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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner after experiencing buzzing sounds in...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner after experiencing buzzing sounds in both ears intermittently over the past two weeks. He claims that this occurs suddenly, lasts for a few seconds and is not associated with his pulse. He reports no change in his hearing or other symptoms. Ear and cranial nerve examinations are unremarkable.
      Which of the following investigations are necessary?

      Your Answer: Audiogram

      Explanation:

      Investigating Tinnitus: Guidelines and Recommendations

      Tinnitus, the perception of sounds in the ears or head that do not come from an outside source, affects around 1 in 10 people at some point in their life. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom of ringing in the ears, it can be distressing and may indicate a serious underlying condition. Here are some guidelines and recommendations for investigating tinnitus:

      Audiological Assessment: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that all patients with tinnitus should be offered an audiological assessment.

      Psychoacoustic Testing: Acoustic reflex testing and psychoacoustic testing are not recommended as part of the investigation of tinnitus.

      Imaging: Imaging should not be offered to people with symmetrical non-pulsatile tinnitus with no associated neurological, audiological, otological or head-and-neck signs and symptoms. If they are unable to have this, a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the internal auditory meatus should be offered. An MR scan of the internal auditory meatus should only be offered to people with unilateral or asymmetrical non-pulsatile tinnitus, or non-pulsatile tinnitus with associated neurological, otological or head-and-neck signs and symptoms.

      Otoacoustic Emissions: Otoacoustic emission testing should only be considered if there are other indicative symptoms and signs. All patients with tinnitus should be offered an audiological assessment.

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  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old factory worker undergoes a routine hearing assessment as part of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old factory worker undergoes a routine hearing assessment as part of his annual work-based medical. He is noted to have a positive Rinne’s test (normal) and Weber’s test localising to the left ear.
      What is the most likely defect in this patient?

      Your Answer: Left conductive hearing loss

      Correct Answer: Right sensorineural hearing loss

      Explanation:

      For a man with a positive Rinne’s test and sound localization to the left ear on Weber’s testing, the diagnosis is likely to be right-sided sensorineural hearing loss. If the Rinne’s test had been negative, it would have indicated left-sided conductive hearing loss. Similarly, if the sound had been localized to the right ear, it would have suggested left-sided sensorineural hearing loss. In the case of bilateral hearing loss, the Rinne’s test would be negative on both sides, and the Weber test would not localize to either ear. Finally, if the man had right-sided conductive hearing loss, the Rinne’s test would be negative on the right side, and the Weber test would localize to the right side.

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  • Question 3 - A previously well 62-year-old bank clerk was seen by her general practitioner (GP),...

    Correct

    • A previously well 62-year-old bank clerk was seen by her general practitioner (GP), complaining of recurrent attacks of dizziness. She complains of recurring attacks of the room spinning around her in a horizontal plane, which is happening on multiple occasions every day. Each attack lasts about 10 seconds and seems to occur whenever she turns in bed, lies down or sits up from the supine position. There are no other associated symptoms. She is taking no medication. Standard neurological examination is normal.
      Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

      Your Answer: Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo (BPPV)

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of recurrent positional vertigo

      Recurrent positional vertigo is a common complaint that can have various underlying causes. One of the most frequent diagnoses is benign positional paroxysmal vertigo (BPPV), which typically affects middle-aged and older women and is triggered by specific head movements. BPPV is diagnosed based on the patient’s history and confirmed with the Hallpike manoeuvre, which elicits characteristic nystagmus. Treatment options include canalith repositioning manoeuvres and vestibular rehabilitation exercises.

      However, other conditions may mimic BPPV or coexist with it, and therefore a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary. Migraine-associated vertigo is a type of vestibular migraine that can cause brief episodes of vertigo without headache, but usually has a longer duration and is not triggered by positional changes. Posterior circulation ischaemia, which affects the brainstem and cerebellum, can also cause vertigo, but typically presents with other neurological symptoms and has a more acute onset. Postural hypotension, which results from a drop in blood pressure upon standing, can cause dizziness and syncope, but is not usually related to head movements. Labyrinthitis, an inflammation of the inner ear, can cause vertigo and hearing loss, but is not typically triggered by positional changes.

      Therefore, a careful history and physical examination, including a neurological assessment, are essential to differentiate between these conditions and guide appropriate management. In some cases, further testing such as imaging or vestibular function tests may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old male with a history of eczema and asthma complains of rhinorrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male with a history of eczema and asthma complains of rhinorrhoea and nasal congestion for the past six months. His asthma is currently well managed and he rarely uses his blue inhaler. He occasionally feels pressure in his sinuses. What is the first-line treatment option available?

      Your Answer: Nasal irrigation with saline solution

      Explanation:

      Chronic rhinosinusitis can be treated with nasal irrigation using saline solution as a first-line option. However, it is unlikely that symptoms will resolve without additional interventions such as smoking cessation, avoidance of allergens, and a 3-month course of a steroid nasal spray like fluticasone or mometasone. It is important to note that optimizing asthma control is also crucial in managing chronic rhinosinusitis, but there is no indication of poorly controlled asthma in this case. It is not recommended to initiate long-term antibiotics without consulting a specialist as there is limited evidence of their effectiveness in treating this condition.

      Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis

      Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 1 in 10 people. It is characterized by inflammation of the paranasal sinuses and nasal passages that lasts for 12 weeks or longer. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy (such as hay fever or asthma), nasal obstruction (such as a deviated septum or nasal polyps), recent local infections (such as rhinitis or dental extractions), swimming or diving, and smoking.

      Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Facial pain is typically felt as pressure in the frontal area and worsens when bending forward. Nasal discharge is usually clear if the condition is caused by allergies or vasomotor issues, but thicker and purulent discharge may indicate a secondary infection. Nasal obstruction can lead to mouth breathing, while post-nasal drip can cause a chronic cough.

      Management of chronic rhinosinusitis involves avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite 3 months of treatment compliance, and epistaxis (nosebleeds). If any of these symptoms occur, it is important to seek medical attention promptly.

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  • Question 5 - A 39-year-old man complains of nasal obstruction and loud snoring. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man complains of nasal obstruction and loud snoring. He reports that these symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past two months. Specifically, he feels that his left nostril is blocked while his right nostril feels normal. He denies any history of nosebleeds and reports feeling generally healthy. Upon examination, a large nasal polyp is observed in the left nostril. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Trial of intranasal steroids

      Correct Answer: Refer to ENT

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to refer him to an ENT for a comprehensive examination as unilateral polyps are a warning sign.

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.

      The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.

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  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man presents following a fall. During an assessment of his fall,...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents following a fall. During an assessment of his fall, he complained of balance problems, nausea and dizziness whenever he looked upwards, eg to change a light bulb. He denies loss of consciousness and did not injure himself during the fall. His past medical history consists of hypertension and high cholesterol.
      On examination, his gait and balance and neurological examination are normal, and there are no injuries. The Hallpike test is positive.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s vertigo?

      Your Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common vestibular disorder that can cause dizziness and vertigo. The Epley manoeuvre is the best first-line management option for BPPV, as it can reposition the debris in the vestibular canals and provide rapid relief. If symptoms persist, investigations may be necessary to rule out more serious brain pathologies, but a brain MRI is not typically required for a BPPV diagnosis.

      Medications such as betahistine or prochlorperazine may provide short-term relief of symptoms, but they do not address the underlying cause of BPPV. Vestibular retraining exercises, such as Brandt-Daroff exercises, can also be effective in reducing symptoms if they persist despite the Epley manoeuvre. Overall, a combination of these management options can help alleviate the symptoms of BPPV and improve quality of life for patients.

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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling on the left side of her neck below the jaw angle that has been bothering her for the past 5 days. She also reports a bad taste in her mouth. During the physical examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.8ºC and a tender submandibular mass measuring 4x5cm. Additionally, there is tender lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral parotitis

      Correct Answer: Sialadenitis

      Explanation:

      This woman is experiencing sialadenitis, which is inflammation of the salivary gland. It is likely caused by a stone blocking the duct. The submandibular gland is located below the jawline and its duct drains into the floor of the mouth. When there is a discharge from this duct, it can cause a bad taste in the mouth. There are three main salivary glands: the parotid glands, which are located in front of and below each ear, the submandibular glands, which are located below the jawline, and the sublingual glands, which are located beneath the tongue. Disorders of these glands can be caused by infection, inflammation, obstruction, or malignancy. Swelling of the submandibular gland can be caused by a stone or a tumor, which can be either benign or malignant.

      Salivary Glands and Their Pathologies

      Salivary glands are responsible for producing saliva, which aids in digestion and protects the mouth from harmful bacteria. There are three pairs of salivary glands: parotid, submandibular, and sublingual. The parotid gland is the most common site for tumors, while the submandibular gland is most commonly affected by stones.

      Tumors in the salivary glands are rare, but when they do occur, 80% of them are found in the parotid gland. Of these, 80% are pleomorphic adenomas, which are benign. These tumors typically grow slowly and are painless, but surgical removal carries a risk of damage to the facial nerve (CN VII). Warthin’s tumor is another benign tumor that affects the salivary glands, but it is less common than pleomorphic adenomas.

      Stones in the salivary glands can cause recurrent pain and swelling, especially when eating. They are most commonly found in the submandibular gland and can lead to infection if left untreated. Other causes of salivary gland enlargement include viral or bacterial infections, as well as autoimmune disorders like Sjogren’s syndrome. Proper diagnosis and treatment are important for managing these conditions and preventing complications.

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  • Question 8 - A 43-year-old male accountant visits the clinic with a persistent hoarseness that has...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old male accountant visits the clinic with a persistent hoarseness that has been bothering him for the past 4 weeks. He reports that this is affecting his work performance. He denies experiencing any sore throat, difficulty swallowing, or cough. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the last 25 years and drinks a glass of beer every day. Apart from this, he is in good health. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: 2-week rule referral to ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      If a patient aged over 45 years old has persistent and unexplained hoarseness, it is recommended by NICE to urgently refer them to an ENT specialist under the 2-week wait rule. This is because they may have laryngeal cancer. While a chest radiograph is important, it is more appropriate to prioritize the referral to ENT if cancer is suspected. It is not appropriate to delay the referral or provide false reassurance. While advice on smoking cessation and alcohol should be given, specialist referral is the most important aspect of management in this situation.

      Understanding Hoarseness and its Causes

      Hoarseness is a condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is voice overuse, which can strain the vocal cords and lead to hoarseness. Smoking is another factor that can contribute to hoarseness, as it can irritate the throat and vocal cords. Viral illnesses, hypothyroidism, and gastro-oesophageal reflux are also known to cause hoarseness. In some cases, hoarseness can be a symptom of laryngeal or lung cancer.

      When investigating patients with hoarseness, it is important to consider a chest x-ray to rule out any apical lung lesions. If laryngeal cancer is suspected, referral guidelines recommend a suspected cancer pathway referral to an ENT specialist for individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. By understanding the causes of hoarseness and seeking appropriate medical attention, individuals can receive the necessary treatment and improve their vocal health.

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  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old man complains of recurrent episodes of vertigo and dizziness. These episodes...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man complains of recurrent episodes of vertigo and dizziness. These episodes are usually triggered by a change in head position and usually last for about 30 seconds. The examination of the cranial nerves and ears shows no abnormalities. His blood pressure is 122/80 mmHg while sitting and 118/76 mmHg while standing. Assuming that the diagnosis is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, what is the most suitable course of action to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Understanding Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms include vertigo triggered by movements such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, and may be accompanied by nausea. Each episode usually lasts between 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through a positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which involves the patient experiencing vertigo and rotatory nystagmus.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and often resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited value. However, it is important to note that around half of people with BPPV will experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

      Overall, understanding BPPV and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.

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  • Question 10 - A 43-year-old male patient presents with a chief complaint of hearing difficulty. During...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old male patient presents with a chief complaint of hearing difficulty. During the examination, you perform Weber's test and find that he hears the sound most loudly in his right ear. On conducting Rinne test, the sound is loudest when the tuning fork is placed in front of the ear canal on the left and loudest when placed on the mastoid process on the right. What type of hearing loss is evident in this case?

      Your Answer: Conductive hearing loss on the right

      Explanation:

      The presence of conductive hearing loss can be identified by conducting Rinne and Weber tests. During the Rinne test, bone conduction will be more audible than air conduction, while the Weber test will indicate the affected ear.

      If the hearing loss is conductive and affects the right ear, bone conduction will be louder than air conduction. This is because the ear canal, middle ear, or tympanic membrane is unable to conduct sound waves effectively. The Weber test will also indicate that the affected ear is where the sound is loudest.

      The other options provided are incorrect as they do not align with the results of the examination. In sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is louder than bone conduction.

      Conductive hearing loss can be caused by various factors, including impacted earwax, inner ear effusion, debris or foreign objects in the ear canal, a perforated eardrum, or otosclerosis.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

ENT (7/10) 70%
Passmed