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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old woman has been referred by her GP due to passing an...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has been referred by her GP due to passing an unusually large volume of urine and complaining of continuous thirst. The following investigations were conducted:

      Random plasma:
      Investigation Result
      Sodium (Na+) 155 mmol/l
      Osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg
      Glucose 4.5 mmol/l

      Urine:
      Investigation Result
      Osmolality 90 mOsmol/kg
      Glucose 0.1 mmol/l

      In healthy patients, the urine: plasma osmolality ratio is > 2. A water deprivation test was conducted, and after 6.5 hours of fluid deprivation, the patient's weight had dropped by >3%, and the serum osmolality was 310 mOsmol/kg. Urine osmolality at this stage was 210 mOsmol/kg. The patient was then given desmopressin intramuscularly (im) and allowed to drink. The urine osmolality increased to 700 mOsmol/kg, and her plasma osmolality was 292 mOsmol/kg.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this 36-year-old woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Cranial Diabetes Insipidus: A Comparison with Other Conditions

      Cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb free water, resulting in excessive water loss. The most likely cause of this condition is a pituitary tumor, which reduces antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. Other conditions, such as diabetes mellitus, chronic renal disease, lithium therapy, and primary polydipsia, may also cause polydipsia and polyuria, but they present with different symptoms and responses to treatment.

      To diagnose cranial DI, doctors perform a water deprivation test and measure the urine: plasma osmolality ratio. In patients with cranial DI, the ratio is below 2, indicating that the kidneys are not concentrating urine as well as they should be. However, when given desmopressin im (exogenous ADH), the patient’s urine osmolality dramatically increases, showing that the kidneys can concentrate urine appropriately when stimulated by ADH. This confirms the absence of ADH as the cause of cranial DI.

      Diabetes mellitus patients present with glycosuria and hyperglycemia, in addition to polydipsia and polyuria. Chronic renal disease and lithium therapy cause nephrogenic DI, which does not respond to desmopressin im. Primary polydipsia causes low urine osmolality, low plasma osmolality, and hyponatremia due to excessive water intake. However, patients with primary polydipsia retain some ability to concentrate urine, and removing the fluid source limits polyuria to some extent.

      In conclusion, diagnosing cranial DI requires a thorough comparison with other conditions that cause polydipsia and polyuria. By understanding the symptoms and responses to treatment of each condition, doctors can accurately diagnose and treat patients with cranial DI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old male is scheduled for his annual diabetic review. During the examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male is scheduled for his annual diabetic review. During the examination, it is noted that his body mass index has increased to 31.5 kg/m2. How do you calculate body mass index?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight/(Height)2

      Explanation:

      BMI is a calculation of weight over height squared and is used to determine if someone is underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese. A BMI above 30 indicates obesity and is associated with increased risks for various health issues and surgical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 has a...

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    • A 35-year-old woman with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 has a fasting blood sugar of 10 mmol/l and 11.7 mmol/l on two separate occasions. Her family history includes diabetes mellitus in her father and maternal uncle. Despite attempting to lose weight through diet and exercise, she has been unsuccessful in achieving a balanced diet. She is open to taking either orlistat or an anorexigenic agent. Further investigation reveals that her blood insulin level tends to be relatively high.
      What is the most likely hormonal change to be observed in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced adiponectin

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Factors Predisposing to Type II Diabetes Mellitus

      Type II diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disorder characterized by insulin resistance and high blood sugar levels. Several endocrine factors can predispose individuals to this condition. In obese patients with a positive family history of diabetes, adiponectin levels are reduced. Adiponectin is a hormone secreted by adipocytes that plays a role in glucose metabolism. In contrast, leptin levels are increased in these patients and usually correlate with the degree of insulin resistance. Growth hormone levels are increased in acromegaly, which can also predispose individuals to type II diabetes. Phaeochromocytoma, a rare tumor of the adrenal gland, can cause increased epinephrine levels and predispose individuals to diabetes. Similarly, Cushing syndrome, a condition characterized by increased cortisol levels, can also predispose individuals to type II diabetes. Understanding these endocrine factors can help clinicians identify individuals at risk for type II diabetes and implement appropriate preventive measures.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, loss of appetite,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, loss of appetite, and weight gain. Her blood work shows low levels of free T3 and T4, as well as low levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). Even after receiving thyrotrophin releasing hormone, her TSH levels remain low. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormones. There are three types of hypothyroidism: primary, secondary, and tertiary.

      Primary hypothyroidism is caused by a malfunctioning thyroid gland, often due to autoimmune thyroiditis or burnt out Grave’s disease. In this type, TRH and TSH levels are elevated, but T3 and T4 levels are low.

      Secondary hypothyroidism occurs when the anterior pituitary gland fails to produce enough TSH, despite adequate TRH levels. This results in low levels of TSH, T3, and T4, even after a TRH stimulation test.

      Tertiary hypothyroidism is rare and occurs when the hypothalamus fails to produce enough TRH. All three hormones are inappropriately low in this type.

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a form of autoimmune thyroid disease characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid. It is a form of primary hypothyroidism.

      De Quervain’s thyroiditis is a subacute thyroiditis, usually viral, which causes a transient period of primary hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism in addition to a tender thyroid.

      Understanding the different types of hypothyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman is referred to the Diabetes Clinic with a new diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is referred to the Diabetes Clinic with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 34 kg/m2. Her finger-prick blood glucose test is 9 mmol/l. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease and chronic kidney disease. Her medications include ramipril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 40 mg, aspirin 75 mg and bisoprolol 5 mg. Her laboratory test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      HbA1C 61 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
      Creatinine 178 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 26 ml/min > 90 ml/min
      Which of the following drugs would be the most appropriate to manage this patient’s diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Linagliptin

      Explanation:

      Common Anti-Diabetic Medications and Their Mechanisms of Action

      Linagliptin: This medication is a DPP-4 inhibitor that works by blocking the degradation of GLP-1, which increases insulin secretion and lowers blood sugar levels.

      Glargine insulin: Glargine is a long-acting insulin that is preferred for people needing baseline control of sugar throughout the day and those at risk of hypoglycaemia. It has a lower risk of causing hypoglycaemia compared to other insulin types and may cause weight gain.

      Rosiglitazone: This thiazolidinedione medication is an agonist for the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors and is used for diabetes control. However, it can exacerbate heart conditions and cause weight gain, and is no longer recommended by BNF due to increased risk of heart attacks.

      Metformin: This biguanide medication is commonly used as first-line treatment for diabetes, but its use is limited by gastrointestinal upset and is contraindicated in patients with poor renal function and low GFR.

      Gliclazide: This sulfonylurea medication is an insulin secretagogue that stimulates the release of insulin. It is often used as a second-line medication, but its use is limited by the risk of hypoglycaemia and weight gain.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A cohort of individuals with type I diabetes mellitus, aged 50-60 years, with...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort of individuals with type I diabetes mellitus, aged 50-60 years, with blood glucose levels between 8.0 and 10.0 mmol/l for a minimum of 10 years, underwent rectal biopsies. The results revealed the presence of osmotic cellular injury in arterioles. What clinical complication is linked with this type of injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impotence

      Explanation:

      The Sorbitol/Aldose Reductase Pathway and Diabetic Complications

      Hyperglycaemia in diabetes can lead to the formation of sorbitol in tissues that do not require insulin for glucose uptake, such as the retina, kidney, and nerves. This occurs through the sorbitol/aldose reductase pathway, which is implicated in microvascular damage to nervous tissue, retina, and kidney. When glucose is present in excess, it enters this pathway where aldose reductase reduces it to sorbitol, which cannot cross cell membranes and accumulates, producing osmotic stresses on cells by drawing water into the cell. Sorbitol dehydrogenase can then oxidise sorbitol to fructose, which also produces NADH from NAD+. Excessive activation of this pathway leads to increased levels of reactive oxygen species, which can promote cell damage.

      While most body cells require insulin for glucose to enter the cell, the cells of the retina, kidney, and nervous tissues are insulin-independent, allowing for a free interchange of glucose intracellularly to extracellularly. Any glucose not used for energy will be converted into sorbitol, leading to osmotic cellular injury. This can result in microvascular damage to nervous tissue, retina, and kidney, causing diabetic complications.

      Cerebral infarction, congestive heart failure, pyelonephritis, and rectal ulceration are not directly related to osmotic vascular injury caused by the sorbitol/aldose reductase pathway. However, atherosclerotic cerebrovascular disease and coronary artery disease are more frequent with diabetes mellitus and can cause damage to the brain and heart, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the Endocrinology Clinic complaining of bruising, striae, acne...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the Endocrinology Clinic complaining of bruising, striae, acne and hirsutism. During the examination, the patient seems lethargic and depressed, with centripetal obesity and proximal myopathy. Her blood pressure is 165/106 mmHg and blood tests show Na+ 136 mmol/l, K+ 2.8 mmol/l and random glucose 8.2 mmol/l. The doctor orders a low-dose dexamethasone test and a 24-hour urinary cortisol test. What is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iatrogenic

      Explanation:

      Causes of Cushing Syndrome: Understanding the Different Types

      Cushing Syndrome is a rare condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of cortisol for an extended period. Cortisol is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that helps regulate metabolism and stress response. There are several different causes of Cushing Syndrome, including:

      1. Iatrogenic: This is the most common cause of Cushing Syndrome and is related to the use of corticosteroid medication. People who take oral corticosteroids are at a higher risk, but the condition can also affect those who misuse inhaled or topical corticosteroids.

      2. Ectopic ACTH secretion: This is a very rare cause of Cushing Syndrome that arises due to ACTH secretion from a carcinoid tumor.

      3. Primary adrenal disorder: This is primary hypercortisolism, which is an unusual cause for Cushing Syndrome.

      4. Pituitary-dependent: This is Cushing’s disease, which is much rarer than Cushing Syndrome, arising from a pituitary tumor.

      5. Pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome: This describes hypercortisolism arising as a result of a separate condition, such as malnutrition or chronic alcoholism, resulting in the same phenotype and biochemical abnormalities of Cushing Syndrome.

      Understanding the different types of Cushing Syndrome can help with diagnosis and treatment. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old university student complains of a 2-month history of tiredness and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old university student complains of a 2-month history of tiredness and weight loss. On further questioning the patient reveals that they have been excessively thirsty and have also been passing urine many times during the day and night. The patient is investigated further and is diagnosed with having type 1 diabetes mellitus.
      Which of the following is deficient in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-islet cells

      Explanation:

      The Different Types of Islet Cells in the Pancreas

      The pancreas contains clusters of endocrine tissue called islets of Langerhans. These islets are composed of different types of cells that secrete various hormones. The most abundant type of islet cell is the beta-islet cell, which produces insulin. Insulin is essential for regulating blood sugar levels, and its deficiency is the hallmark of type 1 diabetes.

      Gamma-islet cells, also known as pancreatic polypeptide-producing cells, make up a small percentage of islet cells and are not involved in insulin production. Alpha-islet cells, on the other hand, are located at the periphery of the islets and secrete glucagon, which raises blood sugar levels. Delta-islet cells produce somatostatin, a hormone that inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon.

      Lastly, epsilon-islet cells produce ghrelin, a hormone that stimulates appetite. However, these cells make up less than 1% of the islet cells and are not as well understood as the other types.

      In summary, the different types of islet cells in the pancreas play crucial roles in regulating blood sugar levels and other metabolic processes. Understanding their functions and interactions is essential for developing effective treatments for diabetes and other metabolic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing sweating, agitation, palpitations, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing sweating, agitation, palpitations, and restlessness for the past three days. She gave birth to a healthy baby through vaginal delivery at 39 weeks gestation two months ago. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease. The following investigations were conducted:

      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.1 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 26 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe propranolol

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for the thyrotoxicosis phase of postpartum thyroiditis is prescribing propranolol for symptomatic relief. This patient’s presentation of hyperthyroidism 2 months postpartum suggests postpartum thyroiditis, which is typically self-resolving. Propranolol is the most suitable option for managing the symptoms of this condition. Prescribing NSAIDs and monitoring would be more appropriate for subacute (de Quervain’s) thyroiditis, which is not the case here. Prescribing carbimazole or levothyroxine would not be necessary or appropriate for this patient’s condition.

      Understanding Postpartum Thyroiditis: Stages and Management

      Postpartum thyroiditis is a condition that affects some women after giving birth. It is characterized by three stages: thyrotoxicosis, hypothyroidism, and normal thyroid function. During the thyrotoxicosis phase, the thyroid gland becomes overactive, leading to symptoms such as anxiety, palpitations, and weight loss. In the hypothyroidism phase, the thyroid gland becomes underactive, causing symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. However, in the final stage, the thyroid gland returns to normal function, although there is a high recurrence rate in future pregnancies.

      Thyroid peroxidase antibodies are found in 90% of patients with postpartum thyroiditis, which suggests an autoimmune component to the condition. Management of postpartum thyroiditis depends on the stage of the condition. During the thyrotoxic phase, symptom control is the main focus, and propranolol is typically used. Antithyroid drugs are not usually used as the thyroid gland is not overactive. In the hypothyroid phase, treatment with thyroxine is usually necessary to restore normal thyroid function.

      It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in a Venn diagram. Therefore, it is crucial to properly diagnose and manage postpartum thyroiditis to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex is mainly accountable for producing which...

    Incorrect

    • The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex is mainly accountable for producing which hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      The Adrenal Cortex and its Layers

      The adrenal cortex is composed of two layers: the cortical and medullary layers. The zona glomerulosa, found in the cortical layer, is responsible for the secretion of aldosterone. Meanwhile, the zona fasciculata, also in the cortical layer, mainly secretes glucocorticoids, while the zona reticularis secretes adrenal androgens. However, both layers are capable of secreting both glucocorticoids and androgens.

      In summary, the adrenal cortex is divided into two layers, each with its own specific functions. The zona glomerulosa secretes aldosterone, while the zona fasciculata and zona reticularis secrete glucocorticoids and adrenal androgens, respectively. Despite their specific functions, both layers are capable of secreting both glucocorticoids and androgens.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman has been living with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 15...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has been living with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 15 years and has been under your care for the past nine years. During this time, her HbA1c levels have fluctuated between 64 mmol/mol and 75 mmol/mol (20-42).
      Today, her blood pressure reads 130/84 mmHg. She has also noticed that her blood glucose levels at home have been fluctuating more than usual over the past three months. Additionally, she reports experiencing nausea after eating and requiring less food than usual to feel full.
      Upon conducting investigations, the following results were obtained:
      - Urea: 8.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 112 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Sodium: 138 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Bicarbonate: 24 mmol/L (20-28)
      - HbA1c: 42 mmol/mol (20-42)
      - Urinalysis: Protein+
      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delayed gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      Autonomic Neuropathy and Gastric Emptying

      People with a long history of diabetes may experience nausea after eating, along with a feeling of fullness and reduced appetite. These symptoms suggest reduced gastric emptying, which is often associated with autonomic neuropathy. Other symptoms that may be present include postural hypotension, gustatory sweating, diarrhea, or changes in bowel habits. To confirm the diagnosis, a barium swallow and meal may be necessary. It is important to recognize these symptoms and seek medical attention to manage the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - What is a true statement about bariatric surgery? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about bariatric surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces cardiovascular mortality

      Explanation:

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity: Benefits, Risks, and Complications

      Bariatric surgery is the most effective and long-lasting intervention for obesity, providing significant weight loss and resolution of associated health problems. The Swedish Obesity Study found that bariatric surgery reduced cardiovascular events and mortality rates for up to 15 years compared to standard care. While adolescents face social, psychological, and developmental challenges, they are not excluded from surgery, and some hospitals offer specialized programs for younger patients. Candidates for surgery typically have a body mass index (BMI) of 40 or higher, or a BMI of 35 or higher with serious co-morbidities such as sleep apnea or type 2 diabetes.

      Post-operative mortality rates range from 0.1-2%, and the risk of complications is similar to other major abdominal surgeries. However, if complications do occur, there is a higher likelihood of intervention. The specific complications depend on the type of procedure used. For laparoscopic adjustable gastric band surgery, complications may include band slippage, erosion, infection, pouch dilation, band/tubing leak, and megaoesophagus. For laparoscopic roux en y gastric bypass, complications may include stomal stenosis, internal hernia, and malnutrition. For laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy, complications may include reflux, staple line leak, sleeve dilation, and weight gain. It is important for patients to understand the potential risks and benefits of bariatric surgery before making a decision.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago. Upon examination, she has a smooth, small goiter and a pulse rate of 68 bpm. Her lab results show a Free T4 level of 9.3 pmol/L (normal range: 9.8-23.1) and a TSH level of 49.3 mU/L (normal range: 0.35-5.50). What additional test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Primary Hypothyroidism

      The patient’s test results indicate a case of primary hypothyroidism, characterized by low levels of thyroxine (T4) and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The most likely cause of this condition is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often accompanied by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. While the patient has a goitre, it appears to be smooth and non-threatening, so a thyroid ultrasound is not necessary. Additionally, a radio-iodine uptake scan is unlikely to show significant uptake and is therefore not recommended. Positive TSH receptor antibodies are typically associated with Graves’ disease, which is not the likely diagnosis in this case. For further information on Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, patients can refer to Patient.info.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A child who is 4 years old has a height measurement that falls...

    Incorrect

    • A child who is 4 years old has a height measurement that falls below the third centile. What is the most probable cause of their stunted growth?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Causes of Short Stature

      Short stature is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. The most common cause of short stature is familial short stature, which is inherited from parents. Maternal deprivation and chronic illnesses such as congenital heart disease can also lead to short stature, but these are less frequent causes. On the other hand, Klinefelter’s syndrome is associated with tall stature. This genetic disorder affects males and is characterized by an extra X chromosome.

      Another factor that can cause short stature is poorly controlled chronic diabetes. This condition can lead to malnutrition, delayed growth, and puberty. It is important to note that short stature does not necessarily indicate a health problem, as some people are naturally shorter than others. However, if short stature is accompanied by other symptoms such as delayed puberty or growth failure, it is important to seek medical attention. Overall, the various causes of short stature can help individuals and healthcare providers identify and address any underlying health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He reports consuming five cans of lager per week, which is believed to be the cause of his abnormal liver function tests. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis affecting his hips and knees. What tests should be performed to determine the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum ferritin and iron studies

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis as a Cause of Hypogonadism

      The patient’s medical history suggests that haemochromatosis may be the underlying cause of their hypogonadism. While their moderate alcohol consumption of 10 units per week may contribute to liver dysfunction, other potential explanations should be explored. Additionally, the patient’s history of type 2 diabetes and seronegative arthropathy are consistent with iron storage diseases. Haemochromatosis can lead to reduced insulin production, resulting in a presentation similar to type 2 diabetes. To confirm the diagnosis, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be evaluated, as elevated levels of both are highly indicative of haemochromatosis.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He was diagnosed 1 year ago and is currently managed with diet and exercise, and additional medication includes ramipril 10 mg po daily, atorvastatin 10 mg and aspirin 75 mg/day. On examination, his blood pressure is measured at 129/75 mmHg. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 2.1, HbA1c 62 mmol/mol and creatinine 110 μmol/l.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next treatment step in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence metformin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for a Patient with Diabetes and High Cholesterol

      To manage a patient with diabetes and high cholesterol, several treatment options are available. If the patient’s HbA1c is above the target level despite diet and exercise, the first-line treatment is metformin. If the patient has poor tolerance or side-effects from metformin, gliclazide may be used as a second-line option. Pioglitazone can be used cautiously in conjunction with metformin if HbA1c is poorly controlled on monotherapy.

      However, if the patient’s LDL cholesterol is already adequately controlled, there is no need to increase the dosage of atorvastatin. Similarly, if the patient’s blood pressure is already well-managed, there is no need to add an additional antihypertensive medication. By carefully considering the patient’s individual needs and responses to treatment, healthcare providers can help manage diabetes and high cholesterol effectively.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A patient in their 60s presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes....

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes. In the Emergency Department, a postural drop in blood pressure is noted of >20 mmHg systolic from the supine to the standing position. Blood glucose is 2.9 mmol/l and Na+ is 122 mmol/l.
      Which of the following is the patient’s condition due to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; decreased aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Addison’s Disease: Hormonal Imbalances and Clinical Presentation

      Addison’s disease, or primary adrenal failure, is a condition characterized by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, resulting in reduced levels of cortisol and aldosterone. This hormonal imbalance leads to a range of clinical symptoms, including hypotension, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, acidosis, and skin and mucosal hyperpigmentation.

      While other hormonal imbalances may occur in the adrenal glands, such as increased cortisol or aldosterone, they are less likely to result in the clinical presentation of Addison’s disease. For example, increased cortisol is unlikely due to autoimmune destruction of the zona fasciculata, while increased aldosterone is rare and typically caused by an adrenal adenoma. Similarly, decreased cortisol with normal aldosterone is more commonly associated with secondary adrenal failure caused by pituitary disease, but does not fit with the hyponatraemia seen in Addison’s disease.

      Overall, understanding the hormonal imbalances and clinical presentation of Addison’s disease is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 39-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of sudden headaches accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of sudden headaches accompanied by sweating and palpitations. Upon examination, the patient appears anxious and has a pale complexion. His blood pressure measures 240/200 mmHg, and a 24-hour urine collection shows increased levels of catecholamines. What is the probable cause of this man's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Hypertension: A Brief Overview

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common medical condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there are many possible causes of hypertension, some are more common than others. In this article, we will discuss some of the most common causes of hypertension and how to differentiate them.

      Phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the adrenal gland that can cause hypertension, headache, sweating, and anxiety. It is often associated with the 10% rule, which states that 10% of cases are extramedullary, 10% are malignant, 10% are familial, and 10% are bilateral.

      Conn syndrome, or primary aldosteronism, is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and metabolic alkalosis. The most common causes are aldosterone-producing adenomas and bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.

      Renal artery stenosis (RAS) is a major cause of renovascular hypertension. However, it is not associated with elevated catecholamines or the symptoms described.

      Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that can cause hypertension due to progressive kidney enlargement. However, patients with PKD do not have elevated catecholamine levels.

      Cushing syndrome is caused by prolonged hypercortisolism and can cause centripetal obesity, secondary hypertension, glucose intolerance, proximal myopathy, and hirsutism. Sweating, palpitations, and elevated catecholamines are not typical of hypercortisolism.

      In conclusion, hypertension can have many different causes, and it is important to differentiate them to provide appropriate treatment. By understanding the characteristic features of each condition, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide effective management.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious by her husband. He claims she has been increasingly depressed and tired over the last few weeks. Past medical history includes coeliac disease, for which she follows a strict gluten-free diet, and vitiligo. She is on no medical treatment. On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 bpm and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile. Pigmented palmar creases are also noted. Basic blood investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glucose 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Addisonian Crisis and Other Conditions

      Addisonian crisis is a condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with autoimmune disease being the most common cause in the UK. Symptoms are vague and present insidiously, including depression, anorexia, and GI upset. Diagnosis is made through a short ACTH stimulation test. Emergency treatment involves IV hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment is based on oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid. Any stressful activity should lead to an increase in steroid dose.

      Other conditions, such as insulin overdose, salicylate overdose, meningococcal septicaemia, and paracetamol overdose, have different clinical features and are not compatible with the symptoms described for Addisonian crisis. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with similar symptoms.

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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old male presents at a well man clinic. He has a significant...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents at a well man clinic. He has a significant family history of ischaemic heart disease and is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day. He also consumes approximately 20 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he is found to be obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 and has a blood pressure of 152/88 mmHg. His investigations reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 10.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), HbA1c of 62 mmol/mol (20-46), and a cholesterol concentration of 5.5 mmol/L (<5.2).

      Which intervention would be most effective in reducing his cardiovascular risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypertension and Diabetes for Cardiovascular Risk Reduction

      This patient is diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes, as indicated by the elevated fasting plasma glucose. While metformin has been found to reduce cardiovascular (CV) mortality in obese diabetics, ramipril reduces CV risk in hypertensive diabetics, and statins reduce CV mortality, none of these interventions are as effective as quitting smoking in reducing CV risk. The Nurses’ Health Study provides the best evidence for the risk of smoking in women, with past smokers and current smokers having a higher risk compared to non-smokers. In men, there is less definitive evidence, but it is unlikely that many practitioners would consider the other interventions to be more beneficial than smoking cessation. There is currently no evidence that weight loss alone reduces CV mortality, although this may be due to a lack of studies on the topic.

      Overall, managing hypertension and diabetes is crucial for reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease. While medication can help, quitting smoking remains the most effective intervention for reducing CV risk. Further research is needed to determine the impact of weight loss on CV mortality.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus complains of a swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus complains of a swollen right ankle joint that is not painful. Upon examination, radiographs reveal a joint that has been destroyed and contains a significant number of loose bodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charcot's joint

      Explanation:

      Charcot’s Joint: A Destructive Process Affecting Weight-Bearing Joints

      Charcot’s joint is a condition that primarily affects the weight-bearing joints in the extremities, including the feet, ankles, knees, and hips. It is a destructive process that can often be mistaken for an infection in these areas. The condition is characterized by a decreased sensation in the affected area and peripheral neuropathy. It is most commonly associated with diabetes mellitus, leprosy, and tabes dorsalis.

      Charcot’s joint is a serious condition that can lead to significant disability if left untreated. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly. Treatment typically involves immobilization of the affected joint and management of the underlying condition. With proper care, it is possible to prevent further damage and preserve joint function.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old patient visits the Endocrinology Clinic with a complaint of worsening headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient visits the Endocrinology Clinic with a complaint of worsening headache and bitemporal hemianopia for the past three weeks. The patient has a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) syndrome type 1. The endocrinologist considers the possibility of MEN 1 and orders the appropriate investigations to arrive at a differential diagnosis. According to the definition, which three types of tumors must be present for a diagnosis of MEN 1, with at least two of them being present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma, pancreatic islet cells, parathyroid

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) Syndromes

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) syndromes are a group of inherited disorders that cause tumors to develop in the endocrine glands. MEN type 1 is characterized by the occurrence of tumors in any two of the parathyroids, anterior pituitary, and pancreatic islet cells. A pituitary adenoma is a common manifestation of MEN type 1, which can cause bitemporal hemianopia.

      To remember the features of MEN type 1, think of the letter P: Pituitary adenoma, Parathyroid hyperplasia, and Pancreatic islet cell tumors. On the other hand, MEN type 2 involves medullary thyroid carcinoma with either phaeochromocytoma or parathyroid tumor.

      It is essential to recognize the different MEN syndromes to facilitate early diagnosis and management. Regular screening and genetic counseling are recommended for individuals with a family history of MEN syndromes.

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  • Question 23 - A 26-year-old waitress presents with a 2-day history of increasing confusion. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old waitress presents with a 2-day history of increasing confusion. She has no significant medical history, takes only oral contraceptives, and denies any substance use. Blood and urine tests suggest a possible diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following statements regarding SIADH secretion is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may occur in subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Understanding SIADH: Causes and Treatment Options

      SIADH, or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, is a condition characterized by excessive production of ADH, leading to hyponatraemia. While it can occur in various medical conditions, subarachnoid haemorrhage is a known cause of SIADH. In such cases, monitoring sodium levels is crucial. The treatment of choice for SIADH is fluid restriction, but in severe cases, hypertonic saline may be used. Demeclocycline, a tetracycline, is sometimes used to treat hyponatraemia in SIADH. It’s important to note that small cell lung cancer, not adenocarcinoma of the lung, is a well-known cause of SIADH through ectopic ADH secretion. Understanding the causes and treatment options for SIADH is essential for managing this condition effectively.

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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old male with a six year history of type 2 diabetes has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a six year history of type 2 diabetes has been diagnosed with ischaemic heart disease and started taking atorvastatin 80 mg daily to manage his cholesterol level of 6.2 mmol/L. However, he has returned to the clinic complaining of muscle aches and pains, and his liver function tests have shown elevated levels from his baseline. His pre-treatment ALT was 60 IU/L, and now it is 95 IU/L. He is concerned about the side effects of the statin and asks if he should stop taking it. What is the most appropriate next step to manage his hypercholesterolaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 40 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Statin Intolerance in Patients with Ischaemic Heart Disease and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus are recommended to receive high-dose statins to manage their elevated cholesterol levels. However, some patients may experience intolerance to statins, such as myalgia and raised liver function tests. In such cases, NICE advises reducing the dose or considering an alternative statin. Fibrate and ezetimibe are generally not recommended for these patients, and referral to a specialist may be necessary if statins are completely not tolerated.

      To minimize the risk of side effects, starting at a low dose and gradually titrating up can be helpful. Rosuvastatin and pravastatin may have a lower incidence of myalgia compared to other statins. However, cautious monitoring of liver function tests should be performed if starting another statin. If a patient has a history of statin-related hepatitis or rhabdomyolysis, statins should generally be avoided in the future if possible.

      In summary, managing statin intolerance in patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus requires careful consideration of alternative options and cautious monitoring of side effects.

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  • Question 25 - A 56-year-old man has undergone the following investigations by his General Practitioner (GP).
    Plasma:
    Investigations...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man has undergone the following investigations by his General Practitioner (GP).
      Plasma:
      Investigations Results Normal Value
      Total Ca2+ 1.85 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Albumin 42 g/l 35–55 g/l
      PO43- 1.8 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 160 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 80 ng/l 10–65 ng/l
      What is the most probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic renal failure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hyperparathyroidism and Related Conditions

      Hyperparathyroidism is a condition characterized by high levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the blood, which can lead to imbalances in calcium and phosphate levels. There are several different types of hyperparathyroidism, as well as related conditions that can affect the parathyroid gland and its function.

      Chronic renal failure is one such condition, in which impaired 1α-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol leads to reduced calcium and phosphate excretion due to renal impairment. This results in secondary hyperparathyroidism, with elevated PTH levels in response to low plasma ionized calcium. Alkaline phosphatase is also elevated due to renal osteodystrophy.

      As chronic renal failure progresses, the parathyroid glands may become hyperplastic or adenomatous, leading to tertiary hyperparathyroidism. In this condition, PTH secretion is substantially increased, causing elevated calcium levels that are not limited by feedback control.

      Malignant hyperparathyroidism is another condition that can mimic hyperparathyroidism, but is caused by the production of PTH-related protein (PTHrP) by cancer cells. In this case, PTH levels are low, but calcium levels are high and phosphate levels are low.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by high PTH levels, leading to high calcium and low phosphate levels. Primary hypoparathyroidism, on the other hand, is caused by gland failure and results in low PTH production, leading to low calcium and high phosphate levels. Secondary hypoparathyroidism occurs when PTH production is suppressed by hypercalcemia, but this is not the correct answer in a patient with low calcium levels.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of headaches and tiredness during exercise for the past three weeks. He is a smoker of five cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol each week. There is no significant family history. On examination, his pulse is 78 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 182/102 mmHg. However, there are no abnormalities on examination of heart, chest, or abdomen. The investigations reveal a sodium level of 144 mmol/L (137-144), haemoglobin level of 155 g/L (130-180), potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), white cell count of 8.2 ×109/L (4-11), urea level of 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), platelet count of 188 ×109/L (150-400), creatinine level of 90 µmol/L (60-110), and glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). The ECG shows tall R waves in leads V5-6 and deep S waves in leads V1-2. The chest x-ray is reported as normal. What possible diagnosis would you consider for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hypertension and Hypokalaemia: Possible Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      This patient is showing signs of hypertension, as indicated by the left ventricular hypertrophy on their ECG. Additionally, their hypertension is accompanied by hypokalaemia, which may suggest a diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome. This condition is caused by excessive production of aldosterone from either an adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, resulting in salt and water retention, hypertension, and potassium excretion leading to hypokalaemia. In some cases, primary hyperaldosteronism has been detected in up to 5% of patients in hypertension clinics. It is important to investigate potential secondary causes for hypertension, particularly in young or difficult-to-control hypertensive patients. Renal artery stenosis is unlikely to cause such severe hypokalaemia, and one would expect a mildly elevated creatinine if it were severe enough to cause hypertension.

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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old veterinary student is being evaluated for possible Addison's disease due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old veterinary student is being evaluated for possible Addison's disease due to symptoms of weight loss, hypotension, and fatigue. As part of the diagnostic process, the patient undergoes testing to measure cortisol levels before and after receiving synthetic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) injection (short-synacthen test). What is a true statement regarding cortisol in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a peak hormonal concentration in the morning

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Cortisol: Clarifying the Facts

      Cortisol is a hormone that has been the subject of many misconceptions. Here are some clarifications to set the record straight:

      1. Peak Hormonal Concentration: Cortisol has a diurnal variation and peaks in the morning upon waking up. Its lowest level is around midnight.

      2. Protein or Steroid: Cortisol is a steroid hormone, not a protein.

      3. Blood Glucose: Cortisol increases blood glucose levels via various pathways, contrary to the belief that it lowers blood glucose.

      4. Anabolic or Catabolic: Cortisol is a catabolic hormone that causes a breakdown of larger molecules to smaller molecules.

      5. Stimulated by Renin or ACTH: Cortisol is stimulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) released from the anterior pituitary, not renin.

      By understanding the true nature of cortisol, we can better appreciate its role in our bodies and how it affects our health.

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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with a blood pressure reading...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with a blood pressure reading of 140/85 mmHg and persistent traces of albuminuria in his urine examination. What is the most suitable course of treatment for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Nephropathy and the Benefits of ACE Inhibitors

      Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical condition characterized by persistent albuminuria, a decline in the glomerular filtration rate, and elevated arterial blood pressure. To confirm the diagnosis, albuminuria must be present on at least two occasions three to six months apart. Antihypertensive therapy can slow the progression of diabetic glomerulopathy, but ACE inhibitors have been shown to provide superior long-term protection.

      Aside from its cardiovascular benefits, ACE inhibition has also been found to have a significant positive effect on the progression of diabetic retinopathy and the development of proliferative retinopathy. Therefore, ACE inhibitors are a recommended treatment option for patients with diabetic nephropathy. By this condition and the benefits of ACE inhibitors, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients with diabetes.

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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to lactate, lethargy, dizziness upon standing, and weight loss after a difficult childbirth complicated by placental abruption. What blood test results are expected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; normal aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Cortisol and Aldosterone Levels in Sheehan’s Syndrome

      Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results in hypopituitarism, causing reduced adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production and secondary adrenal insufficiency. This can lead to postural hypotension and reduced cortisol levels, while aldosterone levels remain normal as they are not dependent on pituitary function.

      An increased cortisol level with decreased aldosterone would be an unusual result and does not fit the clinical picture of hypocortisolism. Similarly, an increased cortisol level with increased aldosterone may occur in rare cases of adrenal adenoma but does not fit the clinical picture of Sheehan’s syndrome.

      A decreased cortisol level with decreased aldosterone would be true in primary adrenal insufficiency, which is not the case in Sheehan’s syndrome. Finally, a decreased cortisol level with increased aldosterone would also be an unusual result as aldosterone levels are not affected in Sheehan’s syndrome.

      Therefore, when interpreting cortisol and aldosterone levels in a patient with Sheehan’s syndrome, a decreased cortisol level with normal aldosterone is expected.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - Under what circumstances would the bone age match the chronological age? ...

    Incorrect

    • Under what circumstances would the bone age match the chronological age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Bone Age

      Bone age is affected by various factors such as hypothyroidism, constitutional delay of growth and puberty, growth hormone deficiency, precocious puberty, and familial short stature. In hypothyroidism, bone age is delayed due to the underproduction of thyroid hormones. On the other hand, constitutional delay of growth and puberty causes delayed physiological maturation, including secondary sexual characteristics and bone age. Growth hormone deficiency also results in delayed skeletal maturation. In contrast, precocious puberty causes advanced bone age. Lastly, in familial short stature, bone age is equal to chronological age, but linear growth is poor, resulting in a short stature. these factors is crucial in diagnosing and managing growth and development issues in children. Proper evaluation and treatment can help ensure optimal growth and development.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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