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Question 1
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy, who has a known severe allergy to peanuts, comes to the emergency room after accidentally eating a peanut butter sandwich. He reports feeling itchy all over and his lips are starting to swell. He is having difficulty breathing and feels like he might pass out. His mother is in a panic, saying that she remembers a similar incident when he was younger.
What is the initial treatment option that should be considered in this case?Your Answer: Administer 0.5 ml of 1 in 1000 adrenaline by IM injection
Explanation:Anaphylaxis in General Practice: Importance of Emergency Knowledge
There are few life-threatening situations that GPs encounter in their daily practice, but anaphylaxis is one of them. The RCGP emphasizes the need for examination candidates to be proficient in their knowledge of life-threatening emergencies such as this. An example of anaphylaxis could be a bee sting, medicine, or immunization reaction.
Prompt injection of adrenaline is of paramount importance, and the preferred route of administration should be intramuscular. Other treatments may be supplemented, but adrenaline is the preferred first-line treatment. Chlorphenamine could be given by slow intravenous injection as an adjunctive treatment, as would be inhaled bronchodilators. Intravenous hydrocortisone is of secondary value because the onset of action is too slow compared to adrenaline.
To issue a prescription for anything would be wholly inappropriate. This patient needs immediate treatment. Oral treatments are too slow in their action. Although we have not tested your wider knowledge of her management in this question, it is important to remember your basic resuscitation skills.
It is crucial to carry emergency drugs in your doctor’s bag and know the correct dose of adrenaline to administer. Most vials of adrenaline come as 1 in 1000, but a 1 in 10,000 ampoule is available and this could lead to errors. It is essential to check the drug bag and ensure that all medications are within date. In case of an anaphylactic reaction to an immunization in a baby, the correct dose of adrenaline should be known.
In conclusion, anaphylaxis is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt and appropriate treatment. GPs should be proficient in their knowledge of emergency management and carry emergency drugs in their doctor’s bag.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of progressive tiredness. She has been working alternative night and day shifts for many months. In the last two months she has experienced intermittent constipation. She reports that her diet is not great because of these awkward shift patterns but that she doesn't restrict it. She thinks she may have lost a small amount of weight over this period. Her legs ache after a long shift and that the tan she obtained in the summer seems to have lingered.
She has no significant previous illness and doesn't take any regular medications.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 222 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 4.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.8 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 56 µmol/l 45–84 µmol/l
Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/l 9–24 pmol/l
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.2 mU/l 0.4–4.0 mU/l
Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 39 mmol/mol < 41 mmol/mol
Ferritin 50 ng/ml 10–300 ng/ml
Glucose 5.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Addison's disease
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with fatigue, weight loss, and electrolyte abnormalities
Addison’s disease: The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the adrenal glands and leads to a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. The gradual onset of symptoms, including fatigue, weight loss, muscle aches, constipation, and hyperpigmentation, along with mild hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, are consistent with this diagnosis.
Subclinical hypothyroidism: Although the patient has some symptoms that could be attributed to low thyroid hormone levels, her thyroid function tests are normal, making this diagnosis less likely.
Dietary related hyponatremia: Mild hyponatremia in a young person is unlikely to be caused by dietary differences or deficiency, suggesting a pathological process.
Renal disease: While electrolyte abnormalities could be a sign of renal insufficiency, the patient’s normal urea and creatinine levels make this diagnosis less likely.
Cushing’s disease: Although some symptoms, such as fatigue and muscle weakness, could be attributed to excess cortisol, other expected symptoms, such as weight gain and high blood sugar, are not present in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review after undergoing a renal transplant three months ago. The GP notes that the patient's medication was changed following the transplant, with the addition of immunosuppressant medication. What is the most probable immunosuppressive drug regimen for this patient?
Your Answer: Basiliximab
Correct Answer: Mycophenolatemofetil (MMF), prednisolone, tacrolimus
Explanation:After a renal transplant, patients require immunosuppressive drugs to prevent rejection. There are four classes of maintenance drugs: calcineurin inhibitors, antiproliferative agents, mammalian target of rapamycin inhibitors, and steroids. Mycophenolate mofetil is a cost-efficient antiproliferative agent that reduces the risk of acute rejection by 50%. Prednisolone is a steroid that is typically used in low doses and gradually reduced over several months. Azathioprine may also be used in initial therapy, but a calcineurin inhibitor is necessary. Basiliximab may be used for induction therapy within four days of the transplant. Ciclosporin and prednisolone are both used for maintenance immunosuppression, but require an antiproliferative agent to complete the regimen. Sirolimus may be used with a corticosteroid in patients intolerant of calcineurin inhibitors, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She has been experiencing occasional itchy rashes. He decided to eliminate all nuts from her diet and the rashes have disappeared. However, she recently had an episode of vomiting, so he also removed milk from her diet. He has been giving her antihistamines regularly. He is curious if she can undergo a blood test for allergies.
What is the most suitable advice you can provide him?Your Answer: The test is more sensitive than skin testing
Correct Answer: It is indicated for a child who has a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts
Explanation:Understanding IgE Immunoassay Testing for Peanut Allergies
IgE immunoassay testing is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate hypersensitivity to various allergens, including peanuts. This test is particularly useful for children who have a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts. IgE produced by B cells in response to specific antigens binds to receptors on mast cells, triggering an immediate (type I) response that can lead to anaphylaxis, urticaria, bronchospasm, and other symptoms.
Compared to skin-prick testing, IgE immunoassay testing is more sensitive and doesn’t carry the risk of anaphylaxis. However, it can give false-negative results in patients who have true IgE-mediated disease, as confirmed by skin testing or allergen challenge. Therefore, it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes.
A positive IgE immunoassay test indicates past sensitization to an allergen, but it doesn’t necessarily mean that the patient has clinically relevant disease. Some patients may show positive results but no symptoms associated with that allergen. Therefore, the history is more important in making a diagnosis.
It is important to note that IgE immunoassay testing cannot be used if a patient is taking antihistamines. However, it is a useful diagnostic tool for patients on long-term corticosteroids, although data are conflicting.
In summary, IgE immunoassay testing is a valuable diagnostic tool for peanut allergies, but it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes. A positive test supports the diagnosis of peanut allergy, but the history is more important.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 5
Correct
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As part of a tutorial on pruritus, you plan to use cases from both yourself and GP registrars who frequently prescribe antihistamines for itchy conditions. Your goal is to determine the scenario in which a non-sedating antihistamine would be most effective. Please select the ONE option that best fits this scenario.
Your Answer: A 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria
Explanation:Antihistamines: Uses and Limitations in Various Skin Conditions
Urticaria, Chickenpox, atopic eczema, local reactions to insect stings, and general pruritus are common skin conditions that may benefit from antihistamines. However, the effectiveness of antihistamines varies depending on the underlying cause and the individual’s response.
For a 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria, non-sedating H1 antihistamines are the first-line treatment. If the first antihistamine is not effective, a second one may be tried.
A 4-year-old girl with Chickenpox may benefit from emollients and sedating antihistamines to relieve pruritus. Calamine lotion may also be used, but its effectiveness decreases as it dries.
Antihistamines are not routinely recommended for atopic eczema, but a non-sedating antihistamine may be tried for a month in severe cases or when there is severe itching or urticaria. Sedating antihistamines may be used for sleep disturbance.
For a 50-year-old woman with a local reaction to a wasp sting, antihistamines are most effective when used immediately after the sting. After 48 hours, they are unlikely to have a significant impact on the local reaction.
Finally, for a 65-year-old man with general pruritus but no rash, antihistamines may be prescribed, but their effectiveness is limited as histamine may not be the main cause of the pruritus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man contacts the General Practitioner out of hours service for advice. He had a renal transplant five months ago. His family had a viral illness last week, which they managed with self-care and over the counter medications. He now complains of feeling unwell for the past three days. He reports feeling tired, with a fever and a headache and a mild sore throat. He can eat and drink and he has no rash.
You suspect that he may be experiencing an acute renal transplant rejection.
Which of the following signs or symptom would you most expect to see?Your Answer: Fever
Correct Answer: Lower limb swelling
Explanation:Symptoms of Acute Renal Transplant Rejection
Acute renal transplant rejection can occur after a kidney transplant and is characterized by reduced urine output, leading to oliguria and water retention. This can result in swelling of the limbs or abdomen and face. Malaise and fatigue are common symptoms, but they are also present in upper respiratory tract infections. Fever may also be present, but it is a nonspecific symptom found in many infections. Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is not typically seen in acute renal transplant rejection. Headache is a nonspecific symptom and may be present in both acute infections and graft rejection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels itchy and has red blotchy skin and swollen lips and eyelids. He has an inspiratory stridor and wheeze, and an apex beat of 120/minute. He feels faint on standing and his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg.
Select from the list the single most important immediate management option.Your Answer: Adrenaline intramuscular injection
Explanation:Understanding Anaphylactic Reactions and Emergency Treatment
Anaphylactic reactions occur when an allergen triggers specific IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, leading to the rapid release of histamine and other mediators. This can cause capillary leakage, mucosal edema, shock, and asphyxia. The severity and rate of progression of anaphylactic reactions can vary, and there may be a history of previous sensitivity to an allergen or recent exposure to a drug.
Prompt administration of adrenaline and resuscitation measures are crucial in treating anaphylaxis. Antihistamines are now considered a third-line intervention and should not be used to treat Airway/Breathing/Circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilization, especially in patients with persisting skin symptoms. Corticosteroids are no longer advised for the routine emergency treatment of anaphylaxis.
The incidence of anaphylaxis is increasing, and it is not always recognized. It is important to understand the causes and emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions to ensure prompt and effective care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has recently arrived from Lithuania and registered with your practice. Lithuania is a country with an incidence of more than 40 per 100000 of tuberculosis. Mantoux testing has been carried out to screen for latent tuberculosis. It is unclear if she has ever had BCG immunisation and there are no scars suggestive of this. After 3 days the diameter of induration is 10 mm.
Select from the list the single most correct management option.Your Answer: Chest X-ray
Correct Answer: Interferon γ (IGT) blood test
Explanation:Detecting latent tuberculosis is crucial in controlling the disease, as up to 15% of adults with latent tuberculosis may develop active disease, and the risk may be even higher in children. In immunocompromised individuals, such as those who are HIV positive, the chance of developing active disease within 5 years of latent infection is up to 50%. The Mantoux test is a method of detecting previous exposure to the tuberculosis organism or BCG vaccination by causing a cell-mediated immune reaction. The interpretation of the test depends on factors such as BCG vaccination history, immune status, and concurrent viral infection. While a negative test in HIV-positive patients doesn’t exclude tuberculosis, a positive test at certain thresholds can indicate the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis. Indeterminate results may require further evaluation by a specialist. The use of IGT as a surrogate marker of infection can be useful in evaluating latent tuberculosis in BCG-vaccinated individuals, but it cannot distinguish between latent infection and active disease. NICE recommends different testing strategies based on age and risk factors, but the benefits of IGT over the Mantoux test in determining the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis are not certain. In children under 5 years, a positive test requires referral to a specialist to exclude active disease and consideration of treatment of latent tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department with facial swelling that he has had for 2 hours. He started taking a new medication yesterday. During the examination, his lips are found to be swollen. His blood pressure is 128/76 mmHg and his pulse is 70 beats per minute. He reports no breathing difficulties or stridor.
What medication could be responsible for this reaction?Your Answer: Amlodipine
Correct Answer: Valsartan
Explanation:Angioedema, a condition characterized by swelling under the skin, can be caused by various allergens as well as certain medications such as ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs. antihistamines are a common treatment option depending on the underlying cause. However, the medications listed other than ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs are not known to cause angioedema.
Understanding Angioedema: Causes and Treatment
Angioedema is a condition characterized by swelling beneath the skin, which can be caused by different allergens. The treatment for this condition varies depending on the underlying cause, but it often involves the use of antihistamines. Angioedema can be triggered by a variety of factors, including food allergies, insect bites, medication reactions, and genetic factors. The swelling can occur in different parts of the body, such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and hands. In some cases, angioedema can be life-threatening, especially if it affects the airways and causes difficulty breathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has recently developed symmetrical polyarthritis affecting the small joints of the hands and feet.
Which of the following tests is most likely to contribute to a definitive diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer: Antinuclear antibody
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Explanation:Autoantibodies and their Association with Autoimmune Diseases
Autoantibodies are antibodies that target the body’s own tissues and cells. They are often associated with autoimmune diseases, which occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues. Here are some common autoantibodies and their association with autoimmune diseases:
1. Rheumatoid factor: This autoantibody is found in 60-70% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and in 5% of the general population. It may also be elevated in other autoimmune diseases. Testing for rheumatoid factor is recommended in people with suspected RA who have synovitis on clinical examination.
2. Antinuclear antibody: This autoantibody binds to the contents of the cell nucleus. It is present in almost all people with systemic lupus erythematosus and is also found in patients with other autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, Sjögren’s syndrome, polymyositis, and certain forms of chronic active hepatitis.
3. Antimitochondrial antibody: This autoantibody is present in 90-95% of patients with autoimmune liver disease, primary biliary cholangitis, and also in 0.5% of the general population. It is also found in about 35% of patients with primary biliary cirrhosis.
4. Antiphospholipid antibodies: These autoantibodies are associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, an autoimmune, hypercoagulable state that can cause arterial and venous thrombosis as well as pregnancy-related complications such as miscarriage, stillbirth, preterm delivery, and severe preeclampsia.
5. HLA-B27 antigen: This antigen is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, as well as other diseases such as psoriasis, reactive arthritis, and inflammatory bowel disease. Its prevalence varies in the general population according to racial type.
In conclusion, autoantibodies can provide important diagnostic and prognostic information in autoimmune diseases. Testing for these antibodies can help healthcare providers make accurate diagnoses and develop effective treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with fatigue, fever, sweating (especially at night), aching joints and headaches. On examination, there are no focal signs.
Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
Explanation:Common Infections in Kidney Transplant Patients
Kidney transplant patients are at a higher risk of infections due to immunosuppression. In the first month post-transplant, infections are similar to those in non-immunosuppressed individuals. However, in the one-month to six-month period, immunomodulating viruses like Cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex viruses, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus-6, hepatitis A, B and C viruses, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are most problematic. influenza can also cause respiratory symptoms, but routine annual administration of the injectable inactivated vaccine is recommended. Herpes simplex virus can cause severe lesions and even disseminated or visceral disease. Pneumonia and urinary infections are also common, and patients should receive appropriate immunisation and prophylactic antibiotics and antiviral drugs for a few months after transplantation. A small group of patients may experience persistence of viral infections and are at risk of opportunistic infections like cryptococcus, pneumocystis, listeria, and nocardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 12
Correct
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A father visits you in general practice with concerns about his 2-year-old daughter who has biliary atresia. He has been informed by the paediatric gastroenterologist that her condition has deteriorated and she requires a liver transplant. The father is feeling anxious and upset and is seeking further information about the procedure. As his GP, what is the best advice you can provide him regarding liver transplantation?
Your Answer: The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C
Explanation:Myth-busting Facts about Pediatric Liver Transplantation
Pediatric liver transplantation is a complex medical procedure that involves replacing a diseased liver with a healthy one from a donor. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this life-saving surgery. Here are some myth-busting facts about pediatric liver transplantation:
– The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C: A potential living donor with antibodies to hepatitis B and C would usually be ruled out as a donor.
– HLA matching is necessary for kidney, heart, and lung transplants, but not for liver transplants: Blood-group compatibility is necessary, and a relative is more likely to be a match.
– Immunosuppression is usually required for life, not just 12 months after transplant: While the regimen can be reduced with time, complete withdrawal is only successful in a small number of individuals.
– Prednisolone is not the only immunosuppressant needed after transplant: A combination of drugs, including prednisolone, ciclosporin, tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine, and sirolimus, are commonly used.
– Survival at one year after liver transplantation is higher than 50% in children: One-year survival is 80% for all children transplanted and may reach 90% for children with biliary atresia.It is important to dispel these myths and provide accurate information about pediatric liver transplantation to help families make informed decisions about their child’s health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her fingers. She has a history of mild asthma, which is managed with a salbutamol inhaler, and a known allergy to co-trimoxazole. Her blood tests reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and an anti-CCP antibody level of 150u/ml (normal range < 20u/ml). Which medication could potentially trigger an allergic reaction in this patient?
Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine. However, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide, and methotrexate are all viable options for first-line disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs for rheumatoid arthritis in this patient. Sarilumab may also be considered, but only if the patient has not responded well to other medications and has a disease activity score of over 5.1.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of persistent urticaria, which he has experienced over the last six months. He obtains relief by taking antihistamine tablets. He takes no other medications and has restricted his diet to fresh food in an attempt to reduce the histamine exposure in his diet. He has not been in contact with any new chemicals or materials.
What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer: An autoimmune response
Explanation:Understanding the Different Causes of Urticaria
Urticaria, commonly known as hives, can be caused by a variety of factors. It can be idiopathic, immunological, or non-immunological. Chronic urticaria is diagnosed when a patient experiences daily or episodic wheals for at least six weeks. Histamine-releasing autoantibodies are present in at least 30% of patients with chronic urticaria. Contact urticaria is a rapid, localised reaction to certain triggering substances. Pseudoallergens, such as certain drugs or food additives, can aggravate wheals in any form of urticaria. Type I hypersensitivity reactions, which are immunoglobulin E mediated, can cause acute urticaria. Type IV hypersensitivity and contact irritant effects are seen in contact allergic dermatitis and contact irritant dermatitis. Understanding the different causes of urticaria can help in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 9-year-old girl who complains of throat itching and mild swelling of her lips after consuming a mango. She has no other symptoms and no breathing difficulties. She has noticed similar symptoms after eating various fruits during the summer. Samantha has a history of hay fever and takes regular antihistamines. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anaphylaxis
Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Oral allergy syndrome is closely associated with pollen allergies and exhibits seasonal fluctuations. It occurs when allergens in certain foods cross-react with pollens, causing the body to react to the food proteins as if they were pollen. This results in a localized reaction around the mouth, such as an itchy mouth or throat, and sometimes hives. As the patient experiences symptoms with various fruits, it is not a pure kiwi allergy. Urticaria is characterized by an itchy rash triggered by an allergen, but there is no mention of a rash in this case. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that causes swelling of the throat and tongue, as well as breathing difficulties. However, since there is only mild lip swelling and no breathing difficulties, anaphylaxis is unlikely.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a corneal transplant. What is the most indicative sign of graft rejection?
Your Answer: Eye pain and an area of fluorescein staining on the cornea
Correct Answer: Red eye, corneal clouding and decreased visual acuity
Explanation:postoperative Complications Following Corneal Transplant Surgery
Corneal transplant surgery is a common procedure used to treat various eye conditions. However, like any surgery, it can have complications. Here are some postoperative complications that may occur following corneal transplant surgery:
1. Corneal Graft Rejection: This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the transplanted cornea. Symptoms include a red eye, corneal clouding, with or without uveitis, and decreased visual acuity. Treatment involves urgent referral and the use of topical and systemic steroids.
2. Early Graft Failure: This is usually due to defective donor endothelium or operative trauma. Symptoms include a red eye and decreased visual acuity.
3. Positive Seidel’s Test: This test is used to identify a penetrating injury. A positive test would show a wound leak after transplant surgery. Treatment involves urgent referral and surgical intervention.
4. Corneal Abrasion: Epithelial defects giving symptoms and signs of a corneal abrasion (pain and fluorescein staining) may occur in the postoperative period.
5. Protruding Sutures: A red eye with an associated foreign body sensation in the postoperative period might be produced by protruding sutures.
6. Watery Discharge: A watery discharge on its own doesn’t suggest graft rejection.
In conclusion, it is important to be aware of these potential complications and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Early detection and treatment can improve the chances of a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent cough that has lasted for the last four weeks, with breathlessness at rest. He sometimes does casual work as a labourer, but he is finding that he is unable to keep up with this work due to his breathlessness and generally feels fatigued and 'not well'.
On further questioning, he reports night sweats and weight loss over the past 4-6 weeks. He is a non-smoker and is not on regular medication. He requests a course of antibiotics to make his cough better so he can get back to work.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Tuberculosis (TB)
Explanation:Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Differential Diagnosis of a Persistent Cough
A persistent cough can be a symptom of various respiratory conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. In the case of a homeless patient from Romania, the most likely diagnosis is pulmonary tuberculosis (TB), given the patient’s risk factors and symptoms of weight loss, night sweats, malaise, and breathlessness. To investigate this, three sputum samples and a chest X-ray should be arranged.
While lung cancer can also present with similar symptoms, the patient’s young age and non-smoking status make this less likely. Asthma is unlikely given the absence of environmental triggers and the presence of additional symptoms. Bronchiectasis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it is characterized by copious mucopurulent sputum production, which is not described in this case. Pulmonary fibrosis is rare in patients under 50 years old and doesn’t typically present with night sweats.
In summary, a persistent cough can be indicative of various respiratory conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 20-year-old woman with oral allergy syndrome. Her primary symptoms arise when she consumes bananas. What is the most effective and straightforward way to prevent her symptoms?
Your Answer: Wash apple well prior to eating
Correct Answer: Cook the apple before eating
Explanation:To prevent oral allergy syndrome, cooking the culprit foods is the best solution as it breaks down the proteins that cause the allergy. Simply washing the food will not remove the proteins, and rinsing the mouth after eating may not be effective in preventing symptoms. It is important to avoid eating the peel as most of the allergy-inducing proteins are found in the skin. Dehydrating the food will not alter the proteins and therefore will not reduce the risk of a reaction.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Individuals with primary antibody deficiencies often experience repeated infections. What is the most common symptom observed in these individuals?
Your Answer: Gastrointestinal infection
Correct Answer: Respiratory infection
Explanation:Understanding Primary Antibody Deficiencies: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Primary antibody deficiencies refer to a group of rare disorders that affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens. These disorders may be caused by a mutation in a single gene or by multiple genetic factors, similar to diabetes. While primary antibody deficiencies are the most common forms of primary immune deficiency, other primary immune deficiencies involve defects in cellular immunity, phagocyte defects, and complement defects. It is important to distinguish primary antibody deficiencies from secondary immune deficiencies caused by factors such as malignancy, malnutrition, or immunosuppressive therapy.
Clinical history is crucial in identifying primary antibody deficiencies. Patients of any age who experience recurrent infections, particularly in the respiratory tract, should be investigated if the frequency or severity of infection is unusual or out of context. While most patients are under 20 years old, common variable immunodeficiency typically peaks in the second or third decade of life. A systematic review has found that respiratory and sinus infections are the most common presenting symptoms, followed by gastrointestinal and cutaneous infections. Meningitis, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis, and ophthalmic infections are much less common.
In summary, understanding primary antibody deficiencies is essential in diagnosing and managing patients with recurrent infections. Clinical history plays a crucial role in identifying these disorders, which can be caused by genetic factors and affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic reaction to a wasp sting. She presents to her General Practitioner (GP) a few days later as she is worried about the possibility of this happening again and is seeking advice on what she should do if it does.
What is the most appropriate initial self-management advice for this patient?Your Answer: Self-administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of adrenaline
Explanation:How to Self-Administer an Intramuscular Injection of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The most effective treatment for anaphylaxis is intramuscular (IM) adrenaline, which can be self-administered using adrenaline auto-injectors (AAIs) such as EpiPen® and Jext®.
Before using an AAI, patients should receive proper training on their use. The recommended dose of adrenaline for adults is 0.3 mg, while for children up to 25-30 kg, it is 0.15 mg. Patients should carry two doses with them at all times, as the dose may need to be repeated after 5-15 minutes.
It is important to note that a cold compress is not an effective treatment for anaphylaxis, as it is a systemic reaction. Similarly, taking an oral antihistamine should not delay treatment with IM adrenaline.
If experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to administer the IM adrenaline injection immediately and then seek medical attention. Contacting emergency services is recommended, but should not delay self-administration of the injection. Additionally, if stung by a bee, the sting should be scraped out rather than plucked to avoid squeezing more venom into the skin.
In summary, knowing how to self-administer an IM injection of adrenaline is crucial for those at risk of anaphylaxis. Proper training and carrying two doses of the medication at all times can help ensure prompt and effective treatment in case of an emergency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 21
Correct
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A worried mother brings her 10-year-old son to the general practice clinic with complaints of nasal congestion, itchy eyes and throat irritation that usually occur during the spring months. What is the best guidance to offer this mother regarding the management of her son's symptoms?
Your Answer: Avoid drying washing outdoors when pollen count is high
Explanation:Managing Seasonal Allergic Rhinitis: Tips for Reducing Pollen Exposure
Seasonal allergic rhinitis is a condition where the nasal mucosa becomes sensitized to allergens, such as pollen, causing inflammation and symptoms like sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes. To reduce pollen exposure, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends avoiding drying laundry outdoors when pollen counts are high. Showering and washing hair after potential exposure can also help alleviate symptoms. While the tree pollen season can start as early as March, there is no need to eat locally produced honey or resort to ineffective nasal irrigation with saline. By following these simple tips, individuals with seasonal allergic rhinitis can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A father brings his eight-year-old daughter to an emergency appointment at the Duty Doctor Clinic after she sustained a needlestick injury that day on her way home from school. He explains that he picked her up from school by car, and he then parked in the underground car park where they have an allocated space next to their flat.
Unfortunately, rough sleepers have been using the car park as shelter, and on getting out of the car his daughter found a needle on the floor which she picked up but accidentally pricked her finger in doing so. His dad is very concerned about her risk of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and wants to know if she should be tested.
What is the most appropriate advice to give him, regarding immediate management of this needlestick injury?Your Answer: As the needle user cannot be identified, her son should commence post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) as soon as possible (within 72 hours) to reduce the risk of HIV transmission
Correct Answer: The risk of hepatitis from a contaminated needle is greater than the risk of HIV
Explanation:Managing a Needlestick Injury: Important Considerations
A needlestick injury can be a stressful and potentially dangerous situation. Here are some important considerations to keep in mind when managing such an injury:
– The risk of hepatitis from a contaminated needle is greater than the risk of HIV. However, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) should still be considered for HIV prevention.
– If the individual has not been vaccinated against hepatitis B, an accelerated course of hepatitis B should be offered following the injury.
– Blood tests should be arranged as soon as possible for baseline virology and liver function tests. These should be repeated at three and six months.
– First aid for a needlestick injury includes encouraging bleeding and washing with soap and running water. However, there is no need to re-open the wound to encourage further bleeding.
– HIV self-test kits are available through online request platforms, but they are generally not appropriate for individuals who do not belong to a high-risk group and have had a single needlestick injury in the community.By keeping these considerations in mind, individuals can take appropriate steps to manage a needlestick injury and reduce the risk of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman comes for follow-up after experiencing a systemic reaction to a wasp sting during a picnic at the park. She reports swelling and redness at the site of the sting that had begun to spread to her face.
What is the best course of action for long-term management?Your Answer: Dispense an adrenaline auto-injector (AAI, e.g. EpiPen®), with repeat prescriptions every 3-4 months
Correct Answer: Refer for venom immunotherapy and dispense an adrenaline auto-injector (AAI, e.g. EpiPen®)
Explanation:Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 24
Correct
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What is the only true statement about allergy from the given list?
Your Answer: Allergy is more common in developed areas than rural areas
Explanation:Understanding the Causes and Patterns of Allergies
Allergies have become increasingly prevalent in recent years, affecting up to 30-35% of people at some point in their lives. This rise is seen not only in developed countries but also in those undergoing development. The causes of allergies are multifactorial, with both environmental and genetic factors playing a role. Outdoor pollution, particularly diesel exhaust particles, has been linked to an increase in respiratory allergies. The hygiene hypothesis suggests that inadequate exposure to environmental micro-organisms during childhood may result in a tendency towards allergy. This is supported by studies showing that children with regular contact with farm animals have a lower incidence of allergy. The pattern of allergy is also changing, with a significant increase in food allergies, particularly among children. Immunotherapy for allergies should only be carried out in hospital where facilities for resuscitation are immediately available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman is 18 weeks pregnant. She works as a kindergarten teacher, and two children in the kindergarten have developed Chickenpox. Her own mother is certain that she had Chickenpox as a child.
What is the most appropriate piece of advice to give in order to reassure this woman that her baby is not at risk from this Chickenpox contact?
Your Answer: The patient is at low risk of developing an infection as she is sure she had a previous Chickenpox infection
Explanation:Understanding Chickenpox Serology Results in Pregnancy
Chickenpox infection during pregnancy can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, it is important to determine a woman’s immunity status before she is exposed to the virus. Serology testing can help determine if a woman has been previously infected or vaccinated against Chickenpox. Here are the possible results and their implications:
– Negative IgG and negative IgM serology: This indicates that the woman has not been previously exposed to the virus and is not immune. She should avoid exposure and receive immunoglobulin if she has significant exposure. She should also be vaccinated postpartum.
– Positive IgG and negative IgM serology: This indicates that the woman has been previously infected or vaccinated and has protective immunity against re-infection. This is the desired result if the woman has no history of Chickenpox.
– Positive IgG and positive IgM serology: This suggests recent infection, but should not be used alone to diagnose infection. Clinical presentation should also be considered. If the woman develops Chickenpox, she should receive acyclovir.
– No serology testing needed: If the woman has a definite history of Chickenpox, she is considered immune and doesn’t need serology testing.It is important to note that a history of Chickenpox may not be a reliable predictor of immunity in women from overseas, and serology testing may be necessary. The NICE guidance on Chickenpox infection in pregnancy provides further recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 45-year-old man has a tonic-clonic seizure in the Emergency Room waiting area. He is stabilized and admitted to the hospital as he is not known to be epileptic. He has had several consultations over the past few weeks with joint pains, fatigue, weight loss, a facial rash, and dry eyes. He has been referred to hematology as he has a macrocytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. He is not currently taking any medication.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects multiple systems in the body. Symptoms include weight loss, joint pain and swelling, lethargy, and lymphadenopathy. SLE can also cause hematological abnormalities such as lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, and hemolytic anemia, which can result in macrocytosis. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, peripheral neuropathy, and psychiatric problems can also occur. A malar/butterfly rash across the cheeks and bridge of the nose is a typical feature of SLE, as is dry mouth, which may be due to Sjögren syndrome, a condition commonly associated with SLE.
Dermatomyositis is a connective tissue disease that presents with proximal symmetrical myositis and skin rashes, including a heliotrope rash on the eyelids, Gottron’s papules on the hands, and nail changes. However, the seizure and hematological abnormalities described in this case are not typical of dermatomyositis.
Diabetes mellitus may cause weight loss, dry mouth, and lethargy, but joint pain and hematological abnormalities are not typical. Hypoglycemia may cause seizures in patients on diabetes treatment, but this patient is not taking any medication.
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain and multiple tender points on examination. It may also cause lethargy and psychological problems, but seizures are not associated with this condition, and investigations are usually normal.
Sjögren syndrome is an autoimmune condition that causes dryness of the eyes and mouth. While it may explain the dry mouth, it doesn’t account for all the other symptoms listed. Primary Sjögren syndrome occurs independently, but secondary Sjögren syndrome is commonly associated with SLE or rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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In which scenario will skin-prick allergy testing be most valuable?
Your Answer: A 30-year-old hairdresser with hand dermatitis possibly due to hair dyes
Correct Answer: A 2-year-old boy whose mother says he is allergic to milk, eggs and fish.
Explanation:Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing
When dealing with a potential case of food allergy or intolerance, it is crucial to gather a detailed symptom history to identify possible allergens and determine if the reaction is IgE-mediated, which could lead to anaphylaxis. Symptoms such as acute urticaria, nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic, rhinorrhea, itchy eyes, or bronchospasm with a temporal relationship to the offending item may suggest an IgE-mediated reaction. However, it is important to note that many people attribute symptoms to food that are not actually caused by it.
To support or refute the mother’s suspicions, a skin-prick test and/or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to the suspected foods can be performed in conjunction with the symptom history. However, it is essential to remember that there have been cases of systemic reactions and anaphylaxis in food allergen skin testing, so referral is necessary in most cases.
Hay fever is typically diagnosed clinically, so a skin-prick test is unnecessary. Acute urticaria usually resolves within six weeks, so testing is also unnecessary unless the patient can identify a possible trigger. Skin-prick testing is not typically performed on asthmatics unless there is a likely precipitant that could be eliminated. For hairdressers, who are prone to both irritant and allergic contact dermatitis, patch testing would be appropriate for diagnosing delayed hypersensitivity.
Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to talk about shingles vaccine. She says she has had shingles before – although there is no record of this in her notes – and she doesn't want it again, as she has heard it is more severe if you get it when you are older. Which of the following is it most important to make her aware of?
Your Answer: It is only indicated in at-risk immunosuppressed people
Correct Answer: He should postpone vaccination until he is 70-years old
Explanation:Shingles Vaccination: Who Should Get It and When?
The national shingles immunisation programme aims to reduce the incidence and severity of shingles in older people. The vaccine is recommended for routine administration to those aged 70 years, but can be given up until the 80th birthday. Vaccination is most effective and cost-effective in this age group, as the burden of shingles disease is generally more severe in older ages. The vaccine is not routinely offered below 70 years of age, as the duration of protection is not known to last more than ten years and the need for a second dose is not known.
Zostavax® is the only shingles vaccine available in the UK, and is contraindicated in immunosuppressed individuals. Previous shingles is also a contraindication, as there is a natural boosting of antibody levels after an attack of shingles.
Clinical trials have shown that the vaccine reduces the incidence of shingles and post-herpetic neuralgia in those aged 60 and 70 years and older. However, it is important to note that the vaccine is only effective in reducing neuralgia.
In summary, the shingles vaccine is recommended for routine administration to those aged 70 years, but can be given up until the 80th birthday. It is contraindicated in immunosuppressed individuals and those with a history of shingles. While the vaccine is effective in reducing neuralgia, it is not a guarantee against shingles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner because of atopic eczema. Her patents enquire about the possible role of food allergy in her condition.
Which of the following features is most suggestive of a food allergen exacerbating the eczema of this patient?
Your Answer: Positive prick test
Correct Answer: Eczema not controlled by optimum management
Explanation:Understanding Food Allergies and Atopic Eczema in Children
Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that affects many children. While it can be managed with proper treatment, some cases may not respond to standard therapies. In these situations, food allergies should be considered as a possible contributing factor. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, children with moderate to severe atopic eczema that has not been controlled with optimum management, particularly if associated with gut dysmotility or failure to thrive, should be evaluated for food allergies.
Elevated levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) are often associated with atopic eczema and may indicate allergies to food or environmental allergens. However, these allergies may not be directly related to the eczema. While exclusive breastfeeding has been recommended to prevent the development of atopic eczema in susceptible infants, there is no evidence to support this claim.
Allergy tests, such as prick tests and radioallergosorbent tests (RAST), may be used to identify potential allergens. However, false positives are common in individuals with atopic eczema due to the skin’s excessive sensitivity. If a true allergy is identified and exposure to the allergen worsens the eczema, removing the allergen may improve the condition.
In summary, understanding the relationship between food allergies and atopic eczema is important for managing this common condition in children. Proper evaluation and treatment can help improve symptoms and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in centre. She reports that he is thought to have an allergy to peanuts and is waiting for an Allergy Clinic outpatient appointment. He has eaten a piece of birthday cake at a party about 30 minutes ago and has quickly developed facial flushing, with swelling of the lips and face. He has become wheezy and is now unable to talk in complete sentences.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Administer 300 µg 1: 1000 adrenaline IM
Explanation:Correct and Incorrect Management Options for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate management. The correct management options include administering adrenaline 1:1000 intramuscularly (IM) at appropriate doses based on the patient’s age and weight. However, there are also incorrect management options that can be harmful to the patient.
One incorrect option is administering chlorphenamine IM. While it is a sedating antihistamine, it should not be used as a first-line intervention for airway, breathing, or circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilisation.
Another incorrect option is advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department instead of administering immediate drug management. Out-of-hours centres should have access to emergency drugs, including adrenaline, and GPs working in these settings should be capable of administering doses in emergencies.
It is also important to administer the correct dose of adrenaline based on the patient’s age and weight. Administering a dose that is too high, such as 1000 µg for a 7-year-old child, can be harmful.
In summary, the correct management options for anaphylaxis include administering adrenaline at appropriate doses and avoiding incorrect options such as administering chlorphenamine IM or advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department without administering immediate drug management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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