying ULT until inflammation has settled to make long-term drug decisions while the patient is not in pain. The initial dose of allopurinol is 100 mg once daily, with the dose titrated every few weeks to aim for a serum uric acid level of less than 300 µmol/l. Colchicine cover should be considered when starting allopurinol, and NSAIDs can be used if colchicine cannot be tolerated. ULT is recommended for patients with two or more attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics, and Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
The most significant adverse effects of allopurinol are dermatological, and patients should stop taking the medication immediately if they develop a rash. Severe cutaneous adverse reaction (SCAR), drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS), and Stevens-Johnson syndrome are potential risks. Certain ethnic groups, such as the Chinese, Korean, and Thai people, are at an increased risk of these dermatological reactions. Patients at high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele. Allopurinol can interact with other medications, such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. Azathioprine is metabolized to the active compound 6-mercaptopurine, which is oxidized to 6-thiouric acid by xanthine oxidase. Allopurinol can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine, so a much-reduced dose must be used if the combination cannot be avoided. Allopurinol also reduces renal clearance of cyclophosphamide, which may cause marrow toxicity. Additionally, allopurinol causes an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline by inhibiting its breakdown.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a routine cervical screening. The results of her smear test show that she is positive for hrHPV (high-risk human papillomavirus), but her cytology is normal. She is advised to come back for another smear test in a year's time. When she returns, her results show that she is still positive for hrHPV, but her cytology is normal. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat smear again in 12 months
Explanation:The current guidelines for cervical cancer screening recommend using hrHPV as the first screening test. If the result is negative, the patient can return to routine recall. However, if the result is positive, the sample is examined for cytology. If the cytology is normal, the patient is asked to return for screening in 12 months instead of the usual 3 years. If the hrHPV result is negative at the 12-month follow-up, the patient can return to routine recall. But if the result is positive again, as in this scenario, and the cytology is normal, the patient should attend another screening in 12 months. If the cytology is abnormal at any point, the patient should be referred for colposcopy. If the patient attends a third screening in another 12 months and the hrHPV result is still positive, she should be referred for colposcopy regardless of the cytology result.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in his right lower quadrant that started from his belly button. The medical team suspects appendicitis and evaluates him for surgery. He has no medical history, drinks approximately 13 units per week, and smokes 5 cigarettes daily. He currently resides with his parents and works as a plumber for 4 days each week. Based on this information, what is his current ASA classification?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ASA II
Explanation:The patient’s ASA grade is 2 because of their history of smoking and drinking. Grade 2 includes individuals who smoke or consume alcohol socially. To be classified as grade 1, one must be in good health, not smoke, and consume little to no alcohol.
The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).
ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.
ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
A 5-week-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. He is worried about a 'lump' in the left side of her scrotum that has developed over the past week. The baby has been eating well, has not had any diarrhea or cold symptoms, and does not seem to be in any discomfort.
During the examination, a swelling is detected on the left side of the scrotum. It is possible to get above the swelling. The left testicle is easily palpable, but the right testicle is difficult to feel due to the swelling. On transillumination, the left hemiscrotum lights up.
What is the most appropriate course of action based on the given information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure that it is not sinister and will likely resolve by 1 year
Explanation:This young boy is showing signs of a hydrocele, which may not have been noticed at birth. Hydroceles tend to become more visible as fluid accumulates. Aspiration is not recommended as it is invasive and unnecessary in this case. Specialist intervention is also not required unless the hydrocele persists beyond 18 months to 2 years of age. It is not expected to resolve within a week, but this is not a cause for concern. Hydroceles are typically self-resolving and do not cause any immediate complications. Therefore, the mother does not need to return unless the hydrocele persists beyond this time. Expectant management and reassurance are appropriate as hydroceles are not painful and generally do not cause complications. Ultrasound is not necessary as the diagnosis is clinical, but it may be considered if there is any doubt on history or examination, such as to rule out an inguinal hernia.
A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles occur when the processus vaginalis remains open, allowing peritoneal fluid to drain into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within a few months. Non-communicating hydroceles occur when there is excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles can develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.
The main feature of a hydrocele is a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually located anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum and can be transilluminated with a pen torch. If the hydrocele is large, the testis may be difficult to palpate. Diagnosis can be made clinically, but ultrasound is necessary if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.
Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation, such as an ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause, such as a tumor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
An infant born with trisomy 21 begins to vomit shortly after his first feed. The emesis is green and occurs after each subsequent feeding. His abdomen is also distended, most noticeably in the epigastrum. A baby-gram demonstrates a ‘double bubble’ in the abdomen.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duodenal atresia
Explanation:Neonatal Bilious Vomiting: Differential Diagnosis
Neonates with bilious vomiting present a diagnostic challenge, as there are several potential causes. In the case of a neonate with trisomy 21, the following conditions should be considered:
1. Duodenal atresia: This condition is characterized by narrowing of the duodenum, leading to bilious vomiting after feeding. Abdominal X-rays show a double bubble sign, indicating normal gastric bubble and duodenal dilation proximal to the obstruction.
2. Biliary atresia: This condition involves a blind-ended biliary tree and can cause indigestion, impaired fat absorption, and jaundice due to bile retention.
3. Pyloric stenosis: This condition is characterized by thickening of the gastric smooth muscle at the pylorus, leading to forceful, non-bilious vomiting within the first month of life. An olive-shaped mass may be felt on abdominal examination.
4. Tracheoesophageal fistula: This condition involves a communication between the trachea and esophagus, leading to pulmonary infection due to aspiration and abdominal distension due to air entering the stomach.
5. Imperforate anus: This condition is suggested when the neonate does not pass meconium within the first few days of life.
A thorough evaluation, including imaging studies and surgical consultation, is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neonatal bilious vomiting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to describe the process of a drug entering the bloodstream?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absorption
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics: How Drugs are Processed by the Body
Pharmacokinetics refers to the processes involved in how drugs are processed by the body. It encompasses four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption refers to the uptake of the drug from the gut lumen and entry into the circulation. Distribution involves the spread of the drug throughout the body, which can affect its ability to interact with its target. Metabolism involves the deactivation of the drug molecule through reactions in the liver. Excretion involves the removal of the drug from the body.
The absorption of a drug is crucial for it to have any effect on the body. The method of absorption depends on the chemical structure of the drug. Intravenous or intramuscular injections result in prompt and straightforward absorption, while oral drugs may be absorbed in the stomach or intestines. Some drugs require specialized mechanisms for uptake, such as lipophilic medications that may be taken up in micelles with fat-soluble vitamins. Active transport mechanisms can also take up molecules that resemble hormones or molecules made by the body.
pharmacokinetics is essential for healthcare professionals to determine the appropriate dosage and administration of drugs. By knowing how drugs are processed by the body, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the maximum benefit from their medications while minimizing any potential side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman presents for her first antenatal appointment following a positive pregnancy test. She has no significant medical or family history and reports no smoking or alcohol consumption. Her BMI is 30.9kg/m², blood pressure is within normal limits, and a urine dipstick is unremarkable. What tests should be offered to her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks
Explanation:Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain. The pain is exacerbated by lying down, relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to the left shoulder. He has recently undergone two cycles of radiotherapy for prostate cancer. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm, which appears to fade on inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals low-voltage QRS complexes.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid using a 20 ml syringe and 18G needle under echocardiographic guidance. An ECG should be obtained to rule out MI and PE. GTN spray is used to manage MI, but it is not part of the treatment for tamponade. DC cardioversion is used for unstable cardiac arrhythmias, not tamponade. A fluid challenge with 1 liter of sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the tamponade. LMWH is used to manage pulmonary embolus, but it is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if the cause is haemopericardium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. He denies any fever, weight loss or recent travel. Past medical history included hypertension and appendicectomy for an inflamed appendix 3 years ago.
On examination, there is a firm mass over the abdominal wall. The overlying skin is dusky with signs of ischaemia and necrosis.
Given the signs of ischaemia, you perform a venous blood gas (VBG).
pH 7.22 (7.35-7.45)
pCO2 3.1kPa (4.5-6.0)
pO2 5.1kPa (4.0-5.3)
HCO3- 15 mmol/L (22-26)
Routine work-up to investigate the underlying cause reveals:
Hb 128 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 13 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Bilirubin 15 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 50 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 39 u/L (3 - 40)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Richter's hernia
Explanation:Richter’s hernia can cause strangulation without any signs of obstruction. This is because the bowel lumen remains open while the bowel wall is compromised. A VBG test may reveal metabolic acidosis, indicated by a low pH, low bicarbonate, and low pCO2 due to partial respiratory compensation. This type of acidosis can occur due to lactate build-up. Unlike Richter’s hernia, small bowel obstruction is less likely to cause a firm, red mass on the abdominal wall. Conditions such as diabetic ketoacidosis and pancreatitis may cause abdominal pain and metabolic acidosis, but they do not explain the presence of a firm mass on the abdominal wall or the skin’s dusky appearance. Ascending cholangitis typically presents with Charcot’s triad, which includes right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, but this is not the case here. In some cases, it may also cause confusion and hypotension, which is known as Reynold’s pentad.
Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Clinic complaining of feeling unwell for the past few days. She has been experiencing nasal discharge, sneezing, fatigue, and a cough. Her 3-year-old daughter recently recovered from very similar symptoms. During the examination, her pulse rate is 62 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.2 °C. What is the probable causative organism for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhinovirus
Explanation:Identifying the Most Common Causative Organisms of the Common Cold
The common cold is a viral infection that affects millions of people worldwide. Among the different viruses that can cause the common cold, rhinoviruses are the most common, responsible for 30-50% of cases annually. influenzae viruses can also cause milder symptoms that overlap with those of the common cold, accounting for 5-15% of cases. Adenoviruses and enteroviruses are less common causes, accounting for less than 5% of cases each. Respiratory syncytial virus is also a rare cause of the common cold, accounting for only 5% of cases annually. When trying to identify the causative organism of a common cold, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms, recent exposure to sick individuals, and prevalence of different viruses in the community.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
You receive a call from the husband of a 50-year-old patient who is registered at your practice. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. According to her husband, for the past three days, she has been talking nonsensically and experiencing hallucinations. An Approved Mental Health Professional is contacted and heads to the patient's residence. Upon arrival, you encounter a disheveled and emaciated woman sitting on the pavement outside her home, threatening to physically harm you. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call the police
Explanation:If the patient is exhibiting violent behavior in a public place, it is advisable to contact the police and have her taken to a secure location for a proper evaluation. It is important to note that Metformin does not lead to hypoglycemia.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
A neighbor has a grandchild diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot and asks you about this condition.
Which of the following is a characteristic of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects and Acquired Valvular Defects
Congenital heart defects are present at birth and can affect the structure and function of the heart. Tetralogy of Fallot is a common congenital heart defect that includes right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, right-sided outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. On the other hand, patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and atrial septal defect (ASD) are not part of the tetralogy of Fallot but are commonly occurring congenital heart defects.
PDA is characterized by a persistent communication between the descending thoracic aorta and the pulmonary artery, while ASD is characterized by a defect in the interatrial septum, allowing shunting of blood from left to right. If left untreated, patients with a large PDA are at risk of developing Eisenmenger syndrome in later life.
Acquired valvular defects, on the other hand, are not present at birth but develop over time. Aortic stenosis is an acquired valvular defect that results from progressive narrowing of the aortic valve area over several years. Tricuspid stenosis, which is caused by obstruction of the tricuspid valve, can be a result of several conditions, including rheumatic heart disease, congenital abnormalities, active infective endocarditis, and carcinoid tumors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the past six months. She recently experienced moderate vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Additionally, she has gained around 14 pounds in weight during this time. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Secondary Amenorrhea and Miscarriage: A Possible Sign of Pregnancy
Secondary amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months in women who have previously had regular cycles, can be a sign of pregnancy. In cases where a patient with secondary amenorrhea experiences a miscarriage, it is important to consider the possibility of pregnancy. This information is highlighted in the book Williams Gynecology, 4th edition, authored by Barbara L. Hoffman, John O. Schorge, Lisa M. Halvorson, Cherine A. Hamid, Marlene M. Corton, and Joseph I. Schaffer.
The authors emphasize the importance of considering pregnancy as a possible cause of secondary amenorrhea, especially in cases where a miscarriage has occurred. This highlights the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in their assessment of patients with secondary amenorrhea and to consider pregnancy as a possible diagnosis. Early detection of pregnancy can help ensure appropriate prenatal care and management, which can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
In conclusion, secondary amenorrhea followed by a miscarriage should raise suspicion of pregnancy. Healthcare providers should be aware of this possibility and consider pregnancy as a potential diagnosis in patients with secondary amenorrhea. Early detection and appropriate management of pregnancy can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her medications abruptly. She has a medical history of asthma, depression, and occasional tennis elbow pain, for which she takes a salbutamol inhaler, citalopram, and paracetamol, respectively. What is the most probable outcome if she discontinues her medications suddenly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:When it comes to discontinuing medication, it’s important to note the specific drug being used. Abruptly stopping a salbutamol inhaler or paracetamol is unlikely to cause any adverse effects. However, stopping a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) like citalopram can lead to discontinuation symptoms. Gastrointestinal side-effects, such as diarrhoea, are commonly seen in SSRI discontinuation syndrome. To avoid this, it’s recommended to gradually taper off SSRIs. Blunted affect is not likely to occur as a result of sudden discontinuation, but emotional lability and mood swings may be observed. Cyanopsia, or blue-tinted vision, is not a known symptom of SSRI discontinuation, but it can be a side effect of other drugs like sildenafil. While hypertension has been reported in some cases, it’s less common than gastrointestinal symptoms. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is often reported upon sudden discontinuation of SSRIs.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 82
Incorrect
-
A mother gives birth to her first baby. The baby begins vomiting persistently during the fourth week of life. The paediatrician performs a physical examination of the baby and feels a small mass about the size of an olive in the epigastrium.
Which of the following is this child likely to exhibit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Pediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders: Pyloric Stenosis, Pancreas Divisum, Biliary Stenosis, and Duodenal Atresia
Pyloric Stenosis: A newborn presenting with non-bilious vomiting during the third week of life and an ‘olive’ in the epigastrum on physical examination is indicative of pyloric stenosis. This condition occurs when the pylorus, the region of the stomach that serves as the junction between the stomach and the duodenum, becomes obstructed, preventing duodenal material from traveling to more proximal structures.
Pancreas Divisum: Pancreas divisum is a condition in which the ventral and dorsal anlage of the pancreas fail to fuse during embryology, leading to pancreatitis and pancreatic insufficiency. This occurs because the pancreatic duct fails to form, forcing pancreatic secretions through two smaller dorsal and ventral ducts that cannot support the required flow of secretions. Pancreatic juices accumulate and dilate the smaller ducts, leading to pancreatitis.
Biliary Stenosis: Biliary stenosis can lead to digestion problems, as the narrow biliary tree prevents bile from reaching the duodenum. Patients with this condition may experience cramping pain when ingesting fatty foods, and fat-soluble vitamin deficiency can develop.
Duodenal Atresia: Duodenal atresia refers to a blind-ended duodenum, which causes bilious vomiting shortly after beginning to feed. This condition is associated with trisomy 21, but there is no evidence of trisomy 21 in this scenario, and the vomiting has begun after the third week of life.
Overall, these pediatric gastrointestinal disorders have distinct presentations and require different diagnostic approaches. It is important for healthcare providers to consider all possible conditions when evaluating a patient with gastrointestinal symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old female who is post-partum and on the oral contraceptive pill, presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, hepatosplenomegaly and ascites.
What is the most probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension
Hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension can have various causes, including pre-hepatic, hepatic, and post-hepatic problems. One potential cause is Budd-Chiari syndrome, which results from hepatic vein thrombosis and is associated with pregnancy and oral contraceptive use. Alcoholic cirrhosis is another possible cause, but is unlikely in the absence of alcohol excess. Pylephlebitis, a rare complication of appendicitis, is not consistent with the case history provided. Splenectomy cannot explain the palpable splenomegaly in this patient. Tricuspid valve incompetence can also lead to portal hypertension and hepatosplenomegaly, but given the postpartum status of the patient, Budd-Chiari syndrome is a more probable diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old woman with primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with a 2 week history of pain under her right rib cage and 2 days history of yellow skin and pale stools. She has also experienced a weight loss of 2 stone over the last 6 months. What would be the appropriate tumour marker investigation for this likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CA 19–9
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Their Associated Cancers
Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. They can be useful in diagnosing and monitoring certain types of cancer. Here are some common tumor markers and the cancers they are associated with:
– CA 19-9: This marker is associated with cholangiocarcinoma, but can also be positive in pancreatic and colorectal cancer.
– CA 15-3: This marker is associated with breast cancer.
– AFP: This marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and teratomas.
– CEA: This marker is associated with colorectal cancer.
– CA 125: This marker is associated with ovarian, uterine, and breast cancer.It is important to note that tumor markers are not always specific to one type of cancer and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture of the membranes. Following the procedure, a vaginal examination reveals a palpable umbilical cord. What position should she be advised to assume?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: On all fours, on the knees and elbows
Explanation:When a woman experiences cord prolapse, the correct position for her is on all fours, with her knees and elbows on the ground. This condition can be caused by artificial rupture of the membranes, and it is important to keep the cord warm and moist while preparing for a caesarian section. The Trendelenburg position, which involves tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in abdominal surgery to shift abdominal contents upwards. The Lloyd Davis position, which involves separating the legs and tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in rectal and pelvic surgery. The McRoberts manoeuvre, which involves hyperflexing the legs tightly to the abdomen, is used in cases of shoulder dystocia during delivery, but not for cord prolapse. The lithotomy position, which involves raising the legs in stirrups and separating them, is used in obstetrics and gynaecology for various procedures, but not for cord prolapse.
Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse
Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.
Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.
In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain for the last day. She reports that she has had some bloody vaginal discharge. She is currently sexually active. She has a fever of 38.1 °C. On examination, she has uterine tenderness and there is severe cervical motion tenderness.
What is the most important initial investigation in helping to reach a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy test
Explanation:The Importance of Initial Investigations in a Patient with Lower Abdominal Pain: A Case Study
When a patient presents with lower abdominal pain, it is important to conduct initial investigations to determine the underlying cause. In this case study, the patient exhibits symptoms consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease, but it is crucial to rule out an ectopic pregnancy as it can lead to serious complications.
Pregnancy Test: The most important initial investigation for women of childbearing age who present with abdominal pain is a pregnancy test. This test can quickly determine if the patient is pregnant and if an ectopic pregnancy is a possibility.
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR): While an ESR test can identify infection and inflammation, it is of limited diagnostic or therapeutic benefit in this case and would not affect the patient’s management.
Abdominal Ultrasound: Although an abdominal ultrasound can identify potential issues, such as an ectopic pregnancy, a pregnancy test should take priority in this case.
Cervical and Urethral Swab: A swab can identify sexually transmitted diseases that may be causing pelvic inflammatory disease, but it is not the most important initial investigation.
Full Blood Count: While a full blood count can identify potential infections and provide a baseline for admission, it is unlikely to help reach a diagnosis and is not the most important initial investigation.
In conclusion, initial investigations are crucial in determining the underlying cause of lower abdominal pain. In this case, a pregnancy test is the most important initial investigation to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, followed by other tests as necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a widespread rash on her cheeks, neck, and trunk. The rash does not appear on her palms. The texture of the rash is rough and it appears red. The child's mother reports that she has been experiencing a sore throat for the past 48 hours. The child has no known allergies. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral penicillin V for 10 days and he is safe to return to school after 24 hours
Explanation:The recommended treatment for scarlet fever in patients who do not require hospitalization and have no penicillin allergy is a 10-day course of oral penicillin V. Patients should also be advised not to return to school until at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics. Scarlet fever is characterized by a red, rough, sandpaper-textured rash with deep red linear appearance in skin folds and sparing of the palms and soles. Calamine lotion and school exclusion until scabs have crusted over is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for chicken pox. High-dose aspirin is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for Kawasaki disease. No medication is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, as it is a bacterial infection that requires antibiotic therapy. Oral acyclovir for 10 days is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for shingles caused by herpes varicella zoster virus.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
What actions can result in a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus of the tibia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eversion
Explanation:Three Sequential Injuries Caused by Pronated Foot and Abducting Force
The injury mechanism that occurs when a pronated foot experiences an abducting force on the talus can result in up to three sequential injuries. The first injury is a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus, which is caused by a tense deltoid ligament. The second injury occurs when the abducting talus stresses the tibiofibular syndesmosis, resulting in a tear of the anterior tibiofibular ligament. Finally, continued abduction of the talus can lead to an oblique fracture of the distal fibula.
This sequence of injuries can be quite serious and may require medical attention. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with a pronated foot and to take steps to prevent injury. This may include wearing appropriate footwear, using orthotics or other supportive devices, and avoiding activities that put excessive stress on the foot and ankle. By taking these precautions, individuals can reduce their risk of experiencing these types of injuries and maintain their overall health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals first-degree heart block, tall P-waves, and flattened T-waves. Upon arterial blood gas analysis, her results are as follows: pH 7.55 (normal range 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 30 mmol/L (normal range 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 5.8kPa (normal range 4.5-6kPa), p02 11kPa (normal range 10-14kPa), and Chloride 85mmol/L (normal range 95-108mmol/L). What is the underlying cause of her presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:The palpitations experienced by this patient are likely due to hypokalaemia, as indicated by their ECG. The ABG results reveal a metabolic alkalosis, with low chloride levels suggesting that the cause is likely due to prolonged vomiting resulting in the loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach. This could also explain the hypokalaemia observed on the ECG. The absence of acute nausea and vomiting suggests that this may be a chronic issue, possibly indicating bulimia nervosa as the underlying condition, unless there is a previous medical history that could account for persistent vomiting.
Bulimia Nervosa: An Eating Disorder Characterized by Binge Eating and Purging
Bulimia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives or diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise. The DSM 5 diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode, and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. These behaviors occur at least once a week for three months and are accompanied by an undue influence of body shape and weight on self-evaluation.
Management of bulimia nervosa involves referral for specialist care and the use of bulimia-nervosa-focused guided self-help or individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT-ED). Children should be offered bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN). While pharmacological treatments have a limited role, a trial of high-dose fluoxetine is currently licensed for bulimia. It is important to seek appropriate care for bulimia nervosa to prevent the physical and psychological consequences of this eating disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man comes to you with a history of back pain that has been getting worse over the past year. The pain and stiffness are more severe in the morning but improve with exercise. During your examination, you notice a flexural rash with poorly defined areas of erythema, dry skin, and lichenification. All observations appear normal. The blood test results show an ESR of 84 mm/hr (normal range: 0-22) and a CRP of 6 mg/L (normal range: 0-10). ANA, RhF, and Anti-CCP tests are all negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Exercise is typically beneficial for inflammatory back pain, such as that seen in ankylosing spondylitis. The patient’s symptoms, including morning stiffness and improvement with exercise, suggest an inflammatory cause, which is supported by the significantly elevated ESR. While there are several possible diagnoses, including seropositive and seronegative spondyloarthropathies, the most likely explanation is ankylosing spondylitis. Psoriatic arthritis is an incorrect answer, as the patient’s rash is more consistent with dermatitis than psoriasis. Osteoarthritis is also unlikely given the patient’s age and clinical history, while reactive arthritis is less likely due to the duration of symptoms and lack of urethritis or conjunctivitis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 91
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of myalgia and fatigue. She has no significant medical history. In the past, she had a rash on her cheeks that did not improve with anti-fungal cream.
During the examination, her vital signs are normal, and there is no joint swelling or redness. However, she experiences tenderness when her hands are squeezed. Sarah's muscle strength is 5/5 in all groups.
Sarah's maternal aunt has been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and she is worried that she might have it too.
Which of the following blood tests, if negative, can be a useful test to rule out SLE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANA
Explanation:A useful test to rule out SLE is ANA positivity, as the majority of patients with SLE are ANA positive. While CRP and ESR may rise during an acute flare of SLE, they are not specific to autoimmune conditions. ANCA is an antibody found in patients with autoimmune vasculitis.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female has been discharged from hospital after being diagnosed with schizophrenia. She is now being seen in the GP clinic and is concerned about her prognosis. Prior to her illness, she was a high-functioning accountant. Her symptoms began gradually and mainly involved auditory hallucinations and persecutory delusions, which are currently under control. What factor in her case suggests a poor prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gradual onset of symptoms
Explanation:The gradual onset of schizophrenia is associated with a worse long-term outcome, making it a poor prognostic indicator for this patient. However, her gender (being female) and good pre-illness functioning are both positive prognostic indicators. Additionally, her predominant positive symptoms (auditory hallucinations and delusions) suggest a better prognosis compared to predominant negative symptoms. Lastly, being diagnosed at a younger age (such as in her teens) would have resulted in a poorer prognosis.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
How is the distribution of a drug throughout the body quantified?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Volume of distribution
Explanation:Body Fluid Compartments
Pharmacokinetics involves the processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs in the body. The distribution of a drug is determined by its chemical structure, size, and ability to transport itself across membranes. The volume of distribution (Vd) describes what happens to the drug once it is in the body. For a typical 70 kg adult, a Vd of ,14 L indicates that the drug is spread among the extracellular fluid space only, while a Vd greater than 42 L suggests that the drug is likely to be lipophilic and its distribution is not limited to the body’s fluid. Some drugs with very high Vds will be preferentially distributed in the body’s fat reserves.
The Vd is a theoretical concept that essentially describes how much fluid is needed to hold the given dose of a drug to maintain the same plasma concentration. The body fluid compartments include the intracellular fluid (ICF), which is the fluid inside the cells, and the extracellular fluid (ECF), which is the fluid outside the cells. The ECF is further divided into the interstitial fluid (ISF), which is the fluid between the cells, and the plasma, which is the fluid component of blood. The distribution of a drug will depend on its ability to cross the cell membrane and its affinity for different body compartments. the body fluid compartments and the volume of distribution is important in determining the appropriate dosage and duration of drug therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall of the sinus has impacted all nerves passing through it.
What is the most prominent clinical indication of cranial nerve impairment caused by this pathological condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral corneal reflex absent
Explanation:Trigeminal Nerve Dysfunction and its Effects on Facial and Oral Function
The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying sensory and motor information from the face and oral cavity to the brain. Dysfunction of this nerve can lead to various symptoms affecting facial and oral function.
One common symptom is the absence of the ipsilateral corneal reflex, which is carried by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. Damage to this nerve interrupts the reflex arc of the corneal reflex.
Another symptom is the inability to resist forced lateral mandibular excursion with the mouth partially open. This is due to damage to the pterygoid muscles, which are innervated by the motor fibers in the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
Loss of sensation over the lower lip is also a result of trigeminal nerve dysfunction. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve carries general somatic afferent nerves from the lower lip.
Similarly, loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is also carried by the trigeminal nerve.
Lastly, the facial nerve innervates the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for the ability to blow out the cheeks. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to perform this action.
Overall, dysfunction of the trigeminal nerve can have significant effects on facial and oral function, highlighting the importance of this nerve in everyday activities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man presents to the Accident & Emergency Department following an overdose of one of his medications. On initial triage, his blood pressure is found to be 72/48 mmHg, heart rate 34 bpm and his serum blood glucose is recorded as 1.4 mmol/l. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus bradycardia. He has a past medical history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia.
Which of the following medications is most likely to be responsible for this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Toxidrome Analysis: Identifying the Causative Agent in a Hypoglycaemic Patient
In cases of hypoglycaemia, it is important to consider all possible causative agents before initiating treatment. In this scenario, the patient presents with hypoglycaemia, bradycardia, and hypotension. After reviewing the patient’s medication history, the most likely agent responsible for this toxidrome is bisoprolol, a cardioselective beta-blocker commonly used in the treatment of heart failure and dysrhythmias.
While amlodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker, can cause hypotension in overdose, it is unlikely to cause the marked hypoglycaemia seen in this case. Digoxin, a cardiovascular agent, can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias, but the patient’s sinus bradycardia and hypoglycaemia make it a less likely causative agent than bisoprolol. Insulin overdose results in neuroglycopenia, but it would not lead to bradycardia and hypotension. Metformin overdose rarely results in hypoglycaemia, but the major concern is lactic acidosis.
Treatment for bisoprolol overdose involves airway management, fluid resuscitation, and glucagon therapy. Additional treatment options include vasopressors and lipid emulsion therapy. It is important to consider all possible causative agents and their specific toxidromes before initiating treatment for hypoglycaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual review.
What size abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) would indicate the need for urgent elective surgery of the aneurysm?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An increase of >1 cm per year
Explanation:Monitoring and Repair of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA) are a potentially life-threatening condition that require careful monitoring and, in some cases, elective repair. The current guidelines for monitoring and repair depend on the size of the aneurysm and its rate of growth.
An increase of >1 cm per year indicates a need for elective repair, as does an AAA with a diameter greater than 5.5 cm. Symptomatic aneurysms or those causing complications also require repair. Endovascular repair is often preferred over open surgery.
For AAAs between 3.0-5.4 cm, monitoring via ultrasound is required. AAAs between 4.5-5.4 cm require more frequent monitoring (every 3 months) than those between 3.0-4.4 cm (annual monitoring). An increase of 0.5-1 cm per year does not necessarily indicate a need for repair.
Regular monitoring and timely repair can help prevent the potentially fatal complications of AAA.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman who is 25 weeks pregnant with her second child is scheduled for a blood glucose check at the antenatal clinic due to her history of gestational diabetes during her first pregnancy. After undergoing the oral glucose tolerance test, her fasting glucose level is found to be 7.2mmol/L and her 2hr glucose level is 8 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insulin
Explanation:The correct answer for the management of gestational diabetes is insulin. If the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis, insulin should be initiated. Diet and exercise/lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient for managing gestational diabetes and medication is necessary. Empagliflozin and glibenclamide are not appropriate treatments for gestational diabetes. Glibenclamide may only be considered if the patient has declined insulin.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old is admitted with suspected appendicitis and undergoes a laparoscopic appendicectomy. He is given 0.45% sodium chloride for postoperative care. Upon review by the surgical team, he presents with symptoms of headache, confusion, and gait disturbance. The following laboratory results are obtained: Na+ 128 mmol/l, K+ 4.0 mmol/l, urea 5 mmol/l, creatinine 60µmol/l, and glucose 4.0mmol/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemic encephalopathy
Explanation:The patient’s low sodium levels can be attributed to two factors. Firstly, the excessive intake of water has diluted the sodium chloride in the body. Secondly, stress and trauma are known to cause SIADH, which in turn leads to the secretion of ADH. This hormone opens up aquaporin channels, allowing water to enter the bloodstream and further lowering sodium levels.
Guidelines for Post-Operative Fluid Management
Post-operative fluid management is a crucial aspect of patient care, and the composition of intravenous fluids plays a significant role in determining the patient’s outcome. The commonly used intravenous fluids include plasma, 0.9% saline, dextrose/saline, and Hartmann’s, each with varying levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, and lactate. In the UK, the GIFTASUP guidelines were developed to provide consensus guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids.
Previously, excessive administration of normal saline was believed to cause little harm, leading to oliguric postoperative patients receiving enormous quantities of IV fluids and developing hyperchloraemic acidosis. However, with a better understanding of this potential complication, electrolyte balanced solutions such as Ringers lactate and Hartmann’s are now preferred over normal saline. Additionally, solutions of 5% dextrose and dextrose/saline combinations are generally not recommended for surgical patients.
The GIFTASUP guidelines recommend documenting fluids given clearly and assessing the patient’s fluid status when they leave theatre. If a patient is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic, oral fluid intake should be restarted as soon as possible. Patients with urinary sodium levels below 20 should be reviewed, and if a patient is oedematous, hypovolaemia should be treated first, followed by a negative balance of sodium and water, monitored using urine Na excretion levels.
In conclusion, post-operative fluid management is critical, and the GIFTASUP guidelines provide valuable guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate fluid management, leading to better outcomes and reduced complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman in hospital with terminal cancer has suddenly deteriorated over the last week. She can no longer communicate her decisions with regard to her health care. She had previously made an advanced decision that stated she did not want to be put on a ventilator.
In which one of the following scenarios would the advanced decision be considered valid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The decision may stand valid even if not made via a solicitor
Explanation:Validity of Advanced Directives: Factors to Consider
When creating an advanced directive, it is important to ensure that it is valid and legally binding. Here are some factors to consider:
1. Solicitor involvement: While it is not necessary to involve a solicitor in creating an advanced directive, it is advisable to do so to ensure that all wishes are documented clearly in accordance with the Mental Capacity Act.
2. Witnessing: The decision to refuse life-sustaining treatment must be both signed by the patient AND witnessed in the presence of someone else who can vouch for its authenticity. If the directive was not witnessed, it is not valid.
3. Age: A person must be aged 18 or over to make an advanced decision, so being 17 would invalidate the directive.
4. LPA decisions: When deciding between decisions stated on an advanced directive and those made by a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA), it is the decision that was made most recently which takes priority. In this case, as the advanced directive was created before the LPA was appointed, it is the best interest’s decision made by the LPA that is considered.
5. Written documentation: The decision must be written down, a verbal decision is not acceptable and will not be considered valid.
By considering these factors, individuals can ensure that their advanced directives are valid and legally binding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department with worsening periorbital oedema, erythema, and drainage in her left eye. During examination, mild proptosis is observed. To further investigate her symptoms, a point of care ultrasound is conducted, revealing retro-orbital soft tissue prominence and oedema with echogenic fat. What is the appropriate treatment plan for this patient based on the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous antimicrobial
Explanation:Hospital admission for IV antibiotics is necessary for patients with orbital cellulitis due to the potential for cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. It is imperative that all patients with a clinical diagnosis of orbital cellulitis be admitted to the hospital and receive an ophthalmic evaluation as soon as possible. Oral antimicrobial treatment is inadequate in this situation, as intravenous antibiotic therapy is required to manage this medical emergency. Failure to treat orbital cellulitis promptly may result in blindness or even death. Therefore, no antimicrobial other than intravenous antibiotics is appropriate for this condition. Topical antimicrobial treatment is also insufficient for managing orbital cellulitis.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 101
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman, who lived alone, scheduled a follow-up appointment with her GP. She had been self-isolating at home for several months due to the COVID-19 pandemic and continued to feel anxious about going out even after the lockdown was lifted.
Prior to the pandemic, she had experienced a traumatic event and was struggling with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). She had also recently lost her job and was facing financial difficulties.
During a telephone consultation with her GP 4 weeks ago, she was diagnosed with moderate depression and referred for computerised cognitive behavioural therapy. She was also advised to increase her physical activity levels.
However, her mental health had since deteriorated, and she was experiencing difficulty sleeping, early morning awakening, and occasional thoughts of self-harm. She expressed reluctance to engage in one-to-one psychological treatments.
The GP discussed the next steps in managing her depression and PTSD.
What treatment options should be considered for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence citalopram
Explanation:For patients with ‘less severe’ depression, SSRIs are the recommended first-line antidepressant. However, in the case of a patient with moderate depression who is not responding well to low-level therapy and has refused psychological treatments, an antidepressant should be offered. While mirtazapine and venlafaxine are valid options, they are not considered first-line. NICE recommends considering the higher likelihood of patients stopping treatment with venlafaxine due to side effects and its higher cost compared to SSRIs, which are equally effective. Mirtazapine and venlafaxine are typically reserved as second-line agents when the response to an SSRI has been poor. NICE advises offering an SSRI first-line as they have fewer side effects than other antidepressants and are just as effective. In this patient’s case, referral to a crisis team is unlikely as he has not expressed any true suicidal plans or intent.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 102
Incorrect
-
A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen, erythematosus right leg with a 4-cm difference in circumference between the right and left leg. Routine blood tests show:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 10.1 mmol 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol 50–120 µmol/l
eGFR 60ml/min/1.73m2
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.25 mmol 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Bilirubin 7 μmol 2–17 µmol/l
Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
Alkaline phosphatase 32 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Aspartate transaminase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 15 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Haemoglobin 78 g/l
Males: 135–175 g/l
Females: 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 302 x 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.5 x 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Which of the following should be commenced after confirmation of the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apixaban
Explanation:According to NICE guidance, the first-line treatment for a confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis is a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. When warfarin is used, an initial pro-coagulant state occurs, so heparin is needed for cover until the INR reaches the target therapeutic range and until day 5. Low-molecular-weight heparin is typically used with warfarin in the initial anticoagulation phase, but it can accumulate in patients with renal dysfunction. Unfractionated heparin infusion is used in these cases. For patients with normal or slightly deranged renal function, low-molecular-weight heparin can be given once per day as a subcutaneous preparation. However, warfarin is not the first-line treatment according to NICE guidance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 103
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of right-sided iliac fossa pain, right tip shoulder pain and a scanty brown per vaginum (PV) bleed. She missed her last menstrual period which was due eight weeks ago. She has an intrauterine device (IUD) in place.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age
One of the most likely diagnoses for a woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. This is especially true if the patient has a history of using an intrauterine device (IUD), has missed a period, and experiences scanty bleeding. However, other possible differential diagnoses include appendicitis, ovarian cysts, and pelvic inflammatory disease.
Appendicitis may cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other symptoms and history suggest an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. A femoral hernia is inconsistent with the clinical findings. Ovarian cysts may also cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other features from the history point to an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. Pelvic inflammatory disease is not consistent with the history described, as there is no offensive discharge and no sexual history provided. Additionally, pelvic inflammatory disease does not cause a delay in the menstrual period.
It is important to always test for pregnancy in any woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain, regardless of contraception use or perceived likelihood of pregnancy. Early diagnosis and treatment of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy can be life-saving.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 104
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with right-sided lower abdominal pain that has been on and off for 3 days. Her mother brought her in, and the patient reports no vomiting or diarrhea. She has a regular menstrual cycle, which is 28 days long, and her last period was 10 days ago. The patient denies any sexual activity. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, pulse 85 bpm, and temperature 37.7 oC. The abdomen is soft, without distension, and no rebound or guarding present. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 118 (115–155 g/l), white cell count of 7.8 (4–11.0 × 109/l), C-reactive protein of 4 (<5), and a serum b-human chorionic gonadotropin level of zero. An ultrasound of the abdomen reveals a small amount of free fluid in the pouch of Douglas, along with normal ovaries and a normal appendix.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mittelschmerz
Explanation:Understanding Mittelschmerz: Mid-Cycle Pain in Women
Mittelschmerz, which translates to middle pain in German, is a common experience for approximately 20% of women during mid-cycle. This pain or discomfort occurs when the membrane covering the ovary stretches to release the egg, resulting in pressure and pain. While the amount of pain varies from person to person, some may experience intense pain that can last for days. In severe cases, the pain may be mistaken for appendicitis.
However, other conditions such as acute appendicitis, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, incarcerated hernia, and pelvic inflammatory disease should also be considered and ruled out through physical examination and investigations. It is important to note that a ruptured ectopic pregnancy is a medical emergency and can present with profuse internal bleeding and hypovolaemic shock.
In this case, the patient’s physical examination and investigations suggest recent ovulation and fluid in the pouch of Douglas, making Mittelschmerz the most likely diagnosis. It is important for women to understand and recognize this common experience to differentiate it from other potential conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 105
Incorrect
-
A 4-month-old boy is being seen by his GP for an undescended testi. During the NIPE at birth, his right testi was found to be undescended. On examination today, only one testi is palpated in the scrotum. The patient is referred to the surgeons for further evaluation. What potential complication is this patient at an elevated risk of experiencing if the undescended testi is not addressed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Undescended testicles can lead to testicular torsion, infertility, and testicular cancer if left untreated. It is recommended to wait up to three months for spontaneous descent, but intervention should occur by six months of age. Femoral hernias are rare in childhood, but undescended testicles may increase the risk of an inguinal hernia. Hydroceles are common at birth and resolve on their own, without known association to undescended testicles. While orchitis can occur in an undescended testis, there is no increased risk of orchitis due to lack of descent.
Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management
Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 106
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her primary care physician with a complaint of neck pain and limited neck movement for the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she displays normal vital signs except for a mild tachycardia of 105 and neck stiffness with restricted range of motion. Her neck is involuntarily flexed towards the right. Her facial movements are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Torticollis
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute dystonia, which is characterized by sustained muscle contractions such as torticollis or oculogyric crisis. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are likely a result of starting a typical antipsychotic medication, specifically haloperidol. Torticollis, or a wry neck, is present with unilateral pain and deviation of the neck, restricted range of motion, and pain upon palpation. While neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a medical emergency that can occur in patients taking antipsychotics, the patient’s lack of altered mental state and normal observations make it unlikely. An oculogyric crisis, which involves sustained upward deviation of the eyes, clenched jaw, and hyperextension of the back/neck with torticollis, is another example of acute dystonia, but the patient does not exhibit any facial signs or symptoms. Tardive dyskinesia, on the other hand, is a condition that occurs in patients on long-term typical antipsychotics and is characterized by uncontrolled facial movements such as lip-smacking.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 107
Incorrect
-
A 44-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense abdominal pain and nausea. She admits to having experienced several episodes of biliary colic in the past, particularly after consuming fatty foods, but never sought medical attention. What specific set of findings would prompt you to seek immediate senior evaluation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ca 1.0 mmol/L, Urea 11 mmol/L, Albumin 30 g/L, Glucose 12 mmol/L
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia can cause pancreatitis, but hypocalcaemia is an indicator of pancreatitis severity according to the PANCREAS scale, which includes factors such as age, blood oxygen levels, white blood cell count, calcium levels, renal function, enzyme levels, albumin levels, and blood sugar levels.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 108
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of facial erythema. She has developed papules and pustules with visible telangiectasia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acne Rosacea
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatments
Acne Rosacea:
Acne rosacea is a chronic skin condition that typically affects women and people with fair skin between the ages of 30-50. The exact cause is unknown, but environmental factors such as alcohol, caffeine, heat, and stress can aggravate the condition. Symptoms include a persistent erythematosus rash on the face, particularly over the nose and cheeks, with associated telangiectasia. Treatment involves lifestyle modifications and pharmacological interventions with topical or oral antibiotics.Acne Vulgaris:
Acne vulgaris is an inflammatory response to Propionibacterium acnes, a normal skin commensal. It commonly affects adolescents and presents with a variety of lesions ranging from comedones to cysts and scars. It predominantly affects areas with high concentrations of sebaceous glands, such as the face, back, and chest.Discoid Lupus Erythematosus:
Discoid lupus erythematosus is a cutaneous form of lupus erythematosus that affects sun-exposed areas of the skin. It typically presents in women between the ages of 20-40 and presents as red patches on the nose, face, back of the neck, shoulders, and hands. If left untreated, it can cause hypertrophic, wart-like scars.Pityriasis Rosea:
Pityriasis rosea is a self-limiting skin condition that affects young adults, mostly women. It presents with salmon-pink, flat or slightly raised patches with surrounding scale known as a collarette. The rash is usually symmetrical and distributed predominantly on the trunk and proximal limbs.Psoriasis:
Psoriasis is an autoimmune skin condition that presents with red scaly patches on the extensor surfaces of the limbs and behind the ears. Treatment involves topical or systemic medications to control symptoms and prevent flares. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 109
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old gang member was brought to the Emergency Department with a knife still in his abdomen after being stabbed in the left upper quadrant. A CT scan revealed that the tip of the knife had punctured the superior border of the greater omentum at the junction of the body and pyloric antrum of the stomach.
What is the most likely direct branch artery that has been severed by the knife?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The knife likely cut the right gastro-omental artery, which is a branch of the gastroduodenal artery. This artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach within the superior border of the greater omentum and anastomoses with the left gastro-omental artery, a branch of the splenic artery. The coeliac trunk, which supplies blood to the foregut, is not related to the greater omentum but to the lesser omentum. The hepatic artery proper, one of the terminal branches of the common hepatic artery, courses towards the liver in the free edge of the lesser omentum. The splenic artery, a tortuous branch of the coeliac trunk, supplies blood to the spleen and gives off the left gastro-omental artery. The short gastric artery, on the other hand, supplies blood to the fundus of the stomach and branches off the splenic artery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 110
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a backache that has persisted for the last two weeks. The doctor diagnoses her with a muscle strain and recommends rest with paracetamol for pain as needed. The patient requested narcotic pain medicine, but the doctor refused to prescribe the drug because she thought a medicine of that strength was unnecessary. The patient left the examination room angrily and yelled at the reception staff on her way out.
Which of the following defence mechanisms was the patient demonstrating?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Displacement
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms in Psychology
Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with stressful situations or emotions. These mechanisms can be conscious or unconscious and can be adaptive or maladaptive. Here are some common defense mechanisms:
Displacement: This occurs when a person redirects their emotions or impulses from the original source to a neutral or innocent person or object.
Projection: This is when a person attributes their own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to someone else.
Denial: This is when a person refuses to accept reality or a diagnosis, often to avoid the pain or discomfort associated with it.
Fixation: This is when a person becomes overly focused on a particular thought, idea, or object as a way of coping with stress.
Splitting: This is a characteristic of borderline personality disorder, where a person sees others as either all good or all bad, and may switch between these views rapidly.
Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize when they are using them and work towards more adaptive coping strategies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 111
Incorrect
-
A baby boy is born after 29 weeks gestation. On day three, a routine examination reveals a continuous mechanical murmur and bounding femoral pulses. Echocardiography confirms a haemodynamically significant, isolated patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). What should be the next step in managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medical management - cyclooxygenase inhibitor infusion
Explanation:Management of Patent Ductus Arteriosus
The ductus arteriosus is a fetal blood vessel that directs deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle directly into the descending aorta. After birth, the ductus should close within the first few days due to decreased prostaglandin levels and increased oxygen concentrations. Premature and low birth weight babies are at a higher risk of the ductus remaining open, which can lead to complications such as reduced blood supply to tissues, pressure overload of the pulmonary circulation, and volume overload of the systemic circulation.
The decision to intervene and close a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is based on the individual case and the severity of the condition. Medical management is usually the first step and involves administering a cyclooxygenase inhibitor to block prostaglandin synthesis and promote closure of the ductus. Conservative management may be an option for PDAs of little consequence, but even small PDAs pose long-term risks and may require intervention. Cardiac catheterisation is not appropriate in isolated PDA cases, and surgical management is reserved for those who fail medical management. Prostaglandin infusions may be used to keep the ductus patent in certain cardiac malformations that require a shunt for survival.
Overall, the management of PDA is crucial in preventing complications and ensuring proper blood flow. The decision to intervene should be made on a case-by-case basis, with medical management being the usual first step.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 112
Incorrect
-
You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in front of you. There is nobody else around. You look, listen and feel, ensuring his airway is open. He is not breathing and is unresponsive. You phone for an ambulance.
What is the next step that you would take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute, giving two rescue breaths after every 30 compressions
Explanation:How to Perform Chest Compressions and Rescue Breaths in Basic Life Support
When faced with a non-responsive person who is not breathing, it is important to act quickly and perform basic life support. Begin by confirming that the person is not breathing and calling for an ambulance. Then, kneel by the person’s side and place the heel of one hand in the centre of their chest, with the other hand on top, interlocking fingers. Apply pressure to the sternum to a depth of 5-6 cm at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. After 30 compressions, open the airway and give two rescue breaths. Pinch the nose closed and blow steadily into the mouth, watching for the chest to rise. Repeat chest compressions and rescue breaths until help arrives.
Note: The previous recommendation of two rescue breaths before chest compressions has been replaced with immediate chest compressions. Do not delay potentially life saving resuscitation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
-
-
Question 113
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old primigravida patient at 6 weeks gestation presents with suprapubic pain and spotting. She also complains of shoulder-tip pain and nausea. Upon observation, her oxygen saturations are at 98% in room air, blood pressure is at 109/79 mmHg, heart rate is at 107 bpm, and temperature is at 36.9ºC. Further investigations reveal an empty uterine cavity with tubal ring sign on transvaginal ultrasound and evidence of a 41 mm complex adnexal mass. Her Hb levels are at 107 g/L (115 - 160), platelets at 380 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC at 10.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), and b-HCG at 1650 IU/L (< 5). What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic salpingectomy
Explanation:Surgical management is recommended for ectopic pregnancies that are larger than 35mm or have a serum B-hCG level greater than 5,000 IU/L. In this case, the patient is experiencing typical symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy, including vaginal bleeding and referred shoulder tip pain. The ultrasound confirms the presence of a tubal ectopic, with a mass exceeding 35mm and tubal ring sign. Therefore, a laparoscopic salpingectomy is the appropriate surgical intervention.
Adrenalectomy is not relevant in this case, as the complex adnexal mass refers to the ectopic pregnancy located near the ovaries, uterus, and fallopian tubes, not the adrenal glands.
Expectant management is not suitable for this patient, as her serum b-hCG is significantly elevated, and the mass exceeds 35mm in size.
Medical management with methotrexate is an option for ectopic pregnancies that are smaller than 35mm or have a serum B-hCG level below 5,000 IU/L.
Ultrasound-guided potassium chloride injection is an alternative to methotrexate for medical management, but it is not currently standard practice in the UK.Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 114
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old motorcyclist is brought into resus after a bike versus lorry road-traffic collision. Following a primary survey, he is believed to have multiple lower limb fractures. He is scheduled for a trauma CT scan. While preparing for transfer to the imaging department, the patient becomes agitated and lashes out at the nurse caring for him. The patient has become more confused and tries to bite the doctor who has attended to review him. A decision is made to intubate the patient to prevent them from causing further self-inflicted injuries.
What medication would be most appropriate to use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suxamethonium
Explanation:Understanding Neuromuscular Blocking Drugs
Neuromuscular blocking drugs are commonly used in surgical procedures as an adjunct to anaesthetic agents. These drugs are responsible for inducing muscle paralysis, which is a necessary prerequisite for mechanical ventilation. There are two types of neuromuscular blocking drugs: depolarizing and non-depolarizing.
Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs bind to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in persistent depolarization of the motor end plate. On the other hand, non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs act as competitive antagonists of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Examples of depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include succinylcholine (also known as suxamethonium), while examples of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include tubcurarine, atracurium, vecuronium, and pancuronium.
While these drugs are effective in inducing muscle paralysis, they also come with potential adverse effects. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause malignant hyperthermia and transient hyperkalaemia, while non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause hypotension. However, these adverse effects can be reversed using acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as neostigmine.
It is important to note that suxamethonium is contraindicated for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma, as it increases intra-ocular pressure. Additionally, suxamethonium is the muscle relaxant of choice for rapid sequence induction for intubation and may cause fasciculations. Understanding the mechanism of action and potential adverse effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs is crucial in ensuring their safe and effective use in surgical procedures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 115
Incorrect
-
In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Characteristics of Different Arthritis Types
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. It is often accompanied by psoriasis around the adjacent nail, and other joint involvement is typically more asymmetric than in rheumatoid arthritis. On the other hand, Reactive arthritis is characterized by uveitis, urethritis, and arthritis that does not involve the DIP. Gout, another type of arthritis, does not typically affect the DIP either. While rheumatoid arthritis can occasionally affect the DIP, it is classically a MCP and PIP arthritis. Lastly, bursitis is a pathology of the bursa, not the joint itself. the characteristics of different types of arthritis can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 116
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of difficult-to-control hypertension for the past 6 years. Despite trying various medications, his blood pressure remains high. He also reports experiencing muscle weakness and nocturia for many years. The patient has no significant medical history. During the examination, the patient appears healthy, but his blood pressure is measured at 162/86 mmHg. Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 78 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Aldosterone:renin ratio 42 ng/dl per ng/(ml·h) (2-17)
Based on the information provided, what is the most probable cause of the patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism
Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.
The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.
If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.
In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 117
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of intense left flank pain that extends to his groin. A urinalysis reveals the presence of blood in his urine. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that he may have a kidney stone. An ultrasound scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB) confirms the presence of a likely stone in his left ureter. What imaging technique is best suited for visualizing a renal stone in the ureter?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) KUB
Explanation:Imaging Tests for Urological Conditions
Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) KUB is recommended by the European Urology Association as a follow-up to initial ultrasound assessment for diagnosing stones, with a 99% identification rate. Micturating cystourethrogram is commonly used in children to diagnose vesicoureteral reflux. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) KUB is not beneficial for renal stone patients due to its high cost. Plain radiography KUB may be useful in monitoring patients with a radio-opaque calculus. Intravenous urography (IVU) is less superior to non-contrast CT scan due to the need for contrast medium injection and increased radiation dosage to the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 118
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman is referred for further evaluation after an abnormal routine mammogram. Biopsy of a left breast mass shows high-grade malignant ductal epithelial cells with dark staining nuclei and several mitotic figures visible under high-power field. Necrosis and central calcification are noted and the basement membrane appears intact.
Based on the biopsy findings, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Comedocarcinoma
Explanation:Breast Cancer Subtypes and Histological Findings
Breast cancer can present in various subtypes, each with unique histological findings and prognoses. Comedocarcinoma is a high-grade ductal carcinoma in situ that often presents with calcification and necrosis due to rapid cellular proliferation. Mucinous carcinoma is a subtype of invasive ductal carcinoma characterized by a large amount of mucin-producing cells and a slightly better prognosis than inflammatory carcinoma. Lobular carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells in the terminal duct lobules that rarely progress to invasive lobular carcinoma. Anaplastic carcinoma is another subtype of invasive ductal carcinoma with a slightly better prognosis than inflammatory carcinoma. Inflammatory carcinoma is characterized by dermal lymphatic invasion of malignant cells and is associated with poor prognosis. Understanding the different subtypes and histological findings of breast cancer can aid in diagnosis and treatment planning.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast
-
-
Question 119
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old male patient complains of sudden pain in his left testicle. He denies any sexual activity. Upon examination, the scrotum appears normal, but the left testis is swollen and tender. The right testis appears to be normal. A urine dip test shows negative results. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Acute Testicular Pain and Its Implications
Acute testicular pain is a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It is often caused by testicular torsion, which can lead to irreversible damage if not treated promptly. The diagnosis of testicular torsion is primarily clinical, and investigations such as ultrasound may not be helpful or may cause delay. Therefore, surgical referral is necessary if acute testicular pain is suspected.
In cases of testicular torsion, exploration and fixing of the other side may also be necessary. It is better to explore and be wrong than to delay treatment and risk irreversible damage. The features of testicular torsion include acute pain and swelling of the testis, with an absent cremasteric reflex. On the other hand, epididymitis may also cause acute pain and swelling, but it is rare before puberty and more common in sexually active individuals.
In summary, acute testicular pain is a serious condition that requires urgent attention. Testicular torsion is a clinical diagnosis that should prompt surgical referral, and investigations may not be helpful or may cause delay. It is better to explore and fix the other side if necessary than to delay treatment and risk irreversible damage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 120
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman in her second pregnancy has been diagnosed with pre-eclampsia and is taking labetalol twice daily. She presents to the Antenatal Assessment Unit with abdominal pain that began earlier this morning, followed by a brown discharge. The pain is constant and radiates to the back. During the examination, the uterus is hard and tender, and there is a small amount of dark red blood on the pad she presents to you. Which investigation is more likely to diagnose the cause of this patient's antepartum bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transabdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms that suggest placental abruption, a transabdominal ultrasound scan is the most appropriate first-line investigation. This is especially true if the patient has risk factors such as pre-eclampsia and age over 35. The ultrasound scan can serve a dual purpose by assessing the position of the placenta and excluding placenta praevia, as well as assessing the integrity of the placenta and detecting any blood collection or haematoma that may indicate placental abruption. However, in some cases, the ultrasound scan may be normal even in the presence of placental abruption. In such cases, a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan may be necessary for a more accurate diagnosis.
Before performing a bimanual pelvic examination, it is essential to rule out placenta praevia, as this can lead to significant haemorrhage and fetal and maternal compromise. A full blood count is also necessary to assess the extent of bleeding and anaemia, but it is not diagnostic of placental abruption.
An abdominal CT scan is not used as a first-line investigation for all women with antepartum haemorrhage, as it exposes the fetus to a significant radiation dose. It is only used in the assessment of pregnant women who have suffered traumatic injuries. Urinalysis is important in the assessment of women with antepartum haemorrhage, as it can detect genitourinary infections, but it does not aid in the diagnosis of placental abruption.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 121
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old professional tennis player experiences sudden shoulder pain while serving during a match. The tournament doctor evaluates him on the sideline and the player reports difficulty with raising his arm. Upon examination, the doctor finds that the patient is unable to initiate abduction of the arm, but is able to continue the motion when the doctor assists with a few degrees of abduction.
What is the probable reason for the player's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tear
Explanation:The patient is experiencing difficulty initiating abduction of their affected arm, but is able to actively complete the range of motion if the initial stages of abduction are performed for them. This is consistent with a tear in the supraspinatus muscle, which is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The supraspinatus is responsible for the initial 15 degrees of abduction, after which the deltoid muscle takes over. In contrast, damage to the infraspinatus or teres minor muscles would typically affect lateral rotation or adduction, respectively. A tear in the subscapularis muscle, which is responsible for adduction and medial rotation, is a possible diagnosis given the patient’s symptoms. Dysfunction in the deltoid muscle or axillary nerve would prevent full abduction of the arm, but this is not the case for this patient. Deltoid tears are rare and usually associated with traumatic shoulder dislocation or large rotator cuff injuries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 122
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is found to be HPV positive. A follow-up cytology swab reveals normal cells. She is asked to return for a second HPV swab after 12 months, which comes back negative. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 5 years
Explanation:If the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months shows a negative result for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can return to routine recall for cervical cancer screening. Since the patient is over 50 years old, a smear test should be taken every 5 years as part of routine recall. It is not necessary to perform a cytology swab or refer the patient to colposcopy as a negative HPV result does not indicate the presence of cervical cancer. Additionally, repeating the HPV test in 3 years is not necessary for this patient as it is only the routine recall protocol for patients aged 25-49.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 123
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department after a paracetamol overdose. What aspect of her medical history could potentially heighten the likelihood of liver failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Although the guidelines for treating paracetamol overdose no longer distinguish between high-risk and normal-risk patients, the underlying science remains the same. Patients with chronic alcoholism, HIV, anorexia, or those taking P450 inducers are at a higher risk of overdose. Anorexic patients, in particular, have lower levels of glutathione, making them more susceptible to liver damage.
Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 124
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman came to the Emergency Department complaining of severe dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed an opaque right hemithorax. She had no history of occupational exposure to asbestos. Her husband worked in a shipyard 35 years ago, but he had no lung issues. She has never been a smoker. Upon thorax examination, there was reduced movement on the right side, with absent breath sounds and intercostal fullness.
What is the probable reason for the radiological finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesothelioma
Explanation:Pleural Pathologies: Mesothelioma and Differential Diagnoses
Workers who are exposed to asbestos are at a higher risk of developing lung pathologies such as asbestosis and mesothelioma. Indirect exposure can also occur when family members come into contact with asbestos-covered clothing. This condition affects both the lungs and pleural space, with short, fine asbestos fibers transported by the lymphatics to the pleural space, causing irritation and leading to plaques and fibrosis. Pleural fibrosis can also result in rounded atelectasis, which can mimic a lung mass on radiological imaging.
Mesothelioma, the most common type being epithelial, typically occurs 20-40 years after asbestos exposure and is characterized by exudative and hemorrhagic pleural effusion with high levels of hyaluronic acid. Treatment options are generally unsatisfactory, with local radiation and chemotherapy being used with variable results. Tuberculosis may also present with pleural effusion, but other systemic features such as weight loss, night sweats, and cough are expected. Lung collapse would show signs of mediastinal shift and intercostal fullness would not be typical. Pneumonectomy is not mentioned in the patient’s past, and massive consolidation may show air bronchogram on X-ray and bronchial breath sounds.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 125
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man with oesophageal cancer has completed two cycles of neo-adjuvant cisplatin and 5-fluorouracil (5FU) and is scheduled for his third cycle of chemotherapy in a week. He complains of pain, discharge, and redness around the site of his jejunostomy and has a fever of 38.5 °C. Upon examination, he is stable, with a clear chest and soft abdomen, but shows signs of infection around the jejunostomy. His renal function is normal, and he has no known drug allergies. A full blood count taken yesterday reveals a neutrophil count of 0.5 × 109/l.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obtain iv access, take full blood count and blood cultures and commence iv piperacillin–tazobactam (as per local policy) as soon as possible
Explanation:Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Patient Receiving Chemotherapy
Neutropenic sepsis is a life-threatening condition that can occur in patients receiving chemotherapy. It is defined as pyrexia in the presence of a neutrophil count of <0.5 × 109/l. Prompt administration of broad-spectrum iv antibiotics is crucial in improving outcomes. Therefore, obtaining iv access, taking full blood count and blood cultures, and commencing iv piperacillin–tazobactam (as per local policy) should be done as soon as possible. In cases where there is suspicion of a collection around the jejunostomy, further imaging and surgical consultation may be required. It is important to discuss the management of chemotherapy with the patient’s oncologist. Delaying chemotherapy is necessary in cases of active infection and worsening neutropenia. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines advise treating suspected neutropenic sepsis as an acute medical emergency and offering empiric antibiotic therapy immediately. It is important to note that NICE guidelines recommend offering β-lactam monotherapy with piperacillin with tazobactam as initial empiric antibiotic therapy to patients with suspected neutropenic sepsis who need iv treatment, unless there are patient-specific or local microbiological contraindications. However, this should be reviewed with the result of cultures at 48 hours. In summary, the management of neutropenic sepsis in a patient receiving chemotherapy requires prompt and appropriate administration of antibiotics, delaying chemotherapy, and close collaboration with the patient’s oncologist.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
-
-
Question 126
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old librarian is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing haematemesis. The patient has been complaining of epigastric discomfort for the past few weeks and has been self-medicating with over-the-counter antacids. This morning, the patient continued to experience the discomfort and suddenly vomited about a cup of fresh blood. The patient is a non-smoker but consumes approximately 15 units of alcohol per week. He is currently taking atorvastatin for high cholesterol but has no other significant medical history. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that he takes 75 mg aspirin daily, as he once read in the newspaper that it would be beneficial for his long-term cardiac health. What is the mechanism by which aspirin damages the gastric mucosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced surface mucous secretion
Explanation:Effects of Aspirin on Gastric Mucosal Lining
Aspirin is a commonly used medication for pain relief and anti-inflammatory purposes. However, it can have adverse effects on the gastric mucosal lining. One of the effects of aspirin is the reduction of surface mucous secretion, which normally protects the gastric mucosal lining. This is due to the inhibition of PGE2 production. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding and peptic ulceration, patients taking aspirin should consider taking a proton pump inhibitor alongside it.
Aspirin has no effect on gastric motility, but it causes a reduction in PGI2, resulting in reduced blood flow to the gastric lining and mucosal ischaemia. This prevents the elimination of acid that has diffused into the submucosa. Aspirin also causes decreased surface bicarbonate secretion and increased acid production from gastric parietal cells, as prostaglandins normally inhibit acid secretion.
It is important to note that the risk factors for aspirin and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced injury include advanced age, history of peptic ulcer disease, concomitant use of glucocorticoids, high dose of NSAIDs, multiple NSAIDs, and concomitant use of clopidogrel or anticoagulants. Therefore, patients should be cautious when taking aspirin and consult with their healthcare provider if they have any concerns.
The Adverse Effects of Aspirin on Gastric Mucosal Lining
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 127
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old male smoker presents with a 6-hour history of gradual-onset central chest pain. The chest pain is worse on inspiration and relieved by leaning forward. He reports recently suffering a fever which he attributed to a viral illness. He has no significant past medical history; however, both his parents suffered from ischaemic heart disease in their early 60s. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals PR depression and concave ST-segment elevation in most leads. He is haemodynamically stable.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis: Understanding the Clinical Scenario
Acute pericarditis can be caused by a variety of factors, including infection, inflammation, and metabolic issues. The condition is typically characterized by gradual-onset chest pain that worsens with inspiration and lying flat, but improves with leaning forward. ECG findings often show concave ST-segment elevation and PR depression in certain leads, along with reciprocal changes in others.
Understanding Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 128
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left eye pain for the third time. She reports experiencing blurred vision and a sensation of something being stuck in her eye each time. She typically wears contact lenses and has accidentally scratched her eye multiple times in the past.
Investigations reveal an epithelial defect with surrounding corneal edema on slit lamp examination, as well as an area of increased uptake on fluorescein examination. What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corneal ulcer
Explanation:Diagnosing Corneal Ulcers in Contact Lens Wearers
Corneal ulcers are a common complication in contact lens wearers, caused by bacteria adhering to the lens surface and infecting the cornea. Symptoms include pain, photophobia, foreign body sensation, and most importantly, blurred vision. Treatment involves avoiding contact lenses for a few days, re-education on proper application, and topical antibiotics.
Other potential diagnoses, such as bacterial conjunctivitis, traumatic corneal abrasion, Fuchs’ endothelial dystrophy, and keratitis sicca, can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and examination findings. It is important to accurately diagnose and treat corneal ulcers in contact lens wearers to prevent further complications and vision loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 129
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old patient experiencing acute coronary syndrome is administered 300 mg of aspirin. How does aspirin work to produce an antiplatelet effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits the production of thromboxane A2
Explanation:The Mechanism and Guidelines for Aspirin Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By inhibiting the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, leading to changes in guidelines. Aspirin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but it should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. The medication can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a drug safety update in January 2010, reminding prescribers that aspirin is not licensed for primary prevention. NICE now recommends clopidogrel as a first-line treatment following an ischaemic stroke and for peripheral arterial disease. However, the situation is more complex for TIAs, with recent Royal College of Physician (RCP) guidelines supporting the use of clopidogrel, while older NICE guidelines still recommend aspirin + dipyridamole – a position the RCP state is ‘illogical’. Despite these changes, aspirin remains an important medication in the treatment of cardiovascular disease, and its use should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and risk factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 130
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old male with a known history of rheumatic fever and frequent episodes of pulmonary oedema is diagnosed with pulmonary hypertension. During examination, an irregularly irregular pulse was noted and auscultation revealed a loud first heart sound and a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur. What is the most probable cause of this patient's pulmonary hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Cardiac Valve Disorders: Mitral Stenosis, Mitral Regurgitation, Aortic Regurgitation, Pulmonary Stenosis, and Primary Pulmonary Hypertension
Cardiac valve disorders are conditions that affect the proper functioning of the heart valves. Among these disorders are mitral stenosis, mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation, pulmonary stenosis, and primary pulmonary hypertension.
Mitral stenosis is a narrowing of the mitral valve, usually caused by rheumatic fever. Symptoms include palpitations, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. Diagnosis is aided by electrocardiogram, chest X-ray, and echocardiography. Management may be medical or surgical.
Mitral regurgitation is a systolic murmur that presents with a sustained apex beat displaced to the left and a left parasternal heave. On auscultation, there will be a soft S1, a loud S2, and a pansystolic murmur heard at the apex radiating to the left axilla.
Aortic regurgitation presents with a collapsing pulse with a wide pulse pressure. On palpation of the precordium, there will be a sustained and displaced apex beat with a soft S2 and an early diastolic murmur at the left sternal edge.
Pulmonary stenosis is associated with a normal pulse, with an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the lung fields. There may be a palpable thrill over the pulmonary area.
Primary pulmonary hypertension most commonly presents with progressive weakness and shortness of breath. There is evidence of an underlying cardiac disease, meaning the underlying pulmonary hypertension is more likely to be secondary to another disease process.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 131
Incorrect
-
A 9-month-old girl is brought to their GP due to family concerns over the child's development. They were born at term via vaginal delivery, without complications. The child is otherwise well, without past medical history.
What developmental milestone would be most anticipated in this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pass objects from one hand to another
Explanation:A 6-month-old boy was brought to the GP by his family who were concerned about his development. The GP tested his developmental milestones and found that he was able to hold objects with palmar grasp and pass objects from one hand to another. However, the child was not yet able to build a tower of 2 bricks, have a good pincer grip, or show a hand preference, which are expected milestones for older children. The GP reassured the family that the child’s development was within the normal range for his age.
Developmental Milestones for Fine Motor and Vision Skills
Fine motor and vision skills are important developmental milestones for infants and young children. These skills are crucial for their physical and cognitive development. The following tables provide a summary of the major milestones for fine motor and vision skills.
At three months, infants can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow objects up to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They are visually insatiable, looking around in every direction.
At nine months, infants can point with their finger and demonstrate an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have developed a good pincer grip and can bang toys together and stack bricks.
As children grow older, their fine motor skills continue to develop. By 15 months, they can build a tower of two blocks, and by 18 months, they can build a tower of three blocks. By two years old, they can build a tower of six blocks, and by three years old, they can build a tower of nine blocks. They also begin to draw, starting with circular scribbles at 18 months and progressing to copying vertical lines at two years old, circles at three years old, crosses at four years old, and squares and triangles at five years old.
In addition to fine motor skills, children’s vision skills also develop over time. At 15 months, they can look at a book and pat the pages. By 18 months, they can turn several pages at a time, and by two years old, they can turn one page at a time.
It is important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. Overall, these developmental milestones for fine motor and vision skills are important indicators of a child’s growth and development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 132
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of painless, gradual, one-sided swelling in his right leg. He reports that this is more noticeable in the evenings. During clinical examination, the right leg is swollen, but there is no redness or excessive warmth upon touch. He is in good health otherwise. He had undergone surgery in the past to treat prostate cancer.
What is the initial investigation that should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphoscintigram
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Lymphoedema: Choosing the Right One
Lymphoedema is a condition characterized by swelling in the limbs due to the accumulation of lymphatic fluid. While clinical examination can often diagnose lymphoedema, further investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other possible causes. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be requested and their relevance in diagnosing lymphoedema:
Lymphoscintigram: This is the first-line investigation to confirm lymphoedema. It involves injecting a radioactive tracer into the affected limb and then imaging the lymphatic system to assess the flow of lymphatic fluid.
Blood smear: A blood smear may be requested if filariasis is suspected as a cause of lymphoedema. This test involves examining a blood sample under a microscope to look for the presence of microfilariae, which are the larvae of filarial worms.
Computed tomography (CT) scan: CT scans are less useful in evaluating lymphoedema as they do not provide specific information about soft tissues.
Genetic testing: Genetic testing is useful in diagnosing primary lymphoedema, which can be caused by genetic mutations. However, it is less likely to be relevant in cases of secondary lymphoedema, which is more commonly caused by surgery, infection, or trauma.
Ultrasound: While not useful in diagnosing lymphoedema, ultrasound may be helpful in ruling out other possible causes of limb swelling, such as deep vein thrombosis.
In summary, the choice of diagnostic test for lymphoedema depends on the suspected cause and the clinical presentation of the patient. A lymphoscintigram is the most useful test for confirming lymphoedema, while other tests may be requested to rule out other possible causes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
-
-
Question 133
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old Indian woman presents to the Emergency Department with vomiting and central abdominal pain. She has vomited eight times over the last 24 hours. The vomit is non-bilious and non-bloody. She also reports that she has not moved her bowels for the last four days and is not passing flatus. She reports that she had some form of radiation therapy to her abdomen ten years ago in India for ‘stomach cancer’. There is no urinary urgency or burning on urination. She migrated from India to England two months ago. She reports no other past medical or surgical history.
Her observations and blood tests results are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Temperature 36.9 °C
Blood pressure 155/59 mmHg
Heart rate 85 beats per minute
Respiratory rate 19 breaths per minute
Sp(O2) 96% (room air)
White cell count 8.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
C-reactive protein 36 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
The patient’s urine dipstick is negative for leukocytes and nitrites. Physical examination reveals a soft but distended abdomen. No abdominal scars are visible. There is mild tenderness throughout the abdomen. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Rectal examination reveals no stool in the rectal vault, and no blood or melaena.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small bowel obstruction
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Small Bowel Obstruction, Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia, Diverticulitis, Pyelonephritis, and Viral Gastroenteritis
Abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider different possibilities to provide appropriate management. Here are some differential diagnoses for abdominal pain:
Small bowel obstruction (SBO) is characterized by vomiting, lack of bowel movements, and hyperactive bowel sounds. Patients who have had radiation therapy to their abdomen are at risk for SBO. Urgent management includes abdominal plain film, intravenous fluids, nasogastric tube placement, analgesia, and surgical review.
Acute mesenteric ischaemia is caused by reduced arterial blood flow to the small intestine. Patients with vascular risk factors such as hypertension, smoking, and diabetes mellitus are at risk. Acute-onset abdominal pain that is out of proportion to examination findings is a common symptom.
Diverticulitis presents with left iliac fossa pain, pyrexia, and leukocytosis. Vital signs are usually stable.
Pyelonephritis is characterized by fevers or chills, flank pain, and lower urinary tract symptoms.
Viral gastroenteritis typically presents with fast-onset diarrhea and vomiting after ingestion of contaminated food. However, the patient in this case has not had bowel movements for four days.
In summary, abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider the patient’s history, physical examination, and laboratory findings to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 134
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman presented to the general medical clinic with a complaint of progressive diffuse myalgia and weakness that had been ongoing for three months. She reported experiencing difficulty walking up and down stairs due to weakness in her shoulder muscles and thighs. Her medical history included hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she took atenolol and simvastatin regularly. On examination, there were no abnormalities in the cranial nerves or detectable neck weakness. However, there was general myalgia in the upper limbs and proximal weakness of 3/5 with preserved distal power. A similar pattern of weakness was observed in the lower limbs with preserved tone, reflexes, and sensation.
The following investigations were conducted: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, ESR (Westergren), serum sodium, serum potassium, serum urea, serum creatinine, plasma lactate, serum creatine kinase, fasting plasma glucose, serum cholesterol, plasma TSH, plasma T4, and plasma T3. Urinalysis was normal.
Based on these findings, what is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Statin-induced myopathy
Explanation:Statins and Muscle Disorders
Myalgia, myositis, and myopathy are all known side effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, commonly known as statins. The risk of these muscle disorders increases when statins are taken in combination with a fibrate or with immunosuppressants. If therapy is not discontinued, rhabdomyolysis may occur, which can lead to acute renal failure due to myoglobinuria. Inclusion body myositis is a type of inflammatory myopathy that causes weakness in a distal and asymmetric pattern. On the other hand, McArdle’s disease is an autosomal recessive condition that typically presents in children with painful muscle cramps and myoglobinuria after intense exercise. This condition is caused by a deficiency in myophosphorylase, which impairs the body’s ability to utilize glucose. There are no additional neurological symptoms to suggest a mitochondrial disorder, and the plasma lactate level is normal. Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 135
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is hospitalized due to dehydration caused by chronic diarrhea. What is the most frequently identified pathogen in cases of chronic diarrhea linked to HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium
Explanation:Common Causes of Diarrhoea in Immunocompromised Patients
Immunocompromised patients, particularly those with HIV infection, are at increased risk of developing chronic diarrhoea. Among the causative organisms, Cryptosporidium is the most commonly isolated. This intracellular protozoan parasite can cause severe debilitating diarrhoea with weight loss and malabsorption in HIV-infected patients. Treatment involves fluid rehydration, electrolyte correction, and pain management, with the initiation of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) being crucial for restoring immunity.
Salmonella, Isospora belli, Campylobacter, and Shigella are other common causes of diarrhoea in immunosuppressed patients. Salmonella infection typically occurs after eating uncooked foods such as chicken, while Isospora species can also cause diarrhoea but not as commonly as Cryptosporidium. Campylobacter infection can present with a flu-like prodrome, fever, and in severe cases, bloody diarrhoea and severe colitis. Treatment often involves quinolones, but one complication to be wary of is the subsequent development of neurological symptoms due to Guillain–Barré syndrome. Shigella infection typically presents with bloody diarrhoea after ingestion of the toxin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 136
Incorrect
-
You see a 47-year-old woman in clinic at the General Practice surgery where you are working as a Foundation Year 2 doctor. She has a diagnosis of moderate depression and would like to try an antidepressant alongside her cognitive behavioural therapy, which is due to begin in 2 weeks. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any prescribed or over-the-counter medications.
Which of the following antidepressant medications would be most appropriate as the first-line treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Commonly Prescribed Psychiatric Medications and Their Uses
Depression is a prevalent psychiatric disorder that is often managed by general practitioners with support from community mental health teams. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends antidepressants as a first-line treatment for moderate to severe depression, alongside high-intensity psychological therapy. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as citalopram are the preferred antidepressants for adults due to their better side-effect profile and lower risk of overdose. Fluoxetine is the only licensed antidepressant for children and adolescents and has the largest evidence base.
Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are an older class of antidepressants that are more toxic in overdose and commonly cause antimuscarinic effects at therapeutic doses. They are more commonly used in low doses for conditions such as neuropathic pain. Carbamazepine is commonly used in epilepsy and neuropathic pain and also plays a role as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder. Lithium is primarily used for treatment and prophylaxis in bipolar disorder and should be prescribed by specialists due to the need for dose titration to achieve a narrow therapeutic window. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, an older class of antidepressants with a wide range of side-effects and drug interactions. Patients on phenelzine should follow a low-tyramine diet to avoid an acute hypertensive crisis.
Understanding Common Psychiatric Medications and Their Uses
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 137
Incorrect
-
A 68 year old homeless man is brought into the Emergency Department with acute confusion. The patient is unable to provide a history and is shivering profusely. Physical examination reveals a body temperature of 34.5oC.
Regarding thermoregulation, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acclimatisation of the sweating mechanism occurs in response to heat
Explanation:Understanding Heat Adaptation and Thermoregulation in Humans
Humans have the unique ability to actively acclimatize to heat stress through adaptations in the sweating mechanism. This process involves an increase in the sweating capability of the glands, which helps to lower body core temperatures. Heat adaptation begins on the first day of exposure and typically takes 4-7 days to develop in most individuals, with complete adaptation taking around 14 days.
While brown fat plays a significant role in non-shivering thermogenesis in newborns and infants, there are very few remnants of brown fat in adults. Instead, thermoregulation is mainly controlled by the hypothalamus, which is responsible for regulating body temperature and other vital functions.
Although apocrine sweat glands have little role in thermoregulation, they still play an important role in heat loss by evaporation. Overall, understanding heat adaptation and thermoregulation in humans is crucial for maintaining optimal health and preventing heat-related illnesses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
-
-
Question 138
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy was diagnosed with Reifenstein syndrome. He had hypospadias, micropenis and small testes in the scrotum.
What would be the next course of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testosterone replacement
Explanation:Management of Reifenstein Syndrome: Hormonal and Surgical Options
Reifenstein syndrome is a rare X-linked genetic disease that results in partial androgen insensitivity. In phenotypic males with this condition, testosterone replacement therapy is recommended to increase the chances of fertility. However, if the patient had been raised as a female and chose to continue this way, oestrogen replacement therapy would be appropriate. Surgical management may be necessary if the patient has undescended testes, but in this case, orchidectomy is not indicated as the patient has small testes in the scrotum. While psychological counselling is always necessary, it is not the first line of treatment. Overall, the management of Reifenstein syndrome involves a combination of hormonal and surgical options tailored to the individual patient’s needs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 139
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man is admitted for a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma. He has an uncomplicated postoperative course and after one week is ready for discharge home. You are the house officer on the urology team and have attended him daily. He hands you an envelope and inside you find a thank you card with a voucher for a department store for £500. What should you do regarding the gift you have received?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Return it to the patient and explain you cannot accept such a gift
Explanation:How to Handle a Valuable Gift from a Patient as a Doctor
As a doctor, it is important to maintain a professional relationship with your patients. This includes being cautious about accepting gifts, especially those valued over £50. Here are some options for handling a valuable gift from a patient:
1. Return it to the patient and explain you cannot accept such a gift. This may cause embarrassment, but it is the most professional option.
2. Keep it and share it with your team. Explain to the patient that gifts over £50 should only be accepted on behalf of an organisation, not an individual staff member.
3. Give it to a charity. Be open and honest with the patient and suggest they donate the money to a charitable organisation.
4. Thank the patient and keep it. However, this could raise questions about your professionalism and could leave you vulnerable to criticism.
5. Thank the patient and use the money to buy something nice for the ward. While this is a kind gesture, the patient should directly give the money to the hospital and doctors should be cautious about accepting valuable gifts.
Remember, maintaining a professional relationship with your patients is crucial and accepting gifts should be done with caution.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
-
-
Question 140
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of right-sided facial weakness within 24 hours. Based on your initial assessment, you suspect Bell's palsy and proceed to conduct a thorough examination to confirm your diagnosis.
What specific finding would support a diagnosis of Bell's palsy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right sided facial paralysis with weakness of right-side (occipito-)frontalis
Explanation:Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a condition that causes paralysis of the VII cranial nerve, also known as the facial nerve. The onset of Bell’s palsy is typically sudden and complete within 24 hours, although it can also develop progressively over a few days. The condition is almost always unilateral, and may be preceded by post-auricular pain that develops over a 48-hour period.
The most common symptoms of Bell’s palsy include paralysis of the upper and lower facial muscles, drooping of the eyebrow, and the inability to frown or raise the eyebrows. In cases where there is an upper motor neurone lesion affecting the facial nerve, the ability to wrinkle the brow is preserved. However, in Bell’s palsy, the eye cannot be closed and the eyeball rotates upwards and outwards when asked to close the eyes and show the teeth, which is known as Bell’s phenomenon.
Bell’s palsy also affects taste to the anterior 2/3 of the affected side of the tongue. It is important to note that weakness of the tongue does not occur in Bell’s palsy, as the muscles of the tongue are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 141
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman at 16 week gestation presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit with complaints of light vaginal bleeding, fevers for 2 days, and increasing abdominal pain for 6 hours. On examination, she has diffuse abdominal tenderness and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Her temperature is 39.2ºC and blood pressure is 112/78 mmHg. Her full blood count shows Hb of 107 g/L, platelets of 189 * 109/L, and WBC of 13.2 * 109/L. An ultrasound confirms miscarriage. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Manual vacuum aspiration under local anaesthetic
Explanation:If there is evidence of infection or an increased risk of haemorrhage, expectant management is not a suitable option for miscarriage. In such cases, NICE recommends either medical management (using oral or vaginal misoprostol) or surgical management (including manual vacuum aspiration). In this particular case, surgical management is the only option as the patient has evidence of infection, possibly due to septic miscarriage. Syntocinon is used for medical management of postpartum haemorrhage, while methotrexate is used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy. Oral mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol for termination of pregnancy, but it is not recommended by NICE for the management of miscarriage.
Management Options for Miscarriage
Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.
Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.
Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.
It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 142
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Clinic with a complaint of droopy eyelids that have been present for the past 6 months. She reports experiencing intermittent double vision that varies in severity. She has also noticed difficulty swallowing her food at times. Upon examination, she displays mild weakness in eyelid closure bilaterally and mild lower facial weakness. Additionally, there is mild weakness in neck flexion and bilateral shoulder abduction. Reflexes are normal throughout, and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Electromyography is performed, revealing a 30% decrease in the compound motor action potential (CMAP) upon repetitive nerve stimulation (right abductor pollicis brevis muscle). Single-fibre electromyography shows normal fibre density and jitter. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autoimmune myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Differentiating Myasthenia Gravis from Other Neuromuscular Disorders
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. It occurs when antibodies block the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to impaired muscle function. This can be detected through electromyographic testing, which measures fatigability. However, other neuromuscular disorders can present with similar symptoms, making diagnosis challenging.
Congenital myasthenia gravis is a rare form that occurs in infants born to myasthenic mothers. Guillain-Barré syndrome, although typically presenting with ophthalmoplegia, can also cause muscle weakness and reflex abnormalities. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels and is characterized by absent reflexes. Polymyalgia rheumatica, an inflammatory disorder of the soft tissues, can cause pain and weakness in the shoulder girdle but does not affect nerve conduction or facial muscles.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic testing are necessary to differentiate MG from other neuromuscular disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 143
Incorrect
-
You're a medical student on your psychiatry placement. You are performing a mental state examination on one of the patients on the inpatient psychiatry ward, a 22-year-old man who was admitted 2 days ago.
Whenever you ask him a question, you notice that he repeats the question back to you. You notice that he is also repeating some of the phrases you use.
What form of thought disorder is this an example of?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echolalia
Explanation:Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the questions being asked. Clang association is when someone uses words that rhyme with each other or sound similar. Neologism is the formation of new words. Perseveration is when ideas or words are repeated several times.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 144
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden and severe headache. Upon examination, she is spontaneously opening her eyes and localising to painful stimuli, but is disoriented. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT)
Explanation:Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
Subarachnoid haemorrhage can be diagnosed with a high degree of accuracy through an urgent CT scan, which can confirm the condition in 95% of patients. In most cases, a lumbar puncture is not necessary unless the patient’s medical history suggests the need for one and the CT scan results are normal. If a bloody tap is suspected, the number of red blood cells should decrease with each successive sample. If an LP is performed six hours after the onset of symptoms, the supernatant fluid should be examined for xanthochromia after centrifugation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
-
-
Question 145
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure at the day surgery unit. The surgery is aimed at treating carpal tunnel syndrome. During the procedure, which structure is divided to decompress the median nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor retinaculum
Explanation:The flexor retinaculum is the only structure that is divided in the surgical treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome. It is important to protect all other structures during the procedure as damaging them could result in further injury or disability. The purpose of dividing the flexor retinaculum is to decompress the median nerve.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 146
Incorrect
-
A worried parent comes to your clinic with concerns that their 14-year-old son may be purging after meals. They have noticed that he has become increasingly preoccupied with his appearance and often disappears after eating. They want to know more about purging. What information can you provide them about this behavior?
Purging is a behavior that involves getting rid of food and calories from the body after eating. This can be done through self-induced vomiting, using laxatives or diuretics, or excessive exercise. Purging is often associated with eating disorders such as bulimia nervosa. It is important to note that purging can have serious health consequences, including dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and damage to the digestive system. If their son is indeed purging, it is important to seek medical and psychological help as soon as possible.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Purging behaviours can include exercising, laxatives or diuretics
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa involves purging behaviors that go beyond just vomiting, and can also include the use of laxatives or diuretics, as well as excessive exercising. Binging episodes are followed by these purgative behaviors, which occur on average once a week and do not necessarily happen after every meal. Fasting, which involves restricting or stopping food intake, is more commonly associated with anorexia nervosa.
Bulimia Nervosa: An Eating Disorder Characterized by Binge Eating and Purging
Bulimia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives or diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise. The DSM 5 diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode, and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. These behaviors occur at least once a week for three months and are accompanied by an undue influence of body shape and weight on self-evaluation.
Management of bulimia nervosa involves referral for specialist care and the use of bulimia-nervosa-focused guided self-help or individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT-ED). Children should be offered bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN). While pharmacological treatments have a limited role, a trial of high-dose fluoxetine is currently licensed for bulimia. It is important to seek appropriate care for bulimia nervosa to prevent the physical and psychological consequences of this eating disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 147
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman has recently given birth to a healthy baby without any complications. She is curious about iron supplementation and has undergone blood tests which reveal a Hb level of 107 g/L. What is the appropriate Hb cut-off for initiating treatment in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100
Explanation:During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.
If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 148
Incorrect
-
What is the mechanism of action of goserelin in treating prostate cancer in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GnRH agonist
Explanation:Zoladex (Goserelin) is an artificial GnRH agonist that delivers negative feedback to the anterior pituitary.
Management of Prostate Cancer
Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.
For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 149
Incorrect
-
You assess a client who complains of excessive sweating.
What is the physiological process through which sweating results in heat dissipation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased conduction
Explanation:The Effect of Humidity on Heat Loss
Sweating is a natural response of the body to regulate its temperature. When sweat evaporates from the skin, it takes away heat and cools the body. However, the effectiveness of this process is affected by the humidity in the air. High humidity reduces the rate of evaporation, which means less heat is taken away from the body. As a result, individuals may feel hotter and more uncomfortable in humid conditions.
This phenomenon is due to the fact that humidity affects the efficacy of heat loss via conduction. When the air is dry, sweat evaporates quickly, leading to increased heat conduction away from the skin. However, when the air is humid, the moisture in the air makes it harder for sweat to evaporate. This reduces the rate of heat loss and makes it more difficult for the body to regulate its temperature.
Overall, the effect of humidity on heat loss is an important factor to consider when assessing the comfort level of individuals in different environments. this relationship can help us design better cooling systems and improve our ability to adapt to different weather conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 150
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old nursing home resident with end-stage dementia has an acute bowel obstruction; she is not a suitable candidate for surgical intervention.
Which of the following medications may be most effective in reducing her discomfort?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loperamide hydrochloride
Explanation:Medications for Managing Bowel Obstruction in End-of-Life Care
Bowel obstruction during end-of-life care can be managed without surgery or nasogastric tube placement. Loperamide hydrochloride, an antidiarrhoeal medication, can provide relief by reducing bowel motility when used with an opiate analgesic. Ondansetron, an antiemetic, can treat nausea but may cause constipation by slowing gastric stasis. Dexamethasone can alleviate bowel discomfort by reducing inflammation and oedema caused by a tumour obstructing the bowel. Lorazepam can help alleviate distress or anxiety caused by symptoms, but it does not improve them. Paracetamol is a weak analgesic and is unlikely to relieve discomfort in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
-
-
Question 151
Incorrect
-
What is the correct statement regarding the relationship between the electrocardiogram and the cardiac cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The QT interval gives a rough indication of the duration of ventricular systole
Explanation:Understanding the Electrocardiogram: Key Components and Timing
As a junior doctor, interpreting electrocardiograms (ECGs) is a crucial skill. One important aspect to understand is the timing of key components. The QT interval, which measures ventricular depolarization and repolarization, gives an indication of the duration of ventricular systole. However, this measurement is dependent on heart rate and is corrected using Bazett’s formula. The P wave results from atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex is caused by ventricular depolarization. The first heart sound, which coincides with the QRS complex, results from closure of the AV valves as the ventricles contract. The second heart sound, occurring at about the same time as the T wave, is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. Understanding the timing of these components is essential for accurate ECG interpretation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 152
Incorrect
-
A general practice is auditing the prescribing of antibiotics in patients diagnosed with acute otitis media.
Regarding use of patients’ records in clinical audit in general practice, which one of the following statements is true for pediatric patients?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A generic flyer posted to all the patients under the general practice is sufficient notification that their records may be used in a clinical audit
Explanation:Understanding Confidentiality and Anonymity in Clinical Audits
Clinical audits are an important part of ensuring quality healthcare, but it is crucial to maintain patient confidentiality and anonymity. The NHS Code of Practice on Confidentiality outlines the guidelines for using patient information in clinical audits.
Patients must be made aware of how their information will be used within the practice, and generic flyers can be used for this purpose. However, patients must also be informed that they have the right to refuse their information being used. Once patients have been informed, consent does not need to be sought from each individual patient.
Patient information must be anonymised once it is to be used outside of the GP practice, including for research being undertaken by a medical school or a healthcare trust. The six Caldicott principles should be considered when deciding whether to breach patient confidentiality.
It is not essential to anonymise patient information if a clinical audit is being done within one practice, but patients must still be informed of how their information will be used. Overall, it is important to prioritize patient confidentiality and anonymity in all clinical audits.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
-
-
Question 153
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old lady with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the Respiratory Ward with shortness of breath, cough and wheeze. On examination, she appears unwell and short of breath, and there is an audible wheeze. Her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, pulse rate 92 bpm and oxygen saturations 90% on room air. She reports that she is able to leave the house but that she has to stop for breath after walking approximately 100 m. What grade on the MODIFIED MRC dyspnoea scale would this patient be recorded as having?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:Managing COPD: Non-Pharmacological, Pharmacological, and Surgical Approaches
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive condition that affects the airways and is often caused by smoking. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. While there is no cure for COPD, there are various management strategies that can help improve symptoms and quality of life.
Non-pharmacological approaches include quitting smoking, losing weight if necessary, and participating in physiotherapy and pulmonary rehabilitation to improve lung function and exercise capacity. Pharmacological treatment includes the use of bronchodilators and inhaled corticosteroids, as well as oral prednisolone and antibiotics during exacerbations. Diuretics may also be necessary for patients with cor pulmonale and edema. Long-term oxygen therapy can help manage persistent hypoxia.
Surgical options for COPD include heart and lung transplantation. The modified MRC dyspnoea scale can be used to assess the degree of breathlessness and guide treatment decisions. The BODE index, which includes the mMRC dyspnoea scale, is a composite marker of disease severity that takes into account the systemic nature of COPD.
Overall, managing COPD requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the physical and systemic aspects of the disease. With proper management, patients can improve their symptoms and quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 154
Incorrect
-
A 2-month-old baby is brought to the GP clinic by their parent for their first round of vaccinations. What vaccinations are recommended for this visit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B), one dose Men B (vaccine for group B meningococcal disease) and one dose of Rotavirus vaccine
Explanation:The recommended vaccination schedule includes the 6-in-1 vaccine for diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib, and hepatitis B, as well as one dose each of the MMR vaccine for measles, mumps, and rubella, and the Rotavirus vaccine.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 155
Incorrect
-
A 59 year old female visits her GP with complaints of fatigue and body aches. Upon further inquiry, the patient reports feeling increasingly tired for the past several months and experiencing joint and muscle pains. Her medical history indicates chronic heart failure, which is being treated with isosorbide dinitrate and hydralazine. As hydralazine can lead to drug-induced lupus, what investigation would be most helpful in confirming this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-histone antibodies
Explanation:ALP can be rewritten as alkaline phosphatase.
Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus
Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.
The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.
The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 156
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old retiree visits his GP as he is becoming increasingly breathless and tired whilst walking. He has always enjoyed walking and usually walks 3 times a week. Over the past year he has noted that he can no longer manage the same distance that he used to be able to without getting breathless and needing to stop. He wonders if this is a normal part of ageing or if there could be an underlying medical problem.
Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the cardiovascular system?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced VO2 max
Explanation:Ageing and Cardiovascular Health: Understanding the Normal and Abnormal Changes
As we age, our organs may still function normally at rest, but they may struggle to respond adequately to stressors such as exercise or illness. One of the key indicators of cardiovascular health is VO2 max, which measures the maximum rate of oxygen consumption during exercise. In normal ageing, VO2 max may decrease along with muscle strength, making intense exertion more difficult. However, significantly reduced VO2 max, left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), or stroke volume are not consistent with normal ageing. Additionally, hypotension or hypertension are not typical changes associated with ageing. Understanding these normal and abnormal changes can help us better monitor and manage our cardiovascular health as we age.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 157
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man falls while skiing. He presents to your clinic with weakness of pincer grip and pain and laxity on valgus stress of his thumb. What is the most probable injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb injury
Explanation:There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury, also known as skier’s/gamekeeper’s thumb. This injury occurs when the thumb is forcefully abducted, causing damage to the UCL of the metacarpophalangeal joint. Symptoms include weak pincer grip, reduced range of motion, swelling, and burning pain. Treatment involves immobilization with a thumb spica, and surgery may be necessary for complete UCL rupture.
Another injury is a scaphoid fracture, which often occurs in older individuals who fall onto outstretched arms. Symptoms include pain and swelling in the anatomical snuff box, reduced range of motion, and pain with wrist and thumb movement. Fractures in the proximal one-third of the bone or displaced fractures may require surgery to prevent avascular necrosis.
Extensor pollicis longus strain is another injury that can occur from repetitive thumb and wrist extension, such as in manual labor or gardening. Symptoms include pain over the thumb and dorsal wrist, worsened with palpation and extension. Treatment involves rest, ice, and pain relief.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons, which pass through the first dorsal compartment. Symptoms include pain and swelling on the lateral aspect of the wrist, and pain is reproduced with Finkelstein’s test.
Finally, Bennett’s fracture is a less common injury that often occurs in boxing and can lead to osteoarthritis later in life. It is an intra-articular fracture of the first metacarpal bone, causing pain, bruising, swelling, and difficulty with pincer grip. Treatment may involve open reduction and fixation if there is significant displacement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 158
Incorrect
-
At what developmental stage would a child have the ability to briefly sit while leaning forward on their hands, grasp a cube and transfer it from hand to hand, babble, but not yet wave goodbye or use their finger and thumb to grasp objects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 months
Explanation:Developmental Milestones at 7 Months
At 7 months, babies reach several developmental milestones. They are able to sit without support, which means they can sit up straight and maintain their balance without falling over. They also start to reach for objects with a sweeping motion, using their arms to grab things that catch their attention. Additionally, they begin to imitate speech sounds, such as babbling and making noises with their mouths.
Half of babies at this age can combine syllables into wordlike sounds, which is an important step towards language development. They may start to say simple words like mama or dada and understand the meaning behind them. Finally, many babies begin to crawl or lunge forward, which is a major milestone in their physical development. Overall, 7 months is an exciting time for babies as they continue to grow and develop new skills.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 159
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history of nausea, frank haematuria and sharp, persistent left-sided flank pain, radiating from the loin to the groin. On examination, he has left renal angle tenderness.
Urine dip shows:
frank haematuria
blood 2+
protein 2+.
He has a history of hypertension, appendicitis 10 years ago and gout. You order a non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) for the kidney–ureter–bladder (KUB), which shows a 2.2 cm calculus in the proximal left (LT) ureter.
Which of the following is the definitive treatment for this patient’s stone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Percutaneous ureterolithotomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Large Kidney Stones
Large kidney stones, typically those over 2 cm in diameter, require surgical intervention as they are unlikely to pass spontaneously. Here are some treatment options for such stones:
1. Percutaneous Ureterolithotomy/Nephrolithotomy: This procedure involves using a nephroscope to remove or break down the stone into smaller pieces before removal. It is highly effective for stones between 21 and 30 mm in diameter and is indicated for staghorn calculi, cystine stones, or when ESWL is not suitable.
2. Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL): This option uses ultrasound shock waves to break up stones into smaller fragments, which can be passed spontaneously in the urine. It is appropriate for stones up to 2 cm in diameter that fail to pass spontaneously.
3. Medical Expulsive Therapy: In some cases, calcium channel blockers or a blockers may be used to help pass the stone. A corticosteroid may also be added. However, this option is not suitable for stones causing severe symptoms.
It is important to note that admission and treatment with diclofenac, antiemetic, and rehydration therapy is only the initial management for an acute presentation and that sending the patient home with paracetamol and advice to drink water is only appropriate for small stones. Open surgery is rarely used and is reserved for complicated cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 160
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man, who had surgery for a bowel tumour 4 days ago, is now experiencing shortness of breath.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of breathlessness after major surgery
Breathlessness is a common symptom after major surgery, and its differential diagnosis includes several potentially serious conditions. Among them, pulmonary embolism is a frequent and life-threatening complication that can be prevented with appropriate measures. These include the use of thromboembolic deterrent stockings, pneumatic calf compression, and low-molecular-weight heparin at prophylactic doses. Other risk factors for pulmonary embolism in this setting include recent surgery, immobility, and active malignancy. Computed tomography pulmonary angiogram is the preferred test to confirm a clinical suspicion of pulmonary embolism.
Acute bronchitis is another possible cause of post-operative chest infections, but in this case, the history suggests a higher likelihood of pulmonary embolism, which should be investigated promptly. A massive pulmonary embolism is the most common preventable cause of death in hospitalized, bed-bound patients.
Myocardial infarction is less likely to present with breathlessness as the main symptom, as chest pain is more typical. Pulmonary edema can also cause breathlessness, but in this case, the risk factors for pulmonary embolism make it a more plausible diagnosis.
Surgical emphysema, which is the accumulation of air in the subcutaneous tissues, is an unlikely diagnosis in this case, as it usually results from penetrating trauma and does not typically cause breathlessness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 161
Incorrect
-
A dishevelled-looking 70-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home following a fall. Her son indicates that she has become increasingly forgetful over the last 2 months. She has had diarrhoea for the last 3 weeks, thought to be related to an outbreak of norovirus at her nursing home, and has been vomiting occasionally. On examination you notice a scaly red rash on her neck and hands.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pellagra
Explanation:Comparison of Different Medical Conditions
Pellagra: A Serious Condition Caused by Niacin Deficiency
Pellagra is a severe medical condition that can lead to death if left untreated. It is characterized by three classical features, including diarrhoea, dermatitis, and dementia. The condition is caused by a deficiency of niacin, which is required for all cellular processes in the body. Pellagra can also develop due to a deficiency of tryptophan, which can be converted to niacin. Treatment for pellagra involves vitamin replacement with nicotinamide.
Scurvy: Bleeding Gums and Muscle Pains
Scurvy is a medical condition that can cause red dots on the skin, but it typically presents with bleeding gums and muscle pains. The condition is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C, which is required for the synthesis of collagen in the body. Treatment for scurvy involves vitamin C replacement.
Post-Infective Lactose Intolerance: Bloating and Abdominal Discomfort
Post-infective lactose intolerance is a medical condition that typically presents after gastrointestinal infections. It can cause bloating, belching, and abdominal discomfort, as well as loose stool. However, the history of skin changes and forgetfulness would point more towards pellagra.
Depression: Not Related to Skin Changes or Diarrhoea/Vomiting
Depression is a medical condition that can cause a range of symptoms, including low mood, loss of interest, and fatigue. However, it is not related to skin changes or diarrhoea/vomiting.
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE): Painful Swollen Joints and Red ‘Butterfly’ Rash
SLE is a medical condition that typically presents with painful swollen joints and a red ‘butterfly’ rash over the face. Other common symptoms include fever, mouth ulcers, and fatigue.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 162
Incorrect
-
You are summoned to an emergency on the orthopaedic ward where a 75-year-old male has been discovered unconscious by nursing staff. He has recently undergone surgery for a fractured hip.
Upon examination, he is tachycardic with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. His oxygen saturation was 90% on air, and the nursing staff have administered oxygen at 15 litres/minute. His respiratory rate is 5 breaths per minute, and his chest is clear. The abdomen is soft, and his Glasgow coma scale is 10/15. Pupils are equal, small, and unreactive, and he has flaccid limbs bilaterally.
What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent review of the drug chart
Explanation:Managing Opioid Toxicity in Post-Surgical Patients
When a patient exhibits symptoms of opioid toxicity, such as reduced consciousness, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils, it is important to review their treatment chart to confirm if they have received opiate analgesia following recent surgery. If confirmed, the patient should be prescribed naloxone to reverse the effects of the opioid and may require ventilatory support.
Opioid toxicity can be a serious complication in post-surgical patients, and prompt management is crucial to prevent further harm. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for signs of opioid toxicity and to have a plan in place for managing it if it occurs. By being vigilant and prepared, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 163
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old male patient complains of a bulge in his left groin area. Upon examination, the lump is soft and exhibits a positive cough impulse. However, it can be managed by applying pressure over the midpoint of the inguinal ligament after reduction. What is the probable origin of this lump?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deep inguinal ring
Explanation:Inguinal Hernias
An inguinal hernia occurs when part of the intestine or other viscera protrudes through a normal or abnormal opening in the parietal peritoneum. The inguinal canal, which runs obliquely from the internal to the external inguinal ring, is a common site for hernias. In men, it contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in women, it contains the round ligament and ilioinguinal nerve.
The walls of the inguinal canal consist of an anterior wall made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, a posterior wall of peritoneum and transversalis fascia, a floor of in-rolled inguinal ligament, and a roof of arching fibers of the internal oblique and transverse abdominal muscles. Predisposing factors to hernias include obesity, muscle weakness, chronic cough, chronic constipation, and pregnancy.
There are two types of inguinal hernias: direct and indirect. Direct hernias arise from the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, while indirect hernias arise from the abdominal cavity through the deep inguinal ring. Indirect hernias are more common than direct hernias. The course of a direct inguinal hernia is similar to that of the testis in males, while in females, the persistent processus vaginalis forms a small peritoneal pouch called the canal of Nuck.
In conclusion, the anatomy and predisposing factors of inguinal hernias can help in their prevention and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 164
Incorrect
-
According to the Glasgow coma scale (GCS), what does a verbal score of 1 indicate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No response
Explanation:The Glasgow coma scale is a scoring system used to assess the level of consciousness of a patient. It ranges from 3 to 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 being the best. The scale is made up of three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response.
The best eye response is determined by how the patient reacts to visual stimuli, such as opening their eyes spontaneously or in response to a command. The best verbal response is graded on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 being no response and 5 being an oriented patient who can answer questions appropriately. Finally, the best motor response is assessed by observing the patient’s movements, such as their ability to follow commands or move in response to pain.
Overall, the Glasgow coma scale is an important tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness of a patient and determine the severity of their condition. By the different parameters and scores, medical professionals can provide appropriate treatment and care for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 165
Incorrect
-
A 3-day-old baby has not passed meconium yet. Your consultant suspects Hirschsprung's disease and asks for your initial management plan. What would be the best initial treatment for this child until a definite diagnosis is made and more specific treatment can be given?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bowel Irrigation
Explanation:The first step in managing Hirschsprung’s disease is to perform rectal washouts or bowel irrigation. While waiting for a full thickness rectal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis, this treatment can help the baby pass meconium. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the definitive management is an anorectal pull through procedure. It is important to note that anorectal pull through is not the initial treatment but rather the final solution. Lactulose is not appropriate for constipation in children with Hirschsprung’s disease. Rectal biopsy is only used for diagnostic purposes.
Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.
Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.
In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 166
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being found confused by her partner. On direct questioning, she tells you that she has taken an overdose of 56 tablets of 20 mg amitriptyline around 12 hours ago.
On examination, she is alert with Glasgow coma scale 15. The abbreviated mental test score is 8/10. Observations are as follows: respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, pulse 160 beats per minute, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, oxygen sats 98% on air and temperature 37.8 ºC. Examination reveals a regular pulse, heart sounds are normal and the chest is clear. There is hypertonia bilaterally and ophthalmoplegia. Both pupils are dilated.
Na 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 3.3 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 60 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Venous blood gas reveals a pH 7.38. ECG reveals a sinus tachycardia at rate 160 bpm, PRc 160 ms, QRS 170ms.
What initial treatment will you initiate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV sodium bicarbonate
Explanation:Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.
Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 167
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman of Chinese descent is referred to a Respiratory Physician by her General Practitioner due to a productive cough with mucopurulent sputum and occasional blood tinges. She has also been experiencing shortness of breath lately. Her medical history shows that she had a similar episode of shortness of breath and productive cough a year ago, and had multiple bouts of pneumonia during childhood. What is the most reliable test to confirm the probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Bronchiectasis: Understanding Their Uses and Limitations
Bronchiectasis is a respiratory condition that can be challenging to diagnose. While there are several diagnostic tests available, each has its own uses and limitations. Here, we will discuss the most common tests used to diagnose bronchiectasis and their respective roles in clinical practice.
High-Resolution Computed Tomography (HRCT) Chest
HRCT chest is considered the gold-standard imaging test for diagnosing bronchiectasis. It can identify bronchial dilation with or without airway thickening, which are the main findings associated with this condition. However, more specific findings may also point to the underlying cause of bronchiectasis.Chest X-Ray
A chest X-ray is often the first imaging test ordered for patients with respiratory symptoms. While it can suggest a diagnosis of bronchiectasis, it is not the gold-standard diagnostic test.Autoimmune Panel
Autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, Sjögren syndrome, and inflammatory bowel disease can cause systemic inflammation in the lungs that underlies the pathology of bronchiectasis. While an autoimmune panel may be conducted if bronchiectasis is suspected, it is not very sensitive for this condition and is not the gold standard.Bronchoscopy
Bronchoscopy may be used in certain cases of bronchiectasis, particularly when there is localized bronchiectasis due to an obstruction. It can help identify the site of the obstruction and its potential cause, such as foreign-body aspiration or luminal-airway tumor.Pulse Oximetry
Pulse oximetry is a useful tool for assessing the severity of respiratory or cardiac disease. However, it is not specific for any particular underlying pathology and is unlikely to help make a diagnosis. It is primarily used to guide clinical management.In conclusion, while there are several diagnostic tests available for bronchiectasis, each has its own uses and limitations. HRCT chest is the gold-standard test, while other tests may be used to support a diagnosis or identify potential underlying causes. Understanding the role of each test can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 168
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner due to experiencing epigastric pain. The pain occurs approximately 3 hours after eating a meal. Despite using both histamine 2 receptor blockers and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), he has only experienced moderate relief and tests negative on a urease breath test. An endoscopy is performed, revealing multiple duodenal ulcers. The patient's gastrin level is tested and found to be above normal. A computed tomography (CT) scan is ordered, and the patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which hormone typically inhibits gastrin secretion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatostatin
Explanation:Hormones and Enzymes: Their Effects on Gastrin Secretion
Gastrin secretion is regulated by various hormones and enzymes in the body. One such hormone is somatostatin, which inhibits the release of gastrin. In the treatment of gastrinomas, somatostatin analogues like octreotide can be used instead of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs).
Aldosterone, on the other hand, is a steroid hormone that is not related to gastrin and has no effect on its secretion. Similarly, glycogen synthase and hexokinase, which play regulatory roles in carbohydrate metabolism, do not affect gastrin secretion.
Another steroid hormone, progesterone, also does not play a role in the regulation of gastrin secretion. Understanding the effects of hormones and enzymes on gastrin secretion can help in the development of targeted treatments for gastrointestinal disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 169
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very keen to get back to work as he is self-employed.
Following a stroke, what is the minimum time that patients are advised not to drive a car for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:Driving Restrictions After Stroke or TIA
After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, it is important to be aware of the driving restrictions set by the DVLA. For at least 4 weeks, patients should not drive a car or motorbike. If the patient drives a lorry or bus, they must not drive for 1 year and must notify the DVLA. After 1 month of satisfactory clinical recovery, drivers of cars may resume driving, but lorry and bus drivers must wait for 1 year before relicensing may be considered. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required. Following stroke or single TIA, a person may not drive a car for 2 weeks, but can resume driving after 1 month if there has been a satisfactory recovery. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure safe driving and prevent further health complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 170
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old man is prescribed haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, for an acute psychotic episode. He had previously been on olanzapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, but discontinued it due to adverse reactions. What adverse effect is he more prone to encounter with this new medication in comparison to olanzapine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Torticollis
Explanation:Antipsychotic medications can cause acute dystonic reactions, which are more frequently seen with first-generation antipsychotics like haloperidol. These reactions may include dysarthria, torticollis, opisthotonus, and oculogyric crises. Atypical antipsychotics are more likely to cause diabetes mellitus and dyslipidemia, while neither typical nor atypical antipsychotics are commonly associated with osteoporosis.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 171
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman presents with acne vulgaris. On examination there are mixed comedones and pustules. She has three slight acne scars to her left cheek. The lesions are multiple and prominent but do not extend beyond the face. She has not tried any medications for the acne to date and is requesting your advice on treatment. You note that she last attended for an emergency contraception prescription, which was in the last 6 weeks. She does not use any regular contraception and does not want to commence contraception as she indicates she is no longer sexually active. She says that she does not feel overly self-conscious about her acne but wants something to help improve the appearance of the spots.
Which treatment plan is most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical application of clindamycin and benzoyl peroxide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acne Vulgaris: A Comprehensive Guide
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects many individuals, particularly during adolescence. It is characterized by blocked hair follicles and sebaceous glands, resulting in inflammatory and non-inflammatory lesions on the face, back, and chest. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, with the latter causing scarring and significant distress to the patient.
There are several treatment options available for acne vulgaris, depending on the severity of the condition. For mild to moderate acne, topical benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed as monotherapy. However, for moderate acne with a risk of scarring, a combination therapy of a topical antibiotic and benzoyl peroxide, such as clindamycin aqueous solution, is recommended.
In cases of extensive acne on the back or shoulders, or if there is a significant risk of scarring or skin pigmentation, an oral antibiotic may be considered for an 8-week period. However, it is important to note that oral antibiotics should be used judiciously to avoid the development of antibiotic resistance.
For severe acne or acne causing severe distress to the patient, referral to a dermatologist for treatment with isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin is a retinoid that is used for systemic treatment of severe acne. However, it should only be given to women on contraception as it is teratogenic.
In conclusion, the treatment of acne vulgaris requires a tailored approach based on the severity of the condition and the risk of scarring or other complications. A combination of topical and oral therapies, as well as referral to a dermatologist when necessary, can help to effectively manage this chronic skin condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 172
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old primigravida at 37 weeks presents to the antenatal unit with complaints of right-sided abdominal pain and vomiting. She denies any abnormal discharge and reports normal fetal movements. Her blood pressure is 148/97 mmHg and her blood results show Hb of 93 g/l, platelets of 89 * 109/l, WBC of 9.0 * 109/l, urate of 0.49 mmol/l, bilirubin of 32 µmol/l, ALP of 203 u/l, ALT of 190 u/l, and AST of 233 u/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is HELLP syndrome, which is a severe form of pre-eclampsia characterized by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. While hypertension, vomiting, and abdominal pain can support the diagnosis, they are not mandatory. The abdominal pain may indicate liver inflammation and stretching of the liver capsule.
Intense pruritus is the primary symptom of obstetric cholestasis, and a rise in serum bile acids is the most sensitive marker. Acute fatty liver is another severe condition associated with pre-eclampsia, which causes higher elevations in liver enzymes and deep jaundice. Hyperuricaemia can be a useful marker of pre-eclampsia and does not necessarily indicate gout. Urate levels increase due to reduced kidney function and clearance. Hyperemesis gravidarum is unlikely to present for the first time this late in pregnancy and should be a diagnosis of exclusion.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 173
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman presents with increasing bloating and mild lower abdominal pain that started 3 hours ago. On examination, there is abdominal tenderness and ascites, but no guarding. She denies any vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs include a heart rate of 98/minute, a blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 22/minute. The patient is currently undergoing IVF treatment and had her final hCG injection 5 days ago. She has been having regular, unprotected sex during treatment. A pregnancy test confirms she is pregnant. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a gynecological issue, possibly ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, which can occur as a side-effect of ovulation induction. The presence of ascites, low blood pressure, and tachycardia indicate fluid loss into the abdomen, but the absence of peritonitis suggests it is not a catastrophic hemorrhage. The recent hCG injection increases the likelihood of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, which is more common with IVF and injectable treatments than with oral fertility agents like clomiphene. Ovarian cyst rupture, ovarian torsion, red degeneration, and ruptured ectopic pregnancy are unlikely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.
Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 174
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department with a complaint of her 'waters breaking'. She reports experiencing a sudden release of clear fluid from her vagina, which has now reduced to a trickle, and she feels some pressure in her pelvis. What is the most suitable test to conduct next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Speculum examination
Explanation:The initial investigation for preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes is a thorough speculum examination to check for the accumulation of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. It is recommended to avoid bimanual examination to minimize the risk of infection. While cardiotocography can be used to assess foetal wellbeing, it is not the preferred first-line investigation. Foetal blood sampling is not the recommended initial investigation due to the potential risks of infection and miscarriage.
Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.
The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 175
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old pregnant woman (38+2, G1 P0) presents to the labour ward with vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. She reports a small amount of vaginal bleeding and has no significant medical history. However, she is a smoker and consumes 10 cigarettes per day. On examination, her abdomen is tender and tense, and cardiotocography reveals late decelerations. Her vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, oxygen saturation 98%, heart rate 125 beats/min, blood pressure 89/56 mmHg, and temperature 35.9 ºC. What is the initial management for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Category 1 caesarean section
Explanation:A category 1 caesarean section is necessary in cases of suspected uterine rupture, major placental abruption, cord prolapse, fetal hypoxia, or persistent fetal bradycardia. In this scenario, the most likely diagnosis is a major placental abruption due to intense abdominal pain and haemodynamic shock. Guidelines recommend a category 1 caesarean section if the foetus is alive and >36 weeks with foetal distress, as indicated by late decelerations on cardiotocography. This is because the presentation of placental abruption, haemodynamic shock, and late decelerations poses an immediate threat to the lives of both the mother and baby. Administering corticosteroids and observation is not applicable in this scenario, as the foetus is >36 weeks and foetal distress is present. Category 2 and 4 caesarean sections are also inappropriate, as they are not immediately life-threatening and are elective, respectively.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 176
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy is discovered following a street brawl with a stab wound on the left side of his chest to the 5th intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. He has muffled heart sounds, distended neck veins, and a systolic blood pressure of 70 mmHg. What is the most accurate description of his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beck’s triad
Explanation:Medical Triads and Laws
There are several medical triads and laws that are used to diagnose certain conditions. One of these is Beck’s triad, which consists of muffled or distant heart sounds, low systolic blood pressure, and distended neck veins. This triad is associated with cardiac tamponade.
Another law is Courvoisier’s law, which states that if a patient has a palpable gallbladder that is non-tender and is associated with painless jaundice, the cause is unlikely to be gallstones.
Meigs syndrome is a triad of ascites, pleural effusion, and a benign ovarian tumor.
Cushing’s syndrome is a set of signs and symptoms that occur due to prolonged use of corticosteroids, including hypertension and central obesity. However, this is not relevant to the patient in the question as there is no information about steroid use and the blood pressure is low.
Finally, Charcot’s triad is used in ascending cholangitis and consists of right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and fever.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 177
Incorrect
-
You are called to the Emergency Department to help treat an intoxicated teenager who has sustained a laceration on his cheek. It is decided that suturing is necessary.
What diameter of suture material would be most suited to this task?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5/0
Explanation:Suture Sizes for Different Body Parts
When it comes to suturing wounds, choosing the right size of suture is crucial for proper healing and minimizing scarring. Here are some common suture sizes and the body parts they are typically used on:
– 5/0: This is the usual choice for suturing lesions on the face.
– 6/0: This size is reserved for lesions around the eyes.
– 4/0: Used for suturing wounds on the neck, hand, or fingers.
– 3/0: Typically used for wounds on the lower limbs.
– 2/0: Used for larger wounds on the lower limbs.By selecting the appropriate suture size for each body part, healthcare professionals can help ensure optimal healing and cosmetic outcomes for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
-
-
Question 178
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis over the last 2 days. He has had a productive cough for 7 years, which has gradually worsened. Over the last few winters, he has been particularly bad and required admission to hospital. Past medical history includes pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) at age 20. On examination, he is cyanotic and clubbed, and has florid crepitations in both lower zones.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Bronchiectasis vs. Asthma vs. Pulmonary Fibrosis vs. COPD vs. Lung Cancer
Bronchiectasis is the most probable diagnosis for a patient who presents with copious sputum production, recurrent chest infections, haemoptysis, clubbing, cyanosis, and florid crepitations at both bases that change with coughing. This condition is often exacerbated by a previous history of tuberculosis.
Asthma, on the other hand, is characterized by reversible obstruction of airways due to bronchial muscle contraction in response to various stimuli. The absence of wheezing, the patient’s age, and the presence of haemoptysis make asthma an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Pulmonary fibrosis involves parenchymal fibrosis and interstitial remodelling, leading to shortness of breath and a non-productive cough. Patients with pulmonary fibrosis may develop clubbing, basal crepitations, and a dry cough, but the acute presentation and haemoptysis in this case would not be explained.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive disorder characterized by airway obstruction, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema. However, the absence of wheezing, smoking history, and acute new haemoptysis make COPD a less likely diagnosis.
Lung cancer is a possibility given the haemoptysis and clubbing, but the long history of productive cough, florid crepitations, and previous history of TB make bronchiectasis a more likely diagnosis. Overall, a thorough evaluation of symptoms and medical history is necessary to accurately diagnose respiratory conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 179
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an appointment for her first scan at 12+4 weeks’ gestation. She wants to know what the appointment will involve.
Regarding the 11–13 week appointment, which of the following is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can also include the ‘combined test’
Explanation:Understanding Down Syndrome Screening Tests
Down syndrome screening tests are important for pregnant women to determine the likelihood of their baby having the condition. One of the most common tests is the combined test, which is performed between 11+0 and 13+6 weeks’ gestation. This test involves a blood test and an ultrasound scan to measure serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and β-hCG, as well as nuchal translucency. The results are combined to give an individual risk of having a baby with Down syndrome.
If a woman misses the window for the combined test, she can opt for the quadruple test, which is performed between weeks 15 and 16 of gestation. This test measures four serum markers: inhibin, aFP, unconjugated oestriol, and total serum hCG. Low aFP and unconjugated oestriol, as well as raised inhibin and hCG, are associated with Down syndrome.
It is important to note that these tests are not diagnostic, but rather provide a risk assessment. Women who are classified as high risk may opt for a diagnostic test, such as amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling, to confirm the presence of an extra chromosome. All pregnant women in the UK should be offered Down syndrome screening and given the opportunity to make an informed decision about participating in the test.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 180
Incorrect
-
An 8-year-old is referred to paediatric clinic by a GP due to concerns about an incidental murmur. The child is healthy and shows no symptoms. Upon examination, the paediatrician diagnoses a benign ejection systolic murmur. What is a characteristic of this type of murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varies with posture
Explanation:A postural variation is observed in a benign ejection systolic murmur. Conversely, all other characteristics are indicative of pathological murmurs. The presence of even mild symptoms is concerning, as it suggests that the murmur is not benign.
Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.
An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.
Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 181
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman comes to the General Practice complaining of lethargy and fatigue. She had undergone abdominal surgery for ulcerative colitis and was discharged from the hospital recently. She is waiting for the reversal of a stoma and has been experiencing profuse diarrhoea and high output from the stoma. Her routine blood tests are normal, except for a significantly low magnesium level. What is the best course of action to correct her magnesium levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) magnesium sulfate
Explanation:Management of Magnesium Deficiency in a Patient with High Stoma Output and Diarrhoea
Magnesium deficiency is a common problem in patients with high stoma output and diarrhoea. The most appropriate management for correcting magnesium levels in such patients is intravenous (IV) magnesium sulfate. While an intramuscular injection is also an option, it can be painful. Once magnesium levels are corrected, it is important to involve the Colorectal Team to discuss management of the stoma and prevent further recurrence.
While loperamide can improve diarrhoea and stoma output, it is not the best answer for correcting magnesium levels. Oral magnesium aspartate and oral magnesium sulfate are not well absorbed and can worsen diarrhoea. Oral magnesium glycerophosphate can prevent recurrence of magnesium deficiency after correction via IV or intramuscular routes, but IV correction is preferred in symptomatic patients with significantly low magnesium levels and increased losses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
-
-
Question 182
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with confusion and involuntary leg muscle jerks. He is too agitated to provide his medical history. Upon examination, his heart rate is 150/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 147/92 mmHg, and temperature 37.9 ºC. He appears sweaty, clammy, and has a resting tremor. Cardiovascular examination is normal, and a neurological examination reveals hyperreflexia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 183
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for a sexual health screening. He complains of a painful and red sore that appeared on the shaft of his penis a few days ago. He reports that his wife, his only regular sexual partner, has not experienced any symptoms. Upon further questioning, he mentions feeling tired and run down after a stressful situation at work, which led to the development of painful mouth ulcers on his gums and lip. He has no significant medical history except for a few instances of painful and gunky eyes that he treated at home. On examination, the physician observes two small, healing ulcers in the patient's mouth and an oval sore with an erythematosus border. The patient also has a 0.5 cm lesion on his penile shaft that appears erythematosus but has no discharge. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behcet's disease
Explanation:Behcet’s disease is an autoimmune condition that affects small blood vessels, causing inflammation. It is classified as a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, which occurs when immune complexes deposit in small vessels. The most common symptoms of Behcet’s disease are recurrent oral and genital ulcers, anterior uveitis, and skin lesions. This condition is more prevalent in people of East Mediterranean descent and can be triggered by infections such as parvovirus or herpes simplex virus.
In contrast, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted infection that typically causes symptoms such as dysuria, frequency, and changes in discharge. It does not typically present with ulcers. Syphilis, on the other hand, is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Treponema pallidum. Primary syphilis is characterized by a solitary, small, painless genital chancre that heals within a few weeks. It is not associated with eye symptoms. Guttate psoriasis, another condition, presents with numerous small, scaly papules that are pink or red and occur all over the body.
Behcet’s syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the arteries and veins due to an autoimmune response, although the exact cause is not yet fully understood. The condition is more common in the eastern Mediterranean, particularly in Turkey, and tends to affect young adults between the ages of 20 and 40. Men are more commonly affected than women, although this varies depending on the country. Behcet’s syndrome is associated with a positive family history in around 30% of cases and is linked to the HLA B51 antigen.
The classic symptoms of Behcet’s syndrome include oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. Other features of the condition may include thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, gastrointestinal problems like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis, and erythema nodosum. Diagnosis of Behcet’s syndrome is based on clinical findings, as there is no definitive test for the condition. A positive pathergy test, where a small pustule forms at the site of a needle prick, can be suggestive of the condition. HLA B51 is also a split antigen that is associated with Behcet’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 184
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. She missed her last menstrual period and had unprotected sexual intercourse 8 weeks ago. She denies any vaginal discharge or bleeding and has no urinary symptoms. On examination, her abdomen is soft with mild suprapubic tenderness. Her vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and blood pressure of 118/78 mmHg. A pregnancy test is performed and comes back positive. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next appropriate step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange immediate referral to the early pregnancy assessment unit
Explanation:Women with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be referred for immediate assessment to exclude ectopic pregnancy, which could be fatal. Referral should be made even if an ultrasound cannot be arranged immediately, as the patient may require monitoring in hospital before their scan. Serial hCG measurements should not be done in secondary care, and referral to a sexual health clinic alone is not appropriate.
Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management
Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.
To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.
A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.
In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 185
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness of breath. She is struggling to speak in full sentences and her peak expiratory flow rate is 320 l/min (45% of normal). Her oxygen saturation levels are at 92%. Her pCO2 is 4.8 kPa.
What is the most concerning finding from the above information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pCO2 (kPa)
Explanation:Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.
For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 186
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of severe pain in his left testicle. The pain started about an hour ago and he rates it as 10/10. He has experienced this pain three times before, but he has never sought medical attention as it usually goes away within an hour. Upon examination, there is swelling and redness of the scrotum.
After being admitted, the pain and swelling begin to subside.
What treatment should be administered in this case based on his presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency surgical fixation
Explanation:In cases of intermittent testicular torsion, prophylactic fixing should be considered. This is especially important for a boy who has experienced repeated episodes of acute testicular pain. Emergency surgical fixation is the most appropriate treatment, as the patient is at high risk of immediate retorsion. Elective surgical fixation is not quick enough for this patient’s presentation. Orchiectomy is only considered in cases where surgery finds dead tissue or the torsion has lasted for more than 24 hours. Co-amoxiclav is not indicated as there is no indication of infection. No treatment is not an option, as prophylactic fixing is necessary even after detorsion.
Testicular Torsion: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Testicular torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to testicular ischaemia and necrosis. This condition is most common in males aged between 10 and 30, with a peak incidence between 13 and 15 years. The symptoms of testicular torsion are sudden and severe pain, which may be referred to the lower abdomen. Nausea and vomiting may also be present. On examination, the affected testis is usually swollen, tender, and retracted upwards, with reddened skin. The cremasteric reflex is lost, and elevation of the testis does not ease the pain (Prehn’s sign).
The treatment for testicular torsion is urgent surgical exploration. If a torted testis is identified, both testes should be fixed, as the condition of bell clapper testis is often bilateral.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 187
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack in the past 2 years. He admits to intermittent dark red blood loss per rectum (PR) and diarrhoea. He generally has a poor diet and dislikes fruit and vegetables. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.2 °C and a tachycardia of 95 bpm, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg; his body mass index is 32. There is well-localised left iliac fossa tenderness.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 14.5 × 109/l (N 11.0) 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 10.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 145 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 64 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Differentiating Diverticulitis from Other Colonic Conditions in Older Adults
Diverticulitis is a common condition in older adults, characterized by recurrent attacks of lower abdominal pain, fever, and tenderness in the left lower quadrant. It is associated with increasing age and a diet poor in soluble fiber. Left-sided involvement is more common due to increased intraluminal pressures. Management is usually conservative with antibiotics, but surgery may be necessary in 15-25% of cases. Complications include bowel obstruction, perforation, fistula formation, and abscess formation.
Colonic cancer, on the other hand, presents with insidious symptoms such as loss of appetite, weight loss, and rectal bleeding, especially if left-sided. Late presentations may cause bowel obstruction or disseminated disease. Inflammatory bowel disease is less common in older adults and would present differently. Irritable bowel syndrome does not cause periodic fevers and has a different pattern of pain. Gastroenteritis is usually viral and self-limiting, unlike diverticulitis. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
-
-
Question 188
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man has been referred through the 2 week-wait colorectal cancer referral scheme due to a change in bowel habit. He reports experiencing tenesmus, weight loss, and a change in bowel habit for the past 3 months. A colonoscopy has been scheduled for him. What advice should be given to prepare him for the procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laxatives required the day before the examination
Explanation:Bowel prep is necessary for a colonoscopy.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 189
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one ear that has persisted for the last 3 months. Upon examination, Weber's test indicates localization to the opposite side, and a CT scan of his head reveals a thickened calvarium with areas of sclerosis and radiolucency. His blood work shows an increased alkaline phosphatase level, normal serum calcium, and normal PTH levels. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paget's disease with skull involvement
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for an old man experiencing bone pain and raised ALP is Paget’s disease, as it often presents with skull vault expansion and sensorineural hearing loss. While multiple myeloma may also cause bone pain, it typically results in multiple areas of radiolucency and raised calcium levels. Although osteopetrosis can cause similar symptoms, it is a rare inherited disorder that usually presents in children or young adults, making it an unlikely diagnosis for an older patient without prior symptoms.
Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 190
Incorrect
-
What do muscarinic receptors refer to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholinergic receptors
Explanation:Muscarinic Receptors: A Subclass of Cholinergic Receptors
Muscarinic receptors are a type of cholinergic receptors that are responsible for a variety of functions in the body. They are divided into five subclasses based on their location, namely M1-5. M1, M4, and M5 are found in the central nervous system and are involved in complex functions such as memory, analgesia, and arousal. M2 is located on cardiac muscle and helps reduce conduction velocity at the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes, thereby lowering heart rate. M3, on the other hand, is found on smooth muscle, including bronchial tissue, bladder, and exocrine glands, and is responsible for a variety of responses.
It is important to note that muscarinic receptors are a subclass of cholinergic receptors, with the other subclass being nicotinic receptors. Adrenergic receptors, on the other hand, bind to adrenaline, while dopaminergic receptors bind to dopamine. Glutamatergic receptors bind to glutamate, and histamine receptors bind to histamine. the different types of receptors and their functions is crucial in the development of drugs and treatments for various medical conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 191
Incorrect
-
An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia, following an uneventful pregnancy and delivery. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that the child has congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
What is a characteristic of 21-hydroxylase deficiency-related congenital adrenal hyperplasia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenocortical insufficiency
Explanation:Understanding the Effects of 21-Hydroxylase Deficiency on Health Conditions
21-hydroxylase deficiency is a medical condition that affects the adrenal glands, resulting in decreased cortisol synthesis and commonly reducing aldosterone synthesis. This condition can lead to adrenal insufficiency, causing salt wasting and hypoglycemia, which may present as symptoms of type II diabetes mellitus. However, it is not associated with diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by low ADH levels.
While 21-hydroxylase deficiency is associated with elevated androgens, it is not a feature of hypogonadism. Instead, patients with this condition may experience stunted growth and may be treated with gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Acromegaly, on the other hand, is not typically associated with 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
Overall, understanding the effects of 21-hydroxylase deficiency on various health conditions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for affected individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 192
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old primigravida female comes in for a 36-week ultrasound scan and it is found that her baby is in the breech position. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer external cephalic version if still breech at 36 weeks
Explanation:If the foetus is in a breech position at 36 weeks, it is recommended to undergo external cephalic version. However, before 36 weeks, the foetus may naturally move into the correct position, making the procedure unnecessary. It is not necessary to schedule a Caesarean section immediately, but if ECV is unsuccessful, a decision must be made regarding the risks of a vaginal delivery with a breech presentation or a Caesarean section.
Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 193
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man presents with a swelling under the left jaw that comes and goes but leaves a dull ache behind. The problem has been present for around 2 weeks and is getting worse. The pain is most noticeable at mealtimes. In the last day, the swelling has become fixed and he reports an unpleasant taste in his mouth. He smokes five cigarettes a day and drinks ten units of alcohol a week, usually on a Saturday night. On examination, there is a smooth, tender swelling in the superior part of the left anterior triangle and, on inspection of the oral cavity, there is poor dentition and pus present just behind the lower incisors.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Submandibular gland infection
Explanation:Submandibular Gland Infection: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A submandibular gland infection is often caused by the presence of a stone in the left submandibular duct, which can lead to a secondary infection due to the stasis of gland secretions. Stones are more common in the submandibular gland due to the length and tortuosity of the duct. Symptoms include a smooth, tender swelling, pain worse at mealtimes, and pus behind the lower incisors. Management involves antibiotics to treat the infection and referral to an ENT or oral surgeon for stone removal, which can usually be done under local anesthesia. In some cases, excision of the entire submandibular gland may be necessary. It is important to note that the presence of bacterial infection indicates an ongoing issue beyond just the stone. Other conditions, such as gingivostomatitis and dental abscess, can cause similar symptoms but have different underlying causes. Mumps, on the other hand, can cause swelling of the parotid gland, not the submandibular gland.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 194
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy visits his family doctor complaining of a limp that has been bothering him for the past 48 hours. He mentions having a runny nose and cough for a few days, but he feels better today. He reports pain in his left hip.
During the examination, the boy seems to be in good spirits and can bear weight with an antalgic gait.
His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and his heart rate is 90 beats per minute. His respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and his temperature is 38.5ºC.
What is the most appropriate course of action based on this information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently for same-day assessment
Explanation:The option to reassure and provide safety netting advice is not appropriate for a child with an acutely irritable hip and fever >38.5ºC, as septic arthritis is a possible diagnosis that requires urgent assessment, including synovial aspiration. Although transient tenosynovitis is the most likely diagnosis, the presence of fever warrants further investigation to rule out septic arthritis. The recommendation of a Pavlik harness and orthopaedic review is not applicable unless developmental dysplasia of the hip is confirmed. Rest and over-the-counter analgesia are not sufficient management for this patient, as urgent referral for same-day assessment is necessary to exclude septic arthritis.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 195
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man is scheduled for a cystoscopy for symptoms of nocturia and urinary frequency with poor stream (terminal dribbling). On examination, on the day of surgery, you notice he has an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids and he describes getting very breathless on stairs.
How would you proceed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Defer surgery until he is seen by Cardiology and an echocardiography report is available
Explanation:Preoperative Management of Patients with Aortic Stenosis
Explanation:
Patients with aortic stenosis require careful preoperative management to minimize the risk of cardiac complications during non-cardiac surgery. Before proceeding with any elective procedure, it is essential to evaluate the severity of the stenosis and the functional status of the heart. This can be done through an echocardiogram and a cardiology opinion.
If the patient is symptomatic, such as having shortness of breath on exertion or an ejection systolic murmur on auscultation, it is not advisable to proceed with the operation until an up-to-date echocardiogram has been performed and a cardiology opinion offered. Severe stenosis can become a problem in situations of stress, such as exercise or intraoperatively, where the heart cannot increase the cardiac output to meet the increased demands. This puts patients with aortic stenosis at a high risk of cardiac complications during non-cardiac surgery.
There is no evidence to suggest antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis in patients with valvular disease undergoing surgery. Aortic or mitral stenosis are relative contraindications to spinal anesthesia, and other relative contraindications include neurological disease and systemic sepsis. Absolute contraindications to spinal anesthesia include localized sepsis at the site where a spinal anesthetic would be sited, anticoagulated patient, and patient refusal.
In conclusion, preoperative management of patients with aortic stenosis requires careful evaluation of the severity of the stenosis and the functional status of the heart. It is essential to postpone the operation until an echocardiogram has been performed to assess the severity of the stenosis and the functional status of the heart. The patient will need to be reviewed/discussed with Cardiology once the echocardiography results become available to advise on the safety of the operation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 196
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of recurrent bloody diarrhoea and symptoms of iritis. On examination, there is a painful nodular erythematosus eruption on the shin and anal tags are observed. What diagnostic test would you recommend to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Inflammatory Bowel Disease with Crohn’s Disease Suggestion
The patient’s symptoms and physical examination suggest inflammatory bowel disease, with anal skin tags indicating a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. Other symptoms consistent with this diagnosis include iritis and a skin rash that may be erythema nodosum. To confirm the diagnosis, a colonoscopy with biopsies would be the initial investigation. While serum ACE levels can aid in diagnosis, they are often elevated in conditions other than sarcoidosis.
Overall, the patient’s symptoms and physical examination point towards inflammatory bowel disease, with Crohn’s disease as a possible subtype. Further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 197
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old girl is under your review for idiopathic constipation treatment with Movicol Paediatric Plain. Despite her mother increasing the dose, there has been no improvement. The child is in good health and abdominal examination is unremarkable. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add senna
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.
If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.
In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 198
Incorrect
-
During a routine examination of a woman who is 35 weeks pregnant, she reports feeling short of breath. Which of the following cardiac examination findings would require further evaluation and not be considered normal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema
Explanation:Physiological Changes During Pregnancy
The human body undergoes significant physiological changes during pregnancy. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume by 30%, heart rate by 15%, and cardiac output by 40%. However, systolic blood pressure remains unchanged, while diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters, returning to non-pregnant levels by term. The enlarged uterus may interfere with venous return, leading to ankle edema, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.
The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation by 40%, with tidal volume increasing from 500 to 700 ml due to the effect of progesterone on the respiratory center. Oxygen requirements increase by only 20%, leading to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2, which can cause a sense of dyspnea accentuated by the elevation of the diaphragm. The basal metabolic rate increases by 15%, possibly due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones, making warm conditions uncomfortable for women.
The maternal blood volume increases by 30%, mostly in the second half of pregnancy. Red blood cells increase by 20%, but plasma increases by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin. There is a low-grade increase in coagulant activity, with a rise in fibrinogen and Factors VII, VIII, X. Fibrinolytic activity decreases, returning to normal after delivery, possibly due to placental suppression. This prepares the mother for placental delivery but increases the risk of thromboembolism. Platelet count falls, while white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.
The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow by 30%, with glomerular filtration rate increasing by 30-60%. Salt and water reabsorption increase due to elevated sex steroid levels, leading to increased urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria is common due to the increased GFR and reduction in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose.
Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, especially during the third trimester and lactation. Calcium is transported actively across the placenta, while serum levels of calcium and phosphate fall with a fall in protein. Ionized levels of calcium remain stable, and gut absorption of calcium increases substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D.
The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase by 50%,
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 199
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia. In theatre, the hernial sac is noted to lie medial to the inferior epigastric artery.
To weakness of which of the following structures can the hernia best be attributed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon
Explanation:Types of Abdominal Hernias and Their Characteristics
Abdominal hernias occur when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak point in the abdominal wall. There are different types of abdominal hernias, each with its own characteristics and symptoms.
Direct Inguinal Hernia
A direct inguinal hernia occurs medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac is pushed directly through a weak point in the conjoint tendon, which is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. This type of hernia is more common in men and worsens with exercise, coughing, or straining.
Aponeurosis of External Oblique
In a direct inguinal hernia, the bowel sac does not push through the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle.
Muscular Fibres of Internal Oblique
A ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the anterior abdominal muscles, such as the internal oblique. It can be incisional or occur at any site of muscle weakening. Epigastric hernias occur above the umbilicus, and hypogastric hernias occur below the umbilicus.
Muscular Fibres of Transversus Abdominis
Another type of ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the transversus abdominis. It becomes more prominent when the patient is sitting, leaning forward, or straining. Ventral hernias can be congenital, post-operative, or spontaneous.
Superficial Inguinal Ring
An indirect inguinal hernia is the most common type of abdominal hernia. It occurs in men and children and arises lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac protrudes through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal and then through the superficial inguinal ring, extending into the scrotum. It may be asymptomatic but can also undergo incarceration or strangulation or lead to bowel obstruction.
Understanding the Different Types of Abdominal Hernias
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
-
-
Question 200
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone and is later diagnosed with Down's syndrome. Which of the following features is the least probable in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rocker-bottom feet
Explanation:Understanding the features of Down’s syndrome is crucial for clinical practice and final examinations. The correct answer to this question is option 4. While rocker-bottom feet are a characteristic of trisomy 18 or Edward’s syndrome, they are not typically observed in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)