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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man presents for his annual diabetic review. He has been diagnosed...

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    • A 50-year-old man presents for his annual diabetic review. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes for the past 10 years and is currently taking metformin and insulin for glycemic control. He holds a group 1 driving license.

      During the consultation, you inquire about any episodes of hypoglycemia. He reports experiencing three or four episodes of low blood sugar since his last review, but he has good awareness of this and checks his blood sugar regularly. He also takes a dextrose tablet when necessary. He checks his blood sugar before driving and maintains a close record of his glycemic control.

      Upon reviewing his records, you note that his blood sugar has dropped to less than 4 mmol/L four times in the past year. However, he has awareness of hypoglycemia and reports feeling slightly nauseated when his sugars drop below 4 mmol/L. He takes a dextrose tablet when this happens, and he has not experienced any episodes of collapsing, confusion, or significant illness associated with low glucose levels. His lowest recorded glucose level is 3.4 mmol/L.

      Given his driving status, what advice should you provide?

      Your Answer: He can continue driving only if his insulin is discontinued

      Correct Answer: He can continue driving but he should be provided with the DVLA guidance on insulin treated diabetes and driving

      Explanation:

      New Medical Driving Standards for Diabetic Drivers

      The medical driving standards for individuals with diabetes have recently been updated. For those with a group 1 entitlement who are managed with insulin, it is required that they have awareness of hypoglycaemia and have not experienced more than one severe hypoglycaemic episode within the past 12 months. Appropriate blood glucose monitoring is also necessary. Severe hypoglycaemia is defined as an episode that requires external help, indicating that the individual is unable to treat the hypoglycaemia themselves.

      It is important for these individuals to be informed of the DVLA guidance regarding insulin-treated diabetes and driving. They should also be advised to carry dextrose with them in case of an emergency. The DVLA has provided clear guidelines for patients on how diabetes can affect their ability to drive and what self-monitoring they should undertake. These guidelines are available as part of the ‘At a Glance Guide to the Current Medical Standards of Fitness to Drive for Medical Practitioners’, which is freely available online.

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  • Question 2 - Karen is a 56-year-old woman with a past medical history of type 2...

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    • Karen is a 56-year-old woman with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension and previous bladder cancer. She currently takes metformin at maximum dose and amlodipine.

      Routine blood test results have returned showing a HbA1c of 59 mmol/mol. The previous HbA1c result 6 months ago was 51 mmol/mol. Urea and electrolytes are within normal limits.

      Karen's body mass index is 36kg/m². What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Commence empagliflozin

      Explanation:

      Jeffrey’s HbA1c level of 59 mmol/mol indicates that his treatment needs to be intensified. According to NICE guidelines, if initial treatment for type 2 diabetes is ineffective, second-line treatment options should be considered as dual therapy with metformin. These options include metformin plus a gliptin, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2i.

      When selecting the most appropriate management for Jeffrey, his BMI should be taken into account. SGLT-2 inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, are the most suitable option as they have the added benefit of weight loss in patients with T2DM. This is particularly relevant for Jeffrey.

      GLP-1 mimetics, like liraglutide, also promote weight loss, but they are only considered when triple therapy with metformin and two other oral antidiabetic drugs is not effective. Since Jeffrey is currently on monotherapy and about to start dual therapy, liraglutide is not an option at this stage.

      Gliclazide is a sulfonylurea that can be used in dual therapy with metformin. However, it can cause weight gain, making it less suitable for Jeffrey.

      Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione that can also be used in dual therapy with metformin. However, it is contraindicated for Jeffrey due to his history of bladder cancer and can cause weight gain, making it a less appropriate option.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has observed an increase in his...

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    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has observed an increase in his blood glucose levels after starting a new medication for his lipids. Despite maintaining his usual diet and exercise routine, his HbA1c has worsened by approximately 0.5%. Which of the following drugs is the probable culprit?

      Your Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Effects of Cholesterol-Lowering Medications on Glucose Control

      The mechanism by which nicotinic acid affects glucose levels is not fully understood, but it may increase blood glucose in some patients by stimulating hepatic glucose output or blocking glucose uptake by skeletal muscle. However, for most patients with diabetes, nicotinic acid has minimal effect. A meta-analysis in 2011 suggested an increased risk of inducing diabetes in patients treated with intensive statin therapy, but this did not examine whether statins worsened glucose control in established diabetics. Cholestyramine may interact with oral hypoglycemics, but it doesn’t typically worsen diabetic control and may even improve it. Fenofibrate and ezetimibe have not been shown to worsen diabetic control. Overall, the effects of cholesterol-lowering medications on glucose control vary and should be monitored closely in patients with diabetes.

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  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old woman presents with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination. Her...

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    • A 58-year-old woman presents with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination. Her fasting glucose levels are consistently elevated at 10 mmol/l and 9.5 mmol/l on two separate occasions, indicating a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. It is known that secondary diabetes mellitus can be caused by an underlying endocrine disorder. Which of the following conditions, if present, is least likely to be associated with secondary diabetes mellitus? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Maculopathy

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Conditions and Associated Symptoms

      Endocrine conditions can lead to various symptoms depending on the hormones involved. Diabetes secondary to other endocrine conditions is caused by excess hormones that have antagonistic actions to insulin. Growth hormone and cortisol are two such hormones that can cause diabetes. Maculopathy is a common symptom of diabetes of long duration and is related to poor glycaemic control. It can also be present in patients with secondary diabetes if they have gone undiagnosed for some time. However, maculopathy is not related to any of the hormone excesses seen in these conditions.

      Hypertension can be a feature of both acromegaly and Cushing syndrome. A bitemporal visual-field defect can also be a feature of both conditions due to the pressure effect of a pituitary adenoma. Long-lasting stimulation of the follicular epithelium by growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor 1 can cause disorders in thyroid function, an increase in its mass and the development of goitre. Patients with acromegaly most frequently present with non-toxic multinodular goitre.

      Cushing syndrome can cause multiple striae and bruises due to deficient collagen synthesis, resulting in thin and fragile skin. It is important to recognize these symptoms and seek medical attention for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus and...

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    • A 25-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus and has started self-monitoring of blood glucose.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about self-monitoring of blood glucose.

      Your Answer: Monitoring should be more frequent during a febrile illness

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Monitoring Blood Glucose Levels in Diabetes

      Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for individuals with diabetes to manage their condition effectively. Here are some guidelines to follow:

      Frequency of Monitoring: Monitoring should be more frequent during a febrile illness, and the frequency should be increased if HBA1c targets are not achieved, hypoglycaemic episodes increase, or if it is a Driver and Vehicle Driving Agency (DVLA) requirement. Monitoring should also be increased before, during, and after sport, during pregnancy and while breastfeeding, and if the patient needs to know the glucose level more than 4 times a day.

      Morning and Evening Testing: Blood glucose should be measured in the morning and evening. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is recommended for all adults with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, with testing at least 4 times a day, including before each meal and before bedtime.

      Excessive Physical Activity: Monitoring should be more frequent during excessive physical activity as it can cause precipitous drops in blood sugar that should be swiftly remedied.

      Hypoglycaemic Attacks: Self-monitoring is not only effective, but should also be increased if hypoglycaemic episodes become more common.

      Blood Glucose Targets: The target plasma glucose on waking is 7-9 mmol/l. Blood glucose targets are as follows: Fasting plasma glucose level of 5–7 mmol/l on waking, plasma glucose level of 4–7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day, and plasma glucose level of 5–9 mmol/l at least 90 minutes after eating (timing may be different in pregnancy). Bedtime targets may be different and take into account the time of the last meal and the waking target.

      By following these guidelines, individuals with diabetes can effectively manage their condition and prevent complications.

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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of ataxia and bilateral...

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    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of ataxia and bilateral gynaecomastia.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Long term treatment with oral steroids for chronic asthma

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia and Ataxia: Indicators of Lung Cancer

      Gynaecomastia and ataxia are both symptoms that can indicate the presence of lung cancer. While Klinefelter’s syndrome can cause gynaecomastia and cerebellar stroke can cause ataxia, the combination of the two makes it more likely to be lung cancer. Gynaecomastia is a non-metastatic paraneoplastic syndrome that is often associated with non-small cell lung cancer. It can be painful and may also be accompanied by testicular atrophy. Ataxia, on the other hand, can occur as a result of paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration associated with the malignancy.

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  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old male presents with polyuria and polydipsia. He is a non-smoker and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents with polyuria and polydipsia. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 12 units per week. He is employed as a taxi driver.

      On examination he has a BMI of 33.4 kg/m2, and a blood pressure of 132/82 mmHg, with all other aspects of the cardiovascular examination normal.

      Investigations confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, and the following:

      Fasting blood glucose 12.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      HbA1c 75 mmol/mol (20-42)

      Total cholesterol 5.8 mmol/L (<5.2)

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Diet and lifestyle advice alone

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient presents with typical type 2 diabetes, which should be initially treated with a combination of diet and lifestyle advice along with metformin. The EASD/ADA guidelines were revised in 2007-2008 due to the evidence base supporting the earlier use of metformin. As a result, diet and lifestyle advice alone is no longer considered sufficient.

      It is important to note that metformin is not a cure for type 2 diabetes, but rather a medication that helps manage blood sugar levels. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to continue making lifestyle changes, such as maintaining a healthy diet and engaging in regular physical activity, in order to effectively manage their diabetes. Additionally, regular monitoring and follow-up with healthcare providers is essential to ensure proper management of the condition.

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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to ask for a...

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    • A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to ask for a prescription for orlistat. What is the most probable comorbid condition that would prevent the prescription of this medication?

      Your Answer: Previous malignant melanoma

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Orlistat is a medication used to treat obesity by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase and reducing fat absorption from the gut. However, it can cause loose stool or diarrhea if a low-fat diet is not followed strictly. It is crucial to consider the suitability of orlistat for patients taking critical medications like antiepileptics or the contraceptive pill. Orlistat can increase gut transit time, leading to reduced absorption and efficacy of critical medications. The BNF lists the combination of antiepileptics and orlistat as a red interaction.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old overweight woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea. She has been unable...

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    • A 30-year-old overweight woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea. She has been unable to conceive for 2 years. The adrenals appear normal on ultrasound scanning, but an ovarian ultrasound scan reveals numerous small cysts in both ovaries.
      Which of the following statements regarding this patient's condition is correct?

      Your Answer: Testosterone levels are usually normal

      Correct Answer: Sex hormone-binding globulin is often low in sufferers with this condition

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common hormonal disorder affecting 8 to 22% of women. Diagnosis requires the presence of at least two of the following: polycystic ovaries, oligo-ovulation or anovulation, and clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism. One of the key features of PCOS is low levels of sex hormone-binding globulin, which is a marker for insulin resistance. This can lead to hyperandrogenism and endometrial cancer. While DHEAS levels are usually normal or low, up to 50% of women with PCOS may have elevated levels. Fertility can be affected, with 75% of anovulatory infertility cases being caused by PCOS. Testosterone levels may also be slightly raised, but levels exceeding 5.0 nmol/l should be investigated for other potential causes. The LH/FSH ratio is usually elevated in PCOS, with a normal FSH level. Understanding these key features can aid in the diagnosis and management of PCOS.

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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man comes to the diabetic clinic for a check-up. He was...

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    • A 50-year-old man comes to the diabetic clinic for a check-up. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes a decade ago. Although his control has not always been optimal, he has no cardiovascular risk factors except for his diabetes. His blood pressure has consistently been within the normal range, and he is not taking any medication for it. However, his most recent yearly urine albumin: creatinine ratio was elevated, and microalbuminuria has been verified with two additional samples. What course of action should be advised now?

      Your Answer: None - just monitor renal function

      Correct Answer: Diuretic

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Microalbuminuria

      In cases of confirmed microalbuminuria, even if the patient is normotensive, it is recommended by NICE guidance to start an ACE inhibitor. The dose should be gradually increased until the full dose is reached. If the patient experiences poor tolerance, an Angiotensin receptor blocker can be used as an alternative. It is important to maintain blood pressure below 130/80 mmHg (140/80 if there is no kidney involvement).

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  • Question 11 - An 82-year-old nursing-home resident has rapidly become unconscious. His blood sugar is measured...

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    • An 82-year-old nursing-home resident has rapidly become unconscious. His blood sugar is measured at 1.5 mmol/l (normal 3-6 mmol/l). He takes tolbutamide for type 2 diabetes.
      Select from the list the single most important initial action.

      Your Answer: Administer 20% glucose solution by mouth via a syringe

      Correct Answer: Administer glucagon 1 mg by subcutaneous or intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      Emergency Treatment for Hypoglycaemia: Administering Glucagon and Arranging Hospital Admission

      Hypoglycaemia is a medical emergency that can cause neurological and cardiac manifestations, including coma, convulsions, and arrhythmias. If the patient loses consciousness, administering glucagon 1 mg by subcutaneous or intramuscular injection is necessary to increase plasma glucose concentration. Once the patient regains consciousness, oral glucose should be given, and hospital admission should be arranged urgently. Administering a soluble aspirin or sugar in water orally would not be appropriate in this scenario. It is crucial to act quickly and seek medical attention to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old hypertensive woman comes for her annual review with her General Practitioner....

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    • A 48-year-old hypertensive woman comes for her annual review with her General Practitioner. She has a family history of type II diabetes and her body mass index is 31 kg/m2 (obese). She has seen an endocrinologist privately and presents some results, including a two-hour glucose level of 9.1 mmol/l on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type I diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Understanding Impaired Glucose Tolerance and Impaired Fasting Glucose

      Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) and impaired fasting glucose (IFG) are both conditions that can increase the risk of developing type II diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular disease. IGT is characterized by hyperglycemia and insulin resistance, with a fasting plasma glucose concentration of less than 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test value of 7.8–11.1 mmol/l. IFG, on the other hand, is defined as a fasting glucose of 6.1–6.9 mmol/l but a 2-hour glucose level of <7.8 mmol/l on the oral glucose tolerance test. Both IGT and IFG are considered to be stages in the development of type II diabetes mellitus and are often accompanied by other features of the metabolic syndrome, such as obesity, dyslipidemia, and hypertension. Management of these conditions involves dietary modification and risk factor management to prevent progression to diabetes. It is important to note that a normal result would be a fasting glucose of <6.1 mmol/l and a 2-hour result of <7.8 mmol/l on the oral glucose tolerance test. A glucose level of greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l at two hours in the glucose tolerance test would confirm diabetes of any type, while glucose levels of 11.1 mmol/l or higher at two hours would confirm a diagnosis of type II diabetes mellitus. Type I diabetes mellitus typically presents more acutely, often with random glucose of 11.1 mmol/l or higher if symptomatic.

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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has...

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    • A 28-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for 2 years. She is not on any regular medications and has normal secondary sexual characteristics. Breast examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Skull X-ray

      Correct Answer: Prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hyperprolactinaemia: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin in the blood. This is most commonly caused by a microadenoma, or a small tumor, in the pituitary gland. Symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia include irregular periods, decreased libido, infertility, and breast milk production in non-pregnant individuals. Mildly elevated prolactin levels should be retested before referral, while levels above 5000 mU/L are diagnostic. Prolactin inhibits gonadotrophin-releasing hormone, which can lead to reduced levels of FSH and LH, as well as lower estrogen levels. Skull X-rays may show an enlarged pituitary fossa in large adenomas, but MRI is preferred for further imaging.

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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea for six months. A pregnancy test is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea for six months. A pregnancy test is negative. Over the past few months, she has occasionally been leaking milk and presents now as this has occurred more and more during stimulation and intercourse and she is becoming distressed by it. Thyroid function testing is normal. She takes no medication. Her serum prolactin level is 2400 mU/l.
      Which of the following statements regarding this patients diagnosis and management is correct?

      Your Answer: She should be observed for 12 months

      Correct Answer: Cabergoline is effective therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cabergoline Therapy for Prolactinomas

      Prolactinomas are benign tumors of the pituitary gland that secrete prolactin, a hormone responsible for lactation. In women, high levels of prolactin can cause menstrual irregularities, infertility, and osteoporosis. Cabergoline is a dopamine agonist that effectively lowers prolactin levels and shrinks microprolactinomas.

      Diagnosis of a microprolactinoma is typically made through MRI scanning and elevated serum prolactin levels. Cabergoline is the preferred treatment option, as it has fewer adverse effects than bromocriptine and can normalize prolactin levels in 70-100% of patients. Long-term treatment may be necessary, but withdrawal can be attempted after two years.

      A visual field defect is unlikely unless the patient has a macroadenoma, which can cause pressure effects due to its size. Surgery may be necessary for macroprolactinomas to reduce tumor size. Observation may be appropriate for asymptomatic patients, but treatment is indicated for adverse effects of hyperprolactinemia, such as infertility and osteoporosis.

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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being...

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    • A 55-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being seen in the diabetes clinic. His HbA1c was 83 mmol/mol (9.7%) a year ago despite taking the maximum dose of oral hypoglycaemic medication. He was started on insulin and his latest HbA1c is 66 mmol/mol (8.2%). He is contemplating applying for a commercial driver's license and seeks guidance. What is the best advice to give him?

      Your Answer: He may be able to apply for a HGV licence if he meets strict criteria relating to hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Individuals who are taking insulin can now possess a HGV license as long as they satisfy the rigorous standards set by the DVLA.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is seen at annual review.

    His glycaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is seen at annual review.

      His glycaemic control is suboptimal on diet alone and his most recent HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-46).

      You elect to treat him with metformin 500 mg bd.

      As per NICE NG28 guidance on the management of diabetes, what would be the most suitable interval to re-evaluate his HbA1c after each treatment intensification?

      Your Answer: One to two months

      Correct Answer: Annually

      Explanation:

      Understanding HbA1c as a Tool for Glycaemic Control

      The glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the glycosylation of the haemoglobin molecule by glucose. This measurement is widely used in clinical practice to assess glycaemic control, as there is a strong correlation between the glycosylation of HbA1c and average plasma glucose concentrations. Additionally, studies have shown that HbA1c has prognostic significance in both microvascular and macrovascular risk.

      The lifespan of a red blood cell is approximately 120 days, and HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels during the half-life of the red cell, which is about 60 days. According to NICE guidelines, HbA1c should be re-checked at 3/6 monthly intervals with each treatment intensification. Understanding HbA1c as a tool for glycaemic control is crucial for managing diabetes effectively.

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  • Question 17 - You are conducting an annual health review for a 59-year-old male patient with...

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    • You are conducting an annual health review for a 59-year-old male patient with hypertension and diet-controlled diabetes. His blood tests reveal an HbA1c level of 50 mmol/mol. What is the target HbA1c level you are aiming for in this patient?

      Your Answer: 48 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      The recommended HbA1c target for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus is 48 mmol/mol. To achieve and maintain this target, patients should be provided with diet and lifestyle advice.

      For adults with type 2 diabetes who are managing their condition through lifestyle and diet or a single drug that doesn’t cause hypoglycemia, the goal should be to reach an HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol.

      If HbA1c levels are not adequately controlled by a single drug and rise to 58 mmol/mol or higher, NICE guidelines recommend reinforcing advice on diet, lifestyle, and adherence to drug treatment. The person should aim for an HbA1c level of 53 mmol/mol and drug treatment should be intensified.

      For adults taking a drug that causes hypoglycemia, the target HbA1c level should be 53 mmol/mol.

      If individuals with type 2 diabetes achieve an HbA1c level lower than their target and are not experiencing hypoglycemia, they should be encouraged to maintain it.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 12 weeks...

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    • A 26-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 12 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for three weeks with malaise, sweats, and anxiety.

      On examination she is haemodynamically stable, and clinically euthyroid.

      TFTs show the following:

      Free T4 35 pmol/L (9-23)

      Free T3 7.5 nmol/L (3.5-6)

      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5)

      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Propylthiouracil 50 mg/tds

      Correct Answer: Carbimazole 40 mg/day

      Explanation:

      Postpartum Thyroiditis

      The likely diagnosis for the patient is postpartum thyroiditis, which typically occurs within three months of delivery and is followed by a hypothyroid phase at three to six months. In one third of cases, there is spontaneous recovery, while the remaining two-thirds may experience a single-phase pattern or the reverse. Management of this condition involves symptomatic treatment using beta blockers to alleviate tremors or anxiety, and observation for the development of persistent hypo- or hyperthyroidism.

      Graves’ disease is a less likely diagnosis due to the proximity to delivery and the absence of other signs such as Graves’ ophthalmopathy, goitre, and bruit. Hashitoxicosis is a possibility but less likely than Graves’. While carbimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU) are thyroid peroxidase inhibitors used in thyrotoxicosis, postpartum thyroiditis is usually transient, and symptomatic treatment with beta blockers is typically sufficient. Radioactive iodine is used in cases of thyrotoxicosis that have not responded to PTU or carbimazole. Lugol’s iodine is part of the treatment for a thyrotoxic storm, which is not the diagnosis in this case.

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  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old woman presents as an emergency appointment with recurrent attacks of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents as an emergency appointment with recurrent attacks of chest tightness and palpitations. She was advised to seek immediate attention should a recurrence occur. She reports feeling unwell while out shopping, experiencing chest tightness, rapid palpitations, sweating, lightheadedness, and pins and needles in her fingers. She is unsure what triggers these episodes. Her past medical history includes treatment for asthma and anxiety following her divorce a few years ago. She appears pale and sweaty, with a rapid regular pulse of 122 beats per minute and blood pressure of 220/115 mmHg. Heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and she has a slight fine tremor. Urine dipstick testing reveals glycosuria+++, nitrites and leucocytes are negative. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Panic attack

      Correct Answer: Thyrotoxicosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Chest Tightness and Palpitations in Primary Care

      Symptoms of chest tightness and palpitations are common in primary care, but diagnosing the underlying cause can be challenging. Episodic symptoms often require catching the symptoms during an attack to make an accurate diagnosis. Patients may describe a previous attack, but positive examination findings are often lacking when they are asymptomatic. Therefore, history is crucial, and patients should seek review when experiencing symptoms.

      In this case, the patient presented with high blood pressure, tachycardia, and glycosuria during an attack. The episodic nature of the symptoms suggested panic attacks, phaeochromocytoma, or a paroxysmal tachyarrhythmia such as Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. However, WPW typically causes paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and would not cause glycosuria. Panic attacks would not cause glycosuria, and the severity of the hypertension would go against this diagnosis. Phaeochromocytoma unifies the history and clinical features and is the underlying disorder.

      Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that produces catecholamines and causes episodes of hypertension, chest tightness, sweating, tremor, and flushing. Glycosuria occurs in approximately 30% of patients during an attack. Diagnosis is made by a 24-hour urine collection for metanephrines, and surgical removal is the treatment of choice.

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  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old man has a small-cell lung cancer. His serum sodium level is...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has a small-cell lung cancer. His serum sodium level is 128 mmol/l on routine testing (normal range 135–145 mmol/l).
      What is the most probable reason for the biochemical abnormality observed in this case? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)

      SIADH is a condition where the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary is not inhibited by a reduction in plasma osmolality on drinking water, causing water retention and extracellular fluid volume expansion without oedema or hypertension. This condition is commonly associated with small-cell lung cancer. Hyponatraemia and concentrated urine are the main laboratory findings, and severe cases may present with symptoms of cerebral oedema. Addison’s disease, diuretics, psychogenic polydipsia, and vomiting are not likely causes of hyponatraemia, although they may contribute to it in certain cases.

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  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old office secretary presents with symptoms of palpitations, restlessness, fatigue and increased...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old office secretary presents with symptoms of palpitations, restlessness, fatigue and increased sweating. She also complains of infrequent periods and weight loss.

      You examine the patient and find she has tachycardia and tremors; she is hyper-reflexic. Biochemical tests on blood samples reveal hyperthyroid. Examination of neck reveals a multiple small nodular areas in a diffusely enlarged thyroid.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Thyrotoxic Patient

      This patient is experiencing symptoms of thyrotoxicosis and requires immediate treatment to alleviate the effects of adrenergic drive. The initial therapy would involve beta blockade with propranolol to relieve her symptoms. Once her symptoms are under control, the next step would be to render her euthyroid. This can be achieved with radioiodine treatment. However, it is important to note that propranolol would still be required as the initial treatment. Proper management of thyrotoxicosis is crucial to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 22 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her mother regarding her growth. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her mother regarding her growth. She has always been one of the shorter children in her class, but recently has been the subject of bullying and has become very unhappy. Her parents are convinced there is something wrong and would like something to be done. She was born at term without any antenatal complications and her length at birth was on the 50th centile. She has only been seen for vaccinations and minor childhood ailments and takes no regular medications. Her height today is on the 9th centile and her weight on the 75th. Cardiovascular and abdominal examination is normal, with no signs of precocious puberty.
      Select from the list the most appropriate initial management.

      Your Answer: Refer for consideration of growth hormone injections

      Correct Answer: Check thyroid function

      Explanation:

      Investigating a Drop in Centiles for Height: Possible Causes and Referral to an Endocrinologist

      When a child’s height drops in centiles without an obvious cause, it is important to investigate the underlying reason. One possible cause that should be excluded is hypothyroidism, which can be determined through testing. X-rays can also be helpful in determining bone age. If there is a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, a renal ultrasound may be recommended.

      If a child’s growth persists along one of the lower centiles, constitutional short stature may be suggested, but if there has been a drop in centiles, this is unlikely. In such cases, referral to an endocrinologist is likely necessary.

      Congenital hypothyroidism is screened for at birth, but acquired hypothyroidism in childhood and adolescence is often caused by lymphocytic (Hashimoto’s) thyroiditis. The first signs are often a slowing of growth, which may go unnoticed, followed by other typical signs of hypothyroidism such as skin changes, cold intolerance, sleepiness, and low energy. Delayed puberty is common in adolescence, but younger children may experience galactorrhea or precocious puberty.

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  • Question 23 - What is the current criteria for diagnosing diabetes in an asymptomatic patient? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the current criteria for diagnosing diabetes in an asymptomatic patient?

      Your Answer: A fasting venous plasma concentration of <6.9 can be ignored

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Diabetes: Understanding the Criteria

      Diagnosing diabetes is a common topic in the AKT exam, and it is important to understand the criteria for diagnosis. In an asymptomatic individual, a single sample alone is not sufficient for diagnosis. Instead, separate fasting samples must show above 7 mmol/L. The gold standard for diagnosis is still the oral glucose tolerance test (OGT), although fasting glucose can be used if an adequate fast is ensured.

      It is important to note that there are new categories of glycaemia, including impaired fasting glycaemia and impaired glucose tolerance. Impaired fasting glycaemia is defined as a fasting glucose level above 6.1 but below 6.9, while impaired glucose tolerance is defined as glucose levels of 7.8-11.1 mmol/L. Understanding these categories and their criteria is essential for accurately diagnosing diabetes.

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  • Question 24 - A diabetic patient who uses insulin presents to the surgery. Which one of...

    Correct

    • A diabetic patient who uses insulin presents to the surgery. Which one of the following statements regarding the application for a group 2 (HGV) driving licence is correct?

      Your Answer: Applicants must provide 3 months of blood glucose readings using an electronic monitor

      Explanation:

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old man with a history of bladder transitional cell carcinoma and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of bladder transitional cell carcinoma and a current foot ulcer is being treated for type 2 diabetes mellitus with metformin and gliclazide. His recent check-up showed a HbA1c level of 60 mmol/mol. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Add pioglitazone

      Correct Answer: Add sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s current medication regimen and HbA1c level, NICE guidance recommends triple therapy with the addition of a gliptin such as sitagliptin. Acarbose is not recommended due to significant gastrointestinal side-effects, while canagliflozin is contraindicated in patients with active foot disease. Pioglitazone should be avoided in patients with active or previous bladder cancer.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman has relapsed Graves’ disease. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has relapsed Graves’ disease. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is less than 0.05 μU/l (normal range 1.7–3.2 μU/l and the free thyroxine (T4) is 32.5 pmol/l (normal range 11–22 pmol/l). She has severe bilateral thyroid eye disease with marked orbital oedema and proptosis. She is being considered for radioactive iodine treatment, as drug treatment has failed.
      Which of the following statements concerning the management of thyroid eye disease is correct?

      Your Answer: She should not be given methylcellulose drops, as these may worsen oedema

      Correct Answer: Her thyroid eye disease may be worsened by radioiodine treatment

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Eye Disease: Treatment and Management

      Thyroid eye disease (TED) is a condition that affects the eyes and is often associated with thyroid dysfunction. Radioiodine treatment may worsen the eye disease, with exacerbation being more common than with drug therapy alone. However, only a small percentage of cases threaten sight, with most causing discomfort and deteriorating cosmetic appearance. Orbital irradiation is not commonly used to treat TED, as studies have not clearly demonstrated its efficacy. Corrective eye muscle surgery should be delayed until the disease has been stable for at least six months and may be of value in improving diplopia. Urgent orbital decompression surgery may be required for severe sight-threatening disease. Methylcellulose drops may be prescribed by general practitioners to alleviate symptoms due to corneal exposure. Systemic corticosteroids and oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may ease discomfort and decrease inflammation when symptoms are severe, while intravenous corticosteroids are used if vision is threatened. Smoking is an important risk factor for TED, increasing the risk of developing the disease by seven to eight times. The risk increases with the number of cigarettes smoked and reduces on stopping. Smoking also increases the risk of worsening after radioiodine.

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  • Question 27 - A 54-year-old Muslim man with a history of type 2 diabetes seeks guidance...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old Muslim man with a history of type 2 diabetes seeks guidance on managing his diabetes medications during Ramadan. He is currently taking metformin 500mg three times a day. What advice should be given to him?

      Your Answer: 1000 mg at the predawn meal + 500 mg at the sunset meal

      Correct Answer: 500 mg at the predawn meal + 1000 mg at the sunset meal

      Explanation:

      To adjust for Ramadan, it is recommended to take one-third of the usual metformin dose before sunrise and the remaining two-thirds after sunset. For further information, please refer to the Diabetes Care source.

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.

      To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.

      Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.

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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old woman undergoes routine blood testing and her results show a total...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman undergoes routine blood testing and her results show a total cholesterol level of 6.3 mmol/l (desirable < 5.2 mmol/l), a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 6.8 μU/l (normal range 0.17–3.2 μU/l), a thyroxine (T4) level of 13 pmol/l (normal range 11–22 pmol/l). Further testing reveals a triiodothyronine (T3) level of 4.5 pmol/l (normal range 3.5–5.0 pmol/l) and negative thyroid peroxidase antibodies. The patient doesn't report any symptoms. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to an endocrinologist

      Correct Answer: Repeat thyroid function tests in three to six months

      Explanation:

      Management of Subclinical Hypothyroidism

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a common condition in middle-aged and older women, characterized by normal serum T4 and T3 levels but raised TSH concentration without specific symptoms or signs of thyroid dysfunction. The condition may result from previous hyperthyroidism or nonspecific symptoms such as tiredness or weight gain. In cases where patients have detectable levels of microsomal thyroid peroxidase antibodies, they are more likely to develop overt hypothyroidism.

      Treatment with thyroxine is recommended for patients with a TSH > 10 μU/l and those with clinical features. The aim of therapy is to restore TSH concentration to within the reference range. However, a serum TSH concentration of less than 10 μU/l in patients who are antibody negative warrants observation rather than immediate treatment, as it may be a transient phenomenon.

      It is not clear whether subclinical hypothyroidism contributes to the development of ischaemic heart disease. Therefore, prescribing simvastatin is not recommended without further information on the patient’s QRISK. Similarly, referring for a thyroid ultrasound scan and fine needle biopsy is not necessary unless there is an unexplained thyroid lump.

      The National Institute of Health and Care Excellence lists the indications for referral in people with subclinical hypothyroidism, including cases of suspected subacute thyroiditis, people planning a pregnancy, those with cardiac disease, and amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism. Therefore, referring to an endocrinologist is not necessary in most cases of subclinical hypothyroidism.

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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old male presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He reports a noticeable increase in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He reports a noticeable increase in breast tissue over the past several months. His medical history includes a congenital right-sided crypto-orchidism, which was corrected with orchidopexy during childhood. He also experiences migraines and uses sumatriptan as needed. What is the probable underlying cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Correct Answer: Drug-induced

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia and Testicular Tumour

      This man is likely to have a testicular tumour as the cause of his gynaecomastia. While bilateral breast cancer in a male his age is highly unusual, gynaecomastia can develop due to the hormonal influence of a tumour. Sumatriptan doesn’t cause gynaecomastia, and Mondor’s disease is a thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the breast or chest wall. Physiological changes of puberty occur during puberty and not in the mid-20s, making testicular tumour the most likely option.

      The patient’s history of crypto-orchidism is a risk factor for the development of testicular cancer, and he is in the typical age range. However, it should be noted that only a minority of testicular cancers present with gynaecomastia. According to the American Family Physician, approximately 10% of males present with gynaecomastia from tumours that secrete beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG). Therefore, further investigation and genital examination are necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

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  • Question 30 - A 21-year-old male has successfully made lifestyle changes to lose weight, including diet...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old male has successfully made lifestyle changes to lose weight, including diet and exercise. He has lost 10kg over the past 6 months, but his BMI today still measures 33 kg/m^2. He has no other medical issues and is not taking any regular medication. He expresses concern about the potential health risks associated with his excess weight and asks if medication could aid in his weight loss.

      Which of the following options would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      - Trial an appetite suppressant such as sibutramine for 3 months and continue if effective.
      - Consider orlistat as a potential treatment option.
      - Advise against pharmacological treatment as the patient's BMI is below 35 kg/m^2.
      - Offer a referral for bariatric surgery as the patient is a strong candidate.
      - Initiate oral thyroxine (T4) to increase the patient's basal metabolic rate.

      Note: According to NICE guidelines, orlistat can be considered for patients with a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more, provided they have other risk factors such as type 2 diabetes or hypertension. Safe prescribing is a key component of the MRCGP Applied Knowledge Test (AKT).

      Your Answer: You could consider orlistat

      Explanation:

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

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  • Question 31 - A 30-year-old woman with hyperthyroidism is diagnosed with Graves' disease and prescribed carbimazole...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with hyperthyroidism is diagnosed with Graves' disease and prescribed carbimazole for treatment. During counselling, she is informed about the potential side-effects of the medication.
      What is the most severe adverse reaction of carbimazole?

      Your Answer: Alopecia

      Correct Answer: Agranulocytosis

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole: Potential Side Effects and Risks

      Carbimazole is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism, but it can also cause several side effects and risks. One of the most serious risks is agranulocytosis, which occurs in 0.3-0.6% of patients and has a mortality rate of 21.5%. Patients taking carbimazole should be aware of symptoms of infection, such as a sore throat, and seek medical attention if they experience them. Hypoprothrombinaemia, which can cause bleeding, is another potential side effect. While less serious than agranulocytosis, it is important to check a patient’s prothrombin time before invasive procedures. Cholestatic jaundice is a rare side effect that typically resolves after stopping carbimazole. Hepatitis has also been reported, but is not listed as a side effect in the British National Formulary (BNF). Finally, alopecia is a listed side effect, but is not as serious as agranulocytosis. Patients taking carbimazole should be aware of these potential risks and side effects.

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  • Question 32 - You are evaluating a middle-aged diabetic woman who is experiencing painful neuropathic symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a middle-aged diabetic woman who is experiencing painful neuropathic symptoms in her feet.

      The patient has been receiving routine monitoring at the clinic due to her poorly controlled diabetes, high blood pressure, and renal dysfunction.

      She reports that she was prescribed amitriptyline a few weeks ago, which provided significant relief for her symptoms. However, she had to discontinue its use due to bothersome adverse effects.

      What would be the most suitable medication to consider next for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Neuropathic Pain Management

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in non-specialist settings. The recommended drugs for painful neuropathy are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, and pregabalin. If one of these drugs fails due to poor tolerance or effectiveness, then one of the other three should be tried. Phenytoin and valproate were previously used but are not currently recommended. Carbamazepine is only used for trigeminal neuralgia. Nortriptyline is not included in the latest guidelines. These guidelines aim to provide healthcare professionals with evidence-based recommendations for the management of neuropathic pain.

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  • Question 33 - A 39-year-old woman comes in for her annual medication review. She was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman comes in for her annual medication review. She was diagnosed with hypothyroidism a few years ago and is taking thyroxine. She recently had her thyroid function tested and her results show a free T4 level of 29 pmol/L (normal range 9.0-25) and a TSH level of 12 mU/L (0.5-6.0). What is the reason for her abnormal results?

      Your Answer: Subacute thyroiditis

      Correct Answer: Under-replacement of thyroxine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormal Thyroid Function Tests

      In this case, a patient with hypothyroidism is prescribed thyroxine replacement, but her latest blood tests show elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroxine (T4). Abnormal hormone binding due to pregnancy or drugs like amiodarone can cause raised T4 with normal TSH. Sick euthyroidism can cause low T4, T3, and TSH, but it should revert to normal after recovery from non-thyroidal illness. Subacute thyroiditis causes hyperthyroidism, painful goitre, and high ESR, but it is self-limiting. Under-replacement of thyroxine causes high TSH and low T4.

      The correct answer in this case is medication non-compliance, which is the only option that can account for the test results. Patients may start taking their thyroxine again before testing to avoid showing irregular dosing. Erratic thyroxine dosing causes elevated TSH due to under-replacement, but recent use of thyroxine causes normal to high T4. Understanding the various causes of abnormal thyroid function tests can help diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.

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  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism presents with fatigue and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism presents with fatigue and a painful tongue. Her blood tests reveal the following results:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.7 g/dl
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 121 fl
      - Platelet count (Plt): 177 * 109/l
      - White blood cell count (WBC): 5.4 * 109/l

      Further investigations reveal that her vitamin B12 levels are 64 ng/l (normal range: 200-900 ng/l) and her folic acid levels are 7.2 nmol/l (normal range: > 3.0 nmol/l). Antibodies to intrinsic factor are also detected. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Give folic acid 5mg od one week then recheck bloods

      Correct Answer: 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin 3 times each week for 2 weeks, then once every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

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  • Question 35 - A 55-year-old man is scheduled for a CT scan with intravenous contrast as...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is scheduled for a CT scan with intravenous contrast as part of his medical evaluation. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and depression. The patient is currently taking the following medications:

      - Amlodipine 10 mg once daily
      - Metformin 1g twice daily
      - Simvastatin 20 mg once nightly
      - Citalopram 20 mg once daily

      According to the BNF guidelines, what is the most appropriate advice to provide regarding his metformin treatment?

      Your Answer: Discontinue on the day of the scan and restart after 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Discontinue on the day of the scan and restart after 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Metformin should not be taken on the day of a procedure involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media, and it should also be avoided for 48 hours following the procedure.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 36 - A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic with a medical history of type...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic with a medical history of type 1 diabetes for the past 30 years. His blood pressure is 122/72, and his most recent HbA1c level is 53 mmol/mol. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with microalbuminuria.

      What can be said about the man's condition?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitors are of no value when the BP is normal

      Correct Answer: Underlying nephropathy can be reversed by tight BP control

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Nephropathy and Microalbuminuria

      Death in young diabetics is often caused by end stage diabetic nephropathy, which can lead to ESRF within 10 years if proteinuria has developed. However, interventions can help prevent this outcome. One of the earliest signs of diabetic nephropathy is microalbuminuria, which is characterized by an albumin excretion of 30-300 micrograms per day. It is important to note that microalbuminuria doesn’t mean that the albumin is smaller. Tight control of both blood pressure and glucose levels can help reduce the progression of microalbuminuria and renal failure. Even if blood pressure is normal, ACE inhibition is still important in managing diabetic nephropathy.

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  • Question 37 - A 50-year-old male presents concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.

    His family history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.

      His family history reveals that his mother and maternal uncle both have diabetes. He has central obesity with a waist measurement of 110 cm. On examination, his blood pressure is 130/82 mmHg, his BMI is 30.2 kg/m2.

      His investigations reveal:

      Fasting cholesterol 5.2 mmol/L (<5.2) 200 mg/dL (<200)

      Triglycerides 1.4 mmol/L (0.45-1.69) 124 mg/dL (40-150)

      HDL cholesterol 1.1 mmol/L (>1.55) 42 mg/dL (>60)

      Fasting glucose 6.2 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) 111 mg/dL (54-108)

      In addition to his waist measurement which one of this man's observations is a criterion for the diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer: BMI of 30.2 kg/m2

      Correct Answer: Triglyceride concentration of 1.4 mmol/L (124 mg/dL)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Metabolic Syndrome

      The metabolic syndrome is a group of features that increase the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes. The latest definition by the IDF includes central obesity (waist circumference of ≥94 cm for men and ≥80 cm for women) plus any two of the following: hypertriglyceridemia (>1.7 mmol/L), low HDL concentration (<1.03 mmol/L for males and <1.29 mmol/L for females), high blood pressure (≥130/85 mmHg or on treatment for hypertension), and fasting glucose (≥5.6 mmol/L or known to have type 2 diabetes). In our patient's case, the elevated fasting glucose of 6.2 mmol/L fulfills this diagnostic criterion. It is important to note that BMI is not a factor in the diagnostic criteria, as waist circumference is a more significant predictor of risk. Understanding the metabolic syndrome and its diagnostic criteria is crucial in identifying and managing individuals at risk for cardiovascular disease and diabetes.

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  • Question 38 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after starting metformin for...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after starting metformin for his type 2 diabetes. He has a BMI of 27.5 kg/m^2. Despite gradually increasing the dose to 500mg three times a day, he has been experiencing severe diarrhea. He attempted to lower the dose to 500mg twice a day, but his symptoms persisted. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to gradually increase the dosage of metformin and wait for at least a week before making any further adjustments. In case a patient experiences intolerance to regular metformin, it is advisable to switch to modified-release formulations as they have been found to cause fewer gastrointestinal side effects in such patients.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 39 - A 65-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports decreased hypoglycemic awareness following...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports decreased hypoglycemic awareness following his recent hospital discharge. He was started on several new medications during his admission. Which medication is the most probable cause of this issue?

      Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

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  • Question 40 - A 42-year-old man with a history of depression and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a history of depression and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease visits his GP complaining of milky discharge from his nipples. His blood test results show a prolactin level of 700 mu/l. Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      There are several causes of raised prolactin, which can be remembered using the letter P. These include pregnancy, prolactinoma (a type of pituitary tumor), physiological changes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, primary hypothyroidism, and the use of certain medications such as phenothiazines, metoclopramide, and domperidone. While selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors like fluoxetine have been linked to hyperprolactinemia in rare cases, the most likely culprit in this patient is metoclopramide. It’s worth noting that cimetidine is typically associated with gynecomastia rather than galactorrhea, although this side effect is considered very rare according to the British National Formulary.

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. It is crucial to distinguish between the causes of galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia, which are both related to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism.

      Certain drugs can also increase prolactin levels, such as metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, and haloperidol. Although rare, some SSRIs and opioids may also cause raised prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and care.

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  • Question 41 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a sleep disorder. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a sleep disorder. He reports experiencing a creeping, crawling sensation in his legs, which is so intense that he feels the need to constantly rub his legs together to relieve the sensation. He also has an irresistible urge to move around. He feels chronically sleep deprived, only able to sleep in the early hours of the morning and often falling asleep during the day. He recently started taking thyroxine replacement and has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and steatohepatitis, for which he takes amlodipine, ramipril, and gliclazide. On examination, his blood pressure is 145/82 mmg, and his respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurological examinations are normal. What is the most likely factor in his medical history associated with his presentation?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Restless Legs Syndrome: Causes and Treatment

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a condition characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by uncomfortable sensations. While RLS may be idiopathic, it can also be caused by underlying conditions such as hypothyroidism, anaemias, renal failure, polyneuropathies, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjögren’s syndrome, and amyloidosis. Treating any underlying secondary cause can improve symptoms, as can dopamine agonists. However, clinicians may dismiss the seriousness of RLS in the absence of demonstrable neurology, despite the significant impact on quality of life that sleep disturbance can have. It is important to recognize and address RLS to improve patients’ overall well-being.

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  • Question 42 - A 58-year-old man is discharged from hospital after suffering an acute coronary syndrome....

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man is discharged from hospital after suffering an acute coronary syndrome. He has type 2 diabetes and takes metformin. Diabetic control had previously been good.
      What is the most appropriate statement to make regarding this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Statins should always be started unless they are contraindicated

      Explanation:

      Correct Management of Type 2 Diabetes and Cardiovascular Disease: Common Misconceptions

      There are several misconceptions regarding the management of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease that need to be addressed. One common misconception is that statins should only be started if a formal risk assessment is conducted. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that statin treatment with atorvastatin 80 mg should always be started for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, unless contraindicated.

      Another misconception is that blood pressure should be 150/80 mmHg or less. The target for blood pressure in type 2 diabetes is actually 140/90 mmHg, and following a myocardial infarction, it may be prudent to aim even lower.

      It is also incorrect to assume that insulin should be started for all patients with type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Insulin should only be used if clinically indicated due to poor diabetic control.

      Contrary to popular belief, the usual cardiac rehabilitation program is not contraindicated for patients with type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. All patients should be given advice about and offered a cardiac rehabilitation program with an exercise component.

      Finally, the use of angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibition is not contraindicated in the first six weeks after a myocardial infarction. In fact, people who have had a myocardial infarction with or without diabetes should normally be discharged from the hospital with ACE inhibitor treatment, provided there are no contraindications.

      In summary, it is important to dispel these common misconceptions and ensure that patients with type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease receive appropriate and evidence-based management.

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  • Question 43 - A 30-year old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her facial hirsutism and amenorrhea for the past six months. On examination, she has a BMI of 31 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg. She denies the possibility of pregnancy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      PCOS and Hirsutism: A Common Endocrinopathy in Women

      This patient is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which is the most common endocrinopathy in women of reproductive age. PCOS accounts for 95% of cases of hirsutism presenting to out-patient clinics. The clinical features of PCOS include hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea, which are caused by excessive androgen levels. These symptoms are often worsened by obesity.

      When diagnosing hirsutism, it is important to consider other potential causes such as virilising tumours of the ovaries or adrenal gland, Cushing’s syndrome, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. By ruling out these other conditions, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat PCOS and its associated symptoms. Proper management of PCOS can improve quality of life and reduce the risk of long-term complications such as infertility and cardiovascular disease.

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  • Question 44 - You are evaluating a 55-year-old man who was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 55-year-old man who was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus approximately four months ago. His HbA1c level was 54 mmol/mol (7.1%) at the time of diagnosis, and he was initiated on metformin with gradual dose escalation. What level should you consider introducing a second medication?

      Your Answer: 45 mmol/mol (6.3%)

      Correct Answer: 58 mmol/mol (7.5%)

      Explanation:

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 45 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of tremors and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of tremors and weight loss. Upon further inquiry, she reveals feeling more irritable than usual and intolerant of heat. During the examination, her heart rate is found to be 113 beats per minute, and she has a significant tremor in her outstretched hands. Blood tests reveal elevated thyrotropin receptor levels, but her thyroid peroxidase antibodies are normal.

      What is the most effective treatment option for managing symptoms while awaiting more definitive treatment?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can help manage symptoms in new cases of Graves’ disease. It is particularly effective in reducing tremors and palpitations associated with thyrotoxicosis.

      Carbimazole is the primary treatment for inducing remission in most cases of Graves’ disease. However, it may take some time to take effect, and patients may require short-term symptomatic relief with a beta-blocker like propranolol.

      Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart failure, but it is not typically used for Graves’ disease.

      Ivabradine is a cardiac medication that targets the sino-atrial node to regulate heart rate. It is commonly used to treat angina and heart failure.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

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  • Question 46 - A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few months she has been experiencing hot flashes, night sweats, mood changes and pain on intercourse. Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) has been > 40 µIU/l on two separate occasions, and her serum oestradiol level is low. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin are normal. Fasting blood glucose is normal. Pregnancy test is negative.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypopituitarism

      Correct Answer: Premature ovarian insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Symptoms

      Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI) is a condition that affects at least 1% of women under the age of 40 years. It is characterized by elevated follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), low oestradiol, and prolonged amenorrhoea. In most cases, no underlying cause is identified, but familial history, autoimmune lymphocytic oophoritis, infections, and iatrogenic causes such as surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy may contribute to the condition. Spontaneous recovery of fertility is unlikely.

      Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour, hypopituitarism, polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), and thyrotoxicosis are incorrect diagnoses for POI. Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour is rare and presents with hirsutism, acne, and clitoral enlargement. Hypopituitarism is caused by anterior pituitary tumours and may result in pressure features, ACTH deficiency, TSH deficiency, GH deficiency, ADH deficiency, and gonadotrophin deficiency. PCOS is unlikely due to the raised FSH and lack of hyperandrogenism. Thyrotoxicosis is ruled out by the normal TSH levels.

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  • Question 47 - A 27-year-old Muslim woman who works night shifts visits your clinic. What vitamin...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Muslim woman who works night shifts visits your clinic. What vitamin or mineral deficiencies should she be cautious of?

      Your Answer: Vitamin C

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Vitamin D Deficiency and Risk Factors

      People who have limited exposure to sunlight, such as those who cover their skin for cultural reasons, are at risk of vitamin D deficiency. This is also true for individuals who work night shifts and sleep during the day, as well as those who are housebound or have darker skin. Pregnant women in these groups are especially vulnerable and should be offered supplements.

      While a varied diet can help prevent deficiencies in other vitamins and minerals, it may not be enough to prevent vitamin D deficiency. This is because only a small percentage of vitamin D is obtained from diet, with the majority coming from sunlight exposure on the skin. Therefore, it is important for individuals in at-risk groups to consider taking supplements to ensure adequate vitamin D levels.

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  • Question 48 - The Chief Medical Officer released guidelines in 2015 regarding vitamin D supplementation. What...

    Correct

    • The Chief Medical Officer released guidelines in 2015 regarding vitamin D supplementation. What recommendations should be provided to caregivers?

      Your Answer: All children aged between 6 months and 5 years should be given vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.

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  • Question 49 - A 30-year-old man with type 1 diabetes of ten years' duration and background...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with type 1 diabetes of ten years' duration and background diabetic retinopathy has a persistently elevated blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and proteinuria of 0.6 g/day. Blood urea, electrolytes and creatinine are well within normal limits. Besides insulin, he is on no other medications.

      Which of the following is the most likely agent to improve the prognosis in this man?

      Your Answer: Beta blockers

      Correct Answer: ACE inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Managing Diabetic Nephropathy and Hypertension

      This individual is suffering from diabetic nephropathy, as indicated by the presence of retinopathy, and hypertension. To prevent the progression of renal failure in the long term, it is crucial to maintain good glycaemic and lipid profiles while controlling blood pressure to less than 130/75 mmHg. The weight of trial evidence suggests that angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the best option for type 1 diabetics. The most important and clinically relevant strategy for this individual to improve their prognosis is to prevent the progression of renal disease and reduce blood pressure with an ACEi. By doing so, we can effectively manage their condition and improve their overall health.

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  • Question 50 - A 68-year-old male is being treated for hypertension, gout, gastro-oesophageal reflux and has...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male is being treated for hypertension, gout, gastro-oesophageal reflux and has a three year history of type 2 diabetes.
      He takes a variety of medications.
      These investigations have revealed:
      Serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)
      Serum potassium 4.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Serum urea 12.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      eGFR 29 ml/min/1.73m2
      Which of the following medications should be stopped in this situation?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Dosage Adjustments for Renal Impairment in Medications

      Allopurinol is a medication commonly used in patients with moderate renal impairment. However, it is advised to reduce the dose from 300 to 200 or 100 mg/day. On the other hand, gliclazide is primarily metabolized in the liver, so only minor reductions in dose are necessary. No reduction in PPI dose is usually required.

      When it comes to lisinopril, if diabetic nephropathy is suspected as the underlying cause, then the dose should be maintained. However, for metformin, it is recommended to stop the medication completely if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 30. It is important to adjust the dosage of medications in patients with renal impairment to prevent adverse effects and ensure optimal treatment outcomes. Proper monitoring and consultation with a healthcare provider are essential in managing medication regimens for patients with renal impairment.

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  • Question 51 - A 22-year-old female patient visits the GP complaining of daily headaches that last...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female patient visits the GP complaining of daily headaches that last most of the day. Despite this, she is able to carry out her usual activities. She also reports experiencing clumsiness and frequently bumping into objects on the periphery of her vision, which has been gradually worsening. Apart from these symptoms, she feels fine. The patient is currently taking the COCP and mentions that she had infrequent periods before starting it, and had not had a period for about a year. On examination, her BMI is 19kg/m², vital signs are normal, and her neurological examination is unremarkable. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      – Prolactinoma may cause headaches, amenorrhoea, and visual field defects.
      – If a person experiences headaches, amenorrhoea, and visual field defects, a possible underlying condition is prolactinoma.

      Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma

      Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin.

      In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinomas may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.

      Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves medical therapy with dopamine agonists like cabergoline or bromocriptine, which inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. Surgery may be necessary for patients who do not respond to medical therapy or cannot tolerate it. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical removal of the tumor.

      Overall, understanding prolactinoma is important for proper diagnosis and management of this type of pituitary adenoma.

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  • Question 52 - A 65-year-old man has been treated for prostate cancer and is currently receiving...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been treated for prostate cancer and is currently receiving 3 monthly injections of a gonadorelin analogue. He has been experiencing bothersome hot flashes and seeks your advice. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended treatment for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Clonidine

      Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Explanation:

      For the management of hot flashes in men undergoing hormonal treatment for prostate cancer, NICE suggests the use of cyproterone acetate, while the use of other medications is not recommended.

      Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.

      In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

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  • Question 53 - A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of low libido, erectile dysfunction and loss...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of low libido, erectile dysfunction and loss of early-morning erections. His testes appear normal but his serum testosterone is 10 nmol/l (reference range 11–36 nmol/l).
      Which of the following statements regarding this patient's presentation is correct?

      Your Answer: A recent acute illness such as pneumonia could explain a low testosterone result

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypogonadism: Interpreting Testosterone Results and Treatment Considerations

      Hypogonadism, or low testosterone, can present with a variety of symptoms including low libido, erectile dysfunction, and loss of early morning erections. When low testosterone is detected, further testing with follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and prolactin measurements can help distinguish primary from secondary hypogonadism.

      There are several factors that can contribute to reversible hypogonadism, including concurrent illness, certain medications, and lifestyle factors such as excessive alcohol consumption and stress. However, it is important to note that hypogonadism should be treated with testosterone replacement therapy, regardless of age, but only after confirming the diagnosis with repeat testing.

      It is also important to consider age-related declines in testosterone levels, which typically occur after the age of 30. However, this decline may be a result of deteriorating general health rather than the cause. Therefore, it is crucial to interpret testosterone results in the context of the patient’s symptoms and overall health status.

      In cases where hypogonadism is suspected, referral to an endocrinologist may be necessary if there are suggestive clinical symptoms and chronic androgen deficiency. However, it is important to note that testosterone replacement therapy should not be initiated solely based on age or a single low testosterone result.

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  • Question 54 - A 35-year-old gentleman with stable schizophrenia reports reduced libido and diminished ejaculate volume....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old gentleman with stable schizophrenia reports reduced libido and diminished ejaculate volume. He is on regular haloperidol. Blood tests showed a prolactin level of 3500 mU/L. There is no previous prolactin level recorded.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step? Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Start cabergoline

      Correct Answer: Repeat prolactin blood test

      Explanation:

      Hyperprolactinaemia and Antipsychotic Medication

      Hyperprolactinaemia, or elevated levels of prolactin in the blood, is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication. While mild increases can be caused by various factors such as stress or sexual activity, significant elevations in prolactin levels (>3000 mU/L) in a symptomatic patient may indicate an underlying endocrine cause, such as a prolactinoma. In such cases, psychiatry should be informed to consider a dose reduction or substitution of the current antipsychotic, while endocrinology should investigate further.

      If the patient had normal prolactin levels before starting antipsychotic medication, a referral to endocrinology may be postponed as it is likely that the medication is the cause of the elevated levels. However, if the patient is symptomatic and the prolactin level is significantly raised, referral prior to repeating the blood test is advised.

      Treatment with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine or cabergoline may be considered, but should only be initiated after consultation with a specialist. Overall, monitoring of prolactin levels is important in patients taking antipsychotic medication to ensure early detection and management of hyperprolactinaemia.

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  • Question 55 - You have diagnosed a 40-year-old accountant with diabetes mellitus, on the basis of...

    Incorrect

    • You have diagnosed a 40-year-old accountant with diabetes mellitus, on the basis of two fasting venous blood glucoses of 18 mmol/L and 16.5 mmol/L.

      You have commenced her on metformin with dietary advice. She is learning to drive and has just applied for her driving test.

      What advice should you give her as regards her requirements with respect to DVLA?

      Your Answer: She must inform DVLA if her therapy includes a gliclazide

      Correct Answer: She must inform DVLA if she suffers an episode of disabling hypoglycaemia within 12 months

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidelines for Drivers with Diabetes

      According to DVLA guidelines, patients with diabetes who are treated with tablets and/or diet do not need to inform DVLA if they are free from a list of complications. While patients can experience hypoglycaemia on metformin, it is typically the sulphonylureas that cause the most problems, especially in the elderly. It is important for GPs to be cautious in pursuing HbA1c targets to avoid hypoglycaemic episodes.

      The DVLA INF188/2 guidance outlines the list of complications that require patients to inform DVLA if they experience more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the last 12 months. It is important to note that there is no difference between holding a provisional and a full driving licence for cars and motorcycles in terms of requirements to inform DVLA.

      It is important to distinguish between Group 1 entitlement (drivers of cars and motorcycles) and Group 2 entitlement (drivers of heavy goods vehicles and passenger vehicles such as buses). For Group 2 entitlement, all drivers diagnosed with diabetes mellitus must inform DVLA. By following these guidelines, drivers with diabetes can ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.

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  • Question 56 - A 28-year-old woman treated with hydrocortisone 10 mg in the morning and 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman treated with hydrocortisone 10 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening for Addison's disease, presents to the clinic with poor compliance.

      She feels that the hydrocortisone upsets her stomach and wants to switch to enteric coated prednisolone.

      What would be the appropriate corresponding daily dose of prednisolone?

      Your Answer: 10 mg daily

      Correct Answer: 5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Glucocorticoid Therapy: Hydrocortisone vs. Prednisolone

      Glucocorticoid therapy is commonly used for the suppression of various diseases. Hydrocortisone and prednisolone are two commonly used glucocorticoids, but they differ in their potency and activity. Hydrocortisone has a relatively high mineralocorticoid activity, which can cause fluid retention and make it unsuitable for long-term disease suppression. However, it can be used for adrenal replacement therapy and as a short-term emergency treatment. Its moderate anti-inflammatory potency also makes it useful as a topical corticosteroid for managing inflammatory skin conditions with fewer side effects.

      On the other hand, prednisolone and prednisone have predominantly glucocorticoid activity, making them the preferred choice for long-term disease suppression. The approximate equivalent glucocorticoid action of prednisolone to hydrocortisone is 4:1, meaning that 5 mg of prednisolone is equivalent to 20 mg of hydrocortisone. A glucocorticoid dose calculator can be used for other dose conversions.

      In summary, the choice of glucocorticoid therapy depends on the specific condition being treated and the desired outcome. Hydrocortisone is suitable for short-term and emergency use, while prednisolone is preferred for long-term disease suppression.

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  • Question 57 - A 35-year-old asthmatic woman presents with a history of amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old asthmatic woman presents with a history of amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She is eager to get pregnant and has been attempting to conceive for six months, but has not been successful. What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Pituitary microadenoma

      Explanation:

      Causes of hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea: differential diagnosis

      Hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea are two related conditions that can have various underlying causes. One common cause is a prolactin-secreting pituitary tumour, which can be either a microadenoma (more common) or a macroadenoma (less common). Another possible cause is the use of certain drugs, such as dopamine receptor antagonists and some antidepressants. Hyperthyroidism is not a likely cause, but hypothyroidism can sometimes lead to hyperprolactinaemia. Finally, while hepatic impairment can cause hyperprolactinaemia, it is not a frequent finding in patients with liver cirrhosis. Therefore, a careful differential diagnosis is needed to identify the specific cause of hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea in each patient.

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  • Question 58 - A 56-year-old man presents for follow-up in the diabetes clinic. He was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents for follow-up in the diabetes clinic. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) approximately 8 years ago and is currently taking gliclazide and atorvastatin. Two years ago, he underwent successful treatment for bladder cancer. However, a recent trial of metformin was discontinued due to gastrointestinal side-effects. He works as an accountant, doesn't smoke, and has a BMI of 31 kg/m². His annual blood work reveals the following results:

      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 4.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 104 µmol/l
      - HbA1c: 62 mmol/mol (7.8%)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for his management?

      Your Answer: Add exenatide

      Correct Answer: Add sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      Due to his history of bladder cancer and obesity, pioglitazone is not recommended. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, would be the most suitable option. Exenatide is effective in promoting weight loss in obese diabetic patients, but it is not applicable to him as he doesn’t meet the NICE body mass index criteria of 35 kg/m².

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 59 - What is the food with the lowest glycaemic index (GI) rating among the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the food with the lowest glycaemic index (GI) rating among the following options?

      Your Answer: Pasta

      Correct Answer: Baked potato

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glycaemic Index and Diabetic Diets

      The glycaemic index (GI) measures the rate at which carbohydrates are absorbed in the body. Low GI foods have been shown to reduce appetite, aid in weight control, and lower cholesterol levels. However, feedback from the last MRCGP examination revealed a lack of knowledge regarding diabetic diets. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a basic understanding of dietary advice to provide their patients with proper guidance. Exam questions may focus on major food groups and principles rather than specific details. To prepare for such questions, it is recommended to read the BDA reference for a broad overview of the main principles, including glycaemic index. By doing so, healthcare professionals can provide general advice and answer any related questions that may arise during an exam.

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  • Question 60 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results are as follows:

      TSH <0.05 mU/l
      Free T4 25 pmol/l

      What is the leading cause of this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: De Quervain's thyroiditis

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis is primarily caused by Graves’ disease in the UK, while the other conditions that can lead to thyrotoxicosis are relatively rare.

      Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations

      Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, postpartum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. Elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease are also at risk.

      To diagnose thyrotoxicosis, doctors typically look for a decrease in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and an increase in T4 and T3 levels. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be present. Isotope scanning may be used to investigate further. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, highlighting the complexity of thyroid dysfunction. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should avoid iodinated contrast medium, as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over several weeks.

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  • Question 61 - A 71-year-old insulin-treated diabetic patient is curious about driving with diabetes. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old insulin-treated diabetic patient is curious about driving with diabetes. He has experienced occasional episodes of hypoglycemia while at home but always carries a supply of fast-acting carbohydrate with him and checks his blood sugar levels at the recommended intervals while driving. He is aware of the blood sugar threshold below which he should cease driving. If he needs to stop driving due to low blood sugar, he knows he should consume fast-acting carbohydrate and wait for his blood glucose levels to return to normal. How long should he wait after his blood sugar levels have returned to normal before resuming his journey?

      Your Answer: 45 minutes

      Correct Answer: 30 minutes

      Explanation:

      Safe Driving for Insulin-Treated Diabetics

      Insulin-treated diabetics need to take extra precautions when driving to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road. It is important for them to test their blood sugar levels within two hours of starting a journey and every two hours thereafter. If their blood sugar drops below 5 mmol/litre, they should take a snack to raise their blood sugar levels. If their blood sugar drops below 4, they should stop driving immediately.

      Insulin-treated diabetics should always carry a supply of fast-acting carbohydrate with them in case of an episode of low blood sugar. They should not continue their journey until 45 minutes have elapsed after their blood sugar levels have returned to normal. By following these guidelines, insulin-treated diabetics can ensure their safety while driving and avoid any potential accidents on the road.

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  • Question 62 - A 54-year-old woman with established type 2 diabetes presents for her annual review....

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman with established type 2 diabetes presents for her annual review. Her HbA1c has been stable on the maximal dose of metformin for the past few years and her BP has always been well controlled. She doesn't take any other regular medications. Her HbA1c result 1 year ago was 52 mmol/mol.

      The results of her most recent review are as follows:

      HbA1c 59 mmol/mol
      eGFR 91 ml/min/1.73m² (>90 ml/min/1.73m²)
      Urine albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) 2 mg/mmol (<3 mg/mmol)
      BMI 25 kg/m²
      QRISK score 6.8%

      According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in managing her diabetes?

      Your Answer: Sulfonylurea

      Explanation:

      For a patient with T2DM on metformin whose HbA1c has increased to 58 mmol/mol, the appropriate second-line option would depend on the individual clinical scenario. In this case, the correct answer is sulfonylurea, which would be suitable for a patient with a normal BMI, no history of established cardiovascular disease or heart failure, and not at an increased risk of CVD based on their QRISK score.

      GLP-1 mimetic would not be a suitable second-line option but could be considered if triple therapy with metformin and two other oral hypoglycemic agents was not effective or tolerated, provided certain criteria are met.

      Repaglinide is not the correct answer as it is a meglitinide that is typically used as initial treatment if metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated.

      SGLT-2 inhibitor could be an appropriate option if certain NICE criteria are met. However, in the absence of established cardiovascular disease, heart failure, or an increased risk of CVD, a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea can be offered as dual therapy with metformin in the first instance, as there is no indication that these would be inappropriate based on the patient’s history.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 63 - You encounter a 44-year-old man who has been evaluated in a neurology clinic...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 44-year-old man who has been evaluated in a neurology clinic for epileptic seizures. He has been given carbamazepine, a drug that induces cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes. Which medication would carbamazepine have the most significant interaction with?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Ciclosporin

      Explanation:

      The Impact of CYP Inducers on Medications: A Case Study

      CYP inducers can have a significant impact on medications that are metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes. In the case of carbamazepine and ciclosporin, carbamazepine’s induction of the enzymes would increase the rate of metabolism of ciclosporin, potentially leading to decreased plasma levels and serious implications due to ciclosporin’s narrow therapeutic window. Paracetamol is also metabolized by CYP, and while it is not contraindicated with carbamazepine, the production of a hepatotoxic metabolite may be relevant in cases of overdose. Lithium, on the other hand, is excreted renally, so induction of P450 enzymes would not alter its excretion rate, but changes in renal function could still impact its plasma level. Penicillins have a wide therapeutic index, so the impact of CYP inducers or inhibitors is not significant. As for salicylate, there is currently no listed interaction with carbamazepine, making it unlikely to cause any issues in this patient.

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  • Question 64 - Mrs. Bowls is a 65-year-old patient who presents with her ankles 'going into...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Bowls is a 65-year-old patient who presents with her ankles 'going into spasm' when using the pedals of her car over the past couple of days. She also reports a slight tingling in her hands and feet. Apart from this, she has been well recently, with no other new symptoms. Her past medical history includes type 2 diabetes and dyspepsia. Her regular medications include metformin, sitagliptin, omeprazole, atorvastatin, and she uses sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate after meals and before bed as required. You arrange some urgent blood tests, suspecting an electrolyte disturbance. These come back showing hypomagnesaemia.

      Which of her medications should you stop?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia is often caused by proton pump inhibitors.

      Omeprazole: correct answer. Proton pump inhibitors are recognized as a common cause of hypomagnesaemia. The MHRA recommends considering testing magnesium levels before starting treatment and regularly during long-term use. However, in reality, this is likely to be infrequently carried out.

      Metformin: incorrect answer. Metformin can reduce the absorption of vitamin B12. Sitagliptin, atorvastatin, and sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate do not lead to hypomagnesaemia.

      Understanding Hypomagnesaemia

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the body. This can be caused by various factors such as the use of certain drugs like diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitleman’s and Bartter’s can also contribute to the development of this condition. Symptoms of hypomagnesaemia may include paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, arrhythmias, and decreased PTH secretion, which can lead to hypocalcaemia. ECG features similar to those of hypokalaemia may also be present, and it can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.

      Treatment for hypomagnesaemia depends on the severity of the condition. If the magnesium level is less than 0.4 mmol/L or if there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. If the magnesium level is above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts can be given in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts, so it is important to monitor for this side effect. Understanding the causes and treatment options for hypomagnesaemia can help individuals manage this condition effectively.

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  • Question 65 - Which one of the following statements regarding the FRAX risk score is accurate?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the FRAX risk score is accurate?

      Your Answer: Valid for patients aged 40-90 years

      Explanation:

      Patients between the ages of 40 and 90 are eligible to use FRAX.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

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  • Question 66 - A 50-year-old woman has developed uniform mild enlargement of the thyroid gland associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has developed uniform mild enlargement of the thyroid gland associated with some pain and tenderness. She has high titres of anti-thyroid peroxidase and also anti-thyroglobulin antibodies. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is in the normal range.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Graves' disease

      Correct Answer: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis: An Autoimmune Disease

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a prevalent autoimmune disease that is the leading cause of goitrous hypothyroidism in non-iodine-deficient areas. This disease is often underdiagnosed and is more common in women, typically occurring between the ages of 30 and 50 years. The immune system attacks and destroys thyroid cells, leading to hypothyroidism symptoms and signs that may develop over several years.

      To diagnose Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, doctors may test for three types of thyroid autoantibodies: thyroid peroxidase antibody, thyroglobulin antibody, and TSH-receptor antibody. The presence of thyroid peroxidase antibody is a strong indicator of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, as it is found in 95% of cases.

      It is essential to differentiate Hashimoto’s thyroiditis from other thyroid conditions, such as idiopathic hypothyroidism, Graves’ disease, non-toxic goitre, and thyroid carcinoma. Idiopathic hypothyroidism is incorrect as it presents no features of hypothyroidism, and the TSH level would be elevated in hypothyroidism. Graves’ disease is incorrect as it presents symptoms of hyperthyroidism, and the TSH level would be reduced. Non-toxic goitre is incorrect as it is usually asymptomatic, and thyroid function is normal. Thyroid carcinoma is incorrect as it presents as a thyroid nodule, and any unexplained thyroid lump should be referred urgently.

      In conclusion, understanding Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you suspect you may have this autoimmune disease, consult with your healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

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  • Question 67 - A 54-year-old woman with a BMI of 26 presents to the diabetic clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman with a BMI of 26 presents to the diabetic clinic with poor glycaemic control while on gliclazide 160mg bd. Her latest blood results reveal a HbA1c of 9.4%. Her laboratory values are as follows: Na+ 139 mmol/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, urea 8.4 mmol/l, creatinine 180 µmol/l, ALT 25 iu/l, and yGT 33 iu/l. What medication should be added to her treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Considering her overweight status, adding metformin would be a logical choice. However, due to the elevated creatinine levels, pioglitazone would be a more suitable alternative. It is important to note that if the creatinine level exceeds 130 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 45 ml/min), the metformin dosage should be reassessed and discontinued if the creatinine level exceeds 150 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 30 ml/min). It is worth noting that pioglitazone may cause weight gain, which could be problematic given her BMI of 26.

      Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications

      Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.

      The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.

      While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.

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  • Question 68 - Your next patient is a 72-year-old man who has a history of type...

    Correct

    • Your next patient is a 72-year-old man who has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. His blood pressure has been borderline for several weeks, and you have determined that he would benefit from treatment. His most recent blood pressure reading is 144/86 mmHg, his HbA1c level is 60 mmol/mol, and his BMI is 26 kg/m^2. Which medication would be the most suitable to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

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  • Question 69 - You are examining the blood test results of a 40-year-old overweight man who...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the blood test results of a 40-year-old overweight man who has been experiencing fatigue. All his full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and thyroid function tests were normal. The fasting plasma glucose result is provided below:

      Fasting plasma glucose 6.2 mmol/l

      What is the most suitable conclusion to draw from this finding?

      Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance - moderate risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Prediabetes - high risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      The individual with a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level ranging from 6.1-6.9 mmol/l is identified as having impaired fasting glycaemia and should be treated as having prediabetes.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

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  • Question 70 - A 47-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated for exenatide...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated for exenatide treatment. What is not included in the NICE guidelines for initiating or maintaining this medication?

      Your Answer: BMI > 35 kg/m^2

      Correct Answer: Has failed with insulin therapy

      Explanation:

      Prior insulin use is not a requirement for patients to use exenatide.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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  • Question 71 - A 29-year-old woman had presented with occasional palpitations, sweating and restlessness. An ECG...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman had presented with occasional palpitations, sweating and restlessness. An ECG had shown sinus tachycardia.

      Her blood tests had showed:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 23 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      You had started her on a beta-blocker and referred her to secondary care for specialist treatment. However, the patient returns to you stating that her appointment is in 4 months' time and she cannot carry on with her symptoms for that long.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to the emergency department

      Correct Answer: Start carbimazole

      Explanation:

      This young female patient is likely suffering from Graves’ disease, causing hyperthyroidism and symptoms such as sweating, palpitations, and restlessness. A low TSH and high T4 confirm the diagnosis, along with positive TRAbs. While waiting for secondary care, starting carbimazole is the appropriate course of action to alleviate symptoms. Seeking senior or remote specialist advice can help with prescribing. Referring to the emergency department is unnecessary as the palpitations are occasional and the ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Starting amiodarone is not recommended as it can cause thyroid dysfunction and the ECG shows sinus tachycardia, not atrial fibrillation. Continuing to wait for secondary care review doesn’t address the patient’s symptoms and concerns.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

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  • Question 72 - What is the drug class of pioglitazone, an oral hypoglycaemic agent? ...

    Correct

    • What is the drug class of pioglitazone, an oral hypoglycaemic agent?

      Your Answer: An alpha-glucosidase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Pioglitazone: A Blood Glucose Lowering Agent

      Pioglitazone is a member of the PPAR gamma agonist class of drugs that are used to lower blood glucose levels. These drugs work by activating the PPAR gamma receptor, which helps to regulate adipocyte function and improve insulin sensitivity. The blood glucose lowering effect of pioglitazone is around 1-1.3% HbA1c, which can be significant for patients with diabetes.

      However, pioglitazone is associated with some adverse events, including fluid retention and decreased bone mineral density. Patients with a prior history of heart failure should not take pioglitazone, as it is contraindicated in this population. Despite these potential risks, pioglitazone can be an effective treatment option for patients with diabetes who are struggling to control their blood glucose levels.

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  • Question 73 - A 68-year-old female with a 12 year history of hypertension and diabetes.
    At annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old female with a 12 year history of hypertension and diabetes.
      At annual review her blood pressure is 138/82 mmHg, pulse 78, fundi reveal background diabetic retinopathy, foot pulses are normal but she has evidence of a peripheral sensory loss to the ankles in both feet.
      Her results show:
      HbA1c 55 mmol/mol (20-46)
      7.2% (3.8-6.4)
      Urea 12.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      eGFR 29 mL/min/1.73m2 Cholesterol 4.8 mmol/L (<5.2)
      According to the British National Formulary, which of the following medicines should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Caution with Metformin and Ramipril in Chronic Renal Impairment

      This patient shows signs of chronic renal impairment with elevated creatinine and urea levels. It is important to note that the British National Formulary (BNF) advises against the use of metformin if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 30mL/min/1.73m2. This is due to the potential risk of life-threatening lactic acidosis, which has a reported prevalence of one to five cases per 100,000 and a mortality rate of up to 50%.

      Metformin is excreted unchanged in the urine, and its half-life is prolonged with decreased renal clearance in proportion to any decrease in creatinine clearance. This can occur chronically in chronic renal impairment or acutely with dehydration, shock, and intravascular administration of iodinated contrast agents, all of which can alter renal function. Tissue hypoxia also plays a significant role, and acute or chronic conditions that may predispose to this condition, such as sepsis, acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, cardiac failure, and chronic liver disease, may act as triggers.

      In the case of Ramipril, the BNF advises a maximum daily dose of 5 mg if the eGFR is between 30-60 mL/minute/1.73 m2 and a maximum initial dose of 1.25 mg once daily (not exceeding 5 mg daily) if the eGFR is less than 30 mL/minute/1.73 m2. There are no such limitations with amlodipine, bisoprolol, or gliclazide. It is important to exercise caution when prescribing medications in patients with chronic renal impairment and to follow the BNF guidelines to minimize the risk of adverse effects.

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  • Question 74 - What is the drug combination that should be avoided in the routine treatment...

    Incorrect

    • What is the drug combination that should be avoided in the routine treatment of hypertension for individuals at risk of developing diabetes?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitor and thiazide diuretic

      Correct Answer: Beta-blocker and calcium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers and Diabetes

      Beta-blockers are a type of medication that can be used in patients with diabetes, but they can interfere with glucose regulation. To minimize this risk, cardioselective beta-blockers may be preferred. However, the combination of beta-blockers and thiazide diuretics has been shown to increase the risk of developing diabetes. Therefore, it is important to avoid this combination of medications in individuals who are at risk of developing diabetes. By being mindful of these potential risks, healthcare providers can help ensure the safe and effective use of beta-blockers in patients with diabetes.

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  • Question 75 - A 72-year-old woman is discovered to have the subsequent blood tests:

    TSH 0.05 mu/l
    Free...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is discovered to have the subsequent blood tests:

      TSH 0.05 mu/l
      Free T4 19 pmol/l (range 9-25 pmol/l)
      Free T3 7 pmol/l (range 3-9 pmol/l)

      What are the potential outcomes if no treatment is given?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis and hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Supraventricular arrhythmias and osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Subclinical Hyperthyroidism

      Subclinical hyperthyroidism is a condition that is becoming more recognized in the medical field. It is characterized by normal levels of free thyroxine and triiodothyronine, but with a thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) that falls below the normal range, usually less than 0.1 mu/l. The condition is often caused by a multinodular goitre, particularly in elderly females, or excessive thyroxine intake.

      It is important to recognize subclinical hyperthyroidism because it can have negative effects on the cardiovascular system, such as atrial fibrillation, and on bone metabolism, leading to osteoporosis. It can also impact quality of life and increase the likelihood of dementia.

      Management of subclinical hyperthyroidism involves monitoring TSH levels, as they may revert to normal on their own. If levels remain persistently low, a therapeutic trial of low-dose antithyroid agents for approximately six months may be recommended to induce remission. It is important to address subclinical hyperthyroidism to prevent potential complications and improve overall health.

      Overall, understanding subclinical hyperthyroidism and its potential effects is crucial for proper management and prevention of complications.

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  • Question 76 - A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 190/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests show:

      - Sodium: 146 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 2.5 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 34 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 78 µmol/L

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

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  • Question 77 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor's office. She was recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor's office. She was recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism and is currently taking 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily. The doctor has access to thyroid function and other test results from the previous week. What is the most effective test for tracking her progress and treatment?

      Your Answer: Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels

      Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidase antibody levels

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Hormone Therapy and Monitoring

      Thyroxine is an effective treatment for hypothyroidism as it helps to suppress the high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in the body. The best way to monitor the effectiveness of this treatment is by measuring TSH levels and aiming to bring them into the normal range. In addition to TSH, other tests such as triiodothyronine, free thyroxine (T4), thyroid peroxidase antibody, and protein-bound iodine levels may be used in the initial investigation and diagnosis of thyroid disorders. Proper monitoring and management of thyroid hormone therapy can help improve symptoms and prevent complications.

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  • Question 78 - A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal normal serum TSH concentration, but elevated concentrations of both free thyroxine and free triiodothyronine. What is the most probable explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: A TSH-secreting pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hyperthyroidism with Normal TSH Levels

      Hyperthyroidism with normal TSH levels can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is a TSH-secreting pituitary tumour, which is a rare condition that can lead to excessive secretion of TSH and growth hormone. Another possible cause is self-administration of thyroxine, but this can be ruled out if TSH secretion is still suppressed. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, is less likely as it typically results in unmeasurable TSH concentrations. Heterophilic antibodies in the patient’s serum can cause bizarre results, but this is unlikely to be the cause in a patient with classic symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. Finally, thyroid hormone resistance (Refetoff syndrome) is a rare syndrome where thyroid hormone levels are elevated but TSH levels are not suppressed. However, this is unlikely if the patient is symptomatic.

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  • Question 79 - A 57-year-old woman with recently diagnosed type 2 diabetes presents to you seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman with recently diagnosed type 2 diabetes presents to you seeking advice. Her husband, who is also diabetic, takes a statin and his specialist always aims to get his cholesterol below 4 mmol/L.

      The patient is a non-smoker and her blood pressure is within target. She has no history of cardiovascular disease and is not currently taking any lipid lowering therapy. Her total cholesterol level is 4.2 mmol/L and her eGFR is 68 ml/min/1.73 m2. There is no evidence of albuminuria.

      What would be your recommended next step in managing this patient's lipid levels?

      Your Answer: Assess her risk using a QRISK2 assessment tool

      Correct Answer: Initiate treatment with atorvastatin 10 mg

      Explanation:

      Management of Lipid Modification Therapy in Type 2 Diabetes

      When managing lipid modification therapy in patients with type 2 diabetes, it is important to consider their risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD). According to NICE guidance issued in 2014, patients without established CVD should be offered lipid modification therapy if their 10-year risk of developing CVD using the QRISK2 assessment tool is 10% or more. However, this advice only applies to type 2 diabetes and not type 1 diabetes. Additionally, if the patient has pre-existing CV disease, a formal risk assessment is not needed, and lipid lowering therapy should be advised for secondary prevention.

      Other factors that should be considered when managing lipid modification therapy include the patient’s estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) and the presence of albuminuria. A risk assessment tool should not be used for patients with an eGFR less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2 and/or albuminuria, as they are at increased risk of CVD and should be offered atorvastatin 20 mg for primary or secondary prevention of CVD.

      In summary, when managing lipid modification therapy in patients with type 2 diabetes, it is important to assess their risk of developing CVD, consider their eGFR and albuminuria, and determine if they have pre-existing CV disease. This information will help determine whether a formal risk assessment is needed or if lipid lowering therapy should be advised for secondary prevention.

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  • Question 80 - A 59-year-old non-smoking woman with no previous cardiac history has a total cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old non-smoking woman with no previous cardiac history has a total cholesterol of 9.0 mmol/l. She is overweight and has sleep apnoea. On examination, you notice her skin is particularly dry and there appears to be some evidence of hair loss.
      What is the most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice and reassurance

      Correct Answer: Check her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

      Explanation:

      Recommended Tests and Actions for a Patient with Dyslipidaemia

      Recommended Tests and Actions for a Patient with Dyslipidaemia

      When a patient presents with dyslipidaemia, it is important to conduct a thorough workup to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment. In the case of a patient with dry skin, hair loss, obesity, and sleep apnoea, there is a suspicion of hypothyroidism as the cause of secondary hypercholesterolaemia. The following tests and actions are recommended:

      Check her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): A TSH test should be conducted to confirm or rule out hypothyroidism as the cause of dyslipidaemia. Most lipid abnormalities in patients with overt hypothyroidism will resolve with thyroid hormone replacement therapy.

      Check her HbA1c: While not directly related to dyslipidaemia, a HbA1c test can help identify any association between hypothyroidism and type 2 diabetes.

      Provide lifestyle advice and reassurance: Lifestyle advice on weight, alcohol, and exercise is always appropriate, but there may be nothing to reassure the patient about.

      Observe the effects of replacement treatment before starting screening for familial hypercholesterolaemia: Given the likelihood of hypothyroidism, it would be prudent to observe the effects of replacement treatment before starting screening for familial hypercholesterolaemia.

      Avoid starting high-dose statin therapy: It would be best to observe the effects of replacement treatment before starting high-dose statin therapy.

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  • Question 81 - Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who presents to you with a sore throat,...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who presents to you with a sore throat, cough and muscle pain that has been going on for 3 days. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension and is currently on a twice daily insulin regimen.

      After conducting a thorough assessment, you inform Sophie that she is likely suffering from the flu and recommend that she rest, take regular paracetamol and increase her fluid intake.

      Given her condition, what is the most appropriate advice to provide Sophie regarding her insulin management during her illness?

      Your Answer: Continue his normal insulin regime and check blood sugars frequently

      Explanation:

      When a patient with insulin-dependent diabetes falls ill, they should not stop taking their insulin as it could lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. Instead, they should continue with their regular insulin regimen and monitor their blood sugar levels frequently, at least every four hours during the day.

      It is not advisable for the patient to check their blood sugar levels before each insulin dose as it would require careful titration and depend on their food intake, which may not be practical or safe in this situation.

      Doubling the patient’s insulin dose is not recommended as it could increase the risk of hypoglycemia, especially if they have reduced oral intake due to feeling unwell.

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus during Illness: Sick Day Rules

      When a patient with diabetes mellitus becomes unwell, it is important to provide them with key messages to manage their condition. Increasing the frequency of blood glucose monitoring to at least four hourly is crucial, as well as encouraging fluid intake of at least 3 litres in 24 hours. If the patient is struggling to eat, sugary drinks may be necessary to maintain carbohydrate intake. Educating patients to have a box of sick day supplies can also be helpful. Access to a mobile phone has been shown to reduce the progression of ketosis to diabetic ketoacidosis.

      Patients taking oral hypoglycemic medication should continue taking their medication even if they are not eating much. However, metformin should be stopped if the patient is becoming dehydrated due to its potential impact on renal function. Patients on insulin must not stop taking it, as this can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. They should continue their normal insulin regime and check their blood sugars frequently. If ketone levels are raised and blood sugars are also raised, corrective doses of insulin may be necessary. The corrective dose varies by patient, but a rule of thumb is the total daily insulin dose divided by 6 (maximum 15 units).

      Possible indications for hospital admission include suspicion of underlying illness requiring hospital treatment, inability to keep fluids down for more than a few hours, persistent diarrhea, significant ketosis in an insulin-dependent diabetic despite additional insulin, blood glucose persistently >20mmol/l despite additional insulin, patient unable to manage adjustments to usual diabetes management, and lack of support at home (e.g., a patient who lives alone and is at risk of becoming unconscious). By following these sick day rules, patients with diabetes mellitus can better manage their condition during illness.

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  • Question 82 - A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering she is pregnant. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering she is pregnant. She was diagnosed with hypothyroidism two years ago and has been taking levothyroxine 75mcg od, which has kept her condition stable. Additionally, she has been taking folic acid 400mcg od for the past 8 months. Her last blood test, taken 4 months ago, showed the following results:

      TSH 1.6 mU/l

      You decide to order a repeat TSH and free T4 measurement. What is the most appropriate course of action now?

      Your Answer: Decrease levothyroxine to 50mcg od

      Correct Answer: Increase levothyroxine to 100 mcg od

      Explanation:

      If a woman has hypothyroidism, it is recommended to promptly raise the dosage of levothyroxine and closely observe her TSH levels.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

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  • Question 83 - A 16-year-old girl is worried that she might have an underlying endocrine issue....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is worried that she might have an underlying endocrine issue. She is a bright student and has secured a place at college. She weighs 37 kg (5 stone 11 pounds) and is 1.75 m (5ft 9 inches) tall. She appears malnourished, her skin is dry, and she has excessive growth of fine soft body hair. She has not had her period for six months. Her cortisol level is elevated, and her free thyroxine (T4) is normal. She is not anemic but has a decreased white cell and platelet count.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Occult carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Findings in Anorexia Nervosa Compared to Other Conditions

      Anorexia nervosa is a condition characterized by severe weight loss due to self-imposed starvation. Endocrine findings in anorexia nervosa include decreased levels of follicular-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and oestrogens, as well as urinary 17-hydroxy-corticosteroids. However, T4 and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are usually normal, while growth hormone and cortisol levels may be elevated. Other possible findings include reduced white cell and platelet count, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, and hypomagnesaemia.

      On the other hand, Addison’s disease, which also causes weight loss, is characterized by reduced cortisol levels. HIV infection may lead to endocrine disorders such as hypogonadism, hypothyroidism, and adrenal excess or insufficiency, but there is no information to support this diagnosis in the given case. Hypothyroidism, which may cause weight gain, is characterized by reduced T4 levels, but this is not the case in anorexia nervosa. Finally, occult carcinoma, which may cause weight loss, is not likely in this case, as the weight loss is chronic and typical of anorexia nervosa.

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  • Question 84 - A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice. She has been experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice. She has been experiencing excessive sweating, palpitations, and weight loss for the past six months and is now experiencing a headache. During her examination, her blood pressure is found to be 230/130 mmHg with a postural drop to 180/110 mmHg, her pulse is bounding and regular at 115/minute, and she has a tremor and appears pale. What is the most appropriate investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: 24 hour urinary vanillyl mandelic acid (VMA)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Phaeochromocytoma: Understanding the Importance of 24-Hour Urinary VMA

      Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour of the adrenal medulla that secretes catecholamines, causing life-threatening hypertension and cardiac arrhythmias. To diagnose this condition, it is crucial to understand the importance of 24-hour urinary vanillyl mandelic acid (VMA) levels, which are elevated in patients with tumours that secrete catecholamines.

      Patients with phaeochromocytoma may experience intermittent symptoms such as headache, profuse sweating, palpitations, and tremor, which tend to get more frequent and severe over time. Hypertension, which is often paroxysmal, and postural hypotension are also common features. A sinus tachycardia may also be present, causing palpitations.

      Other diagnostic tests, such as renal function tests, aldosterone and renin levels, full blood count, and thyroid function tests, may be useful in ruling out other conditions that share similar clinical features. However, the severe hypertension alongside a typical history of phaeochromocytoma would require urinary VMA levels for diagnosis.

      In conclusion, understanding the importance of 24-hour urinary VMA levels is crucial in diagnosing phaeochromocytoma, a rare but potentially life-threatening condition. Early diagnosis and treatment can lead to a cure, making this diagnostic test a vital tool in clinical practice.

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  • Question 85 - A 35-year-old patient is evaluated after starting orlistat for weight management. Her initial...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient is evaluated after starting orlistat for weight management. Her initial weight was 85kg and now it is 78kg, indicating an 8.2% weight loss. As per the 2014 NICE Guidelines, what is the minimum percentage of weight loss that is considered acceptable for patients to continue orlistat therapy after three months?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      The recommended dosage for orlistat is 120 mg three times a day with meals, for patients with a BMI of 30 or higher, or a BMI of 27 or higher with other risk factors such as high blood pressure or diabetes. However, the guidelines suggest that a lower target could be considered for patients with type 2 diabetes. It is important to note that orlistat can also be bought without a prescription.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

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  • Question 86 - A 45-year-old male with type 1 diabetes has been diagnosed with microalbuminuria during...

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    • A 45-year-old male with type 1 diabetes has been diagnosed with microalbuminuria during his yearly check-up. He is aware of other patients with type 1 diabetes who have developed renal failure and required dialysis a few years after being diagnosed with nephropathy. When examining his vascular risk profile, which parameter is most likely to decrease the risk of future renal failure?

      Your Answer: BMI <30

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Managing Nephropathy Progression

      Tight control of blood pressure and glucose levels is crucial in managing the progression of nephropathy. The recommended target for systolic blood pressure is 130 or less, while the HbA1c target should be less than 53 mmol/mol. Although BMI, diastolic blood pressure, and cholesterol are relevant factors, they are less significant compared to blood pressure and glucose control.

      Among all antihypertensives, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) have the strongest evidence for reducing nephropathy progression. Therefore, it is important to prioritize these medications in the management of nephropathy. Proper management of blood pressure and glucose levels, along with the use of ACE inhibitors and ARBs, can significantly slow down the progression of nephropathy.

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  • Question 87 - A 68-year-old man has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He...

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    • A 68-year-old man has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has a body mass index of 28 kg/m2, an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 30 ml/min/1.73 m2 and he has 1+ protein on urinalysis. He has a past history of heart failure.
      What is the most appropriate initial medication to be prescribed for this patient? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Acarbose

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Type 2 Diabetes: Mechanisms and Considerations

      Gliclazide is a sulfonylurea medication commonly used for type 2 diabetes mellitus. It works by increasing insulin release from the pancreas and can be used in mild to moderate renal failure. Acarbose, on the other hand, is an intestinal alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that delays the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose, resulting in lower blood glucose levels. Glibenclamide, a long-acting sulfonylurea, is associated with a higher risk of hypoglycemia and should be avoided in the elderly. Metformin, a biguanide, reduces insulin resistance and hepatic glucose production but can cause lactic acidosis in certain circumstances and is contraindicated in patients with renal or hepatic impairment. Pioglitazone, a thiazolidinedione, promotes insulin sensitivity but is contraindicated in heart failure due to its association with fluid retention. When prescribing these medications, it is important to consider their mechanisms of action and potential risks in patients with comorbidities.

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  • Question 88 - A 48-year-old woman undergoes fasting blood tests for hypertension evaluation. The results show...

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    • A 48-year-old woman undergoes fasting blood tests for hypertension evaluation. The results show a fasting glucose level of 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated, and the result is 6.7 mmol/l. She reports feeling constantly fatigued but denies experiencing polyuria or polydipsia. What is the interpretation of these findings?

      Your Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

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  • Question 89 - A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His...

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    • A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His doctor prescribes him prednisolone 40 mg once daily for 5 days. What is the recommended course of action after the 5 day treatment?

      Your Answer: Taper the prednisolone - reducing by 10 mg every 5 days

      Correct Answer: Stop the prednisolone with no further doses

      Explanation:

      According to the BNF, if patients have been taking systemic corticosteroids at a dosage of more than 40 mg prednisolone daily for over a week, or have been on treatment for more than 3 weeks, or have received repeated courses recently, it is recommended to gradually withdraw the medication.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

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  • Question 90 - A 45-year-old man is admitted with a myocardial infarction. His serum cholesterol concentration...

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    • A 45-year-old man is admitted with a myocardial infarction. His serum cholesterol concentration is 9.6 mmol/l. An underlying diagnosis of familial hypercholesterolaemia is suspected.
      Which of the following signs on examination of this patient would be most suggestive of this underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corneal arcus

      Correct Answer: Tendon xanthomas

      Explanation:

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol and low-density lipoprotein. Symptoms include corneal arcus, periorbital xanthelasmas, and tendon xanthomas, which are specific to this condition. Tendon xanthomas, particularly in the Achilles tendons and extensor tendons on the back of the hand, are a diagnostic criterion for familial hypercholesterolaemia. Corneal arcus, a white, grey, or blue opaque ring in the corneal margin caused by a lipid deposit, is also a diagnostic criterion, but only if present before the age of 45. Eruptive xanthomas, palmar xanthomas, and xanthelasma are also associated with hypercholesterolaemia, but may be seen in individuals with normal serum lipid levels.

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  • Question 91 - A 47-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of lethargy. During a...

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    • A 47-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of lethargy. During a work-up, her fasting plasma glucose level was found to be 6.3 mmol/l. The GP registrar ordered an HbA1c test to confirm the diagnosis of prediabetes. What is the most probable condition/situation that could render the test result invalid?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic anaemia

      Explanation:

      HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis in certain conditions such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, and chronic kidney disease.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

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  • Question 92 - A 14-year-old patient is admitted to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain, polyuria...

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    • A 14-year-old patient is admitted to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain, polyuria and polydipsia which have particularly worsened over 72 hours. His parents called an ambulance when he became confused and unwell. After an initial workup, he is given a new diagnosis of type I diabetes and is found to be in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His father tells the admitting doctor that the patient’s maternal grandparents both have diabetes.
      Which of the following most reliably suggests that a patient presenting with diabetes has the type 1 variety?

      Your Answer: Retinopathy

      Correct Answer: History of recent weight loss

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Factors that Differentiate Type I and Type II Diabetes

      Type I diabetes is characterized by the autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, which produce insulin. This results in absolute insulin deficiency, leading to the use of fat and muscle for energy and rapid weight loss. On the other hand, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance, but some insulin is still being produced and is at least partially effective. Factors that differentiate the two types include the presence of diabetic retinopathy, family history of diabetes, hypertriglyceridaemia, and onset age. Recent weight loss is a better predictor of type I diabetes.

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  • Question 93 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the Emergency...

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    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the Emergency Department after experiencing chest pain. He is diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome and iron-deficiency anemia. A percutaneous coronary intervention is performed, and a coronary artery stent is inserted. Endoscopies of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract are performed and reported as normal. Upon discharge, he is prescribed aspirin, clopidogrel, ramipril, lansoprazole, simvastatin, and ferrous sulfate in addition to his regular levothyroxine. Six weeks later, he reports feeling constantly fatigued to his GP, who orders routine blood tests:

      Hb 11.9 g/dl
      Platelets 155 * 109/l
      WBC 5.2 * 109/l

      Free T4 8.1 pmol/l
      TSH 8.2 mu/l

      The patient's TSH had been within range for the past two years prior to his recent admission. Which of the newly prescribed drugs is most likely responsible for the elevated TSH?

      Your Answer: Ferrous sulphate

      Explanation:

      To avoid reduced absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be administered four hours apart.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

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  • Question 94 - Mr. Brent, a 36-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes, comes in for his...

    Incorrect

    • Mr. Brent, a 36-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes, comes in for his yearly diabetes check-up. During the discussion of injection technique, he confesses that he only injects insulin into his abdomen because it is the least uncomfortable area. Upon examination of the injection sites, the nurse discovers a pouch of fat on either side of the lower abdomen.

      What is the term used to describe this diabetes treatment complication?

      Your Answer: Gastroparesis

      Correct Answer: Lipodystrophy

      Explanation:

      Insulin therapy can lead to lipodystrophy, a well-known complication that can result in unpredictable insulin absorption. This condition is caused by repeated injections into the same site, which can alter the subcutaneous fat and affect diabetes management. To prevent lipodystrophy, it is recommended to rotate injection sites. Another skin condition that can occur in patients on insulin is necrobiosis lipoidica, which is characterized by atrophic plaques on the shins. Acanthosis nigricans is another skin manifestation that can be a sign of diabetes, endocrine disorders, or stomach cancer. This condition presents as brown, velvety patches of skin in areas such as the axillae or groin. Finally, intertrigo is a type of inflammation that occurs in skin folds, such as the groin or under the breasts, and is often caused by yeast infections. This condition is more common in diabetics and may be the first sign of type 2 diabetes.

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

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  • Question 95 - A 5-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes is rushed into the emergency room...

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    • A 5-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes is rushed into the emergency room by her father as she is extremely restless. He suspects that she is experiencing a 'hypo' and has attempted to give her sugary drinks and snacks, but to no avail. The child is uncooperative and agitated. Upon examination, she appears sweaty and anxious, but her airways are clear and she is breathing normally. Physical examination is unremarkable, and her vital signs are normal. A blood glucose test reveals a reading of 3.2 mmol/L. The child weighs 20kg. What is the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Administer glucagon 500 mcg IM STAT

      Explanation:

      In the case of a child weighing 25kg or less experiencing hypoglycaemia, glucagon 500 mcg should be given via IM if oral treatment is not possible or ineffective. Hypoglycaemia is clinically defined as a blood glucose level below 3.5 mmol/L, which is the case for this child. Despite the mother’s attempts at oral treatment, the child has not improved, making it necessary to administer glucagon to prevent further deterioration. Once the child is stable, it is advisable to contact the paediatric team for further evaluation and management.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.

      Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 96 - A 70-year-old woman presents with severe sharp pain in the left groin following...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with severe sharp pain in the left groin following a minor fall and is unable to walk. Radiological examination reveals a left neck of femur fracture. Routine laboratory evaluation shows a serum calcium concentration of 1.8 mmol/l (normal range 2.20–2.60 mmol/l), a serum phosphorus concentration of 0.72 mmol/l (normal range 0.7–1.4 mmol/l) and increased serum alkaline phosphatase activity. The serum parathyroid hormone level was subsequently found to be elevated.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency and its Differential Diagnosis

      Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition that can lead to osteomalacia, characterized by hypocalcaemia and hypophosphataemia. This deficiency can be caused by dietary deficiency or malabsorption. Patients with osteomalacia often have elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels, and the severity and chronicity of the disease can affect calcium intake in the diet. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may also be present in patients with vitamin D insufficiency.

      Paget’s disease of bone, hypervitaminosis D, osteoporosis, and primary hyperparathyroidism are differential diagnoses that should be considered. Paget’s disease is associated with bone pain, increased risk of fracture, and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity, but serum calcium levels are usually normal. Hypervitaminosis D is associated with hypercalcaemia, while osteoporosis is not associated with any specific abnormality in the standard bone biochemistry profile. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with hypercalcaemia.

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  • Question 97 - A 38-year-old man presents with complaints of decreased libido. He has also noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with complaints of decreased libido. He has also noticed a decrease in the frequency of needing to shave. During attempts at sexual intercourse, he has been unable to maintain an erection. His visual field testing is normal and he has no history of medication use. Growth hormone studies and thyroid function levels are within normal limits, but his serum prolactin levels are elevated at 1500 mIU/l. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Acromegaly

      Correct Answer: Microprolactinoma

      Explanation:

      When a patient has consistently high prolactin levels without a clear cause, it may be due to a prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor. In the case of a microprolactinoma, the prolactin levels may be between 1000-5000 mIU/l, but the patient’s hormone profile and visual fields are normal. Hyperprolactinemia can inhibit the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, leading to symptoms such as infertility and decreased libido. Treatment options include surgery or medication with dopamine agonists. Macroprolactinoma, acromegaly, and hypothyroidism are unlikely causes in this case. Psychogenic impotence doesn’t explain the elevated prolactin levels.

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  • Question 98 - You receive a discharge summary for a middle-aged patient who was admitted with...

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    • You receive a discharge summary for a middle-aged patient who was admitted with back pain and diagnosed with vertebral wedge fractures. The patient has been prescribed high dose vitamin D replacement due to a proven vitamin D deficiency found during the work-up for the fractures. What monitoring should be arranged?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      It is important to monitor calcium levels when starting vitamin D as it can reveal any underlying hyperparathyroidism and lead to hypercalcaemia. Therefore, patients with renal calculi, granulomatous disease, or bone metastases may not be suitable for vitamin D. The National Osteoporosis Society recommends checking serum calcium after one month. However, there is no need to regularly check vitamin D levels once replacement therapy has begun.

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.

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  • Question 99 - A 41-year-old man has come to see you for the results of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man has come to see you for the results of his recent lipid tests. A first cousin recently had a myocardial infarction aged 36 and his aunt has advised the family to get a cholesterol check.

      With a family history of premature coronary artery disease, above what total cholesterol level would you consider and investigate for familial hypercholesterolaemia?

      Your Answer: 9 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: 7.5 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines on Lipid Modification

      According to the NICE guidelines on lipid modification (CG181), it is important to consider the possibility of familial hypercholesterolaemia in patients with a total cholesterol concentration of more than 7.5 mmol/L and a family history of premature coronary heart disease. In such cases, investigation is necessary to determine the presence of the condition.

      For patients with a total cholesterol concentration of more than 9.0 mmol/L or a non-HDL cholesterol concentration of more than 7.5 mmol/L, specialist assessment is recommended even in the absence of a first-degree family history of premature coronary heart disease. This is important to ensure appropriate management and treatment of high cholesterol levels, which can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help healthcare professionals identify and manage patients with high cholesterol levels, reducing the risk of serious health complications.

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  • Question 100 - A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of fatigue and nocturia. On...

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    • A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of fatigue and nocturia. On further questioning she also admits to increased thirst. She doesn't have dysuria or urgency, denies the possibility of pregnancy and has otherwise been well. Her sister was recently diagnosed with diabetes, although she is not sure which type. She has looked at the symptoms online and is worried about a possible diabetes diagnosis; she wants to know how she can distinguish between the types of diabetes.

      Her body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m².

      Which of the following tests would be best in differentiating these diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Fasting glucose

      Correct Answer: Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD)

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically made based on symptoms and signs of diabetic ketoacidosis, such as abdominal pain, polyuria, dehydration, and Kussmaul respiration. Diagnostic criteria include fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l. Antibody tests, such as anti-GAD and islet cell antibodies, can help distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Further investigation with C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies may be necessary in patients with atypical features or intermediate age.

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  • Question 101 - A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns of feeling constantly overheated and...

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    • A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns of feeling constantly overheated and experiencing early menopause. Her husband has also noticed a swelling in her neck over the past few weeks. During the examination, her pulse is recorded at 90/minute and a small, painless goitre is observed. The doctor orders blood tests which reveal the following results:

      - TSH < 0.05 mu/l
      - Free T4 24 pmol/l
      - Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies 102 IU/mL (< 35 IU/mL)
      - ESR 23 mm/hr

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Toxic multinodular goitre

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Based on the presence of thyrotoxic symptoms, goitre, and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies, the likely diagnosis is

      Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs

      Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.

      Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.

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  • Question 102 - Galactorrhoea is a potential feature of which of the following conditions? ...

    Correct

    • Galactorrhoea is a potential feature of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes of Galactorrhoea: Understanding the Link to Hypothyroidism

      Galactorrhoea, the spontaneous flow of milk from the breast, can be caused by a variety of factors. Physiological causes include postpartum changes, hormonal fluctuations during puberty or menopause, and elevated prolactin levels due to conditions such as prolactinoma. Other medical conditions, such as chronic renal failure, bronchogenic carcinoma, and sarcoidosis, can also lead to galactorrhoea.

      One lesser-known cause of galactorrhoea is primary hypothyroidism. This occurs when the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to increased levels of thyroid-releasing hormone and subsequent secretion of prolactin. The longer the hypothyroidism goes untreated, the more likely it is to cause hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea.

      It’s important to note that breast cancer and schizophrenia are not causes of galactorrhoea. While breast cancer may present with unilateral breast discharge, it is typically not milky. Schizophrenia itself doesn’t cause hyperprolactinaemia, but antipsychotic drugs used to treat the condition can. Other medications, such as antidepressants and spironolactone, can also produce galactorrhoea.

      In summary, galactorrhoea can have a variety of causes, including physiological changes, medical conditions, and certain medications. Primary hypothyroidism is one potential cause that should not be overlooked, as it can lead to hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea if left untreated.

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  • Question 103 - One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are...

    Incorrect

    • One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are NOT hormone responsive.

      Your Answer: Prostate

      Correct Answer: Renal cell

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Therapy for Metastatic Cancer: A Review of Treatment Options

      Hormonal therapy has been used in the treatment of various types of metastatic cancer, but its effectiveness varies depending on the cancer type. In renal cell cancer, hormonal therapy has not shown promising results. However, medroxyprogesterone acetate may be used to treat cancer-related anorexia or loss of appetite.

      For metastatic/locally advanced carcinoma of the prostate, testosterone ablation with orchidectomy or anti-androgens can produce a clinical remission in the majority of cases.

      In breast cancer, anti-oestrogen therapy with tamoxifen can be effective for oestrogen-receptor positive tumours, which make up 60% of breast tumours.

      In metastatic endometrial cancer, progestogens may be effective in 30% of cases.

      For high-risk thyroid cancer, thyroxine can be used to suppress thyroid-stimulating hormone.

      Overall, hormonal therapy can be a useful treatment option for certain types of metastatic cancer, but it is important to consider the specific cancer type and individual patient factors when determining the most appropriate treatment plan.

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  • Question 104 - The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is commonly associated with which...

    Incorrect

    • The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is commonly associated with which type of tumour?

      Your Answer: Squamous-cell carcinoma of the lung

      Correct Answer: Small-cell carcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Small-Cell Carcinoma of the Lung and SIADH

      Small-cell carcinoma of the lung is a type of lung cancer that has been found to cause SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion) in 18.9% of cases. SIADH is a condition where there is an abnormal release of ADH, leading to impaired water excretion and hyponatremia. This condition can cause symptoms such as headaches, weakness, confusion, drowsiness, and seizures. While SIADH can also occur in other types of cancer, it is reported as a rare event in breast cancer and occurs in pancreatic cancer, duodenal cancer, and colon cancer. Patients with malignancy-associated SIADH have poor outcomes, making early detection and treatment crucial.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 105 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension has a 10-year cardiovascular disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension has a 10-year cardiovascular disease risk of 20%. It is decided to initiate treatment with atorvastatin 20 mg. Before starting the medication, liver function tests are conducted:

      Bilirubin 10 µmol/l (3 - 17 µmol/l)
      ALP 96 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
      ALT 40 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
      Gamma-GT 28 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)

      After three months, the LFTs are repeated:

      Bilirubin 12 µmol/l (3 - 17 µmol/l)
      ALP 107 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
      ALT 104 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
      Gamma-GT 76 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)

      What is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer: Stop treatment and refer to gastroenterology

      Correct Answer: Continue treatment and repeat LFTs in 1 month

      Explanation:

      If serum transaminase levels remain consistently 3 times higher than the upper limit of the reference range, treatment with statins must be stopped.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 106 - Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old civil engineer who was recently diagnosed with type...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old civil engineer who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes during her NHS over-40 health check. Your colleague started her on metformin two weeks ago, but she has requested a telephone consultation as she is still experiencing nausea with it. She has tried to persevere but now she has had enough and wants to stop it. Her HbA1c at diagnosis was 52mmol/l. Her body mass index is 30 kg/m². Her renal function is normal.

      What is the most appropriate medication option to try next?

      Your Answer: Sulphonylurea

      Correct Answer: Modified-release metformin

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences gastrointestinal side-effects with metformin, it is recommended to try a modified-release formulation before considering switching to a second-line agent. While sulphonylurea, pioglitazone, and sitagliptin are potential second-line agents for those who cannot tolerate metformin, NICE advises trying modified-release metformin before considering these alternatives.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 107 - A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of constant fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of constant fatigue and muscle weakness for the past 4 months. She has no significant medical history and is a non-smoker with a healthy weight. On examination, her blood pressure is found to be consistently high at 160/95 mmHg. However, there are no other significant findings on physical examination. Her blood sugar levels are normal, but her potassium levels are low at 3.4 mmol/L. The GP suspects primary hyperaldosteronism and plans to refer the patient to secondary care. What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this case?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone suppression test

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone/renin ratio

      Explanation:

      The initial investigation for suspected primary hyperaldosteronism is a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio. A CT abdomen may be used to detect an adrenal adenoma, but it is not the first-line investigation. A dexamethasone suppression test is primarily used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome by observing cortisol level responses after dexamethasone injection. A short synacthen test is utilized to identify hypoadrenalism, such as Addison’s disease.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal aden