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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding bendroflumethiazide is accurate?
Your Answer: Is contraindicated in Breastfeeding
Correct Answer: May cause hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia and hypocalciuria may be caused by thiazide diuretics.
The onset of action of bendroflumethiazide is 1 to 2 hours, and its effect lasts for 12 to 24 hours. According to the BNF, the quantity of bendroflumethiazide present in breast milk is insignificant and poses no harm.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You encounter a 49-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes by your GP colleague. The patient has been prescribed gliclazide and has experienced one instance of mild hypoglycaemia since commencing this medication. The patient inquires about driving his vehicle. What guidance should be given?
Your Answer: Must always have a sugary drink in his car
Correct Answer: Must contact DVLA if has two episodes of severe hypoglycaemia in 12 months
Explanation:If a Group 1 driver with diabetes is taking oral medication that may cause hypoglycemia, they do not need to inform the DVLA as long as they are being regularly monitored and have not experienced more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance from another person within the last year. However, Group 2 drivers must notify the DVLA and adhere to stricter guidelines. If they have had even one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance from another person within the last year, they will not be permitted to drive. Both groups must inform the DVLA if they experience any impairment in their ability to detect hypoglycemia.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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During a routine postnatal check, a 29 year old woman presents with no underlying medical comorbidities and is currently breastfeeding her baby. She maintains a normal, varied diet. What daily supplements, if any, would you recommend for her?
Your Answer: Multivitamin tablet
Correct Answer: Vitamin D
Explanation:To promote the bone health of both the mother and child, the NHS recommends that pregnant and breastfeeding women take a daily vitamin D supplement of 10mcg. Women who are eligible for Healthy Start vouchers may be able to receive free supplements, which can be discussed with their Health Visitor.
For women who are trying to conceive up until 12 weeks of gestation, it is recommended to take a daily supplement of folic acid 400mcg. Breastfeeding women who follow a vegan diet may need to take a B12 supplement. It is important for pregnant women to check that any multivitamin tablets they take do not contain high doses of vitamin A, as this can be harmful to the developing fetus.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old man who has recently started a new relationship complains of low libido. On further questioning, he admits to feeling lethargic and weak and has noticed that he has less stubble than previously. He takes no regular medication and is otherwise well, and doesn't suffer from headaches.
What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct in this scenario?Your Answer: FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinising hormone) and testosterone levels
Explanation:Investigating Hypogonadism: Appropriate Tests and Procedures
Hypogonadism is a condition that can be caused by primary or secondary factors. To determine the presence and type of hypogonadism, appropriate investigations should be conducted. In cases of primary hypogonadism, gonadotrophin levels are elevated while testosterone levels are low. Secondary hypogonadism, on the other hand, is characterized by low to normal gonadotrophin levels and low testosterone levels.
While investigating hypogonadism, it is important to conduct the appropriate tests and procedures. An MRI scan of the brain is not always necessary, but it may be appropriate in cases of hypopituitarism or hyperprolactinaemia to investigate a pituitary tumour. Depression screening may be appropriate as depression often co-exists with physical illness, but objective evidence of hypogonadism should not be ignored. Semen analysis is not necessary unless investigating infertility, as oligospermia is a consequence of hypogonadism. The Short Synacthen test is used to investigate adrenocortical insufficiency and is not relevant to investigating hypogonadism.
In summary, appropriate investigations for hypogonadism include determining whether it is primary or secondary through gonadotrophin and testosterone level testing. Other tests and procedures may be appropriate depending on the individual case, but should be carefully considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old truck driver is being assessed. He was detected with type 2 diabetes mellitus last year. After shedding some weight and taking metformin, his HbA1c has dropped from 74 mmol/mol (8.9%) to 68 mmol/mol (8.4%). What would be the most appropriate course of action for further management?
Your Answer: Make no changes to management
Correct Answer: Add pioglitazone
Explanation:The most suitable choice for him would be Pioglitazone as it doesn’t pose a risk of hypoglycemia, which could be hazardous considering his profession. Additionally, the utilization of a DPP-4 inhibitor (such as sitagliptin or vildagliptin) would be supported by the NICE guidelines in this scenario.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Mrs. Smith is a 70-year-old widow who presents with easy bruising. There is no history of abnormal bleeding apart from some gum bleeding when brushing teeth, and no family history of bleeding problems. She rarely drinks alcohol. General examination including examination of the liver and of lymph nodes is normal; there are multiple small bruises on the limbs - no purpura or petechiae. You check her medication list and find no item that might be the cause. You arrange some blood tests including full blood count, blood film, renal profile, bone profile, liver function, and clotting screen, which are all unremarkable. You suspect the cause might be due to a 'tea and toast' diet after her husband passed away.
What dietary supplement could you consider as the next step for Mrs. Smith?Your Answer: Thiamine (vitamin B1)
Correct Answer: Vitamin C
Explanation:Easy bruising may be caused by a lack of vitamin C in the diet. Calcium, magnesium, and thiamine deficiencies are not likely to be the cause of easy bruising. Scurvy, a condition caused by vitamin C deficiency, can also lead to bleeding gums. To address this issue, it may be helpful to try increasing vitamin C and/or K intake through dietary changes or supplements. Citrus fruits and tomatoes are good sources of vitamin C.
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is an essential nutrient found in various fruits and vegetables such as citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, and leafy greens. When there is a deficiency of this vitamin, it can lead to a condition called scurvy. This deficiency can cause impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue as ascorbic acid is a cofactor for enzymes used in the production of proline and lysine. Scurvy is commonly associated with severe malnutrition, drug and alcohol abuse, and poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.
The symptoms and signs of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage, ecchymosis, easy bruising, poor wound healing, gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums, Sjogren’s syndrome, arthralgia, oedema, impaired wound healing, and generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia, and depression. It is important to consume a balanced diet that includes sources of vitamin C to prevent scurvy and maintain overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive man presents with weight loss and weakness. Upon evaluation, he is diagnosed with disseminated tuberculosis and is found to be hypotensive with hyperpigmentation of the mucosa, elbows, and skin creases. Further investigations reveal a diagnosis of Addison's disease.
What is the correct biochemical abnormality associated with this condition? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer: Increased serum bicarbonate
Correct Answer: Increased serum potassium
Explanation:Adrenal Insufficiency and Electrolyte Imbalances in HIV Patients
Adrenal insufficiency is a serious complication of HIV infections, often associated with opportunistic infections and Kaposi’s sarcoma. One common electrolyte imbalance seen in these patients is hyperkalemia, which is primarily caused by the loss of aldosterone and can also be a result of acidosis and impaired kidney function. However, increased serum bicarbonate is not a typical finding in these patients, as metabolic acidosis occurs due to the loss of aldosterone’s sodium-retaining and potassium- and hydrogen-ion-secreting action. Additionally, while mild to moderate hypercalcemia may occur in some patients, decreased serum calcium is not a common finding. Chloride levels are also typically decreased in adrenal insufficiency. Finally, serum sodium levels are reduced in these patients due to both the loss of sodium in the urine (due to aldosterone deficiency) and movement of sodium into the intracellular compartment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An individual who is 70 years old comes in for a check-up. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and gout. During his last visit six months ago, his blood pressure was 144/84 mmHg. You provided him with basic lifestyle advice and requested him to return in six months for a follow-up blood pressure check. Since then, he has had three more blood pressure readings: 144/72 mmHg, 146/78 mmHg, and 148/76 mmHg. The patient is currently taking metformin and allopurinol. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his blood pressure readings?
Your Answer: Start therapy if 10-year cardiovascular risk is greater than 20%
Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Although his diastolic blood pressure is within the target range of 140/90 mmHg, his systolic blood pressure consistently exceeds it. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, when managing Type 2 diabetes, healthcare providers should prioritize the systolic blood pressure value. Therefore, the target blood pressure for this patient should be less than 140/90 mmHg. Despite attempts to improve his blood pressure through lifestyle changes, they have been unsuccessful. Therefore, he should be offered an ACE inhibitor.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 20-year-old male presents at your clinic with symptoms resembling the flu. He has recently been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and seeks guidance on managing his diabetes during illness. What is one of the 'sick-day rules' that insulin-dependent diabetics should follow when they are sick?
Your Answer: Aim to drink at least 3L of fluid
Explanation:It is recommended that patients consume a minimum of 3 liters of fluids within a 24-hour period. Patients should maintain their regular insulin routine but monitor their blood glucose levels more frequently, making options 1 and 2 incorrect. It is not advisable to replace main meals with sugary foods, but if a patient is having difficulty eating, they may consume sugary beverages. Additionally, ketone levels should be checked more frequently, every 3-4 hours or more frequently based on the results.
Managing Diabetes Mellitus during Illness: Sick Day Rules
When a patient with diabetes mellitus becomes unwell, it is important to provide them with key messages to manage their condition. Increasing the frequency of blood glucose monitoring to at least four hourly is crucial, as well as encouraging fluid intake of at least 3 litres in 24 hours. If the patient is struggling to eat, sugary drinks may be necessary to maintain carbohydrate intake. Educating patients to have a box of sick day supplies can also be helpful. Access to a mobile phone has been shown to reduce the progression of ketosis to diabetic ketoacidosis.
Patients taking oral hypoglycemic medication should continue taking their medication even if they are not eating much. However, metformin should be stopped if the patient is becoming dehydrated due to its potential impact on renal function. Patients on insulin must not stop taking it, as this can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. They should continue their normal insulin regime and check their blood sugars frequently. If ketone levels are raised and blood sugars are also raised, corrective doses of insulin may be necessary. The corrective dose varies by patient, but a rule of thumb is the total daily insulin dose divided by 6 (maximum 15 units).
Possible indications for hospital admission include suspicion of underlying illness requiring hospital treatment, inability to keep fluids down for more than a few hours, persistent diarrhea, significant ketosis in an insulin-dependent diabetic despite additional insulin, blood glucose persistently >20 mmol/l despite additional insulin, patient unable to manage adjustments to usual diabetes management, and lack of support at home (e.g., a patient who lives alone and is at risk of becoming unconscious). By following these sick day rules, patients with diabetes mellitus can better manage their condition during illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to groin abdominal pain. A CT-KUB reveals a right-sided renal calculus. When you clerk her in she admits to you that she has not felt herself for the past few weeks with polyuria, polydipsia, constipation and altered mood.
Blood tests show:
Estimated glomerular filtration rate >60 ml/min
Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l (2.1-2.6 mmol/l)
Phosphate 0.6 mmol/l (0.8-1.4 mol/l)
Parathyroid hormone 5.1 pmol/l (1.2-5.8 pmol/l)
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:In cases of primary hyperparathyroidism caused by parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia, the PTH level may appear normal despite the presence of high serum calcium and low phosphate levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically caused by chronic hypocalcemia, resulting in high PTH levels and either low or normal serum calcium levels. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism, which is a result of autonomous parathyroid production, is commonly observed in patients with end-stage renal disease who previously had secondary hyperparathyroidism. While hypercalcemia can also be caused by sarcoidosis and type 1 renal tubular acidosis, these conditions are relatively rare.
Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.
The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.
In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is concerned about her blood sugar levels and seeks advice. What is the target blood sugar level before meals and at other times of the day (excluding mornings)?
Your Answer: 6-8 mmol/l
Correct Answer: 4-7 mmol/l
Explanation:Blood glucose targets in individuals with type 1 diabetes:
Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.
Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is undergoing a routine health check with his family doctor. He reports feeling less active than he used to but has no other specific complaints and is not taking any regular medication. Biochemical tests reveal the following results: serum alkaline phosphatase of 550 U/l (normal range: 44-147 U/l), serum creatinine concentration of 132 µmol/l (normal range: 60-120 µmol/l), calcium of 2.42 mmol/l (normal range: 2.25-2.5 mmol/l), phosphate of 1.21 mmol/l (normal range: 0.8-1.4 mmol/l), and albumin of 41 g/l (normal range: 35-50 g/l). What is the most likely cause of the high alkaline phosphatase?
Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Explanation:Understanding Elevated Serum Alkaline Phosphatase Activity in Bone Diseases
Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity is a common finding in bone diseases that involve increased osteoblastic activity. One such condition is Paget’s disease of bone, which is often seen in elderly patients and may not always present with symptoms. In contrast, osteomalacia typically presents with symptoms such as pain, proximal muscle weakness, or a general feeling of being unwell, and is characterized by low-normal or low serum calcium levels. Osteoporosis, on the other hand, doesn’t typically result in elevated alkaline phosphatase levels or abnormal serum biochemistry results. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by elevated levels of both alkaline phosphatase and calcium, is unlikely in patients with normal calcium levels. Finally, while renal osteodystrophy may be associated with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, the severity of renal impairment in this patient is not likely to be the cause of such a high level. In addition, serum phosphate levels are usually elevated and calcium levels are low in this condition. Overall, understanding the relationship between serum alkaline phosphatase activity and various bone diseases can help clinicians make accurate diagnoses and develop appropriate treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man, newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents for his first assessment. He is found to have changes in his eyes on fundoscopy.
Which of the following options most needs urgent referral to an ophthalmologist?Your Answer: Some hard exudates > one-disc diameter from the fovea
Correct Answer: New vessels on the disc
Explanation:Interpreting Diabetic Retinopathy Findings: What Requires Urgent Referral?
Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. As part of routine eye exams, healthcare professionals may identify various findings in the retina that indicate the presence and severity of diabetic retinopathy. However, not all findings require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some examples:
– New vessels on the disc: These are a sign of proliferative retinopathy and require urgent referral as they can cause bleeding and threaten vision.
– Dot-and-blot haemorrhages: These are a feature of background retinopathy and do not require urgent referral unless they are within one-disc diameter of the fovea. Annual monitoring is recommended.
– Cataract: While cataracts are more common in people with diabetes, routine referral is sufficient if vision is significantly affected.
– Hard exudates > one-disc diameter from the fovea: These are also a feature of background retinopathy and do not require urgent referral.
– Two soft exudates in the temporal field: These cotton-wool spots are not a reason for referral, but referral for review within four weeks is indicated if other signs of pre-proliferative disease are present.Understanding which findings require urgent referral can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for people with diabetic retinopathy and prevent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presents with weight loss and irritability.
Thyroid function tests reveal:
Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50)
Free T3 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)
Examination reveals a fine tremor, pulse of 95 beats per minute, a smooth goitre with a bruit and lid lag only without any other eye signs.
What is the most likely cause for these thyroid function test results?Your Answer: Hashitoxicosis
Explanation:TFTs and Hyperthyroidism
Thyroid function tests (TFTs) can reveal hyperthyroidism, which can be caused by Graves’ disease, Hashitoxicosis, and Multinodular goitre. However, the distinguishing feature in this case is the presence of a thyroid bruit, which suggests increased vascularity due to stimulation by a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibody, specifically in Graves’ disease. It is important to note that eye signs such as proptosis, chemosis, and exophthalmos are common features of Graves’ disease but may not always be present. Proper diagnosis and management of hyperthyroidism require careful evaluation and monitoring of thyroid function and associated symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic with a small ulcer and surrounding erythema on his right great toe.
You have a specialist chiropodist in the same building who cleans and dresses the wound for you. She takes a swab but feels that although the ulcer is infected, the infection is relatively superficial. The swab results show a heavy growth of gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli.
What would be the most suitable antibiotic option?Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:Treatment options for S. aureus infection
Around 60% or more of S. aureus infections are resistant to amoxicillin, leaving limited options for treatment. Cefuroxime is administered intravenously, while orally delivered vancomycin has little to no systemic bioavailability. The remaining options are flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav, with the latter being the preferred choice due to its activity against both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria, including S. aureus. However, it is important to note that co-amoxiclav should not be used for more than two weeks due to the risk of hepatic dysfunction. Proper treatment and management of S. aureus infections are crucial to prevent complications and ensure a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with premature menopause, similar to her mother who also experienced it and later developed osteoporosis. She seeks advice on how to reduce her chances of developing osteoporosis. What is the initial treatment recommended by NICE for this scenario?
Your Answer: Hormone replacement therapy
Explanation:According to NICE, women who experience menopause before the age of 45 should contemplate using hormone replacement therapy to decrease the likelihood of developing osteoporosis and to manage menopausal symptoms. It is recommended that the therapy be evaluated at the age of 50. Additionally, patients should receive guidance on lifestyle choices that promote bone health, such as engaging in weight-bearing exercise, quitting smoking, avoiding excessive alcohol consumption, and ensuring sufficient intake of calcium and vitamin D.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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One of your elderly patients has been diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. What is one of the associations with this condition?
Your Answer: Endometriosis
Correct Answer: Raised uric acid levels
Explanation:Understanding Metabolic Syndrome
Metabolic syndrome is a condition that has various definitions, but it is generally believed to be caused by insulin resistance. The American Heart Association and the International Diabetes Federation have similar criteria for diagnosing metabolic syndrome. According to these criteria, a person must have at least three of the following: elevated waist circumference, elevated triglycerides, reduced HDL, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose. The International Diabetes Federation also requires the presence of central obesity and any two of the other four factors. In 1999, the World Health Organization produced diagnostic criteria that required the presence of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, and two of the following: high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, central obesity, and microalbuminuria. Other associated features of metabolic syndrome include raised uric acid levels, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and polycystic ovarian syndrome.
Overall, metabolic syndrome is a complex condition that involves multiple factors and can have serious health consequences. It is important to understand the diagnostic criteria and associated features in order to identify and manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient is a 70-year-old man who has come for a follow-up appointment to review his recent blood test results. During his last visit, you had expressed concern about his elevated plasma glucose levels and advised him to make some lifestyle changes. He informs you that he has made some dietary modifications and has started walking to the nearby stores instead of driving.
The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease, osteoarthritis, and chronic kidney disease. His fasting blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 146 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
- Platelets: 235 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
- White blood cells (WBC): 7.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
- Sodium (Na+): 139 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
- Potassium (K+): 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 10.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 216 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
- Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): 28 ml/minute
- C-reactive protein (CRP): <5 mg/L (normal range: <5)
- Plasma glucose: 7.3 mmol/L (normal range: <6 mmol/L)
- Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): 54 mmol/mol
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's HbA1c levels?Your Answer: No intervention required
Correct Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation:This individual has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, as evidenced by elevated blood glucose levels on two separate occasions and an HbA1c measurement of >48 mmol/mol. Despite receiving lifestyle advice, medication is necessary for treatment.
Due to an eGFR of <30ml/minute, metformin is not a suitable treatment option. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most appropriate choice. While DESMOND, an NHS course aimed at educating individuals with type 2 diabetes and their families, may be beneficial for ongoing management, it doesn’t replace the need for medication in this case. Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes is seen for review. To manage his diabetes he currently takes metformin 500 mg BD and has been doing so for over a year. His latest HbA1c is 63 mol/mol and so it is agreed to add in a second agent to better manage his glycemic control.
His eGFR is 40 mL/minute/1.73 m2.
According to the British National Formulary, which of the following should be avoided because it is ineffective as add-on therapy?Your Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Medication Use in Renal and Hepatic Impairment
Dapagliflozin, canagliflozin, and empagliflozin should not be initiated or continued if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 60 mL/minute/1.73m2. Gliclazide can be used in renal impairment with careful blood glucose monitoring. Pioglitazone should be avoided in hepatic impairment but can be used in renal impairment. Repaglinide can be used with caution in renal impairment. Sitagliptin can be used in renal impairment with dose adjustment based on eGFR. It is important to consider renal and hepatic function when prescribing medications for diabetes management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are discussing the results of a fasting blood sugar with a 50-year-old patient. It was done after the patient was found to be hypertensive:
Glucose (fasting) 6.5 mmol/l
This patient therefore has impaired fasting glycaemia. Following recent Diabetes UK guidelines, what is the most appropriate way to communicate this result with the patient?Your Answer: 'Suboptimal sugar control'
Correct Answer: 'Prediabetes'
Explanation:Understanding Prediabetes and Impaired Glucose Regulation
Prediabetes is a term used to describe impaired glucose levels that are higher than normal but not yet high enough to be diagnosed as diabetes mellitus. This includes individuals with impaired fasting glucose (IFG) or impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). Diabetes UK estimates that around 1 in 7 adults in the UK have prediabetes, and many of them will eventually develop type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), putting them at risk of microvascular and macrovascular complications.
To identify patients with prediabetes, NICE recommends using a validated computer-based risk assessment tool for adults aged 40 and over, people of South Asian and Chinese descent aged 25-39, and adults with conditions that increase the risk of T2DM. Patients identified as high risk should have a blood sample taken, and a fasting plasma glucose of 6.1-6.9 mmol/l or an HbA1c level of 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%) indicates high risk.
Lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, increased exercise, and changes in diet are recommended for managing prediabetes. Patients should have at least yearly follow-up with blood tests. NICE recommends metformin for adults at high risk who are still progressing towards T2DM despite participating in an intensive lifestyle-change program.
There are two main types of impaired glucose regulation: impaired fasting glucose (IFG) and impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). IFG is due to hepatic insulin resistance, while IGT is due to muscle insulin resistance. Patients with IGT are more likely to develop T2DM and cardiovascular disease than those with IFG.
To diagnose IFG, a fasting glucose level of 6.1-6.9 mmol/l is required. IGT is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8-11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person has IGT but not diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is initiated on exenatide. What statement about exenatide is false?
Your Answer: The major adverse effect is flu-like symptoms
Explanation:Vomiting is a common side effect of exenatide, with nausea being the primary adverse reaction.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about the use of self-monitoring of blood-glucose levels in patients who have recently been diagnosed with type II diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: It has been shown to be more effective in reducing long-term complications than monitoring of HbA1c levels.
Correct Answer: There is an association with increased levels of depression
Explanation:The Pros and Cons of Self-Monitoring Blood Glucose Levels in Type 2 Diabetes
Self-monitoring of blood glucose levels is a common practice among individuals with type 2 diabetes. While it has its benefits, there are also some drawbacks to consider.
Association with Increased Levels of Depression:
The ESMON trial found that participants in the self-monitoring group were more depressed compared to the control group. This suggests that self-monitoring may have a negative impact on mental health.No Significant Difference in Episodes of Hypoglycemia:
Contrary to popular belief, self-monitoring did not lead to fewer episodes of hypoglycemia compared to the control group in the ESMON study.Not More Effective in Reducing Long-Term Complications:
While good diabetic control can reduce long-term complications, self-monitoring has not been shown to be more effective than monitoring HbA1c levels.Not Cost-Effective:
The DiGEM trial found that self-monitoring was more expensive and resulted in lower quality of life compared to the control group.No Significant Difference in HbA1c Levels:
In the ESMON study, there was no significant difference in HbA1c levels between the self-monitoring group and the control group.In conclusion, self-monitoring blood glucose levels may have some benefits, but it is important to consider the potential drawbacks before making it a regular practice. It is recommended to discuss with a healthcare provider to determine if self-monitoring is appropriate for individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the surgery complaining of a productive cough. Upon examination, he has a fever and bronchial breathing in the right lower zone. The working diagnosis is pneumonia and amoxicillin is prescribed with a chest x-ray scheduled for the following day. The patient has a medical history of Addison's disease and takes hydrocortisone (20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the afternoon). What is the best course of action regarding his steroid dosage?
Your Answer: Continue the same morning dose + stop the afternoon dose
Correct Answer: Double hydrocortisone to 40 mg mornings and 20 mg afternoon
Explanation:Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a BMI of 50 kg/m² comes to you seeking advice on how to lose weight. He has no significant medical history and is not on any regular medication.
As per the latest NICE guidelines on weight loss, what would be your first-line recommendation to him?Your Answer: Test for type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer: Refer for consideration of bariatric surgery
Explanation:The latest guidance from NICE recommends bariatric surgery as the primary option for adults with a BMI exceeding 50 kg/m2, rather than lifestyle changes or medication. Therefore, patients falling under this category should be referred for bariatric surgery evaluation.
In cases where the waiting time for surgery is prolonged, drug treatment with orlistat may be prescribed to maintain or reduce weight. Orlistat is approved for adults aged 18-75 years with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more, or a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or more with associated risk factors, when used in conjunction with a mildly hypocaloric diet.
In addition to referral consideration, advising the patient to follow a low-calorie diet and increase physical activity would be beneficial. As this patient is at high risk of developing type 2 diabetes, testing for it may be necessary, but should not delay urgent intervention to reduce their BMI.
Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management
Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.
There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 56-year-old female is undergoing investigation for macrocytic anemia. Her blood tests indicate a deficiency in vitamin B12. Which of the following medications could be a contributing factor?
Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents to his GP with complaints of feeling tired and thirsty for the past week. He also reports experiencing vomiting and abdominal pain that started earlier today. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 99/71 mmHg, heart rate is 102/min, respiratory rate is 23/min, temperature is 36.4ºC, and oxygen saturation is 98%. His chest is clear, and his abdomen is soft with mild generalised tenderness. What investigation would be most useful in making a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Full blood count (FBC)
Correct Answer: Blood glucose (BM)
Explanation:When a patient experiences abdominal pain, it could be an indication of diabetic ketoacidosis. If a young patient is showing signs of lethargy, thirst, vomiting, and abdominal pain, it is important to consider the possibility of DKA. It is crucial to check the patient’s blood glucose level immediately to confirm the diagnosis.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has type 2 diabetes. He is a group 1 driver with a valid driving licence.
He wants to know if he needs to inform the DVLA about his condition.
Which patients with diabetes must by law inform the DVLA about their condition?Your Answer: Treated with both tablets and diet at the same time
Correct Answer: There are no requirements for patients with diabetes to inform the DVLA
Explanation:DVLA Guidelines for Diabetic Drivers
Drivers with diabetes do not need to inform the DVLA if their condition is managed by tablets or diet and they are free of complications such as visual impairment or hypoglycaemic attacks. However, if they are taking tablets that can induce hypoglycaemia, such as sulphonylureas, they must inform the DVLA. Additionally, if they have experienced more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the last 12 months or are at high risk of developing it, they must also inform the DVLA.
In January 2016, the DVLA updated their guidelines, which may be reflected in AKT exam questions. It is important for drivers with diabetes to familiarize themselves with any additions or amendments. One of the changes made was to revise the wording for Group 1 drivers who are managed by tablets that carry a risk of inducing hypoglycaemia, including sulphonylureas and glinides.
It is important to note that drivers who are treated with insulin must inform the DVLA by law. Some people with diabetes may develop associated problems that could affect their ability to drive safely, and it is important to follow the guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year old man visits your clinic with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination that have been present for about a month. He has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and is currently on prednisolone. You suspect that he may have developed diabetes mellitus due to his corticosteroid treatment. What is the best method to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Serial blood sugar measurements over a 24-hour period (using a personal glucometer)
Correct Answer: Single fasting glucose sample
Explanation:If a HbA1c test is not suitable for diagnosing T2DM, then a fasting glucose sample should be taken instead.
The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female has been experiencing fatigue, itching, and yellowing of her skin. She denies any rashes and doesn't feel feverish or unwell. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, and diverticulosis. On examination, she has scleral icterus, a clear chest, normal heart sounds, a soft and non-tender abdomen, and no peripheral edema. Which medication is the most probable culprit for her current symptoms?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Cholestasis is a known side effect of sulfonylureas, but not of ibuprofen, amlodipine, or senna.
Side-Effects of Sulfonylureas
Sulfonylureas are a class of medications used to treat type 2 diabetes by stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas. However, like any medication, they can cause side-effects. The most common adverse effects of sulfonylureas are hypoglycaemic episodes, which are more common with long-acting preparations such as chlorpropamide. Another common side-effect is weight gain.
In addition to these common side-effects, there are rarer adverse effects that can occur with sulfonylureas. One such effect is the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, which can lead to low sodium levels in the blood. Another rare side-effect is bone marrow suppression, which can cause a decrease in the production of blood cells. Sulfonylureas can also cause liver damage, specifically cholestatic liver injury. Finally, peripheral neuropathy, which is damage to the nerves that control movement and sensation in the limbs, can occur as a side-effect of sulfonylureas.
It is important to note that not everyone who takes sulfonylureas will experience these side-effects, and some people may experience different side-effects than those listed here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy attends his General Practitioner, concerned that he is not developing normally. He is one of the shortest boys in his year group, and feels that his genitals are not the same as others in his year group. He is concerned that his voice has not ‘dropped’ and that he doesn't have pubic or axillary hair.
On examination, he has no pubic, axillary, or facial hair. He has bilaterally descended testes, with a volume of 3 ml each. His father said he was himself a ‘late developer’.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Normal development
Correct Answer: Constitutional delay in puberty
Explanation:Delayed puberty in boys is when there are no signs of puberty and the testicular volume is less than 4 ml by the age of 14. This occurs in 3% of the population and is often caused by constitutional delay, which is more common in boys and has a family history. In normal puberty, the first stage begins between ten and 12 years with testicular enlargement, followed by other changes such as penile and scrotal enlargement, pubic hair growth, facial hair growth, growth spurt, and voice changes. Kallmann syndrome is a rare inherited condition that causes hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and an impaired sense of smell. Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that causes hypogonadism, sparse facial and body hair, and infertility, but doesn’t fit with the short stature in this case. Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by developmental delay, obesity, hyperphagia, and cryptorchidism or hypogonadism, but there is no mention of obesity or hyperphagia in this case. This boy has started puberty, with testicular growth having started, and can expect normal developmental changes to continue in the usual sequence, though delayed compared with normal puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A middle-aged male with type 2 diabetes comes in for a check-up. He is currently on metformin and has a HbA1c of 52. He has experienced multiple episodes of hypoglycemia in the past. The healthcare team decides to prescribe canagliflozin as an additional treatment.
What information should be conveyed to the patient regarding his new medication?Your Answer: The new tablet has a metallic taste
Correct Answer: Regularly check your legs for signs of ulcers
Explanation:Patients taking canagliflozin should be closely monitored for any ulcers or infections on their legs and feet, as there is a potential increased risk of amputation. Canagliflozin is a medication that blocks the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased urinary glucose excretion. However, this can also increase the risk of urogenital infections and dehydration. Patients should seek medical attention if they notice any skin discoloration or ulcers.
Before starting treatment with canagliflozin, it is important to monitor renal function and continue to do so annually. While there has been some debate about a potential association between dapagliflozin and bladder cancer, canagliflozin has been deemed safe and effective by NICE as a recommended therapy.
Canagliflozin is generally well-tolerated and doesn’t pose any significant swallowing difficulties. However, some patients may experience a metallic taste disturbance when taking metformin, another commonly prescribed medication for diabetes.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment three months after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. He has a BMI of 31 kg/m2 and has lost 6 kg since his diagnosis. However, his morning blood sugars are still elevated at 10 mmol/l and his HbA1c level is 72 mmol/mol. He also has hypertension and is taking lisinopril, and his triglycerides are high while his HDL cholesterol is low. What would be the best initial therapy option for this patient's diabetes? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: Acarbose
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Choosing the Best Initial Therapy for Type 2 Diabetes: Metformin
Metformin is the first-line drug of choice for the treatment of type 2 diabetes, particularly in overweight and obese individuals with normal kidney function. It is recommended to start with a dose of 500 mg per day and gradually increase to a total daily dose of 1.5-2 g (divided into morning and evening doses) over a few weeks.
The UKPDS study showed that metformin was superior to sulfonylurea or insulin in reducing macrovascular risk, with a statistically significant risk reduction for myocardial infarction compared to conventional therapy. Metformin works as a partial insulin sensitiser, reducing hepatic glucose output and having anti-inflammatory effects, particularly on plasminogen-activator inhibitor 1 (PAI-1), which is associated with an increased tendency to blood clotting and may increase vascular risk.
While sulfonylureas like gliclazide can be an option if metformin is contraindicated or as a potential adjunct to metformin if diabetic control is not adequate, they have a higher risk of hypoglycaemia. Acarbose delays the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose, while glibenclamide is a long-acting sulfonylurea that is more likely to cause hypoglycaemia than other sulfonylureas. Pioglitazone is an alternative to metformin if the latter is contraindicated or as a potential adjunct to metformin if diabetic control is not adequate, reducing peripheral insulin resistance and blood glucose concentration.
In summary, metformin is the best initial therapy for type 2 diabetes, with other options available if metformin is contraindicated or if diabetic control is not adequate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male with a three year history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with ischaemic heart disease and has recently commenced atorvastatin 80 mg daily, as his cholesterol was 6.2 mmol/L.
He re-attends complaining of various muscle aches and pains and you find that his liver function tests are elevated from baseline. Pre-treatment ALT was 55 IU/L. Now his ALT is 90 IU/L. He asks whether his statin should be changed or stopped.
What is the most appropriate next strategy to treat his hypercholesterolaemia?Your Answer: Ezetimibe
Correct Answer: Bezafibrate
Explanation:Managing Statin Intolerance in Patients with Ischaemic Heart Disease and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
This patient has both ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus, making him a candidate for statin therapy due to his elevated cholesterol levels. However, he has experienced myalgia and raised liver function tests while taking atorvastatin at its maximum dose, indicating statin intolerance. NICE guidance recommends reducing the dose or trying an alternative statin in such cases. Fibrate and ezetimibe are not recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes. Referral to a specialist may be necessary if statins are not tolerated at all.
To minimize the risk of side effects, starting at a low dose and gradually titrating up can be helpful. Rosuvastatin and pravastatin may have a lower incidence of myalgia compared to other statins. If another statin is prescribed, cautious monitoring of liver function tests is necessary. Patients with a history of statin-related hepatitis or rhabdomyolysis should generally avoid statins in the future if possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is evaluated after being diagnosed with hypertension. As part of his assessment, he underwent a series of blood tests to screen for other risk factors:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 3.9 mmol/l
Urea 6.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 91 µmol/l
Fasting glucose 7.7 mmol/l
Total cholesterol 7.2 mmol/l
Upon seeing the fasting glucose result, you order a HbA1c:
HbA1c 31 mmol/mol (5.0%)
What could account for the discrepancy between the HbA1c and fasting glucose levels?Your Answer: Conn's syndrome
Correct Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia
Explanation:Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in red blood cells at a rate proportional to the concentration of glucose in the blood. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous three months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, and then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose levels.
The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c, which reports HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached. The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, one can calculate the average plasma glucose level by using the formula: average plasma glucose = (2 * HbA1c) – 4.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 65-year old woman comes to your clinic concerned about the possibility of having diabetes. She is overweight and has a significant family history of type 2 diabetes. Due to her chronic kidney disease, you opt to conduct an oral glucose tolerance test instead of testing her HbA1c. What outcome would indicate that she has impaired glucose tolerance?
Your Answer: Fasting plasma glucose = 5.2mmol/L, two hour oral glucose tolerance test = 7.4mmol/L
Correct Answer: Fasting plasma glucose = 5.5mmol/L, two hour oral glucose tolerance test = 9.8mmol/L,
Explanation:Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is characterized by a fasting plasma glucose level below 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value between 7.8 mmol/l and 11.1 mmol/l. Only option 4 meets these criteria. Options 1 and 2 indicate normal results with a fasting plasma glucose level below 5.5 mmol/l and a 2-hour plasma glucose level below 7.8 mmol/l. Options 3 and 5 indicate a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus with a fasting plasma glucose level above 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour plasma glucose level above 11.1 mmol/l.
The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding the management of thyrotoxicosis?
Your Answer: Radio-iodine treatment is safe with no long-term side-effects
Correct Answer: Surgical treatment should be considered for patients with large goitres
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism: Medications, Radio-Iodine, and Surgery
Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone, leading to symptoms such as weight loss, tremors, and tachycardia. Carbimazole and propylthiouracil are medications used to treat hyperthyroidism, but they require monitoring and should be initiated under specialist advice. A β-blocker may also be used to relieve adrenergic symptoms. Treatment is typically on a titration-block or block-and-replace regime, with a remission rate of about 50% after 6-18 months of treatment.
Radio-iodine is another treatment option for hyperthyroidism, particularly for toxic nodular hyperthyroidism or when medical treatment is not effective. However, it is contraindicated in thyroid eye disease and pregnancy, and can lead to hypothyroidism in 80% of patients. There is no increased risk of cancer from radio-iodine treatment.
Surgical treatment by total or near-total thyroidectomy may be necessary for recurrent hyperthyroidism after drug treatment, compression symptoms from a large toxic multinodular goitre, potentially malignant thyroid nodules, or in certain cases of pregnancy or active eye disease.
Overall, treatment options for hyperthyroidism should be carefully considered and discussed with a specialist to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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On reviewing the blood results of a 65-year-old patient, you note mild hypercalcaemia. The full blood count, renal function, serum electrolytes, liver function tests and thyroid function tests were all normal. A subsequent repeat serum calcium shows persistence in the mild hypercalcaemia along with a raised parathyroid hormone. The patient is otherwise asymptomatic.
Which of the following would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Refer to endocrinology
Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Managing Incidental Findings of Hypercalcaemia
It is crucial to consider the differential diagnosis when an incidental finding of hypercalcaemia is discovered. Immediate hospital review is necessary for severe hypercalcaemia (>3.40mmol/L) or those with symptoms. Further investigations may be required for mild hypercalcaemia, depending on the clinical context, such as chest x-ray, serum and urine protein electrophoresis, and serum cortisol.
NICE recommends referring patients suspected of having primary hyperparathyroidism to endocrinology. They will exclude other causes of hypercalcaemia and assess whether a parathyroidectomy is appropriate. Calcimimetic drug treatments and bisphosphonate therapy are potential treatments, but these would be considered in secondary care initially. A normal dietary intake of calcium is usually advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old wrestler presents with complaints of increased thirst and frequent urination. A urine dip reveals low specific gravity and no other abnormalities, and cultures come back negative. The recent venous blood gas results are as follows:
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Glucose 3.9 mmol/L (3.6 - 5.3)
- Creatinine 60 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Bicarbonate 27 mmol/L (22 - 29)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Type II diabetes
Correct Answer: Diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Consider diabetes insipidus as the possible diagnosis for a patient presenting with polyuria and polydipsia, along with low potassium levels and no evidence of diabetes mellitus. The patient being a boxer may suggest head trauma, which is one of the potential causes of cranial diabetes insipidus. In this condition, urine cannot be effectively concentrated due to damage to the cranial source of ADH. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, occurs when the kidneys do not respond to ADH appropriately.
Addison’s disease is less likely as it would not cause increased urination, and the patient would try to preserve water to compensate for dehydration. Additionally, Addison’s disease would cause elevated potassium levels and is unlikely without abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting.
Cushing’s disease is not the most likely diagnosis as the patient doesn’t present with the classical signs and symptoms such as central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, psychological problems, and glucose intolerance.
Type I diabetes is unlikely as there is no glucose in the urine and normal glucose on VBG. Onset of type I diabetes at the age of 42 is also uncommon.
Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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What criteria must a patient meet to be diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: A 66-year-old fit and well asymptomatic gentleman with a fasting glucose of 6.6 mmol/L and a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol. A second HbA1c test a few weeks later also comes back as 48 mmol/mol
Correct Answer: A 69-year-old asymptomatic gentleman who is otherwise well who has a one-off random glucose of 11.5 mmol/L
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus
In a patient showing symptoms such as thirst, polyuria, nocturia, and blurred vision, diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed if any of the following criteria are met: HbA1c ≥48 mmol/mol, fasting glucose ≥7.0 mmol/L, OGTT 2 hour value ≥11.1 mmol/L, or random glucose ≥11.1 mmol/L. However, in the absence of classic symptoms or hyperglycaemic crisis, the test(s) should be repeated to confirm the criteria are met before a diagnosis can be made.
The correct answer to diagnose diabetes mellitus is a gentleman who has a raised fasting glucose. Although the fasting glucose on its own is not diagnostic of diabetes mellitus, it would have to be ≥7.0 mmol/L and confirmed on a repeat test. However, the HbA1c is compatible with the diagnosis, and a second HbA1c test confirms the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. He is currently on metformin, aspirin, and simvastatin, and there have been no changes to his medication for the past 18 months. As per the latest NICE guidelines, what is the recommended frequency for checking his HbA1c?
Your Answer: Every 2 years
Correct Answer: 6 monthly
Explanation:NICE suggests that individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus should have their HbA1c levels checked every six months once their treatment has been stabilized.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the GP with a six-month history of excessive tiredness, feeling thirsty, weight loss and passing a lot of urine. He has a strong family history of Type 2 diabetes mellitus.
During examination, his blood pressure was found to be 125/72 mmHg and urinalysis showed ++glucose but no ketones. The abdomen was soft and tender with no masses. His body mass index is 32 kg/m². He is retired and doesn't drive.
Blood tests arranged showed HbA1c at 58 mmol/mol.
As per NICE guidelines, what is an important part of managing this patient with new-onset Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?Your Answer: Start gliclazide and titrate to maximum tolerated dose
Correct Answer: CT abdomen
Explanation:If a patient over the age of 60 presents with new-onset diabetes and weight loss, it is recommended to refer them for an urgent CT abdomen to rule out pancreatic cancer. In this case, the patient has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus based on symptoms and blood tests. While metformin can be initiated in primary care, it is important to prioritize ruling out pancreatic cancer as a potential cause for the diabetes. Medication options should be considered based on the patient’s history and blood tests, with gliclazide not being the best choice for this patient’s body mass index. Blood sugar monitoring devices are not typically necessary for type 2 diabetes mellitus patients, unless they are started on a medication that can cause hypoglycemia. Hba1c monitoring is usually sufficient. This information is based on guidelines from NICE CKS.
The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and iron-deficiency anaemia after complaining of feeling very tired. She was started on levothyroxine and ferrous sulphate and has been taking these for the last six months. Three months ago her blood tests showed:
Haemoglobin 120 g/L (115-160 g/L)
Ferritin 60 ng/mL (20-230 ng/ml)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) 6.9 mu/L (0.5-5.5 mu/L)
She was continued on levothyroxine and ferrous sulphate tablets for a further 3 months. Her blood tests were repeated today which show:
Haemoglobin 130 g/L (115-160 g/L)
Ferritin 110 ng/mL (20-230 ng/ml)
TSH 7 mu/L (0.5-5.5 mu/L)
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer the patient to endocrinology
Correct Answer: Stop the iron supplementation and continue levothyroxine at the current dose
Explanation:To avoid reducing the absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be given four hours apart. The patient’s blood results indicate that her iron levels have been replenished and her blood count is now normal, but her thyroid-stimulating hormone level remains elevated. According to NICE guidelines, iron treatment should be continued for three more months after normalizing haemoglobin concentrations and blood counts before being discontinued. Since the patient’s iron levels are now normal, continuing ferrous sulphate is unnecessary and may hinder the absorption of levothyroxine. Therefore, it is advisable to discontinue iron and observe if her thyroid hormone levels normalize before adjusting her levothyroxine dosage.
If a patient with hypothyroidism has a structural change in the thyroid gland or is suspected of having an underlying endocrine disease such as Addison’s disease, they should be referred to endocrinology. However, this patient doesn’t appear to have any of these conditions, but it is essential to conduct a neck examination to ensure that there are no palpable masses.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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You are performing the yearly evaluation of a 42-year-old female patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Your objective is to screen for diabetic neuropathy that may be affecting her feet.
Which screening test would be the most suitable to use?Your Answer: Test sensation using cotton wool
Correct Answer: Test sensation using a 10 g monofilament
Explanation:To evaluate diabetic neuropathy in the feet, it is recommended to utilize a monofilament weighing 10 grams.
Diabetic foot disease is a significant complication of diabetes mellitus that requires regular screening. In 2015, NICE published guidelines on diabetic foot disease. The disease is caused by two main factors: neuropathy, which results in a loss of protective sensation, and peripheral arterial disease, which can cause macro and microvascular ischaemia. Symptoms of diabetic foot disease include loss of sensation, absent foot pulses, reduced ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI), intermittent claudication, calluses, ulceration, Charcot’s arthropathy, cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and gangrene.
All patients with diabetes should be screened for diabetic foot disease at least once a year. Screening for ischaemia involves palpating for both the dorsalis pedis pulse and posterial tibial artery pulse, while screening for neuropathy involves using a 10 g monofilament on various parts of the sole of the foot. NICE recommends that patients be risk-stratified into low, moderate, and high-risk categories based on factors such as deformity, previous ulceration or amputation, renal replacement therapy, and the presence of calluses or neuropathy. Patients who are moderate or high-risk should be regularly followed up by their local diabetic foot centre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 44
Correct
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You are conducting a phone consultation with a 36-year-old patient whom you previously saw for erectile dysfunction (ED) two weeks ago. You ordered some blood tests, and the results have come back with abnormal findings. The patient's HbA1c and lipid profile are both within normal limits, but his total testosterone level is low at 9 nmol/l (normal is >12 nmol/l).
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Repeat the testosterone level and check follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and prolactin level
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old patient with Type II diabetes attends the clinic seeking guidance on dietary recommendations for managing their condition.
Choose from the options below the one food that will cause the quickest increase in blood glucose levels.Your Answer: Carrots
Correct Answer: Cornflakes
Explanation:Understanding Glycaemic Index: Comparing the Effect of Different Foods on Blood Glucose Levels
The glycaemic index is a measure of how quickly a carbohydrate-containing food raises blood glucose levels. It compares the digestion rate of a food to that of glucose, which has a glycaemic index of 100. Choosing foods with a lower glycaemic index can help regulate blood glucose levels in people with diabetes.
In this list, cornflakes have the highest glycaemic index (80), while bananas (58), carrots (41), yoghurt (33), and peanuts (14) have lower glycaemic indices. However, other factors such as cooking methods, ripeness of fruits and vegetables, and the fat or protein content of a meal can also affect the glycaemic index of a food. For example, chocolate has a low glycaemic index due to its fat content, which slows down carbohydrate absorption.
Understanding the glycaemic index can help individuals make informed choices about their diet and manage their blood glucose levels effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy complains of a burning pain in his feet that has been progressively worsening over the past few months. Despite taking duloxetine, he has not experienced any relief. Upon clinical examination, the only notable finding is reduced sensitivity to fine touch on both soles. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Pregabalin
Explanation:Although amitriptyline is typically the preferred option, it is advisable to steer clear of it in this case due to the patient’s history of benign prostatic hyperplasia, which increases the risk of urinary retention.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly diabetes check-up. He was diagnosed with type two diabetes 3 years ago and is currently taking metformin 500mg tds. He reports no adverse effects and is compliant with medication instructions. There is no notable medical history.
His latest HbA1c reading was 53 mmol/mol. You contemplate modifying his current medication.
What is the desired HbA1c level for this individual?Your Answer: 52 mmol/mol
Correct Answer: 48 mmol/mol
Explanation:The HbA1c target for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus who are taking a single drug not linked to hypoglycemia, such as metformin, is 48 mmol/mol. However, if they are taking multiple medications or a single medication that is associated with hypoglycemia, the target may differ.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with type 2 diabetic attends annual review at the GP practice.
His current treatment consists of: aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg ON, metformin 1g BD, pioglitazone 45 mg OD and glibenclamide 15 mg OD.
He complains of episodes of blurred vision and feeling lightheaded. He has taken his blood sugar during one of these episodes and it was 2.3.
Which one of his medicines is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Pioglitazone
Correct Answer: Glibenclamide
Explanation:Understanding Hypoglycaemic Episodes and Sulphonylureas
This gentleman is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes that are causing symptoms of blurred vision and lightheadedness. The most likely cause of these episodes is the sulphonylurea he is taking. Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin secretion, which can cause significant problems with hypoglycaemia. On the other hand, metformin increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, while pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance. Hypoglycaemia is uncommon with pioglitazone, and metformin doesn’t cause it.
Glibenclamide is a long-acting sulphonylurea that is associated with a greater risk of hypoglycaemia. It should be avoided in the elderly, and shorter-acting alternatives, such as gliclazide, are more appropriate. The above patient is also on the maximum dose, which increases the risk of hypoglycaemia further. Therefore, glibenclamide is the correct answer. Understanding the relationship between hypoglycaemic episodes and sulphonylureas is crucial in managing diabetes and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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You suspect that a 52-year-old man is suffering from Cushing syndrome.
What time of day is a random cortisol test most likely to be abnormal?Your Answer: 1200 h
Correct Answer: 2400 h
Explanation:Cortisol Levels and Cushing Syndrome: Diagnostic Tests and Circadian Rhythms
Plasma cortisol levels in normal individuals follow a circadian rhythm, with the highest levels in the morning and the lowest levels at night. However, in patients with Cushing syndrome, this rhythm is disrupted, and late-night cortisol levels do not fall as they should. This alteration in cortisol secretion can be used to diagnose Cushing syndrome, with an elevated serum cortisol at 2400 h being an early indicator.
The 0900 h cortisol level is not a reliable indicator of Cushing syndrome, as it may still be within the normal range. Instead, a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test is used, where a failure to suppress cortisol suggests Cushing syndrome.
A 24-hour urine collection with cortisol level analysis is a better test for Cushing syndrome than serum cortisol, with two or more samples showing cortisol excretion more than three times the upper limit of normal being a confident diagnosis.
Late-night cortisol samples should be taken between 2300 h and 0100 h, while melatonin, which regulates sleep and wakefulness, follows a reverse circadian rhythm, with levels highest during periods of sleep. Synthetic melatonin is commonly used to alleviate jet lag.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with excessive sweating and weight loss. Her partner reports that she is constantly on edge and you notice a fine tremor during the consultation. A large, non-tender goitre is also noted. However, examination of her eyes reveals no exophthalmos.
Free T4 levels are at 26 pmol/l, while Free T3 levels are at 12.2 pmol/l (3.0-7.5). Her TSH levels are less than 0.05 mu/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: De Quervain's thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man who has had asthma since childhood is seen in the asthma clinic. His asthma has been poorly controlled over the last two years and he has seen a number of different practitioners. In an attempt to gain control over his asthma, his inhaled steroids have been increased on several occasions and he has had several prolonged courses of oral steroids. He comments that he has put on a lot of weight over the last four years and bruises easily. He finds that he is tired all the time and finds it difficult to get out of a chair. On examination, he has purple striae over his abdomen and urinalysis is positive to glucose.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Cushing syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Cushing Syndrome and its Differential Diagnosis
Cushing syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive levels of cortisol in the body. It can be caused by prolonged use of oral corticosteroids or, in rare cases, by a tumor in the adrenal gland. Patients with Cushing syndrome may present with symptoms such as weight gain, moon face, buffalo hump, easy bruising, and thinning of the skin.
It is important to differentiate Cushing syndrome from other conditions with similar symptoms. Addison’s disease, for example, is caused by adrenal failure and presents with weakness, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Conn syndrome, on the other hand, is characterized by hypertension and hypokalemia due to excess aldosterone secretion from an adrenal adenoma.
Diabetes mellitus is a common complication of Cushing syndrome, as it can impair glucose metabolism. Hypothyroidism, while also causing fatigue and weight gain, doesn’t typically present with striae or glycosuria.
In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose Cushing syndrome and differentiate it from other conditions with similar symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with chronic atrial fibrillation (AF) who is on amiodarone treatment develops thyrotoxicosis. What is the most suitable initial management option to alleviate his symptoms? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Anti-thyroid drugs
Explanation:Treatment Options for Amiodarone-Induced Thyrotoxicosis
Amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT) is a potential complication in patients undergoing amiodarone treatment, with an incidence ranging from 2-12%. There are two types of AIT, type 1 and type 2, each with different underlying causes. While discontinuing amiodarone is necessary, it may not be enough to control the thyrotoxic state quickly. Here are the treatment options for AIT:
Anti-thyroid drugs: These are the first-line treatment for AIT. High doses of carbimazole or methimazole (40-60 mg/day) or propylthiouracil (100-150 mg qid) are required initially.
Lugol’s iodine: This solution of potassium iodide and iodine in water is used to treat thyrotoxicosis until surgery can be carried out.
Corticosteroids: High-dose corticosteroids may be useful if thyrotoxicosis is not controlled or if exacerbation occurs. They inhibit 5′-deiodinase activity and perhaps also affect the gland directly.
Radioiodine: Radioactive iodine is frequently not effective because the often prevailing high iodide concentration in patients’ thyroids prevents sufficient thyroidal uptake of the radioisotope.
Surgery: Although it is an effective form of treatment, with euthyroidism being restored within a matter of days, it is not a first-line option.
In conclusion, AIT requires prompt treatment to control the thyrotoxic state. Anti-thyroid drugs are the first-line treatment, while other options such as Lugol’s iodine, corticosteroids, radioiodine, and surgery may be considered depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male attends regarding a concern over the future development of obesity. He has read on the internet about the metabolic syndrome and its association with diabetes. He wonders if he has this diagnosis.
Which of the following is a specific criterion in the diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome?Your Answer: A body mass index of 29 kg/m2
Correct Answer: A fasting plasma glucose of 4.9 mmol/L
Explanation:Understanding Metabolic Syndrome
Metabolic syndrome is diagnosed when an individual has central obesity, along with two other risk factors. The International Diabetes Federation and American Heart Association define central obesity as increased waist circumference, which is ethnicity-specific. For example, Caucasian men should have a waist circumference of at least 94 cm, while South Asian men should have a waist circumference of at least 90 cm. Other risk factors include raised triglycerides, reduced HDL-cholesterol, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose.
The importance of diagnosing metabolic syndrome lies in its associated morbidity. Individuals with metabolic syndrome have a four times increased risk of developing diabetes and a two-fold risk of developing ischemic heart disease. Central obesity is more highly correlated with metabolic risk factors than body mass index, making it an important measurement in identifying the bodyweight component of metabolic syndrome. Therefore, measuring waist circumference is recommended to identify individuals with metabolic syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man who is a type II diabetic presents to his General Practitioner with concerns about persistent premature ejaculation. He also reports occasional erectile dysfunction. The only medication he takes is metformin. His recent glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) result is 72 mmol/l (normal: 48 mmol/l).
What is the most appropriate medication alteration required to improve this man’s symptoms?Your Answer: Start citalopram
Correct Answer: Start sildenafil
Explanation:Treatment Options for Premature Ejaculation and Erectile Dysfunction in Diabetic Patients
Premature ejaculation affects a small percentage of men, while over 50% of diabetic men experience erectile dysfunction. When both conditions are present, it is recommended to treat erectile dysfunction first with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor like sildenafil. This medication prevents the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), leading to smooth-muscle relaxation and increased blood flow to the penis for an erection. There is no conclusive evidence that reducing HbA1c levels improves erectile dysfunction. Gliclazide is not the most suitable medication for improving symptoms. Citalopram, an off-licence selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI), can treat premature ejaculation but should not be used when erectile dysfunction is present. Dapoxetine is the initial treatment for isolated premature ejaculation in those under 65. Stopping metformin is not recommended as it is not a known cause of premature ejaculation and may still be necessary for diabetic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 55
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
TSH 14.3 mu/l
What should be done next?Your Answer: Start levothyroxine 25mcg od
Explanation:The patient exhibits hypothyroidism, indicated by low free T4 and elevated TSH levels. Considering her age, it is recommended to gradually introduce levothyroxine at a starting dose of 25mcg once daily.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 56
Correct
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Which of the following statements about dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors for managing type 2 diabetes mellitus is accurate?
Your Answer: Do not cause weight gain
Explanation:Patients taking dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors rarely experience hypoglycaemia.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman registers as a new patient. She says she is well and has no symptoms. As she is approaching 50 and overweight, you arrange for routine blood tests, including HbA1c. The results come back showing a glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) of 49 mmol/mol.
What is the most appropriate response to this result?Your Answer: Diagnose impaired glucose tolerance (pre-diabetes)
Correct Answer: Repeat the test
Explanation:Understanding HbA1c Test Results for Diabetes Diagnosis
The HbA1c test is a diagnostic tool for diabetes, with a recommended cut-off point of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%). However, a single abnormal result doesn’t confirm the diagnosis, especially in asymptomatic patients. In such cases, a repeat laboratory venous HbA1c test is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. If the second result is still above 48 mmol/mol, the patient is diagnosed with diabetes. If the result is below 48 mmol/mol, the patient is considered to have a high diabetes risk and should repeat the test in six months or sooner if symptoms develop. HbA1c levels below 42 mmol/mol are normal for non-diabetic adults, while levels from 42 to 47 mmol/mol indicate pre-diabetes. An oral glucose tolerance test is not necessary in the absence of hyperglycaemic symptoms, and more than one test on two separate days is required for a diagnosis. Understanding HbA1c test results is crucial for accurate diabetes diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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For elderly patients who fast during Ramadan, what is the correct approach to managing type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: Short-acting carbohydrates should be taken after breaking the fast in the evening
Correct Answer: Around 4 out of 5 patients Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan
Explanation:Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.
To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.
Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Despite regularly missing her hospital diabetes appointments, her HbA1c control is currently within target. What is the recommended frequency for monitoring her HbA1c levels?
Your Answer: Every 6 - 8 weeks
Correct Answer: Every 3 - 6 months
Explanation:The HbA1c should be assessed every 3-6 months in individuals with type 1 diabetes.
Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.
Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with persistent vomiting and lethargy. She has lost 3 kg in weight over the past three weeks and is concerned because she is 14 weeks pregnant.
Upon examination, she appears thin, with a regular pulse of 80 and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. There is no goitre or thyroid bruit, and her thyroid autoantibody status is negative.
Her lab results show a TSH level of 0.4 mU/L (0.5-6), T3 level of 7.0 pmol/L (3.4-7.2), and T4 level of 27 pmol/L (9-25).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Correct Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:Understanding Hyperemesis Gravidarum and Thyroid Function
Patients with hyperemesis gravidarum may have blood tests taken, which can sometimes lead clinicians off on a tangent. It is important to recognize normality in these results. High levels of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) can cause mild biochemical thyrotoxicosis, similar to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). However, triiodothyronine (T3) is rarely elevated, and thyroid autoantibodies are negative in hyperemesis cases. Antithyroid drugs have no effect on the prognosis of the condition, and thyroid function tests usually return to normal by week 20. Understanding these nuances is crucial for managing hyperemesis gravidarum effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic worried that he might have 'the metabolic syndrome', which his colleague was recently diagnosed with. He informs you that he has researched the condition on the internet and has observed that he also has some of the symptoms linked with metabolic syndrome.
What is the most prevalent condition associated with this syndrome?Your Answer: Alcoholic liver disease
Correct Answer: Insulin resistance
Explanation:Understanding the Association of Metabolic Syndrome with Various Health Conditions
Metabolic syndrome is a condition that is characterized by multiple cardiovascular risk factors and is associated with insulin resistance. It is prevalent worldwide, affecting approximately 1 in every 4 or 5 adults, and is caused by a combination of genetics and lifestyle. The syndrome is typically defined by raised fasting plasma glucose, high blood pressure, low HDL, central obesity, and hypertriglyceridemia. Treatment involves exercise, weight loss, management of dyslipidemia and hypertension, and correction of glucose levels. However, the usefulness of the metabolic syndrome concept in predicting cardiovascular risk has been questioned.
Thyrotoxicosis, type I diabetes, and hypothyroidism are not associated with metabolic syndrome. Endocrine conditions associated with thyrotoxicosis include insulin resistance, type II diabetes, and polycystic ovarian syndrome. Alcoholic liver disease is not associated with metabolic syndrome, but non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is. Other conditions that are linked to metabolic syndrome include obesity, sleep apnea, and gallstones. Understanding the association of metabolic syndrome with various health conditions is crucial in managing and preventing the syndrome’s complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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Mrs. Evans is a 54-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes. She was unable to tolerate metformin due to nausea. She has been doing some of her own research into other options and suggests an SGLT-2 inhibitor, empagliflozin, because she has read it might help her lose weight and improve her blood pressure, as well as improve her blood sugar.
What is the mechanism of action of empagliflozin?Your Answer: Decrease glucose absorption in the gut
Correct Answer: Increase urinary glucose excretion
Explanation:SGLT-2 inhibitors function by enhancing the urinary excretion of glucose, which is the root cause of their primary side effects such as increased urine output, weight loss, and UTI. Sulphonylureas like gliclazide, on the other hand, work by increasing insulin release from the pancreas. Acarbose, which is not commonly prescribed in the UK, reduces glucose absorption in the gut. DPP4-inhibitors, which reduce the breakdown of incretins, decrease glucagon secretion by reducing glucagon release from the pancreas. Empagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, reduces glucose reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule, leading to an additional excretion of approximately 70g of glucose per day. This not only improves blood sugar levels but also causes weight loss, unlike other diabetic medications such as sulphonylureas and insulin, which cause weight gain. The slight diuresis caused by increased glucose excretion may also improve blood pressure. However, the increased glucose in the urine can also lead to adverse events such as urinary tract or genital infections. SGLT-2 inhibitors do not slow gastric emptying.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old lady presents for diabetic follow-up. She has been using paracetamol to manage her painful diabetic neuropathy, but her symptoms persist. She requests a stronger medication. None of the following treatments have any contraindications. Based on guidelines, what is the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer: Capsaicin
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Neuropathic Pain in Diabetic Patients
According to the NICE guidelines on the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain (CG173), patients with painful diabetic neuropathy should be offered duloxetine, amitriptyline, pregabalin, or gabapentin as first-line treatment. If these medications are contraindicated or not tolerated, capsaicin cream topically may be used for very localized neuropathic pain. Patients should be reviewed early for their symptoms, and treatment should be continued or gradually reduced if symptoms allow. If all the above fail, referral to secondary care is recommended, and adding tramadol while the patient is waiting is worth a try.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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You receive a fax from outpatients requesting you prescribe dulaglutide, a once-weekly GLP-1 mimetic, for your patient Mrs. Green. Mrs. Green is a type 2 diabetic already on insulin monotherapy.
What additional benefit might a GLP-1 mimetic provide to this patient?Your Answer: Reduces risk of acute pancreatitis
Correct Answer: Counteract insulin-associated weight gain
Explanation:GLP-1 mimetics can be combined with insulin in T2DM to prevent weight gain associated with insulin use, but patients still need to check their blood sugar levels before driving and throughout the journey. While SGLT2 inhibitors may help reduce blood pressure, GLP-1 mimetics do not have this effect. Additionally, while SGLT2 inhibitors have been shown to improve cardiovascular outcomes in T2DM patients, there is no evidence to suggest that GLP-1 mimetics have the same effect. It is important to note that GLP-1 mimetics can have rare but serious side effects, such as pancreatitis. Initiation of GLP-1 mimetics in T2DM should be done by a specialist team.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 65
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient with type 1 diabetes is planning a trip to visit her family in Japan. She is aware that she will need to adjust her medication schedule due to the time difference and seeks your guidance on how to do so. She is currently following a basal bolus regimen consisting of glargine and actrapid. What recommendations would you make regarding dose adjustments when traveling across time zones?
Your Answer: You should decrease your total insulin dose by 2-4% for every hour of time difference flying East
Explanation:Tips for Travelling with Insulin
Many patients with diabetes experience hypoglycaemia when travelling to different time zones. To avoid this, it is recommended to reduce the total daily insulin dose by 2-4% per hour of time difference. For example, a trip to Australia may require a reduction of around 30% during the flight and the first few days of adjusting to the time difference.
When travelling with insulin, it is important to carry a membership card from the local diabetes society and a letter from the doctor to make it easier to travel with needles and syringes. Insulin should not be stored in the hold as it may freeze and form crystals. If it must be stored in the hold, it should be placed in an airtight container and packed in the middle of the suitcase. After landing, it should be checked for crystals and thrown away if any are seen.
Airline rules allow staff to store excessive needles and insulin supplies for the duration of the journey. By following these tips, patients with diabetes can travel safely and comfortably with their insulin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes is prescribed insulin by the diabetic specialist nurses. He holds a group 1 driving licence and drives to his job as an accountant and auditor. Occasionally, he has to travel longer distances for work, which can involve 4-hour car rides.
The nurses advise him to check his blood glucose before starting his car journey and to monitor it during longer trips. What is the recommended frequency for this patient to check his blood glucose?Your Answer: Only when he feels the symptoms of hypoglycaemia e.g. shakiness
Correct Answer: Every 2 hours
Explanation:Individuals with insulin-dependent diabetes who are driving must monitor their blood glucose levels every 2 hours, according to DVLA guidelines. This man falls under this category and must adhere to this requirement. It would not be advisable to suggest that he only check his blood glucose when experiencing symptoms, as this could lead to impaired cognitive function and potentially cause an accident while driving before he has a chance to check his levels.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter at a dose of 800 units. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the equivalent dose in micrograms since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.
Which of the following is equal to 800 units of vitamin D?Your Answer: 25 mcg
Correct Answer: 5 mcg
Explanation:Converting Vitamin D Units to Micrograms
Many CCG pathways recommend taking vitamin D supplements in units, but the packaging of many vitamin D suppliers lists the dose in micrograms. To convert units to micrograms for vitamin D, simply divide by 40. For example, 400 units of vitamin D is equivalent to 10 micrograms. Remember to check the packaging for the correct dosage and always consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new supplement regimen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus. She is currently in good control and has no concurrent illnesses. What is the recommended frequency for monitoring her blood glucose levels?
Your Answer: On waking, before leaving the house and after lunch and the evening meal
Correct Answer: At least 4 times a day, including before each meal and before bed
Explanation:For individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is advisable to check their blood glucose levels a minimum of four times daily, which should include prior to every meal and at bedtime.
Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.
Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A man aged 50 wants to attempt weight loss. He has type 2 diabetes and his BMI is 27 kg/m2.
Would you prescribe orlistat for him?
What is the BMI threshold for diabetic patients to begin taking orlistat?Your Answer: 30
Correct Answer: 32
Explanation:Orlistat Treatment Criteria for Diabetes and Non-Diabetic Patients
According to the British National Formulary (BNF), patients with diabetes must have a Body Mass Index (BMI) of 28 or more to start treatment with orlistat. On the other hand, non-diabetic patients should have a BMI of 30 or more to be eligible for orlistat treatment.
It is important to note that orlistat is a weight loss medication that works by reducing the absorption of fat in the body. It is usually prescribed alongside a low-calorie diet and exercise program. Patients who meet the BMI criteria and have been assessed by a healthcare professional may be prescribed orlistat to aid in their weight loss journey.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m^2 has lost 3 kg in the last month and is considering taking a weight loss medication. What is the main mechanism of action of orlistat?
Your Answer: Leptin antagonist
Correct Answer: Pancreatic lipase inhibitor
Explanation:Orlistat reduces the digestion of fat by inhibiting gastric and pancreatic lipase, which leads to a decrease in the absorption of lipids from the intestine.
Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman smoker comes to the clinic for evaluation. She is concerned about the possibility of osteoporosis after experiencing a fall while out in town. Her BMI is 20 and she went through menopause at age 50. She maintains a healthy diet and exercises regularly. A DEXA scan shows a T score of −1.8. What is the appropriate management plan to decrease her risk of future fractures?
Your Answer: She should be advised to stop smoking
Correct Answer: She should be started on PTH injections
Explanation:Managing Osteopaenia
Osteopaenia doesn’t require specific treatment. If the patient’s diet includes enough dairy products and calcium, and their renal function is normal, calcium and vitamin D replacement may not be necessary. Treatments for osteoporosis, such as bisphosphonates or PTH, may also not be needed. However, smoking is linked to increased loss of bone mineral density, so quitting smoking is crucial for maintaining bone health.
In summary, managing osteopaenia involves ensuring a balanced diet and avoiding smoking. While medication may not be necessary, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for individual cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man takes medication for hypertension and raised cholesterol. At his annual check-up he reports that he is feeling well. Among the results of his blood tests are the following: serum calcium 2.90 mmol/l (normal range 2.05-2.60 mmol/l), serum phosphate 0.75 mmol/l (normal range 0.8-1.4 mmol/l), alkaline phosphatase 215 IU/l (normal range 30-200 IU/l).
Select from the list the single most likely explanation of these results.Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism as a Cause of Hypercalcaemia
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a common endocrine disorder, particularly in postmenopausal women. It is often asymptomatic and discovered incidentally through blood tests. The excess production of parathyroid hormone (PTH) is typically caused by a single adenoma, multi-gland adenoma, or hyperplasia. Surgical removal of the adenoma is the most effective cure, but medical management is possible for mild cases. Malignancy, Paget’s disease of bone, and certain medications can also cause hypercalcaemia, but these can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and symptoms. Other endocrine causes, such as thyrotoxicosis and Addison’s disease, would typically present with additional symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 73
Correct
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Which drug, prescribed for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus, has been cautioned by the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency for its potential to cause severe pancreatitis and renal impairment?
Your Answer: Exenatide
Explanation:Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 74
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman who has had type 1 diabetes since childhood is now 20 weeks pregnant.
She has had problems with her blood sugar control in the last few months and has had three hypoglycaemic episodes (hypos) in the late afternoon over the last month. Each time she had to have glucagon injections given either by her husband or paramedics.
She wants to know if she can continue driving.
What is the DVLA guidance regarding driving in patients on insulin who have hypoglycaemic attacks?Your Answer: Can drive if up to three hypos requiring help from another person in the last 12 months
Explanation:Criteria for Patient Recognition of Hypoglycaemia Warning Symptoms
The following criteria must be met for a patient to recognise the warning symptoms of hypoglycaemia:
– The patient must not have had more than one episode of hypoglycaemia requiring the assistance of another person within the preceding 12 months.
It is important for patients to be able to recognise the warning symptoms of hypoglycaemia, as this can help prevent severe episodes that require assistance from others. By meeting this criteria, patients can ensure that they are able to manage their blood sugar levels effectively and avoid potentially dangerous situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding statin-induced myopathy is inaccurate for elderly patients?
Your Answer: Patients with an elevated creatine kinase often have no symptoms
Correct Answer: Pravastatin is more likely to cause myopathy than simvastatin
Explanation:Lipophilic statins such as simvastatin and atorvastatin are more likely to cause myopathy compared to relatively hydrophilic statins like rosuvastatin, pravastatin, and fluvastatin.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old overweight woman complains of fatigue and frequent urination. Her physician orders a fasting blood glucose test:
Fasting glucose level: 8.2 mmol/l
The patient is advised on dietary changes and the doctor decides to initiate metformin treatment.
What is the best course of action for prescribing metformin?Your Answer: Metformin 500mg tds taken at least 1 hour before meals
Correct Answer: Metformin 500mg od with food for 14 days then metformin 500mg bd for 14 days then review
Explanation:To minimize the risk of gastrointestinal side-effects, it is recommended to gradually increase the dose of metformin and wait for at least a week before making any further adjustments, according to the BNF.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 77
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy presents with complaints of breast enlargement. Reviewing his medical history, he had mild developmental delay during childhood.
Upon examination, he is tall and slender, with bilateral gynaecomastia and inadequate secondary sexual development, including small testes.
What is the probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Hypogonadism
Explanation:Understanding Klinefelter’s Syndrome
Klinefelter’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects males, characterised by gynaecomastia, typical habitus, developmental delay and hypogonadism. The patient in this scenario is likely to have Klinefelter’s syndrome, as only hypogonadism would account for poor sexual development and undersized testes in combination with gynaecomastia.
It is important to note that the exact diagnosis may not be immediately obvious, but understanding the symptoms and characteristics of Klinefelter’s syndrome can aid in identifying and treating the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and quality of life for individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old smoker visits her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue, abdominal pain, nausea and weight loss. She reports having a cough for three months and experiencing night sweats in recent weeks. Blood tests reveal anaemia and a corrected calcium level of 3.06 mmol/l (normal value 2.2–2.6 mmol/l).
What is a recognized cause of hypercalcaemia?Your Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Causes and Symptoms of Calcium Imbalance
Calcium imbalance can be caused by various factors, including primary hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, milk-alkali syndrome, and sarcoid. Hypercalcaemia, or high calcium levels, can lead to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, constipation, abdominal pain, depression, psychosis, bone pain, renal stones, fatigue, cardiac dysrhythmias, and renal tubular damage. On the other hand, hypocalcaemia, or low calcium levels, can be caused by prolonged chronic renal failure, hypoparathyroidism, and vitamin D deficiency. Symptoms of the underlying cause may also be present. It is important to identify and address the underlying cause of calcium imbalance to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female comes to her doctor with a complaint of feeling tired for the past two months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
Na+ 128 mmol/l
K+ 5.6 mmol/l
Urea 5.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 99 µmol/l
Total T4 66 nmol/l (70 - 140 nmol/l)
Which diagnostic test is most likely to reveal the underlying condition?Your Answer: Serum glucose
Correct Answer: Short synacthen test
Explanation:The most effective way to diagnose Addison’s disease is through the short synacthen test. If a patient presents with lethargy, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia, it is highly indicative of Addison’s disease. While the patient’s thyroxine level is slightly low, it is unlikely to be the cause of the hyperkalaemia. It is possible that the patient also has hypothyroidism, but this would not fully explain their symptoms.
Investigating Addison’s Disease: ACTH Stimulation Test and Serum Cortisol Levels
When investigating a patient suspected of having Addison’s disease, the most definitive test is the ACTH stimulation test, also known as the short Synacthen test. This involves measuring plasma cortisol levels before and 30 minutes after administering Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies, such as anti-21-hydroxylase, may also be detected.
However, if an ACTH stimulation test is not readily available, a 9 am serum cortisol level can be useful. A level of over 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s disease very unlikely, while a level below 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal. If the level falls between 100-500 nmol/l, an ACTH stimulation test should be performed.
It is important to note that around one-third of undiagnosed patients with Addison’s disease may also have associated electrolyte abnormalities, such as hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate these levels as well to ensure a proper diagnosis and treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with extreme lethargy at two weeks after the birth of her third child by emergency Caesarean section. After the birth, she needed a blood transfusion. She complained to the health visitor of increasing problems some seven days earlier but was told that this was to be expected after the birth of her child. She has a sodium concentration of 120 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l), a potassium concentration of 5.6 mmol/l (3.5–5.0 mmol/l) and a urea of 7.5 mmol/l (2.5–6.5 mmol/l.)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Sheehan syndrome
Explanation:Sheehan Syndrome: A Rare Cause of Hypopituitarism
Sheehan syndrome is a rare condition that occurs as a result of severe hypotension caused by massive hemorrhage during or after childbirth, leading to necrosis of the pituitary gland. This condition is more common in underdeveloped and developing countries. Patients with Sheehan syndrome have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency, which can present progressively with symptoms such as failure to lactate, breast involution, and amenorrhea.
In this case, the patient suffered from hypotension and blood loss during an emergency Caesarean section, leading to pituitary infarction and symptoms of hypoadrenalism. Treatment includes fluid rehydration and emergency steroid replacement with intravenous hydrocortisone, as well as thyroxine replacement for pituitary-dependent hypothyroidism. Restoration of fertility may require pulsed delivery of pituitary sex-axis hormones.
Other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms, such as dehydration, hypothyroidism, and postnatal depression, were ruled out based on the lack of relevant history and electrolyte abnormalities. While primary adrenal failure can also cause hypoadrenalism, the preceding events make Sheehan syndrome a more likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s is prescribed metformin. What is the most probable severe complication that may arise from using this medication?
Your Answer: Cardiac failure
Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis
Explanation:Metformin and Renal Failure: Understanding the Risks
Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with type 2 diabetes. However, it is important to understand the risks associated with its use in patients with renal failure. Metformin can accumulate in the body and lead to life-threatening acidosis if not properly monitored. Therefore, it is recommended that the dose be adjusted or the drug avoided in patients with reduced kidney function. Additionally, treatment should be interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. Despite these risks, metformin remains a first-line choice for most patients with type 2 diabetes, particularly those who are overweight. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the risks and benefits of metformin use in patients with renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with type I diabetes is diagnosed with microalbuminuria. What is the accurate statement about diabetic nephropathy in patients with type I diabetes?
Your Answer: Aggressive antihypertensive therapy will stop the decline in glomerular filtration rate in patients with proteinuria
Correct Answer: Approximately one in five patients with microalbuminuria will progress to diabetic nephropathy
Explanation:Understanding Diabetic Nephropathy: Myths and Facts
Diabetic nephropathy is a serious complication of diabetes that can lead to renal failure. However, there are several myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition. Here are some important facts to help you better understand diabetic nephropathy:
Myth: Only patients with proteinuria are at risk of developing diabetic nephropathy.
Fact: Microalbuminuria, a small increase in albumin excretion in the urine, is an early sign of diabetic nephropathy. Approximately 40% of patients with type 1 diabetes of 30 years’ disease duration have microalbuminuria. Optimal control of blood pressure, blood glucose, and lipids can help prevent the progression of microalbuminuria to proteinuria.Myth: Aggressive antihypertensive therapy can stop the decline in glomerular filtration rate in patients with proteinuria.
Fact: Even with aggressive antihypertensive therapy, patients with proteinuria still lose glomerular filtration rate at a rate of approximately 4 ml/min/year.Myth: ACE inhibitors are only indicated for patients with proteinuria, not microalbuminuria.
Fact: ACE inhibitors should be started and increased up to the full dose in all adults with diabetic nephropathy, including those with microalbuminuria. ACE inhibitors significantly reduce the risk of all-cause mortality for patients with diabetic kidney disease.Myth: Microalbuminuria, once developed, doesn’t regress.
Fact: In about one-third of cases, microalbuminuria can return to normal.Myth: The combination of proteinuria and hypertension only slightly increases the risk of mortality.
Fact: When proteinuria and hypertension are present, the standardised mortality ratio is increased by 11 times in men and 18 times in women. Many of the deaths are due to cardiovascular disease.Debunking Myths About Diabetic Nephropathy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 83
Correct
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You receive the blood tests which were requested by the practice nurse in advance of the annual diabetes review of Mrs. Johnson, a 50-year-old patient. Mrs. Johnson was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes about 4 years ago, and after 2 years of attempting to control it with lifestyle measures, she commenced metformin and is now prescribed 1g BD. Her full blood count, renal profile and liver function tests are normal, her total cholesterol is 5.3mmol/L. Her HbA1c is 60mmol/mol.
As per NICE guidelines, what should be done regarding Mrs. Johnson's blood sugar control?Your Answer: Commence a second blood glucose lowering drug and reinforce lifestyle and diet measures
Explanation:If the HbA1c is > 58 mmol/mol in type 2 diabetes mellitus, a second blood glucose lowering drug should be added while also reinforcing lifestyle and diet measures, according to NICE guidelines. Simply reinforcing lifestyle measures is not enough. It is important to intensify drug treatment and revisit lifestyle and dietary advice with the patient. It is not recommended to stop metformin unless it is contraindicated or not tolerated. Modified-release metformin may be an option for patients experiencing gastrointestinal side effects on standard release metformin, but it will not improve blood sugar control.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old lady has obesity with a BMI of 37 kg/m2 and her waist measurement is 115 cm (which is very high). She gained most of the weight about 10 years ago and since that time she has tried many different forms of diets and weight-loss clubs. Although she enjoys swimming she is finding it harder to keep up her exercise and walking is restricted to a few hundred metres because of foot pain.
On further questioning, it is evident that her diet is quite reasonable consisting of about 1800 KCal per day. She eats breakfast, bases her meals on starchy foods, eats plenty of fibre and at eats at least five portions of vegetables or fruit per day.
According to NICE guidance on Obesity (CG43), which of the following management strategies would be advisable for this lady?Your Answer: Extended period, very low calorie diet
Correct Answer: Diet and physical activity, consider drugs
Explanation:NICE Recommendations for Managing Obesity
According to the NICE Obesity (CG189) guidelines, the first step in managing obesity is to classify the level of obesity. This can be done by referring to the BMI classification table, which ranges from healthy weight to Obesity III (BMI of 40 or more). In addition, waist circumference is also taken into consideration.
For a patient with a high waist circumference (>88 cm) and no co-morbidities, the initial management should involve diet and exercise, with the possibility of drug treatment. If the patient’s condition persists for more than 12 weeks, low-calorie diets and bariatric surgery may be considered, but only after specialist referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the hallway. A nurse is present and has conducted a finger-prick glucose test, which shows a reading of 1.8 mmol/l. Upon examination, you observe that she is unresponsive to verbal cues, with a pulse rate of 84/min. The nurse has already positioned the patient in the recovery position. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Give intramuscular dextrose
Correct Answer: Give intramuscular glucagon
Explanation:Placing any object in the mouth of an unconscious patient can be risky as they may not be adequately safeguarding their airway.
In cases of heparin overdose, protamine sulfate is administered.
Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.
Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment to discuss her menopausal symptoms. She has been experiencing hot flashes, mood swings, and insomnia for the past year. Her friend recently started hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for similar symptoms and found it to be very helpful. The patient is interested in trying HRT and has already read about the potential risks of breast and ovarian cancer on the NHS website. She has no medical history and is not taking any medications, but she does mention that her sister has had multiple blood clots and is currently taking blood thinners.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Explain that due to her family history of DVT you cannot prescribe systemic HRT but offer a non-hormonal alternative such as a selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
Correct Answer: Prescribe transdermal combined HRT
Explanation:When prescribing hormone replacement therapy (HRT), it is important to consider the risk of venous thromboembolism in women. Transdermal HRT is recommended as a first line for those at risk. A family history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) doesn’t necessarily rule out HRT, but should be taken into account. Oestrogen-only HRT should only be given to women without a uterus, as it can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. Topical oestrogen is generally safe, but only provides relief for localised urogenital symptoms. In cases where HRT is not an option, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be considered as an alternative treatment for menopause.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man is worried about his weight. He has a body mass index of 38 kg/m^2. What is the most appropriate description of his weight?
Your Answer: Morbidly obese (Obese III)
Correct Answer: Clinically obese (Obese II)
Explanation:Understanding Body Mass Index (BMI)
Body mass index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight (in kilograms) by the height (in metres) squared. BMI is used to determine whether a person is underweight, normal weight, overweight, obese, or morbidly obese.
The old classification of BMI had five categories, ranging from underweight to morbidly obese. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has simplified the classification into three categories: underweight, normal, and overweight. The overweight category includes both obese and clinically obese individuals.
It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fat and doesn’t take into account factors such as muscle mass or body composition. Therefore, it should be used as a general guide and not as a definitive diagnosis. It is always best to consult with a healthcare professional for a more accurate assessment of one’s health status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is seeking your advice after being diagnosed with diabetes insipidus during an outpatient appointment. He is worried about the diagnosis and wants to discuss its implications. What is the correct statement about diabetes insipidus?
Your Answer: Characterised by hyponatraemia
Correct Answer: Fluid deprivation followed by desmopressin differentiates the main causes
Explanation:Understanding Diabetes Insipidus: Differentiating Causes and Symptoms
Diabetes insipidus is a condition that can be classified into two major forms: cranial and nephrogenic. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), while nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine due to resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
To differentiate between the two forms, a fluid deprivation test followed by desmopressin administration is conducted. In cranial diabetes insipidus, urine osmolality increases after desmopressin administration, while in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, it remains unchanged.
Contrary to popular belief, drugs can cause diabetes insipidus, with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus being the most common side effect of lithium. Other drugs such as ofloxacin and orlistat have also been implicated.
Hypernatremia may become apparent as dehydration develops, and the predominant manifestations of diabetes insipidus are polyuria, polydipsia, and nocturia. Large volumes of dilute urine are produced, with more than 3 liters in 24 hours and less than 300 mOsm/kg.
In conclusion, understanding the causes and symptoms of diabetes insipidus is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female attends the diabetic annual review clinic.
Her body mass index has increased over the year to 33.3 kg/m2.
How do you calculate body mass index?Your Answer: Weight/√ Height
Correct Answer: Weight/(Height)2
Explanation:Understanding BMI and its Implications
Body:
BMI, or Body Mass Index, is a crucial calculation in the field of anthropometry. It is determined by dividing an individual’s weight by the square of their height, and is measured in kg/m2. The resulting number can be used to categorize a person’s weight status into four groups: underweight (less than 18.5), normal (18.5-24.9), overweight (25-29.9), and obese (greater than 30).
It is important to note that a BMI above 30 is considered obese and can have serious implications for an individual’s health. Studies have shown that obesity is linked to an increased risk of developing diabetes, cancer, osteoarthritis, and depression. Additionally, obesity can increase the risk of surgical complications, such as wound infection and dehiscence, venous thrombolembolism, incisional hernia, MI, and even death.
Therefore, understanding BMI and its implications is crucial for maintaining good health and preventing potential health risks. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine an appropriate BMI range for an individual’s unique needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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The following blood result is reported for an 85-year-old woman with a medical history of hypertension, diverticulitis, and hypothyroidism. She is currently taking amlodipine, ramipril, and levothyroxine. The result shows a TSH level of 0.01 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 22 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What potential complication could she face if this condition remains untreated?
Your Answer: Weight gain
Correct Answer: Osteoporosis
Explanation:The risk of osteoporosis increases with over-replacement of thyroxine. Elevated T4 and suppressed TSH levels in blood tests indicate over-replacement with levothyroxine, which can cause confusion in biochemistry abnormalities, although this is more commonly observed in hypothyroidism. Constipation is a symptom of hypothyroidism, not over-replacement with levothyroxine. Muscle weakness and reduced reflexes are also associated with hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Over-replacement with thyroxine would result in weight loss rather than weight gain.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of bilateral knee pain. Her BMI is 36. She expresses a strong desire to lose weight and has attempted various diets in the past. You decide to prescribe orlistat and advise her on the minimum amount of weight loss she must achieve in the initial three months to continue receiving the medication. What is the minimum weight loss required in the first three months of taking orlistat to maintain the prescription?
Your Answer: 1%
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Weight Loss Requirement for Prescription Continuation
To continue prescribing, a weight loss of at least 5% is necessary within the first three months. This means that patients must lose a certain amount of weight within the initial period of treatment to ensure that the medication is effective and safe for long-term use. It is important for patients to adhere to a healthy diet and exercise regimen to achieve this weight loss goal. Failure to meet this requirement may result in the discontinuation of the prescription.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 92
Correct
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An eighty-two-year-old gentleman with a history of renal stones is seen with an acute episode of left sided loin pain and dipstick haematuria. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and angina.
Bloods are requested which show:
Na+ 137 mmol/L (137-144)
K+ 5.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 18.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 296 µmol/L (60-110)
eGFR 17 -
Which one of his medications should be withheld?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Contraindications to Metformin Use
Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for the treatment of type 2 diabetes. However, there are certain situations where its use is contraindicated. Ketoacidosis, use of iodine-containing contrast media, and use of general anesthesia are all contraindications to metformin use. Additionally, patients with renal impairment are at an increased risk of lactic acidosis and should have their dose reviewed if their estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 45. Metformin should be avoided if the eGFR is less than 30 and should be withdrawn or treatment interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. These patients include those with shock, sepsis, acute heart failure, respiratory failure, and those who have recently had a myocardial infarction. In the case of a patient with a renal calculus and significantly impaired renal function, metformin should be withheld.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating. She has noticed these symptoms over the past few months. Additionally, she reports that her periods have become less frequent and she has experienced some weight loss. During the examination, her pulse rate is 96 bpm and her blood pressure is 130/76 mmHg. She exhibits a fine tremor in her outstretched arms and has lost 4 kg in the last six months. What diagnostic test would be helpful in confirming the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fasting blood glucose
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Assessing Excessive Sweating in Primary Care
Excessive sweating can be a symptom of various medical conditions, and the first step in assessing someone presenting with sweating problems is to determine if the symptoms are focal or generalized. Generalized sweating is most likely due to a secondary medical condition. In this case, the patient presents with additional clinical features that suggest a secondary cause.
In this age group, the most common cause of sweating would relate to the menopause. However, in this case, the patient reports weight loss, irregular periods, fine tremor, and tachycardia, which are not typical menopausal symptoms. Bringing together all of these features, a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is likely. Thyroid function tests will confirm the diagnosis.
It is important to note that diabetes can cause weight loss, but the clinical picture doesn’t fit, and a fasting blood sugar would not give a diagnosis. FSH levels can sometimes be used if menopause is suspected, but in a woman of typical age and with typical menopausal symptoms, blood tests are not needed, and a clinical diagnosis should be made. A pelvic ultrasound is not indicated in this case, as the stem doesn’t suggest any endometrial or ovarian pathology.
In rare cases, phaeochromocytoma can present with labile blood pressure and episodes of sweating and tachycardia. However, this is not likely in the primary care setting, and thyroid dysfunction is much more common. The patient is symptomatic with a normal BP when examined. Therefore, a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is the most likely cause of the patient’s excessive sweating, and further tests will confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:
Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l
What is the most suitable initial approach to manage this situation?Your Answer: Admit for IV pamidronate
Correct Answer: Admit for IV normal saline
Explanation:The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia can be managed through various methods. The first step is to rehydrate the patient with normal saline, usually at a rate of 3-4 litres per day. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates can be administered. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximum effect seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option that can be used for quicker effect than bisphosphonates. In cases of sarcoidosis, steroids may also be used. However, loop diuretics such as furosemide should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion. They are typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates, calcitonin, or steroids in certain cases. Loop diuretics may also be used, but with caution. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man visits his family doctor complaining of fleshy nodules on the backs of his elbows. He also has yellow linear deposits in his palmar creases. His fasting serum lipids are as follows: total cholesterol 14.2 mmol/l, triglycerides 16 mmol/l (normal range <1.8 mmol/l). Fasting plasma glucose and renal, liver and thyroid function tests are normal. Urine dipstick testing is normal. The doctor advises him on dietary and lifestyle changes.
What is the most appropriate medication for this patient?Your Answer: A fibrate
Correct Answer: A statin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperlipidaemia: Choosing the Right Medication
Hyperlipidaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, which can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease. When it comes to treating hyperlipidaemia, there are several medication options available. Here’s a breakdown of the most common treatments and when they should be used.
Statin: A first-line treatment for familial mixed hyperlipidaemia, a high-intensity statin such as atorvastatin should be used to achieve a reduction in baseline LDL cholesterol levels of 50% or more. Simvastatin 80 mg can be used if the LDL reduction target is not met within three months.
Bile-acid sequestrant: This treatment option is used when both a statin and ezetimibe are contraindicated and should be started under specialist guidance.
Fibrate: The treatment of choice for severe isolated hypertriglyceridaemia, but in mixed hyperlipidaemia, LDL reduction remains the priority, so statins are the first-line treatment.
Ezetimibe: This medication is the second line if statins are not tolerated or are contraindicated. It can also be co-prescribed if the LDL-reduction target is not reached after three months.
Nicotinic acid: Not recommended in the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidance for familial hypercholesterolaemia and should not be started in primary care, although specialists may consider its use if other treatments are all contraindicated.
In conclusion, choosing the right medication for hyperlipidaemia depends on the type and severity of the condition, as well as the patient’s individual needs and medical history. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old overweight woman with type 2 diabetes wants to modify her eating habits. What food item has the greatest glycaemic index?
Your Answer: Brown rice
Correct Answer: Baked potato
Explanation:Brown rice has a lower glycaemic index (GI) of 58 compared to white rice GI of 87.
Understanding the Glycaemic Index
The glycaemic index (GI) is a measure of how quickly a food raises blood glucose levels compared to glucose in individuals with normal glucose tolerance. Foods with a high GI are believed to increase the risk of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus due to their association with postprandial hyperglycaemia.
Foods are classified into three categories based on their GI: high, medium, and low. Examples of high GI foods include white rice, baked potatoes, and white bread. Medium GI foods include couscous, boiled new potatoes, and digestive biscuits, while low GI foods include fruits, vegetables, and peanuts.
The GI is expressed as a number in brackets, with glucose having a GI of 100 by definition. Understanding the GI of different foods can help individuals make informed choices about their diet and manage their blood glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with irregular periods and abnormal thyroid function tests. All other blood tests are normal, and she is not pregnant or planning to conceive. Her vital observations and neck examination are unremarkable, and she takes no regular medication. Pelvic ultrasound shows no abnormalities. Thyroid tests are repeated 3 months later, revealing a positive result for thyroid peroxidase antibodies. What is the optimal course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Arrange urgent referral to endocrinology
Correct Answer: Offer a 6-month trial of levothyroxine
Explanation:If the TSH level is between 5.5 – 10mU/L indicating subclinical hypothyroidism, it is recommended to conduct two separate tests with a 3-month interval. If the TSH level remains at the same level, a 6-month trial of thyroxine should be offered.
Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism
Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men and those with thyroid autoantibodies.
The management of subclinical hypothyroidism depends on the TSH levels and the presence of symptoms. According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, patients with a TSH level greater than 10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels should be considered for levothyroxine treatment. For those with a TSH level between 5.5-10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be offered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms. However, for older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients should have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.
In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent it from progressing to overt hypothyroidism. The decision to treat or not depends on the patient’s age, symptoms, and TSH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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You are conducting the annual review for a 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes. His glycaemic control is satisfactory with metformin therapy, and his latest HbA1c is 54 mmol/mol (7.1%). During his recent clinic visit, his blood pressure was measured at 152/90 mmHg. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor was subsequently requested, and the results indicate an average blood pressure of 142/88 mmHg. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Do nothing for now, monitor his blood pressure regularly
Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients due to their renoprotective effect, even if the patient has stage 1 hypertension according to NICE guidelines. In contrast, for patients aged over 55 years without diabetes, a calcium channel blocker is the first-line treatment.
Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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You are consulted for a 50-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes who presents with a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, and vomiting. The patient is currently taking metformin, gliclazide, and empagliflozin. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.4°C, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, pulse of 100, blood glucose of 13 mmol/L, and blood ketones of 3.3 mmol/L. Urinalysis shows +++ ketones, but is otherwise normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hyperosmolar non ketotic state (HONK)
Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation:Patients with type 2 diabetes can experience diabetic ketoacidosis, as seen in this case where the patient has a blood glucose level of ≥11mmol/L and blood ketones of ≥3mmol/L. Immediate hospital admission is necessary for treatment with intravenous fluids and insulin. It is important to note that individuals taking SGLT2 inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, are at risk of DKA even with moderate blood glucose levels. DKA is more prevalent in Afro-Caribbean patients with type 2 diabetes. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic state (HONK) is characterized by elevated blood glucose levels but less than 2+ ketones in urine or 3mmol/L blood ketones.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 65-year-old lady with polymyalgia rheumatica who is currently responding well to 5 mg prednisolone daily. As she has not had any fractures previously, she underwent a DXA scan which shows a lumbar spine T score of −2.5 and hip T score of −2.6.
She visits your clinic to discuss the scan results and seek advice on treatment options. What would be your recommended management plan?Your Answer: She should be commenced on alendronate or risedronate as she fits the criteria for diagnosis of osteoporosis
Correct Answer: As her steroid dose is now less than 7.5 mg she doesn't need bone-sparing therapy
Explanation:Management of Osteoporosis in Patients with T Score Criteria
Patients who fit the criteria for diagnosis of osteoporosis based on T score should be managed with a generic bisphosphonate as the first line of treatment. This is regardless of whether they have suffered an osteoporotic fracture or not. If a patient doesn’t tolerate a weekly preparation, there are monthly and intermittent IV preparations available. It is important to note that early intervention is key in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures. Therefore, prompt management of osteoporosis is crucial in maintaining bone health and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with difficult to manage hypertension. She is taking three medications and her current blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg. She has noticed that her face has become rounder over time and she is experiencing more acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has shown impaired glucose tolerance. Additionally, she has been struggling with abdominal obesity and has noticed the appearance of purple stretch marks around her abdomen.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cushing syndrome
Explanation:Cushing syndrome is a rare disease that causes weight gain, hypertension, and other symptoms. It is often caused by a pituitary adenoma producing ACTH. Diagnosis is made through urinary free-cortisol assay and differentiation of the cause is done through the dexamethasone-suppression test. Drug-resistant hypertension may be caused by chronic kidney disease, obstructive sleep apnoea, or hyperaldosteronism. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that causes severe hypertension and other symptoms. Multiple endocrine neoplasia is a group of syndromes featuring tumours of endocrine glands. Simple obesity can be differentiated from Cushing syndrome by specific signs such as easy bruising, facial plethora, proximal myopathy, and purple striae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes in for a check-up on his diabetes. He has been living with type 1 diabetes for 32 years. Lately, he has experienced several falls that he describes as episodes where he feels dizzy and loses his balance. He has also been dealing with erectile dysfunction for a few years and takes medication for acid reflux. During the physical examination, his blood pressure drops by 30 mmHg upon standing.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this patient's medical history and examination? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic autonomic neuropathy
Explanation:Diabetic Autonomic Neuropathy: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Diabetic autonomic neuropathy is a type of nerve damage that affects the autonomic nervous system in people with diabetes. Common symptoms include a marked postural drop, gastrointestinal tract neuropathy, impotence, tachycardia, and impaired cardiovascular response to the Valsalva manoeuvre. Other symptoms may include diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal distension, atonic bladder, painless urinary retention, and recurrent urinary tract infections.
It is important to differentiate diabetic autonomic neuropathy from other conditions with similar symptoms. Simple fainting, arrhythmia, somatic symptom disorder, and transient ischaemic attacks are all potential differential diagnoses that should be ruled out. While fainting or reflex syncope may cause a drop in blood pressure, it is often triggered by specific events and doesn’t explain the other symptoms. Arrhythmia may cause fainting or syncope, but it doesn’t account for the gastrointestinal or sexual symptoms. Somatic symptom disorder may present with physical symptoms, but they are not necessarily associated with a medical condition. Transient ischaemic attacks may cause fainting, but the other symptoms are not typical of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with multiple non-healing leg ulcers and a history of feeling unwell for several months. During examination, her blood pressure is 138/72 mmHg, pulse is 90 bpm, and she has pale conjunctivae and poor dentition with bleeding gums. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin C: A Water Soluble Vitamin with Essential Functions
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. One of its primary functions is acting as an antioxidant, which helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Additionally, vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, as it acts as a cofactor for enzymes required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in the synthesis of collagen. This vitamin also facilitates iron absorption and serves as a cofactor for norepinephrine synthesis.
However, a deficiency in vitamin C, also known as scurvy, can lead to defective collagen synthesis, resulting in capillary fragility and poor wound healing. Some of the features of vitamin C deficiency include gingivitis, loose teeth, poor wound healing, bleeding from gums, haematuria, epistaxis, and general malaise. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin C through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with general malaise. He has recently been prescribed carbimazole for hyperthyroidism. What is the most crucial blood test to conduct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Exclusion of agranulocytosis is necessary when using carbimazole.
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypothyroidism. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 10 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l).
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a risk of cardiac arrhythmias with treatment
Explanation:Correcting Hypothyroidism with Levothyroxine: Dosage and Risks
One of the main concerns with starting levothyroxine replacement for hypothyroidism is the risk of cardiac arrhythmias or myocardial ischemia, although rare. Therefore, initial low dosing is followed by gradual dose escalation until euthyroid status is achieved. Over-treatment can also lead to osteoporosis. The aim of treatment is to normalise serum TSH and improve thyroid hormone concentrations to the euthyroid state. Levothyroxine alone is the recommended treatment, with an initial dose of 50-100 µg once daily for patients aged 18-49 years, adjusted in steps of 25-50 µg every four weeks according to response. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, and those over 50 years, the recommended initial dose is 25 µg once daily. Symptom relief may take many months after TSH levels have returned to normal, and persisting symptoms warrant further investigations for non-thyroid causes.
Levothyroxine Dosage and Risks in Correcting Hypothyroidism
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to an early morning duty appointment with complaints of increasing fatigue, abdominal pain, vomiting, and excessive thirst over the past week. She has a history of well-controlled hypertension with amlodipine and takes atorvastatin. She recently started a six-week course of high-dose colecalciferol, prescribed by another GP, but has only taken one dose so far. On examination, she appears fatigued and drowsy, but her observations are unremarkable. Urgent blood tests are ordered, and the results show a Hb of 124 g/L, platelets of 224 * 109/L, WBC of 6.4 * 109/L, Na+ of 141 mmol/L, K+ of 4.0 mmol/L, urea of 6.9 mmol/L, creatinine of 100 µmol/L, calcium of 3.7 mmol/L, phosphate of 1.1 mmol/L, magnesium of 1.0 mmol/L, and TSH of 3.24 mU/L. Looking back at her blood results from the previous week, her calcium was 2.56 mmol/L, phosphate was 1.2 mmol/L, magnesium was 0.8 mmol/L, and vitamin D was 7 nmol/L. Based on these findings, she is admitted directly under the acute medical team for further management. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:If a patient with coexistent hyperparathyroidism undergoes rapid vitamin D replacement, it can lead to toxicity. In the case of this woman, she requires urgent admission under the medical team due to severe hypercalcaemia. The cause is likely vitamin D toxicity and unidentified primary hyperparathyroidism. Previous blood tests indicate a severe vitamin D deficiency, but her calcium level is at the higher end of normal, suggesting an overactive parathyroid gland that was masked by the low vitamin D. Testing for parathyroid hormone prior to administering vitamin D could have clarified this. It is advisable to seek advice from endocrinology before rapid vitamin D replacement if the baseline corrected calcium is >2.5. While multiple myeloma can cause hypercalcaemia, it doesn’t occur as rapidly. Paget’s disease causes an increased ALP with a normal calcium level, and thyrotoxicosis due to Graves disease can cause hypercalcaemia due to increased bone turnover, but a suppressed TSH would be expected.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most common cause of hypopituitarism in elderly individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary tumour
Explanation:Causes of Hypopituitarism: Understanding Anterior Pituitary Tumours
Hypopituitarism is a condition characterized by the underproduction of hormones by the pituitary gland. While several factors can cause this condition, anterior pituitary tumours are the most common cause. These tumours, including adenomas and other brain tumours, can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic to acute pituitary failure with acute collapse and coma. The presentation depends on the aetiology, rapidity of onset, and predominant hormones involved.
In addition to causing hypopituitarism, space-occupying lesions may produce headaches and visual-field defects. Large lesions involving the hypothalamus may produce polydipsia and inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
While autoimmune disorders, anterior pituitary infarction, head injury, and sarcoidosis can also cause hypopituitarism, they are less common than anterior pituitary tumours. Lymphocytic hypophysitis is a rare autoimmune inflammatory disorder of the pituitary, usually associated with pregnancy. Postpartum pituitary necrosis (Sheehan syndrome) is caused by ischaemic necrosis, due to blood loss and hypovolemic shock during and after childbirth. Traumatic brain injury as a cause is being more frequently recognized. The hypothalamus is the most frequently involved of all the endocrine glands in sarcoidosis, and hypothalamic insufficiency is the major cause for hypopituitarism.
In summary, while several factors can cause hypopituitarism, anterior pituitary tumours are the most common cause. Understanding the symptoms and potential causes of hypopituitarism is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes in for a diabetic review. He is currently taking metformin twice daily at a dose of 1 g and gliclazide once daily at 80 mg. He started taking metformin 18 months ago and gliclazide 12 months ago. Additionally, he takes ramipril once daily at 10 mg and simvastatin 40 mg at night.
Upon reviewing his blood results, it is evident that his HbA1c has worsened from 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) to 64 mmol/mol (8%) over the past year. His body mass index is 36.2 kg/m2.
During the discussion of his current medication, the patient reports experiencing frequent hypoglycemic episodes, typically in the late morning, which has been confirmed with finger prick glucose measurements. There are no other issues or side effects with his treatment.
What is the most appropriate next step in treating this patient's high blood sugar levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the metformin and the gliclazide and refer for consideration of insulin therapy
Explanation:Reviewing Treatment for Deteriorating Glycaemic Control and Hypoglycaemic Episodes
This patient’s glycaemic control has deteriorated and he is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes due to his sulphonylurea. It is important to review his existing treatment and make necessary changes. Metformin should be continued unless there are side-effects or contraindications. The gliclazide should be stopped or reduced in dose, as it can contribute to weight gain and the patient is already obese. Pioglitazone can also cause weight gain, so a DPP-4 inhibitor may be a more suitable second-line adjunct to treatment. DPP-4 inhibitors are weight neutral and can be used in combination with metformin. It is important to monitor HbA1c levels and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with a history of thirst, polyuria and a recent 3.2 kg (7 lb) weight loss. His urine contains a small amount of ketones.
Which of the following features would suggest this patient is most likely to have type II rather than type I diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High circulating insulin level
Explanation:Misconceptions about Diabetes Mellitus: Clarifying the Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. However, there are still misconceptions about the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of this disease. In particular, there are several incorrect statements that need to be clarified.
Firstly, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance and high insulin levels, not low insulin levels as in type I diabetes. Insulin resistance is a precursor to type II diabetes and is linked to a higher risk of developing heart disease. The causes of insulin resistance are both genetic and lifestyle-related.
Secondly, HLA DR-3 is not associated with type I diabetes mellitus. Instead, this disease is linked to HLA DR-3 or DR-4.
Thirdly, patients with type II diabetes typically have a high BMI (>25 kg/m2), not a BMI of 23 kg/m2.
Fourthly, a plasma bicarbonate level of 8 mmol/l (normal range 24–30 mmol/l) is not commonly seen in patients with type II diabetes. While these patients may have + or ++ ketones in their urine, severe acidosis is more common in type I diabetes, with diabetic ketoacidosis being a potentially fatal complication.
Finally, positive islet-cell antibodies are not associated with type II diabetes. Instead, type I diabetes is an autoimmune disorder characterised by the presence of autoantibodies to the islet cell, insulin or glutamic acid dehydrogenase.
In conclusion, it is important to clarify the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of diabetes mellitus to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling tired and fatigued for the past 2 weeks. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, epilepsy, and polycystic kidney disease. The results of his blood test reveal an abnormality in his electrolyte levels:
- Na+ 129 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
- K+ 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
Which medication among his prescriptions is the most likely culprit for this abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors have been linked to the development of hyponatraemia, a significant electrolyte imbalance. The exact cause of this association is not fully understood, but it may be related to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Conversely, tolvaptan is a medication utilized to manage hypernatraemia in individuals with polycystic kidney disease.
Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that work by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach’s parietal cells. This action is irreversible and helps to reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole.
Despite their effectiveness in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, PPIs can have adverse effects. These include hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia, which are low levels of sodium and magnesium in the blood, respectively. Prolonged use of PPIs can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Additionally, there is a potential for microscopic colitis and an increased risk of C. difficile infections.
It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of PPIs with your healthcare provider and to use them only as directed. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels and bone density may also be necessary for those on long-term PPI therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman presents to the surgery for review. She complains of feeling hungry all the time although, despite this, she has lost weight. She also complains of palpitations that have been present for the past three months.
She has a past history of anxiety and has taken a course of SSRI four years ago for two years in total.
Examination reveals a BP of 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 92 and regular. She has a fine tremor. There is a small, 1.5 cm nodule within the left lobe of the thyroid.
Investigations reveal:
Hb 125 g/L (115-160)
WCC 6.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
PLT 281 ×109/L (150-450)
Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
K 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Cr 78 µmol/L (70-110)
TSH 0.02 mU/L (0.4-4.5)
FT4 62 pmol/L (10-24)
You decide to refer this lady, but which of the following is likely to be the next step in her management without need to first consult a specialist colleague?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start propranolol
Explanation:Management of Thyrotoxicosis in Primary Care
In cases of suspected benign thyroid adenoma causing thyrotoxicosis, it is appropriate to prescribe a beta blocker such as propranolol to relieve adrenergic symptoms while awaiting specialist endocrinology assessment. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS), further evaluation should include a thyroid uptake scan and ultrasound, with radioiodine being the intervention of choice for a solitary toxic nodule.
If symptoms persist despite treatment with a beta blocker or if a beta blocker is not tolerated or contraindicated, or if the patient is at risk of complications from hyperthyroidism, specialist advice should be sought regarding other treatment options such as starting carbimazole. In cases where the patient is taking a drug such as amiodarone or lithium, liaison between the specialist prescribing the drug and an endocrinologist may be necessary.
RET mutation testing is useful for evaluating familial medullary thyroid carcinoma or MEN-2B syndrome, but this is not an investigation that is typically carried out in primary care as these conditions are rare and unlikely to be the diagnosis in this case. Thyroid uptake scanning and ultrasound are useful in the evaluation of a nodule, but should not delay starting anti-thyroid drugs. Urgent referral for fine-needle aspiration is not necessary in this low-risk situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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You are seeing a woman in her 60s with type 2 diabetes for review. She holds a group 1 driving license.
Her current treatment consists of metformin 500 mg TDS and gliclazide 80 mg BD. As part of her review, you discuss any episodes of hypoglycaemia.
She tells you that she has had episodes of hypoglycaemia since she was last seen for review almost a year ago. On further questioning, there have been two episodes when she felt significantly unwell. During these episodes, her husband checked her finger prick blood sugar and it was less than 3 mmol/L. On both of these occasions, she felt sweaty, shaky and nauseated.
Her husband is with her and he tells you that she quite quickly became unwell and 'confused' with these episodes and he had to help her rest on the sofa and give her some dextrose tablets to get her sugar back up. She has not had any episodes of hypoglycaemia whilst driving.
With regard to her driving, what should you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should only drive with another person in the car in case he requires assistance or becomes unwell whilst driving
Explanation:New Medical Driving Standards for Diabetes Patients
The medical driving standards for individuals with diabetes have recently changed. For those with a group 1 entitlement who are managed with tablets that carry the risk of inducing hypoglycaemia, they must stop driving and inform the DVLA if they have had more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the preceding 12 months. Severe hypoglycaemia is defined as an episode that requires external help. In this case, the patient has experienced two episodes where external help from his wife was needed. As a result, the patient should cease driving until 12 months after the last but one episode and can only resume driving when stable control is demonstrated. These new standards aim to ensure the safety of both the driver and other individuals on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is undergoing a routine health assessment. She admits to consuming at least 5 standard alcoholic drinks each weekday evening and even more on the weekend. The risks of this intake are discussed with her and a plan is made to reduce her intake.
Which of the following actions is the most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral thiamine
Explanation:Patients who regularly consume excessive amounts of alcohol should be prescribed thiamine to prevent the onset of Wernicke’s syndrome, which can lead to irreversible Korsakoff psychosis. Admission is not necessary unless the patient is experiencing significant withdrawal symptoms. An intramuscular multivitamin is not appropriate, as oral thiamine is less invasive and effective. Oral multivitamins are also not recommended, as they may not contain enough thiamine. Vitamin B co-strong is no longer recommended for alcohol-consuming patients, as it doesn’t provide sufficient thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s syndrome.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with an eight month history of amenorrhoea. She is not on any prescribed medication but uses over the counter acne treatments. Her body mass index is 31 kg/m2, she has a small amount of hair growth on her chin, abdominal and pelvic examinations are normal.
She is investigated and her blood results show:
LH 11.8 U/L (0.5-14.5)
FSH 4.2 U/L (1-11)
Testosterone 3.5 nmol/L (0.8-3.1)
Prolactin 580 mU/L (90-520)
Fasting glucose 6.4 mmol/L (<6.0)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by abnormal hormonal cycling and enlargement of the ovaries with the development of multiple ovarian cysts. Diagnosis requires exclusion of other causes of polycystic ovaries and the presence of at least two of the following: oligo/anovulation, clinical and/or biochemical hyperandrogenism, or polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scanning.
Patients with PCOS can be asymptomatic but often present with a combination of features such as menstrual disturbance, infertility, obesity, male pattern hair loss, hirsutism, and acne. A patient with amenorrhoea, obesity, and clinical evidence of hyperandrogenism with acne and hirsutism is likely to have PCOS. Blood tests can add weight to the diagnosis, with luteinizing hormone (LH) typically on the high side and values above 10 IU/L seen in about 50% of anovulatory patients.
Hyperandrogenism with an elevated testosterone level is a frequent finding, although caution should be taken to exclude other causes. Mild prolactinaemia can be present in up to 30% of patients. Insulin resistance and impaired glucose tolerance are associated with PCOS and a well-known complication. The patient should have further evaluation in reference to her elevated fasting glucose. Overall, understanding PCOS and its diagnostic criteria is crucial for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus in the diabetes clinic. His current blood pressure is 150/86 mmHg. His diabetes is well managed and there is no indication of end-organ damage. What is the recommended target blood pressure for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:For individuals with type 2 diabetes, NICE suggests the following target for blood pressure:
Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female who saw the nurse a few days ago complaining of longstanding lethargy and vague abdominal pains comes to see you. She has lost a little weight and has also been feeling tearful and 'not herself'. The nurse arranged some blood tests and booked her in with you for review.
She has a past medical history of asthma, migraine and vitiligo. She doesn't take any regular medications and her only recent prescription is for a salbutamol inhaler which she uses infrequently.
On examination, you notice that her palmar creases are pigmented as is her buccal mucosa. Her blood pressure is 108/88 mmHg sitting and 88/62 mmHg standing. Otherwise you cannot elicit any other focal findings.
The blood tests show:
Sodium 131 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 5.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 11.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 96 µmol/L (60-110)
Random glucose 3.1
What is the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation:A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant.
Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a protein pump inhibitor as a precautionary measure?
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female with Addison's disease is having trouble with her hydrocortisone treatment, which she takes at a dose of 20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening. However, she often forgets to take the evening dose. She would like to switch to daily prednisolone to avoid this issue. What dose of prednisolone would be equivalent to her current daily dose of hydrocortisone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7.5 mg
Explanation:Ratios and Activities of Corticosteroids
The ratios of prednisolone to hydrocortisone and dexamethasone to hydrocortisone are approximately 1:4 and 1:24, respectively. While prednisolone mainly exhibits glucocorticoid activity, hydrocortisone has some mineralocorticoid activity, making it suitable for adrenal replacement therapy on its own. However, fludrocortisone is often required for its mineralocorticoid activity. The split dose of hydrocortisone is intended to mimic normal diurnal variation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 25 year old woman visits a fertility clinic with her partner due to oligomenorrhoea and galactorrhea. Despite having regular unprotected intercourse for 18 months, she has been unable to conceive. Upon conducting blood tests, it is discovered that her serum prolactin level is 6000 mIU/l (normal <500 mIU/l). Further investigation through a pituitary MRI reveals a microprolactinoma.
What initial treatment options are likely to be presented to her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:When it comes to treating prolactinomas, dopamine agonists like cabergoline and bromocriptine are typically the first choice, even if the patient is experiencing significant neurological complications. Surgery may be necessary for those who cannot tolerate or do not respond to medical treatment, with a trans-sphenoidal approach being the preferred method unless there is extensive extra-pituitary extension. Radiotherapy is not commonly used, and octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, is primarily used to treat acromegaly.
Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma
Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin.
In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinomas may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.
Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves medical therapy with dopamine agonists like cabergoline or bromocriptine, which inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. Surgery may be necessary for patients who do not respond to medical therapy or cannot tolerate it. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical removal of the tumor.
Overall, understanding prolactinoma is important for proper diagnosis and management of this type of pituitary adenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man has undergone some blood tests and X-rays for bilateral hand pain. He reports he is in good health and takes regular vitamin and mineral supplements. He is taking lisinopril 10 mg for hypertension and his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. The only blood test abnormality is a serum calcium concentration of 2.96 mmol/l (2.25–2.5 mmol/l) and hand X-ray demonstrates subperiosteal bone resorption in the majority of his phalanges.
What is the single most likely cause of the hypercalcaemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia, an abnormally high level of calcium in the blood, can have various causes. One of the most common is hyperparathyroidism, which results from overactivity of the parathyroid gland. Primary hyperparathyroidism is usually due to a benign adenoma, while secondary and tertiary hyperparathyroidism can occur in the context of renal failure or transplant. The hallmark radiological feature of hyperparathyroidism is subperiosteal bone resorption, which can be seen in the phalanges.
High dietary vitamin D intake is unlikely to cause hypercalcaemia, as most vitamin D is synthesized in the skin upon exposure to sunlight. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor treatment may lead to hyperkalaemia, but not hypercalcaemia. High dietary calcium intake is also unlikely to be a significant factor, as the body has mechanisms to regulate calcium absorption and excretion. However, iatrogenic hypercalcaemia can occur from excessive calcium and vitamin D supplementation.
Malignancy is another important cause of hypercalcaemia, especially in breast, lung, renal, and multiple myeloma. Therefore, occult malignancy should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of hypercalcaemia. However, in the case of subperiosteal bone resorption, hyperparathyroidism is more likely, and further investigation such as parathyroid hormone measurement and imaging studies may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes mellitus has visited his GP after experiencing his second severe hypoglycaemic episode. During both episodes, he had limited awareness and required his wife to administer glucose gel. He currently holds a group 1 driving licence. What advice should be given regarding his ability to drive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop driving immediately and inform the DVLA
Explanation:Individuals with diabetes who have experienced two episodes of hypoglycemia requiring assistance are required to relinquish their driving license.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old is being initiated on insulin therapy to control his diabetes as his HbA1c levels have been consistently high. He had experienced hypoglycemia four years ago. Additionally, he is taking fluoxetine and atorvastatin. He asks if he can drive to visit his parents.
What would be the appropriate guidance to provide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He must take breaks every 2 hours to check his blood glucose
Explanation:Insulin-dependent diabetics are required to take breaks every 2 hours to check their blood glucose while driving. They must also have hypoglycemia awareness, no severe hypos in the past year, and no visual impairment. It is important to inform the DVLA of their condition. They can still drive a car, but with additional precautions.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 68-year old woman with type 2 diabetes attends annual review at the GP practice. She currently takes lisinopril 10 mg OM, atorvastatin 20 mg ON, metformin 1 g BD, pioglitazone 45 mg OM and gliclazide 80 mg OM.
You discuss her progress and she tells you that she has episodes in the late morning where she feels generally out of sorts with lightheadedness and has had some blurred vision. She has checked her blood sugar during one of these episodes and it is 2.5 mmol/L (3-6).
Which one of her medicines is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin
Explanation:Understanding the Cause of Hypoglycaemic Episodes
This patient is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes that are causing symptoms of blurred vision and lightheadedness. The most likely cause of these episodes is the sulphonylurea medication. Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin secretion, which can lead to significant problems with hypoglycaemia. On the other hand, metformin increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, while pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance. Hypoglycaemia is uncommon with these medications. The ACE inhibitor or statin would not be a factor in this presentation.
Gliclazide is a good choice of sulphonylurea as it is often the longer acting agents such as glibenclamide that cause more profound and severe problems with hypoglycaemia. However, it is important to note that all sulphonylureas carry the risk of hypoglycaemia. Understanding the cause of hypoglycaemic episodes is crucial in managing diabetes and ensuring the safety of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:
Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
Albumin 38 g/l
What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.
Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The two most common causes of hypercalcaemia are primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients, while malignancy is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial in diagnosing hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. Paget’s disease of the bone usually results in normal calcium levels, but hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization.
In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 90-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening. The patient has been advised to seek medical attention regarding her thyroid function tests (TFTs).
TSH levels are at 9.2 mU/L, while free thyroxine levels are at 14 pmol/L. Despite her age, the patient is currently asymptomatic and in good health. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat TFTs in a few months time
Explanation:According to the guidelines recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, this patient with subclinical hypothyroidism should be monitored at present based on both TSH and age criteria.
Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism
Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men and those with thyroid autoantibodies.
The management of subclinical hypothyroidism depends on the TSH levels and the presence of symptoms. According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, patients with a TSH level greater than 10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels should be considered for levothyroxine treatment. For those with a TSH level between 5.5-10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be offered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms. However, for older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients should have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.
In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent it from progressing to overt hypothyroidism. The decision to treat or not depends on the patient’s age, symptoms, and TSH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and his HbA1c remains high at 56 mmol/mol despite attempts to modify his lifestyle. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.
Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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An otherwise healthy woman of 35 years has a second attack of renal colic in two years and passes a stone. Blood urea is normal.
Which one of the following investigations would be the most important to conduct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum calcium concentration
Explanation:Recommended Investigations for Young Patients with Renal Colic
Further investigation is recommended for young patients who experience a second episode of renal colic. To begin with, a plasma calcium test is important to rule out a predisposition towards forming the most common types of urinary tract stones, which are composed of calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate. A urine culture should also be conducted to exclude concurrent infection, as infection is associated with stone formation.
Another relevant investigation is urinary amino-acid chromatography, which can help assess for cystinuria or renal tubular acidosis. However, a urinary albumin-creatinine ratio is not particularly relevant in this situation unless the patient is found to have proteinuria.
It is important to note that an x-ray of the hands, renal biopsy, or cystoscopy are not required for this type of investigation. By conducting these recommended tests, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat young patients with renal colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm a biochemical diagnosis of acromegaly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with GH assay
Explanation:Biochemical Screening for Acromegaly
Acromegaly is a condition caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone (GH). To screen for acromegaly biochemically, an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with GH assay is recommended. In acromegaly, there is a failure to suppress GH to undetectable levels in response to a 75 g oral glucose load. In contrast, the normal response is to decrease GH to <2 mU/l. Increased insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) is not used in the diagnosis of acromegaly, although it is produced in response to GH stimulation. Instead, growth hormone should be indirectly measured via a GH assay. IGF-1 measurement is useful to screen for acromegaly and to monitor the efficacy of therapy. An insulin tolerance test is not used to diagnose acromegaly, but it is considered a gold standard for assessing the integrity of the hypothalamo–pituitary–adrenal axis. In response to insulin-induced hypoglycemia, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and GH are released as part of the stress mechanism. An adequate cortisol response is a rise to 550 nmol/l or more, and an adequate GH response exceeds 20 mU/l. Random GH assay is not useful in the diagnosis of acromegaly because normal subjects have undetectable GH levels throughout the day, and there are pulses of GH that are impossible to differentiate from the levels seen in acromegaly. Following a thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) test, 80% of patients with acromegaly show increased levels of GH. However, a thyroid function test is not used to diagnose acromegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to initiating pioglitazone therapy, what is the most important factor to consider?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fracture risk
Explanation:The risk of osteoporosis and fractures is higher in individuals taking thiazolidinediones.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male complains of low mood, numbness in his left hand especially at night, and has recently gained 8 kg in weight. He has noticed that his periods have become heavier over the last four months and now lasts for 8-11 days each month. There is a history of type 2 diabetes in his family. During examination, his BMI is 31.
What is the most suitable test to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LH/FSH ratio
Explanation:Hypothyroidism as a Possible Cause of Weight Gain, Menorrhagia, and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
The combination of weight gain, menorrhagia, and carpal tunnel syndrome in a patient is highly suggestive of hypothyroidism. While the patient may also be at risk of type 2 diabetes due to her obesity, it is not the primary cause of her symptoms. The most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK population is autoimmune lymphocytic thyroiditis. Treatment for this condition typically involves thyroid hormone replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to you complaining of fatigue and absence of menstrual periods. She reports not having had a period for the past four months and has gained some weight. You order an FBC, U&E and LFTs, which all come back normal except for an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic active hepatitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Raised Alkaline Phosphatase
Pregnancy is one of the possible causes of raised alkaline phosphatase, which could be the case based on the patient’s history. To confirm this, a urinary HCG test is recommended. Another possible cause is primary biliary cirrhosis, which is typically accompanied by severe itching and some degree of dyslipidemia. On the other hand, hypothyroidism usually results in menorrhagia. It is important to consider these potential causes when evaluating a patient with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman, with type 2 diabetes, has been successful in controlling her HbA1c through diet alone. She has lost 5 kilograms in the past 6 months by making changes to her diet and exercising regularly. Despite her progress, she is aware that her BMI categorizes her as 'obese' and wants to continue losing weight. During her clinic visit, she inquired about foods she should avoid.
What foods should this patient steer clear of?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foods marketed specifically for diabetics
Explanation:NICE doesn’t recommend diabetic foods for individuals with diabetes. Instead, it is important to prioritize a healthy and balanced diet that includes high-fibre, low-glycaemic-index sources of carbohydrates (such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and pulses), low-fat dairy products, and oily fish. It is also advised to limit the consumption of foods that contain saturated and trans fatty acids. Additionally, the use of foods marketed specifically for individuals with diabetes should be discouraged.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient has recently obtained her driver's license. She is an insulin dependent diabetic and plans to embark on a lengthy road trip. She comprehends the significance of hypoglycemia symptoms and frequent blood sugar monitoring. She has been instructed to keep fast-acting carbohydrates with her at all times while driving but seeks guidance on when to pull over and consume a snack after checking her blood glucose levels.
At what blood glucose level should she have a snack?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 mmol/litre
Explanation:Practical Management of Insulin in AKT Exam
Questions about the practical management of insulin are common in the AKT exam, but have been poorly answered in previous exams. Therefore, it is likely to be a recurrent theme. To ensure that you are adequately prepared, we have extracted the learning points from the reference sources used by examiners.
The guidance suggests that drivers should ensure that their blood glucose is above 5 mmol/litre when driving, but they should stop driving if it drops below 4 mmol/litre. If the blood glucose drops below 5 mmol/litre, they are advised to take a snack. Therefore, it is important to clarify which threshold applies when answering questions related to this topic.
Learning points that may be tested include the advice about testing frequency, thresholds for driving, thresholds for taking a snack or stopping driving, and when the journey can be safely resumed. Don’t worry, we have questions that will test you on all of these learning points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has a body mass index of 35, hypertension and impaired glucose tolerance. By the time she visits you she has succeeded in losing 3 kg in weight. You decide to give her a trial of orlistat and behavioural therapy.
What is the mode of action of orlistat?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orlistat is a pancreatic and gastric lipase inhibitor
Explanation:Orlistat: A Weight Loss Medication
Orlistat is a medication that inhibits the breakdown and absorption of dietary fat by blocking pancreatic lipase. This means that the fat ingested by a person taking orlistat continues to pass through their gut. However, if the patient doesn’t maintain a low-fat diet, they may experience oily diarrhoea.
Orlistat is typically used in combination with a low-fat diet for individuals with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 or higher, or for those with a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or higher who have other risk factors such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, or hypercholesterolaemia. It is important to note that orlistat should be used in conjunction with other lifestyle measures to manage obesity.
If a person taking orlistat has lost at least 5% of their initial body weight since starting the medication, it may be continued beyond three months. However, treatment should only be continued beyond 12 months, usually to maintain weight loss, after discussing potential benefits and limitations with the patient. It is also important to note that weight loss may gradually reverse upon stopping orlistat.
In conclusion, orlistat is a weight loss medication that can be effective when used in combination with a low-fat diet and other lifestyle measures. However, it is important to discuss the potential benefits and limitations with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is seen in the diabetes clinic and presents with the following results:
- Urinalysis NAD
- HbA1c 69 mmol/mol
The patient is currently taking metformin and gliclazide is added to his treatment regimen. What is the earliest time frame for repeating the HbA1c test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:NICE recommends regular monitoring of HbA1c every 2-6 months, based on individual requirements, until the patient is stable on a consistent therapy.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in red blood cells at a rate proportional to the concentration of glucose in the blood. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous three months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, and then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose levels.
The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c, which reports HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached. The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, one can calculate the average plasma glucose level by using the formula: average plasma glucose = (2 * HbA1c) – 4.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A patient who is also a nurse contacts you for information regarding Addison's disease. Her teenage daughter is currently undergoing tests in the hospital, and it is highly probable that she will be diagnosed with the condition. The patient wants to know what kind of treatment her daughter will receive.
In Addison's disease, the replacement therapy typically involves fludrocortisone, potentially dehydroepiandrosterone, and which other substance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone
Explanation:Addison’s Disease: A Primary Adrenocortical Deficiency
Addison’s disease is a primary adrenocortical deficiency that affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 50, with a higher incidence in females than males. This condition results in reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids.
Glucocorticoids are hormones that regulate metabolism and immune function, while mineralocorticoids help regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance. Sex steroids play a role in sexual development and reproductive function.
The symptoms of Addison’s disease can be vague and nonspecific, including fatigue, weakness, weight loss, and abdominal pain. If left untreated, the condition can lead to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Treatment typically involves hormone replacement therapy to restore the body’s hormone levels.
Overall, Addison’s disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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What is the target blood pressure for a 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and no end-organ damage, based on a clinic blood pressure reading?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should aim for the same blood pressure targets as those without diabetes, as long as they are under 80 years old. This means keeping clinic readings below 140/90 and ABPM/HBPM readings below 135/85. It is important to note that these targets apply regardless of whether the patient has any end-organ damage.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She tells you she is going to attend a carbohydrate counting course. She asks you what that involves.
Select from this list the single correct statement about carbohydrate counting.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is suitable for those who inject insulin with each meal
Explanation:Carbohydrate Counting for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Management
Carbohydrate counting is a recommended method for managing blood glucose levels in adults with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. It involves counting the grams of carbohydrates in a meal and matching it with an individual’s insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio to determine the necessary insulin dose. This method is particularly useful for those who inject insulin with each meal or use an insulin pump. While foods with a low glycaemic index can help manage glucose levels in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, there is less evidence for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Carbohydrate counting doesn’t mean total freedom to eat whatever one wishes, as food excesses are unhealthy for anyone. However, most ready meals indicate the amount of carbohydrate on the food label, making carbohydrate counting easier. It is important for adult patients with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus to receive advice on issues beyond blood glucose control, such as weight control and cardiovascular risk management, and to increase the amount of fiber in their diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A female patient with Addison's disease calls for guidance. She has experienced diarrhea and vomiting throughout the night and has vomited thrice this morning. She feels slightly lightheaded. What recommendation would you provide concerning the hydrocortisone dosage for an Addison's disease patient who has vomited three times?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use hydrocortisone 100 mg intramuscularly and seek medical advice
Explanation:Sick Day Rules for Addison’s Patients
Patients with Addison’s disease must follow specific sick day rules to manage their condition effectively. These rules include doubling the normal dose of hydrocortisone for a fever of more than 37.5 C or for infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics. In case of severe nausea, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally and sip rehydration/electrolyte fluids like Dioralyte. If vomiting occurs, patients should use the emergency injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone immediately and call a doctor, stating that it is an Addison’s emergency.
In case of a major injury, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately to avoid shock. It is also essential to ensure that the anaesthetist and surgical team, dentist, or endoscopist are aware of the need for extra oral medication. They should check the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover, which is available at www.addisons.org.uk/publications. By following these sick day rules, Addison’s patients can manage their condition effectively and avoid any complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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When managing hypertension in a diabetic patient, which of the following combinations of Antihypertensive medications should be avoided, if possible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-blocker + thiazide
Explanation:Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male with a history of insulin dependent diabetes presents with persistent abdominal bloating and vomiting. The gastroenterologist suspects gastroparesis. What would be the best initial course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Gastroparesis can cause persistent vomiting in a poorly controlled diabetic, and cyclizine is not a recommended treatment for this condition. Instead, prokinetic drugs such as metoclopramide or domperidone can be used. Amoxicillin is not useful in managing gastroparesis, but erythromycin can be used off-label as a prokinetic. While metformin is helpful in controlling diabetes, it is not involved in the acute management of gastroparesis.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with a one-month history of tingling sensation in his fingers, toes and around the mouth. When the symptom first started, it was only affecting his fingers. It has since spread and gradually got worse. He had the same symptom a few years ago and was found to have a low calcium level. There is no reported muscle weakness, tremor or other neurological symptoms.
He is currently taking omeprazole for reflux symptoms. His recent blood test showed the following:
Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
What electrolyte abnormality could be responsible for this patient's presenting symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypomagnesaemia
Explanation:Hypomagnesaemia can lead to similar symptoms as hypocalcaemia, such as paresthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias. This condition can be caused by proton pump inhibitors like lansoprazole and esomeprazole.
Hyperkalemia’s symptoms are often vague and can include breathing difficulty, weakness, fatigue, palpitations, or chest pain. Paresthesia is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia, so this answer is incorrect.
Hypernatremia would not cause paresthesia and is, therefore, an incorrect answer. Symptoms of hypernatraemia include lethargy, weakness, confusion, irritability, and seizures.
Hypermagnesaemia can cause weakness, confusion, nausea and vomiting, and shortness of breath, but it doesn’t typically cause paresthesia. Therefore, this answer is also incorrect.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the body. This can be caused by various factors such as the use of certain drugs like diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitleman’s and Bartter’s can also contribute to the development of this condition. Symptoms of hypomagnesaemia may include paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, arrhythmias, and decreased PTH secretion, which can lead to hypocalcaemia. ECG features similar to those of hypokalaemia may also be present, and it can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
Treatment for hypomagnesaemia depends on the severity of the condition. If the magnesium level is less than 0.4 mmol/L or if there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. If the magnesium level is above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts can be given in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts, so it is important to monitor for this side effect. Understanding the causes and treatment options for hypomagnesaemia can help individuals manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old patient who has type two diabetes and has no other current health issues or significant medical history. The patient is currently taking metformin 1g bd. Their HbA1c was 56 mmol/mol six months ago and has increased to 59 mmol/mol in their most recent test from last week. What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add additional oral agent to metformin
Explanation:If a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking the maximum dose of metformin and has an HbA1c level of 58 mmol/mol or higher, it is recommended to add a second drug to their treatment regimen. The patient should be closely monitored and have their HbA1c level checked again in 3-6 months to ensure stability on the new therapy. It is important to intensify treatment at this stage, but referral to secondary care is not necessary and primary care should manage the patient’s management. Insulin therapy is not recommended yet, and a further oral agent should be added first. If the second agent fails to reduce HbA1c, triple therapy may be considered. Lifestyle advice and management should also be provided at each review.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male with a 13 year history of type 1 diabetes presents with a three month history of deteriorating pain and stiffness of the right shoulder.
On examination he has some painful limitation of internal rotation and very limited painful external rotation. He can abduct the right arm to only 90 degrees. Flexion is relatively unimpaired. There is some weakness of movement of that shoulder with slight wasting of shoulder muscles. He has some reduced vibration sensation in both hands.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy
Explanation:Diagnosis of Frozen Shoulder
This patient presents with typical symptoms of a frozen shoulder, including global reduction in shoulder movements and slight muscle wasting due to pain and reduced use. While frozen shoulder typically results in limitations in both rotational directions and abduction, the shorter history of symptoms in this case may result in less severe signs. Additionally, the patient’s age is a factor to consider.
Brachial plexopathy, on the other hand, involves specific dermatomal loss of sensation and strength, such as wrist drop or ulnar nerve palsy, rather than the shoulder. The reduced vibration sense in both hands may indicate early stages of diabetic peripheral neuropathy, but is not directly related to the frozen shoulder diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with Addison's disease is admitted to the Emergency Department with gastroenteritis. As she is being admitted to the medical ward, what steps should be taken regarding her steroid replacement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Double hydrocortisone dose, same fludrocortisone dose
Explanation:When a patient with Addison’s disease experiences an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to increase their glucocorticoid dosage by two-fold. However, the dose of fludrocortisone should remain the same as usual, as it is not as crucial during times of illness. This is because individuals with Addison’s have limited or no natural steroid production, and the body typically responds to stress by increasing cortisol production.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is usually given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Fludrocortisone is also included in the treatment regimen. Patient education is crucial in managing Addison’s disease. Patients should be reminded not to miss glucocorticoid doses, and they may consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards. Additionally, patients should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis. It is also important to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness.
During an intercurrent illness, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose remains the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios for managing intercurrent illness. These guidelines can be found on the CKS link for more information. Proper management of Addison’s disease is essential to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment and care they need to manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male presents with a four month history of polyuria with polydipsia.
Which of the following measurements would confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A urine dipstick analysis showing +++ glucose
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus
Diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed based on symptoms and a random glucose level above 11.1 mmol/L or a fasting plasma glucose level above 7 mmol/L. Another option is the two-hour oral glucose tolerance test. Impaired glucose tolerance may be indicated by a post-OGTT plasma glucose level between 7.7 and 11.1 or a fasting plasma glucose level between 6.1 and 7.
For certain groups, an HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended as the cut-off point for diagnosing diabetes. However, it is important to note that a value below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) doesn’t necessarily exclude a diabetes diagnosis using glucose tests. It is crucial to familiarize oneself with the exceptions to these guidelines.
Overall, the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus requires careful consideration of various factors and tests to ensure accurate identification and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving with his partner for 2 years and they have undergone clinical evaluation. While his partner's assessment is normal, he has been diagnosed with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.
What are the possible causes of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often nonspecific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.
Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A sixty-two-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes contacts the clinic for advice and is connected to you as the on-call Doctor. He is experiencing a diarrhoeal illness and has been feeling unwell for the past 24 hours with fever, loose stools, and generalised myalgia. He vomited twice yesterday but hasn't vomited for the last 12 hours and has been able to drink adequate fluids and has eaten some small snacks containing carbohydrate. His diabetes is managed with twice daily mixed insulin at a total dose of 18 units BD. He has been monitoring his blood glucose every 4 hours and has reached out to you as his blood sugar has risen to 20 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate advice to give him in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No change to his insulin dose is needed as long as he continues to not vomit and be able to drink and eat snacks. He should continue to check his blood sugar every 4 hours and contact the surgery for advice if his blood glucose is greater than 30 mmol/L
Explanation:Counselling a Diabetic on Insulin Management When Unwell
A key aspect of counselling a diabetic who has been started on insulin is to educate them on what to do if they become unwell. For type 2 diabetics, it is recommended that they check their blood glucose levels at least every 4 hours when feeling unwell.
A useful resource to refer to when advising patients in this situation is the TREND UK guideline. This guideline provides a clear algorithm for managing blood glucose levels when a patient is unwell. According to the guideline, if the patient’s blood glucose level is less than 13 mmol/L, they should take insulin as normal. However, if the level is greater than 13 mmol/L, insulin adjustment is necessary.
By following the algorithm provided in the TREND UK guideline, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the patient’s insulin dosage and blood glucose levels. For instance, if the patient requires an additional 4 units of insulin added to each dose, this can be easily determined by following the algorithm. Additionally, the patient should continue to monitor their blood glucose levels every 4 hours to ensure that their insulin management is effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating, and her husband, while archiving photos from recent years, noticed an increased prominence of her jaw now. Last year she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Other past history of note is that she has recently been operated on for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Growth-hormone levels are likely to remain above 1 µg/l after a 75 g glucose load
Explanation:Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Acromegaly is a condition caused by the overproduction of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary tumor. A diagnosis is confirmed through an oral glucose tolerance test, as growth hormone levels remain elevated above 1 µg/l. Symptoms include coarse facial features, enlarged hands and feet, and soft tissue swellings. Nerve compression, hypertension, and cardiovascular complications may also occur. Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) levels are elevated in patients with acromegaly and can be used to monitor treatment efficacy. Random growth hormone testing is unsuitable due to episodic secretion. Treatment involves trans-sphenoidal resection of the pituitary tumor. Additionally, some patients with acromegaly may have increased levels of 1,25-OH vitamin D, which can cause hypercalcemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of gynaecomastia. He is currently being treated for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux.
Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia
Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, cimetidine, ciclosporin, and omeprazole are some of the drugs associated with this condition. Ramipril has only been rarely linked to gynaecomastia.
Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of use. If you are experiencing breast enlargement or any other unusual symptoms while taking medication, it is best to consult with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man with diabetes presents with a request for infertility investigations. On examination, you observe that he has a tan complexion despite minimal sun exposure. He also has an enlarged liver and reports experiencing palpitations and dyspnoea during physical activity. His full blood count and liver biochemistry are within normal limits. What is the most suitable investigation to perform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum iron studies
Explanation:Investigating Haemochromatosis: Serum Iron Studies and Diagnostic Tests
Haemochromatosis is an autosomal-recessive disorder characterized by excess iron deposition in the endocrine glands, heart, and skin. Middle-aged men are more commonly affected, and symptoms include diabetes mellitus, probable hypogonadism, hepatomegaly, and skin pigmentation. Serum iron studies are crucial in the diagnosis of haemochromatosis, with raised serum ferritin levels and reduced total iron-binding capacity being indicative of the condition. However, elevated ferritin levels can also be seen in other conditions, such as alcoholic liver disease and porphyria cutanea tarda, so genetic testing for HFE mutations (C282Y, H63D) is necessary for a definitive diagnosis. Serum α-fetoprotein levels and cardiac echocardiography are not useful in identifying haemochromatosis, while liver biopsy is rarely required due to the reliability of genetic testing. Ultrasound of the liver may show abnormalities secondary to cirrhosis but is not as useful as serum iron measurements in this situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male presents with worries about delayed pubertal development, despite being 1.75m tall. He has minimal pubic hair and decreased testicular size. The following laboratory results are obtained:
Testosterone 7.2 nmol/l (9 - 30)
LH 3.5 mu/l (3 - 10)
FSH 5.9 mu/l (3 - 10)
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kallman's syndrome
Explanation:Kallmann’s syndrome is a condition that can cause delayed puberty due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is often inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is believed to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. One of the key indicators of Kallmann’s syndrome is anosmia, or a lack of smell, in boys with delayed puberty. Other features may include hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, low sex hormone levels, and normal or above-average height. Some patients may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.
Management of Kallmann’s syndrome typically involves testosterone supplementation. Gonadotrophin supplementation may also be used to stimulate sperm production if fertility is desired later in life. It is important for individuals with Kallmann’s syndrome to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and ensure optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female presents with similar symptoms as the previous case, including irritability, tremors, unexplained weight loss, diarrhoea, palpitations and fatigue. On examination, her pulse rate is 120/min and regular. Her thyroid gland is also noted to be symmetrically enlarged but non-tender.
Blood tests reveal the following:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.1 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 26 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb) 16 IU/L (<1.7)
What medication can be prescribed to manage the patient's symptoms quickly while she awaits her appointment with the endocrinologist?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Propranolol is an effective non-selective beta-blocker that can be used to control the symptoms of hyperthyroidism in new cases of Graves’ disease. While carbimazole is also an anti-thyroid medication that can improve thyroid levels in the long-term, it may not provide rapid symptom relief compared to beta-blockers. Metoprolol, a selective beta-blocker for beta-1 adrenergic receptors, is not as effective as propranolol in this situation. Propylthiouracil is another anti-thyroid medication that can be used instead of carbimazole, but may not provide quick symptom relief. Radioactive iodine is a specialist treatment option used by endocrinologists for patients who do not respond to anti-thyroid medications, but it doesn’t provide short-term symptom relief.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man comes to the clinic for diabetic assessment. Despite taking the highest dose of metformin and gliclazide, his HBA1c is 68 mmol/mol. You discuss his condition with the diabetic nurse and decide to initiate a new medication, dapagliflozin.
What is the primary adverse effect of dapagliflozin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary tract infections
Explanation:Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors, such as empagliflozin or dapagliflozin, have been linked to an increased risk of urinary tract infections due to their mechanism of inhibiting renal reabsorption of glucose. This leads to increased excretion of glucose in the urine, causing common side effects like urinary frequency and infections. Unlike metformin, diarrhea is not a common side effect of these drugs. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone and rosiglitazone, should be avoided in patients with left ventricular dysfunction as they can cause or worsen heart failure. Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) medications, also known as incretin mimetics, such as sitagliptin and exenatide, work by suppressing glucagon release and increasing insulin release from the pancreas. However, they can trigger inflammation and have an increased risk of causing pancreatitis. SGLT2 inhibitors are associated with weight loss, while sulphonylureas, such as gliclazide, are associated with weight gain.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old patient with a strong family history of premature myocardial infarction presents to his General Practitioner and is found to have familial hypercholesterolaemia. He is a non-smoker and is normotensive. He is given lifestyle and dietary advice and prescribed a high-intensity statin. His lipid results are reviewed after two months.
Investigations before and after being on a maximum dose of the statin:
Investigation Result Result after two months Normal value
Cholesterol concentration 10.2mmol/l 6.8 mmol/l <5.1 mmol/l
LDL-cholesterol 8.1 mmol/l 5.3 mmol/l <3.1 mmol/l
HDL-cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l 1.3 mmol/l >1.1 mmol/l
Fasting triglycerides 1.9 mmol/l 1.0 mmol/l <1.6 mmol/l
Which of the following is the single most appropriate next step in his management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adding ezetimibe to his medication
Explanation:Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia
Primary hypercholesterolaemia requires appropriate treatment to reduce LDL-cholesterol levels. In this case, the patient’s LDL-cholesterol reduction is only 35%, which is below the recommended reduction of >40% with the statin alone. Therefore, adding ezetimibe, an inhibitor of cholesterol absorption from the gut, is the treatment of choice. This is the only further primary care intervention before specialist intervention is required.
Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman who has undergone an extensive thyroid resection comes to see you for follow up some six weeks later. She has recovered well from the operation but reports problems with muscle cramps; these have been so severe on two occasions that she has suffered from cramping and spasm in her hands.
On examination she is a little hypotensive at 105/60, and her pulse is 45. Her reflexes seem quite brisk, but neurological examination is otherwise normal.
Which of the following is the most likely finding on blood testing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Post-Surgical Hypoparathyroidism
Post-surgical hypoparathyroidism is a condition that may occur weeks or even months after thyroid surgery. It is characterized by symptoms such as muscle cramps, lethargy, bradycardia, and hypotension that are not responsive to pressors, and carpopedal spasm due to hypocalcaemia. If a patient presents with these symptoms, it is important to investigate further through serum electrolytes, LFTs, and PTH assay. These investigations will help to confirm the diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision. Upon examination, she displays exophthalmos and conjunctival oedema, leading to a suspicion of thyroid eye disease. What can be inferred about her thyroid condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eu-, hypo- or hyperthyroid
Explanation:Thyroid eye disease is often linked to hyperthyroidism from Graves’ disease, but it can also occur in euthyroid or hypothyroid patients. The severity of the eye disease is not necessarily related to the level of thyrotoxicosis.
Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.
Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.
Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic for the first time. She is obese, plethoric, and has significant bruising on her limbs and new striae on her abdomen. Additionally, she has a dorsal kyphosis due to a vertebral collapse earlier this year. What is the most effective way to distinguish Cushing syndrome caused by an adrenal adenoma from Cushing syndrome caused by a pituitary adenoma? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Undetectable serum adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Cushing Syndrome
Cushing syndrome can be caused by various factors, including pituitary adenoma, ectopic ACTH secretion, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, adrenal nodular hyperplasia, or excess glucocorticoid administration. To diagnose Cushing syndrome, several diagnostic tests are available.
Undetectable Serum Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) Level: In adrenal causes of Cushing syndrome, the ACTH level is suppressed or undetectable. However, a normal ACTH level can sometimes be found in pituitary-driven Cushing syndrome and ectopic ACTH, as there is overlap between the normal and elevated ranges.
Raised Urine Cortisol/Creatinine Ratio: This test is not helpful in differentiating the cause of Cushing syndrome as the urine cortisol/creatinine ratio is elevated in all causes.
0900 h Serum Cortisol of 200 nmol/l after Overnight Low Dose Dexamethasone Test: An unsuppressed 0900 h cortisol level after an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is diagnostic for Cushing syndrome. However, all causes of Cushing syndrome will give an unsuppressed 0900 h cortisol level.
Normal 0900 h Serum Cortisol Level: The serum cortisol level can be normal in both adrenal and pituitary causes, as it has a wide range of normal. However, there is a loss of diurnal variation with reduced cortisol production in the evening compared with the morning.
Serum Potassium of 2.2 mmol/l: Serum potassium is most likely to be low in cases of ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and can be due to the mineralocorticoid of cortisol itself or in adrenal carcinoma as a result of excessive mineralocorticoid (aldosterone) activity.
Diagnostic Tests for Cushing Syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has had type 1 diabetes mellitus for 15 years and has been your patient for nine years. Her HbA1c has ranged from 63 mmol/mol to 74 mmol/mol (19-41).
Today her blood pressure is 132/86 mmHg. She also has noticed that her home blood glucose levels fluctuate more than normal over the last three months. She also informs you that she is aware of nausea after eating and has required less food than usual to satisfy her appetite.
Investigations show:
Urea 8.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-110)
Sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (20-28)
HbA1c 41 mmol/mol (20-42)
Urinalysis Protein+
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delayed gastric emptying
Explanation:Autonomic Neuropathy and Gastric Emptying
She has a lengthy medical history of diabetes and has been experiencing nausea after eating, along with a feeling of fullness and a reduced appetite. These symptoms suggest that she may be experiencing reduced gastric emptying, which is a common symptom of autonomic neuropathy. Other symptoms that may be present include postural hypotension, gustatory sweating, diarrhea, or changes in bowel habits. To confirm the diagnosis, a barium swallow and meal may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her weight is 76 kg, body mass index 34 kg/m2. After 3 months’ trial of dietary modification, she has lost 2 kg in weight, and her Hba1c, which was 78 mmol/mol at diagnosis, is 71 mmol/mol. She is well and has no symptoms related to her condition.
Select from the list the single most appropriate treatment to commence.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Type 2 Diabetes
Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. Metformin is the preferred first-line treatment as it increases insulin sensitivity. However, caution should be taken when prescribing metformin to patients with renal impairment. If metformin is not suitable, other options include dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors, pioglitazone, and sulfonylureas. Pioglitazone can be used as a second-line treatment or in combination with metformin. Acarbose is a weak hypoglycemic agent and is only used in combination with other agents. Sulfonylureas may be considered as first-line therapy in symptomatic patients, but should be prescribed with caution in obese individuals. Insulin may be necessary if oral therapies fail to adequately control HbA1C levels. It is important to consider contraindications and potential side effects when selecting a treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalized aches and lack of energy. Her urea and electrolyte concentrations are within normal limits, but her corrected calcium concentration is 1.98 mmol/L (2.2-2.6) and phosphate is low at 0.66 mmol/L (0.8-1.4). Further investigations reveal a 25-hydroxy vitamin D level of 12 IU/L (15-50) and a parathyroid hormone level of 25 (3-6). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin D Deficiency and Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
This patient is experiencing vitamin D deficiency, which is indicated by a low 25-hydroxy vitamin D level and resulting hypocalcaemia. As a metabolic compensation, the patient is experiencing secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is demonstrated by elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. It is important to note that in primary hyperparathyroidism, one would expect an elevated calcium concentration and low phosphate. However, in cases of pseudohypoparathyroidism and pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism, an elevated phosphate would be expected. By understanding the specific metabolic compensations and symptoms associated with different conditions, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman presented with complaints of constant fatigue and underwent a blood test. All results were within normal range except for her thyroid function test (TFT) which revealed:
TSH 12.5 mU/l
Free T4 7.5 pmol/l
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levothyroxine 75 mcg daily 30 minutes before breakfast, caffeine and other medication(s)
Explanation:The TFTs indicate a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be treated with levothyroxine. Carbimazole is not suitable for this condition as it is used to treat hyperthyroidism. To ensure proper absorption, levothyroxine should be taken 30 minutes before consuming food, caffeine, or other medications.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue for the past few months. She reports having missed her period for six months and experiences dizziness in the morning. Addison's disease is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
Which of the following clinical manifestations is the most specific for Addison's disease?
Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pigmentation of the palms
Explanation:Symptoms of Hypoadrenalism and Hypopituitarism
Hypoadrenalism, also known as Addison’s disease, can be caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, granulomatous disorders, tuberculosis, tumours, or infections. Glucocorticoid deficiency, commonly seen in Addison’s disease, can cause pigmentation of the palms due to elevated levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
Hypopituitarism can cause a variety of symptoms, including pallor due to normochromic, normocytic anaemia, postural hypotension related to glucocorticoid deficiency, and visual-field defects from pressure on the optic nerve caused by a pituitary tumour. Lack of body hair and amenorrhoea are also features of hypogonadism in hypopituitarism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A woman visits her GP for a check-up of her type 2 diabetes. She is taking metformin at the maximum tolerated dose. Her most recent HbA1c reading is 64 mmol/mol.
The GP prescribes gliclazide and schedules another HbA1c test in 3 months.
What is the new target HbA1c for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 53
Explanation:The target HbA1c for patients taking a drug that may cause hypoglycaemia, such as gliclazide, is 53 mmol/mol or below. This target applies to adults who are prescribed a single hypoglycaemic agent or two or more antidiabetic drugs in combination. For adults with type 2 diabetes who are managed by diet and lifestyle alone or a single antidiabetic drug not associated with hypoglycaemia, the target HbA1c is 48 mmol/mol. Therefore, the correct answer for the HbA1c target for a patient starting on gliclazide is 53 mmol/mol. The answers 58 mmol/mol and 63 mmol/mol are incorrect.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. Initial tests show an increased serum calcium level. The physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most beneficial tumour marker investigation for this patient? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
Explanation:Tumour Markers and their Clinical Applications
Monoclonal antibodies are utilized to detect serum antigens associated with specific malignancies. These tumour markers are most useful for monitoring response to therapy and detecting early relapse. However, with the exception of PSA, tumour markers do not have sufficient sensitivity or specificity for use in screening.
PSA, or prostate specific antigen, is a useful marker for screening for prostate cancer, although population screening is controversial. It can also be used to detect recurrence of the malignancy and is useful in the investigation of adenocarcinoma of unknown primary. Hypercalcaemia and bone pain may suggest metastatic carcinoma, which is common in prostate cancer.
CA 19-9, AFP, beta-HCG, and CEA are other tumour markers that are used for different types of cancer. CA 19-9 is helpful in establishing the nature of pancreatic masses, AFP is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma, beta-HCG is used in the diagnosis and management of gestational trophoblastic disease and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours of the testes, and CEA is used to detect relapse of colorectal cancer.
In conclusion, tumour markers have various clinical applications in the diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of cancer. However, their sensitivity and specificity may vary, and they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tools for accurate diagnosis and management of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner as she has been found to have a markedly raised cholesterol level on routine testing. She often feels tired in the daytime but puts this down to her busy lifestyle. She denies any other symptoms and is not on any regular medications.
On examination, she is obese, with a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m2. Her examination is otherwise unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate next investigation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Explanation:Prioritizing Tests for Investigating Hypercholesterolemia in an Overweight Patient
When investigating a patient with hypercholesterolemia, it is important to consider potential secondary causes. In an overweight patient with tiredness, hypothyroidism is a common possibility, and a serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) test should be prioritized. Other secondary causes of hyperlipidemia include Cushing syndrome, anorexia nervosa, diabetes mellitus, pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, alcohol abuse, and certain medications. Liver function tests (LFTs) may be useful if obstructive jaundice is suspected or as a baseline prior to starting a statin, but investigating for secondary causes should take priority. Dipstick urinalysis is not typically useful in asymptomatic patients with a single abnormal finding of raised cholesterol. Similarly, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is unlikely to be helpful in determining an underlying diagnosis or ongoing management in the absence of cardiovascular symptoms. While serum triglycerides may be elevated, investigation for secondary causes should take priority.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a feeling of shortness of breath and choking, on lying down. Some six months earlier she had been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. On examination, she has a goitre. Plain radiography confirms retrosternal extension, which is presumed to be contributing to her shortness of breath. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is less than 0.04 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l). Thyroid autoantibodies are negative.
Which of the following diagnoses best fits with this patients clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxic multinodular goitre
Explanation:Toxic multinodular goitre is a condition that commonly affects women over 55 years of age and is more prevalent than Graves’ disease in the elderly. It is characterized by a goitre that obstructs and extends retrosternally, which may cause atrial fibrillation. The preferred treatment is surgery, but the patient should first be made euthyroid with carbimazole. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, is an autoimmune disorder that accounts for 75% of thyrotoxicosis cases. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, diffuse goitre, and eye changes. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is another autoimmune thyroiditis that initially causes hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism. It is characterized by the aggressive destruction of thyroid cells, resulting in a goitre and high levels of autoantibodies against thyroid peroxidase. Thyroglossal cyst is a cyst that forms from a persistent thyroglossal duct and presents as an asymptomatic midline neck mass. Thyroid carcinoma, on the other hand, presents as a non-tender thyroid nodule with normal thyroid function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 167
Incorrect
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You receive a discharge summary for Mr. Chen, a 65-year-old man, who has had an acute surgical admission with pancreatitis. The summary notes that it was thought to be drug-related. His past medical history includes atrial fibrillation and type 2 diabetes. His regular medications are ramipril, warfarin, metformin, sitagliptin, and atorvastatin. He also takes an over-the-counter vitamin D supplement.
Which of his medications might have caused this presentation and should be reported by Yellow Card?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation:Pancreatitis is a rare but significant side effect of DPP4-inhibitors, while Bisoprolol, apixaban, and vitamin D do not have this adverse effect. Metformin doesn’t cause pancreatitis, but it can increase the risk of lactic acidosis, which is why it should be discontinued in cases where there is a risk of this condition, such as in serious illnesses like pancreatitis. The correct answer is Sitagliptin, as DPP4-inhibitors have been linked to acute pancreatitis and should be discontinued if suspected and reported through the Yellow Card system.
The following table provides a summary of the typical side-effects associated with drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus. Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal side-effects and lactic acidosis. Sulfonylureas can lead to hypoglycaemic episodes, increased appetite and weight gain, as well as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion and cholestatic liver dysfunction. Glitazones are associated with weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, and fractures. Finally, gliptins have been linked to pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female with hypothyroidism visits your GP clinic to discuss her pregnancy. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant and wants to know if she should continue taking levothyroxine. She is taking 75 mcg of levothyroxine daily.
Her thyroid function tests were done 3 weeks ago, before she knew she was pregnant. The results are as follows:
TSH 3.2mU/L
What advice would you give her regarding her levothyroxine medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily
Explanation:An endocrinologist should be consulted for women with hypothyroidism who are planning pregnancy. According to a review in the British Journal of General Practice, their levothyroxine dose should be adjusted to maintain a preconception TSH concentration of less than 2.5 mu/L. Upon conception, the daily dose of levothyroxine should be increased by 25-50 mcg and thyroid function should be monitored to ensure TSH remains below 2.5 mU/L. Therefore, increasing the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily would be the correct course of action, while doubling the dose may be too large an increase. It would be inappropriate to reduce, stop, or maintain the same medication dosage as thyroxine requirements increase during pregnancy.
During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which causes an increase in the levels of total thyroxine. However, this doesn’t affect the free thyroxine level. If left untreated, thyrotoxicosis can increase the risk of fetal loss, maternal heart failure, and premature labor. Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, but transient gestational hyperthyroidism can also occur due to the activation of the TSH receptor by HCG. Propylthiouracil has traditionally been the antithyroid drug of choice, but it is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatic injury. Therefore, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using propylthiouracil in the first trimester and switching to carbimazole in the second trimester. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism. Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked at 30-36 weeks gestation to determine the risk of neonatal thyroid problems. Block-and-replace regimens should not be used in pregnancy, and radioiodine therapy is contraindicated.
On the other hand, thyroxine is safe during pregnancy, and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone should be measured in each trimester and 6-8 weeks postpartum. Women require an increased dose of thyroxine during pregnancy, up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy. Breastfeeding is safe while on thyroxine. It is important to manage thyroid problems during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman with asthma and a history of thyroid disease comes to the clinic for a check-up after a left Colles' fracture. You learn that she had a right Colles' fracture three years ago due to a fall on ice, but she declined investigation for osteoporosis. As you review her medical history, which risk factor would you consider the most significant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Onset of periods aged 10
Explanation:Understanding Osteoporosis Risk Factors and Treatment Options
Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density and increased risk of fractures. Several risk factors have been associated with this condition, including low BMI, increasing age, periods of immobility, high dose inhaled or oral corticosteroid therapy, untreated thyrotoxicosis, early menopause, and positive family history. While exposure to thyrotoxicosis and inhaled steroid dose can contribute to osteoporosis, family history is considered the most important risk factor.
Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment option for osteoporosis, with anabolics such as PTH and other classes reserved for patients who cannot take bisphosphonates. It is important to understand the risk factors associated with osteoporosis and to seek appropriate treatment to prevent fractures and maintain bone health. By addressing these risk factors and utilizing effective treatment options, individuals can reduce their risk of developing osteoporosis and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is worried about the development of his breasts and suspects that one of his medications may be responsible.
Which of the following drugs is linked to gynaecomastia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SSRIs
Explanation:Medications and their Side Effects
Galactorrhoea is a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), according to the British National Formulary (BNF). On the other hand, gynaecomastia is not listed as a side effect of SSRIs. Tricyclics, however, are known to cause gynaecomastia by stimulating prolactin. Another medication that can cause gynaecomastia is anabolic steroids, which are not catabolic. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or alleviate these side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman is curious about maintaining a healthy diet. She currently weighs 106 Kg and stands at a height of 1.76m. What is her approximate body mass index (BMI) rounded to the nearest decimal point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 28
Explanation:BMI Calculation and Interpretation
Body: Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight in kilograms by the square of the height in meters. For instance, if a person weighs 106 kilograms and is 1.76 meters tall, their BMI would be 34.22 kg/m2. This value falls within the obese range, indicating that the person may have an increased risk of developing health problems such as heart disease, diabetes, and high blood pressure. It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fatness and should be used in conjunction with other health indicators to assess an individual’s overall health status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
Free T4 35 pmol/L
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction
Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can cause thyroid dysfunction in approximately 1 in 6 patients. This dysfunction can manifest as either hypothyroidism or thyrotoxicosis.
Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) is believed to occur due to the high iodine content of the medication, which can cause a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. Despite this, amiodarone may still be continued if desired.
On the other hand, amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT) can be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 AIT is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 AIT is related to destructive thyroiditis caused by amiodarone. In patients with type 1 AIT, a goitre may be present, while it is absent in type 2 AIT. Management of AIT involves carbimazole or potassium perchlorate for type 1 and corticosteroids for type 2.
It is important to note that unlike in AIH, amiodarone should be stopped if possible in patients who develop AIT. Understanding the potential effects of amiodarone on the thyroid gland is crucial in managing patients who require this medication for their heart condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man with type 1 diabetes visits the diabetes clinic for his yearly check-up. He possesses a Group 1 driving licence and reports to his specialist that he experienced two episodes of hypoglycaemia, one four months ago and the other one month ago. Both incidents occurred while he was awake after consuming several alcoholic beverages and required assistance from his partner. However, he typically has full hypoglycaemia awareness and practices appropriate glucose monitoring before and during driving. Additionally, he has never experienced hypoglycaemia while driving. What advice should he receive regarding his driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inform DVLA and will need to surrender driving licence
Explanation:A patient with diabetes who has experienced two severe hypoglycaemic episodes requiring assistance must surrender their driving licence and inform the DVLA. Insulin-treated individuals must meet specific criteria to be licensed, including adequate hypoglycaemia awareness, no more than one severe episode in the past 12 months, appropriate glucose monitoring, not being a risk to the public while driving, meeting visual standards, and undergoing regular review. Increasing blood glucose monitoring before and during driving or informing the DVLA for monitoring purposes will not permit the patient to resume driving. If the patient experiences another hypoglycaemic episode within the next two months, they must notify the DVLA, but they would not meet the criteria for licensing if they have had two severe episodes in the past 12 months.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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What plasma glucose level is considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus in a patient with symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Random plasma glucose 10.1 mmol/L
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes: Interpreting Plasma Glucose Concentrations
The diagnosis of diabetes is based on interpreting plasma glucose concentrations. To diagnose diabetes mellitus, a fasting plasma glucose above 7 mmol/L or a random glucose above 11.1 mmol/L is required. However, it is important to note that two plasma glucose readings are needed according to these parameters in an asymptomatic patient to make the diagnosis. In a symptomatic patient, only one reading is needed.
It is crucial to pay attention to the details of the question and not misinterpret any of the options. For instance, candidates may misread or misinterpret the threshold of 7.0 mmol/L and argue that 7.1 mmol/L cannot be the correct answer. Therefore, using good examination technique, it is recommended to go over the options again to ensure that the question has been read correctly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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Ben is a 56-year-old who has been diagnosed with diabetes and is requesting a 'Medical exemption certificate'. What form should you fill out?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FP92A
Explanation:The correct answer is the FP92A form, which is a medical exemption certificate that can be claimed to entitle a patient to free prescriptions. This form can be claimed if a patient has certain conditions, such as a permanent fistula or diabetes mellitus.
The FP57 form is an NHS receipt for payment of a prescription, which can be used to claim money back later. The GMS1 form is completed by new patients when registering with a GP surgery. The DS1500 form is completed by a doctor for patients with a terminal illness, allowing them to apply for certain benefits.
Prescription Charges in England: Who is Eligible for Free Prescriptions?
In England, prescription charges apply to most medications, but certain groups of people are entitled to free prescriptions. These include children under 16, those aged 16-18 in full-time education, the elderly (aged 60 or over), and individuals who receive income support or jobseeker’s allowance. Additionally, patients with a prescription exemption certificate are exempt from prescription charges.
Certain medications are also exempt from prescription charges, such as contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications administered by a GP.
Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year, as well as individuals with certain chronic medical conditions, are eligible for a prescription exemption certificate. These conditions include hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, and certain types of cancer.
For patients who are not eligible for free prescriptions but receive frequent prescriptions, a pre-payment certificate (PPC) may be a cost-effective option. PPCs are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. He is otherwise well and takes no other medication. He has some bloods taken at his annual review, including for thyroid function. His thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 0.1 mU/L, free thyroxine (T4) 21 pmol/l and triiodothyronine (T3) 4.3 pmol/l. Repeat testing shows similar results. His thyroid gland is not enlarged or tender.
Which of the following conditions is this patient most at risk from?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Subclinical Hyperthyroidism: Risks and Treatment Recommendations
Subclinical hyperthyroidism is characterized by persistently low TSH levels of less than 0.4 mU/L with normal T4 and T3 levels. This condition has been associated with an increased risk of atrial fibrillation, particularly in elderly populations. Studies have reported a 13% incidence of atrial fibrillation in subclinical hyperthyroidism compared to 2% in controls. Additionally, there is evidence of decreased bone mineral density, especially in postmenopausal women. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends referral to an endocrinologist for persistent subclinical hyperthyroidism. Treatment is usually offered to those with a TSH level persistently equal to or less than 0.1 mU/L, aged 65 years or older, postmenopausal, at risk of osteoporosis, have cardiac risk factors, or have any symptoms of hyperthyroidism. However, there is no evidence of changes in mood or cognitive function in patients with subclinical hyperthyroidism. It is important to note that subclinical hyperthyroidism doesn’t lead to hypothyroidism or thyroid cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is admitted with a six-week history of proximal muscle weakness. He has been having difficulty climbing stairs and getting up from a sitting position in a chair. He says his alcohol intake is 40 units per week.
Which of the following results is most likely to point to a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abnormal liver function tests and macrocytosis
Explanation:Understanding Proximal Myopathy and its Possible Causes
Proximal myopathy is a condition characterized by weakness in the muscles closest to the body’s core. One possible cause of this condition is alcohol excess, which can lead to abnormal liver function tests and macrocytosis. Patients may underestimate or hide their alcohol consumption levels, making it important for healthcare providers to ask about this history. Chronic myopathy involves a gradual progression, while acute myopathy may follow binge drinking and result in acute renal tubular necrosis.
Thyrotoxicosis and hypothyroidism can also cause proximal myopathy. An elevated TSH and normal free-thyroxine levels may suggest sub-clinical hypothyroidism. Cushing syndrome, indicated by failure to suppress the 0900 h serum cortisol level after an overnight dexamethasone suppression test, can also cause proximal myopathy.
While hypercalcaemia is not a common cause of proximal myopathy, osteomalacia can lead to this condition. Osteomalacia is characterized by low calcium and raised alkaline phosphatase. Rare reports suggest that hyperparathyroidism may also cause proximal myopathy.
High vitamin B12 levels are not typically associated with proximal myopathy. In fact, low vitamin B12 levels, such as those seen in pernicious anaemia, can cause neurological symptoms like peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Excessive alcohol consumption can deplete B12 levels. Understanding the possible causes of proximal myopathy can help healthcare providers diagnose and treat this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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You are phoned for advice by the husband of a patient of yours. Your patient is a 65-year-old lady who has Addison's disease and she has fallen down stairs and is unable to get up.
Her husband says that her left lower leg is swollen, bruised, and deformed. She is in pain and cannot get up. There was no loss of consciousness and there is no vomiting. He has phoned 999 for an ambulance, which is on its way, but in the meantime, he would like advice about her steroids.
What would you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately
Explanation:Sick Day Rules for Addison’s Disease
The sick day rules for Addison’s disease are important to know and follow. In the case of a major injury, it is crucial to take 20 mg of Hydrocortisone immediately to prevent shock. If a patient has a fever of more than 37.5 C or an infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics, they should double their normal dose of hydrocortisone. For severe nausea with a headache, taking 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally and sipping rehydration/electrolyte fluids (e.g. Dioralyte) is recommended. In the event of vomiting, the emergency injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone should be used immediately, followed by calling a doctor and stating Addison’s emergency. It is also important to inform any medical professionals, such as anaesthetists, surgical teams, dentists, or endoscopists, of the need for extra oral medication and to check the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover. By following these guidelines, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition and prevent potentially life-threatening situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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As a GPST1 in general practice, you encounter a 37-year-old woman who comes to your clinic seeking advice. She was recently diagnosed with premature menopause and has been advised to undergo hormone replacement therapy (HRT) until she reaches the age of 49. However, she expresses some concerns about this and wishes to know the reason behind the recommended treatment. How would you explain this to the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduces the risk of cardiovascular disease and prevents osteoporosis
Explanation:For women who experience premature menopause or premature ovarian insufficiency (POI), it is recommended to continue hormone replacement therapy (HRT) until the age of 50. POI is diagnosed in women under 40 who have experienced amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea for at least four months and have a raised FSH level of over 40 IU/L measured on two occasions four to six weeks apart. Women with POI are at a higher risk of cardiovascular disease, osteoporosis, and cognitive impairment. HRT is prescribed to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and prevent osteoporosis, unless contraindicated. However, HRT doesn’t reduce the risk of breast cancer or endometrial cancer and may increase the risk of breast cancer if used after natural menopause, which occurs around the age of 50.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
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- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with pain in her lower back and pelvis that is worse at night and affecting her mobility. Her blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 129 g/L (115-165), white cell count of 9.7 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 220 ×109/L (150-400), MCV of 91.2 fL (76-96), bilirubin of 14 μmol/L (3-17), alanine aminotransferase of 38 U/L (3-48), alkaline phosphatase of 1134 (20-140), gamma glutamyl transferase of 42 (3-60), corrected calcium of 2.38 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 18 mm/1st hr (<20). What is the likely underlying diagnosis based on these initial blood test results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease
Paget’s disease is a condition that affects bone metabolism, leading to abnormal bone remodelling. This results in bone enlargement, deformity, pain, and weakness. The incidence of this disease increases with age and is often detected incidentally in asymptomatic patients through blood tests that show a significantly raised alkaline phosphatase level, with normal calcium and phosphate levels. However, those who are symptomatic often report pain as an initial symptom.
As the disease progresses, it can cause bony deformities, pathological fractures, sensorineural deafness, and high output cardiac failure. Treatment for Paget’s disease involves the use of bisphosphonates.
Other conditions that may cause an isolated raised serum alkaline phosphatase level include myeloma, osteoporosis, and primary hyperparathyroidism. However, these conditions have different clinical presentations and laboratory findings. Therefore, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and other laboratory results when making a diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes associated with obesity would like to participate in an exercise program.
Which of the following would be a relative contraindication to him exercising?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Exercise Recommendations for Different Diabetic Complications
Untreated diabetic proliferative retinopathy can lead to haemorrhage, which is why patients with this condition should avoid strenuous exercise until they have received photocoagulation therapy. On the other hand, exercise is actually encouraged for patients with peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. It is important to understand the different exercise recommendations for various diabetic complications in order to promote optimal health and prevent further complications. By following these guidelines, patients can improve their overall well-being and reduce their risk of developing additional health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 182
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 50-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She is currently undergoing chemotherapy. She presents to you with a 3-week history of constipation and nausea. Samantha has been struggling to cope and has been feeling increasingly sad and depressed. She has also noticed that her arms and legs have been aching more than usual. You order a routine set of blood tests:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 110 g/L
Platelets: 320 * 109/L
White blood cells (WBC): 3.8 * 109/L
Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L
Potassium (K+): 4.5 mmol/L
Urea: 5.9 mmol/L
Creatinine: 75 µmol/L
Corrected calcium (Ca2+): 3.1 mmol/L
Albumin: 32 g/L
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 95 U/L
Phosphate: 1.1 mmol/L
What would be the most appropriate course of action for Samantha's management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit immediately
Explanation:Fred is experiencing symptomatic metastatic hypercalcaemia, which requires immediate admission for intravenous fluids and bisphosphonate therapy according to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS). The symptoms of hypercalcaemia can be nonspecific and include bone pain, fractures, drowsiness, muscle weakness, impaired concentration, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, constipation, renal colic, hypertension, and itching, among others. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia can lead to serious complications such as renal impairment, cardiac arrhythmias, and even coma. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential to prevent further harm.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia can be managed through various methods. The first step is to rehydrate the patient with normal saline, usually at a rate of 3-4 litres per day. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates can be administered. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximum effect seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option that can be used for quicker effect than bisphosphonates. In cases of sarcoidosis, steroids may also be used. However, loop diuretics such as furosemide should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion. They are typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates, calcitonin, or steroids in certain cases. Loop diuretics may also be used, but with caution. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department from her workplace, for the second time in the span of three months, after experiencing a syncopal episode. She also reported feeling extremely fatigued for the past few months and having bouts of dizziness. Upon examination, she appeared slender and sun-kissed, with a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg while lying down, but it dropped to 87/63 mmHg upon standing. Her baseline serum cortisol was low (<100 nmol/l) and her free thyroxine (T4) level was also low.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for the clinical presentation described above? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hypoadrenalism
Explanation:Diagnosis of Primary Hypoadrenalism: A Case Study
A woman presents with a marked postural drop in blood pressure, increased pigmentation, and low cortisol levels, indicating primary hypoadrenalism as the most likely diagnosis. The high adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level causes pigmentation, and autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands is responsible for 80% of cases. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common in established cases. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends hospital admission for serum cortisol levels below 100 nmol/l and referral to an endocrinologist for levels between 100 and 500 nmol/l. Hypovolemia, HIV, hypothyroidism, and psychiatric symptoms are unlikely causes based on the case history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 184
Incorrect
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According to NICE guidance on lipid modification (CG181), in which of the following elderly patients would you use a QRISK2 risk assessment tool to decide whether or not to initiate treatment with a lipid-lowering agent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 48-year-old man with established CVD
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Lipid Modification
The NICE guidance on lipid modification (CG181) provides advice on assessing cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk for primary prevention. The guidance recommends using the QRISK2 risk assessment tool to assess CVD risk in individuals up to and including age 84 years. However, the tool should not be used for people with type 1 diabetes or those with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2 and/or albuminuria, as they are already at increased risk of CVD. For people with type 2 diabetes, the QRISK2 tool should be used to assess CVD risk. It is also important to note that a risk assessment tool should not be used for individuals who are at high risk of developing CVD due to familial hypercholesterolaemia or other inherited disorders of lipid metabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about hypocalcaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The commonest cause in primary care is vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency and Treatment in Hypoparathyroidism
Vitamin D deficiency is a common problem, especially in the elderly, with up to 50% of individuals affected. The majority of vitamin D in the body is synthesized in the skin, with only a small amount coming from the diet. Breastfeeding mothers with low vitamin D levels may lead to hypocalcemia in their children, as breast milk has poor penetration of vitamin D. Patients on antiepileptic drugs and those with small intestinal malabsorption, such as celiac disease, are also at risk for vitamin D deficiency.
Chvostek’s sign, which is facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve is tapped, and Trousseau’s sign, which involves inflating a blood pressure cuff, are used to diagnose hypocalcemia. Vitamin D requires hydroxylation by the kidney to become active, and the synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D is PTH-dependent. In patients with chronic hypoparathyroidism, treatment with the active vitamin D form, such as alfacalcidol or calcitriol, is necessary. Ergocalciferol may also be used, but higher doses may be required to achieve normocalcemia. Understanding vitamin D deficiency and its treatment is crucial in managing hypoparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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Which of the following secondary causes of hyperlipidaemia lead to mainly hypercholesterolaemia instead of hypertriglyceridaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Secondary Causes of Hyperlipidaemia
Hyperlipidaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of lipids (fats) in the blood. There are two main types of hyperlipidaemia: hypertriglyceridaemia, which is characterized by high levels of triglycerides, and hypercholesterolaemia, which is characterized by high levels of cholesterol. While primary hyperlipidaemia is caused by genetic factors, secondary hyperlipidaemia is caused by underlying medical conditions or lifestyle factors.
Predominantly hypertriglyceridaemia can be caused by a variety of factors, including diabetes mellitus (types 1 and 2), obesity, alcohol consumption, chronic renal failure, certain medications such as thiazides and non-selective beta-blockers, and liver disease. On the other hand, predominantly hypercholesterolaemia can be caused by conditions such as nephrotic syndrome, cholestasis, and hypothyroidism.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of hyperlipidaemia in order to effectively manage the condition. Lifestyle modifications such as a healthy diet and regular exercise, as well as medications such as statins, can help to lower lipid levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a sodium level of 127 mmol/l. She doesn't smoke. Which medication is the most probable cause of this abnormality?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glimepiride
Explanation:SIADH is a well-known side effect of sulfonylureas like glimepiride.
SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by various factors such as malignancy (particularly small cell lung cancer), neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections like tuberculosis or pneumonia, certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs, and other factors like positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment involves slowly correcting the sodium levels, restricting fluid intake, and using medications like demeclocycline or ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to correct the sodium levels slowly to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old retired carpenter visits his GP seeking strong pain relief for his lower back pain. He has been experiencing the pain for six weeks and saw another GP two weeks ago who advised him to take regular Paracetamol and Ibuprofen with PPI cover. During his previous visit, a PR exam was conducted, which was normal, and a PSA blood test was within the normal range. He reports feeling more tired than usual and complains of persistent nausea, but otherwise feels well. On examination, his observations are within the normal range, and there is no specific bony tenderness. His spine has a normal range of movement, and no focal neurology is detected. Based on NICE guidelines for suspected cancer, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer a FBC, Calcium, Plasma viscosity or ESR to assess for myeloma
Explanation:According to the latest NICE Guidelines for suspected cancer (June 2015), individuals aged 60 and above with persistent bone pain, particularly back pain, or unexplained fracture should be offered a FBC, calcium and plasma viscosity or ESR to assess for myeloma. Additionally, those with hypercalcaemia or leukopenia and a presentation that is consistent with possible myeloma should be offered very urgent protein electrophoresis and a Bence Jones protein urine test within 48 hours. In cases where the plasma viscosity or ESR and presentation are consistent with possible myeloma, very urgent protein electrophoresis and a Bence Jones protein urine test should be considered. If the results of protein electrophoresis or a Bence Jones protein urine test suggest myeloma, referral should be made within 2 weeks. These guidelines have been updated in 2015.
Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is most commonly found in patients aged 60-70 years. The disease is characterized by a range of symptoms, which can be remembered using the mnemonic CRABBI. These include hypercalcemia, renal damage, anemia, bleeding, bone lesions, and increased susceptibility to infection. Other features of multiple myeloma include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, a range of investigations are required. Blood tests can reveal anemia, renal failure, and hypercalcemia. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised levels of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum, while bone marrow aspiration can confirm the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can be used to detect osteolytic lesions.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include the presence of plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, or elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, or low levels of antibodies in the blood. Understanding the features and investigations of multiple myeloma is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue and unexplained weight gain. During the physical examination, a diffuse, painless goitre is observed. The following blood tests are conducted:
TSH 15.1 mU/l
Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
ESR 14 mm/hr
Anti-TSH receptor stimulating antibodies Negative
Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies Positive
Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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You are a pediatrician who is visiting a children's hospital. A new patient is admitted and the nurse is looking through his medications which he has brought with him from home. The patient is a 10-year-old with type 1 diabetes and on his insulin box it says 'insulin lispro (Rapid-acting analogue)', unfortunately the instructions for administration have rubbed out.
The nurse asks you how insulin lispro is usually administered:
Given just prior to meal
46%
Given just after meal
9%
Given 30 minutes before meal
31%
Given 30 minutes after meal
6%
Given only if blood sugar is found to be greater than 10mmol/L
7%
Insulin lispro is a fast acting insulin analogue. Its levels peak 0-3 hours after injection and last 2-5 hours. It should therefore be given just prior to meals.
The April 2015 AKT feedback report stated:
Diabetes and prediabetes are increasingly common, and we frequently feed back concerning lack of knowledge in these areas?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Given just prior to meal
Explanation:Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analog that reaches its peak levels within 0-3 hours of injection and remains effective for 2-5 hours. As a result, it should be administered immediately before meals.
Understanding Insulin Therapy
Insulin therapy has been a game-changer in the management of diabetes mellitus since its development in the 1920s. It remains the only available treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) and is widely used in type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) when oral hypoglycemic agents fail to provide adequate control. However, understanding the different types of insulin can be overwhelming, and it is crucial to have a basic grasp to avoid potential harm to patients.
Insulin can be classified by manufacturing process, duration of action, and type of insulin analogues. Patients often require a combination of preparations to ensure stable glycemic control throughout the day. Rapid-acting insulin analogues act faster and have a shorter duration of action than soluble insulin and may be used as the bolus dose in ‘basal-bolus’ regimens. Short-acting insulins, such as Actrapid and Humulin S, may also be used as the bolus dose in ‘basal-bolus’ regimens. Intermediate-acting insulins, like isophane insulin, are often used in a premixed formulation with long-acting insulins, such as insulin determir and insulin glargine, given once or twice daily. Premixed preparations combine intermediate-acting insulin with either a rapid-acting insulin analogue or soluble insulin.
The vast majority of patients administer insulin subcutaneously, and it is essential to rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy. Insulin pumps are available, which delivers a continuous basal infusion and a patient-activated bolus dose at meal times. Intravenous insulin is used for patients who are acutely unwell, such as those with diabetic ketoacidosis. Inhaled insulin is available but not widely used, and oral insulin analogues are in development but have considerable technical hurdles to clear. Overall, understanding insulin therapy is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care for patients with diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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