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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old lady, with stable schizophrenia, had a routine ECG which showed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady, with stable schizophrenia, had a routine ECG which showed a QTc interval of 480 ms. She takes only takes oral quetiapine regularly. She reported no symptoms and was otherwise well. Blood tests including electrolytes were normal.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Discuss with the on-call psychiatry team for advice

      Correct Answer: Repeat ECG

      Explanation:

      Management of QTc Prolongation in a Psychiatric Patient

      It is important to seek advice from psychiatry before making any changes to medications in a psychiatric patient. Abruptly stopping an antipsychotic medication could lead to acute deterioration in the patient’s mental health.

      When managing QTc prolongation, it is important to consider the normal values for QTc, which are < 440 ms in men and <470 ms in women. The degree to which the QTc is increased is relevant to the next step of management. If the QTc is >500 ms or there is abnormal T-wave morphology, it would require discussion with the on-call cardiology team and consideration of stopping the suspected causative drug(s).

      Lithium would not typically be initiated by a general practitioner and would not be indicated in this case. Therefore, it is most appropriate to discuss with psychiatry for their advice. They may recommend lowering the antipsychotic dose and repeating the ECG. Proper management of QTc prolongation in a psychiatric patient requires collaboration between psychiatry and cardiology.

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      • Older Adults
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  • Question 2 - You are seeing a 63-year-old gentleman with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 63-year-old gentleman with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
      His most recent spirometry done six weeks ago shows an FEV1 of 62% predicted and doesn't appear to vary very much over time. He is currently using an inhaled short-acting beta agonist as required. He tells you that despite using his inhaler up to four times a day he feels persistently breathless.
      He stopped smoking five years ago. He denies any acute infective symptoms or haemoptysis. On reviewing the history and the clinical record he has not been treated for an acute exacerbation in the last year.
      On examination there is some global reduction in air entry bilaterally but no other focal chest signs. Heart sounds are normal and there is no peripheral oedema. A recent chest x ray is reported as being unchanged from one performed 18 months previously.
      Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in his pharmacological management?

      Your Answer: Add in a regular LAMA

      Correct Answer: Add in a regular ICS

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for COPD Patients with Persistent Breathlessness

      Here we have a patient with COPD who is persistently breathless despite regular use of a short acting beta agonist (SABA) and has an FEV1 of greater than 50%. In this case, add-on inhaled treatment is indicated. According to available guidelines and evidence, the options are to start a long acting beta agonist (LABA) or a long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA).

      Of the options given, the addition of a LAMA is the correct answer, provided there are no asthmatic features or indicators of steroid responsiveness. If these features are present, then a combination of LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) would be considered. It is important to note that proper treatment options should be discussed with a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 3 - An 83-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of breathlessness. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of breathlessness. He reports that a year ago he was able to do his gardening and play a round of golf, but in recent months he has been limited by breathlessness. He notes that the breathlessness settles with rest and denies any cough or chest pain. He doesn't take any prescribed medication but reports taking ibuprofen from the supermarket for his knees. He has a history of osteoarthritis of the knees and occasional gout.

      Upon examination, the patient appears well but mildly out of breath upon entering the room. His pulse is 86 bpm in sinus rhythm, and his blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg. Peak flow is 470 L/min, and heart sounds are normal. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral basal end-inspiratory crackles, and there is mild bilateral pitting edema to mid-shin.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure serum natriuretic peptide

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Symptoms of Heart Failure

      This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of heart failure, which could have occurred de novo or been exacerbated by the non-steroidals he has been taking for his knees. While a pulmonary embolus, asthma, or COPD could also be potential causes, the lack of certain symptoms and signs make heart failure the most likely diagnosis.

      To confirm this, the next step would be to measure serum natriuretic peptides. Checking spirometry is not incorrect, but it would not be the most appropriate next step. D-dimers and cardiac troponin are not appropriate investigations for heart failure, and there is no indication for emergency admission based on the information given in this scenario.

      In addition to natriuretic peptide, further tests would include a 12-lead ECG, chest x-ray, urea and electrolytes, creatinine, full blood count, thyroid function, liver function, glucose, lipids, and urinalysis. These tests will help to rule out other potential causes and guide further management.

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  • Question 4 - A cardiologist has written to you about the result of an echocardiogram of...

    Incorrect

    • A cardiologist has written to you about the result of an echocardiogram of an 85-year-old patient, whom she has recently seen in clinic. Your patient has been diagnosed with severe heart failure and the cardiologist has written to you to ask that you initiate treatment with spironolactone.

      The most recent renal function tests taken four months earlier do not preclude treatment with spironolactone.

      With regard to monitoring electrolytes (including potassium and creatinine) after initiation, and assuming there is no further dose increase, what would you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 week after initiation, then monthly for the first year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Electrolytes in Spironolactone Treatment

      The British National Formulary recommends monitoring electrolytes when administering spironolactone to patients. If hyperkalaemia occurs, the medication should be discontinued. In cases of severe heart failure, it is crucial to monitor potassium and creatinine levels. This monitoring should occur one week after initiation and after any dose increase. For the first three months, monthly monitoring is necessary, followed by every three months for one year, and then every six months. By closely monitoring electrolytes, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe and effective use of spironolactone in their patients.

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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with his wife. She is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with his wife. She is worried about his significant cognitive decline over the past few months. Throughout the day, his level of consciousness fluctuates greatly, and he often sleeps for two hours or more. One of your colleagues prescribed him benzodiazepines to aid his sleep, and he reportedly drinks a glass of whisky in the evening. Additionally, there are concerns about visual hallucinations. During the examination, you observe signs of Parkinsonism.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lewy Body Dementia

      Lewy body dementia is a unique type of dementia that shares characteristics with both dementia and Parkinson’s disease. Patients with Lewy body dementia often experience fluctuating levels of consciousness, with daytime somnolence lasting more than two hours per day. They may also experience visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian movement features, delusions, and syncopal attacks more commonly than other types of dementia.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be able to recognize the main features of Lewy body dementia and avoid prescribing traditional neuroleptics, which can significantly impact movement and even result in sudden death for patients with this disease. With an increased emphasis on the diagnosis and management of dementia in primary care, having an awareness of the different types of dementia and their respective aetiologies and risk factors is crucial.

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  • Question 6 - An 85-year-old man patient of yours is discharged from hospital after receiving treatment...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man patient of yours is discharged from hospital after receiving treatment for a urinary tract infection.

      Three days after discharge the lab calls you to say that they received a urine sample before his discharge and there was E. coli present in the urine. However, there are no signs of infection. You call the man back to your surgery to check that he is okay. He has no pain while urinating and says he feels much better.

      Which of the following is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment with vancomycin

      Explanation:

      Management of Asymptomatic Clostridium difficile Infection

      A watch and wait policy is recommended for patients with asymptomatic Clostridium difficile infection. Mild cases may not require specific antibiotic treatment, but if necessary, oral metronidazole is the preferred option (dose: 400-500 mg tds for 10-14 days). This has been shown to be as effective as oral vancomycin in mild to moderate cases.

      For those who wish to read in greater detail, the link below contains the latest guidance and analysis. However, it is important to note that the information provided is more detailed than what is required for the average GP and only a broad understanding of the management and national recommendations is expected for the exam.

      In this case, the patient is asymptomatic and there are no toxins present, therefore no treatment is necessary.

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  • Question 7 - A 93-year-old patient of yours wants to make an advanced decision but his...

    Incorrect

    • A 93-year-old patient of yours wants to make an advanced decision but his family are not sure that he fully understands what he is doing. You have to assess his competence.

      Which of the following statements about competence is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: His level of competence may fluctuate

      Explanation:

      Assessing Competence in Elderly Patients

      Levels of competence can vary, especially in elderly individuals with early dementia or delirium. It is important to evaluate patients when their competence is at its highest level, rather than making assumptions based on age. Even if a patient makes an unconventional or unwise decision, it doesn’t necessarily mean they lack competence. Instead of using global assessments, such as the abbreviated mental test score, competence should be assessed for the specific decision that needs to be made. For further reading and education, resources such as the BMJ Junior doctor survival kit, BMJ Clinical Review, and the British Geriatrics Society’s Delirium hub can be helpful.

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  • Question 8 - A 78-year-old male presents with cognitive impairment and is diagnosed with dementia.

    Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male presents with cognitive impairment and is diagnosed with dementia.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of the dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dementia: Types and Symptoms

      Dementia is a clinical condition that involves the loss of cognitive function in multiple domains beyond what is expected from normal aging. This condition affects areas such as memory, attention, language, and problem-solving. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, accounting for about two-thirds of all cases. The initial symptom is usually forgetfulness for newly acquired information, followed by disorientation and progressive cognitive decline with personality disruption.

      Other types of dementia include blood vessel disease (multi-infarct dementia), dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease). Less common disorders such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, progressive supranuclear palsy, Huntington’s disease, and AIDS-associated dementia also contribute to the remaining cases.

      It is important to understand the different types and symptoms of dementia to provide appropriate care and support for individuals affected by this condition.

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  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old man presents with complaints of leg pains. He has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents with complaints of leg pains. He has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia, and is a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day.

      He reports experiencing pain in his right calf after walking about 50 yards, which occurs every time he walks. The pain subsides when he stops and sits down, but returns upon further walking. He denies any pain at rest and has only experienced symptoms while walking.

      Upon examination, no pulses can be palpated in the right foot, but there is no evidence of acute ischaemia. Femoral and popliteal pulses are present, and capillary refill time in the right foot is three to four seconds. There are no ulcers or tissue loss affecting the feet. The patient is otherwise well, with a blood pressure of 154/92 mmHg and a regular pulse rate of 72 bpm.

      In addition to referring the patient for ankle-brachial pressure index measurements to confirm the clinical diagnosis, what other assessments should be performed as part of his primary care evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      Peripheral Arterial Disease Assessment in Primary Care

      This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of peripheral arterial disease, specifically intermittent claudication. It is important to note that peripheral arterial disease increases the risk of arteriopathy in other parts of the body, such as the heart and kidneys. Therefore, a full cardiovascular risk factor assessment should be conducted on diagnosis, with key risk factors addressed as relevant.

      In primary care, ankle brachial pressure index should be measured in all patients suspected of having peripheral arterial disease, along with an examination of peripheral pulses and palpation of the abdomen to check for the presence of an aortic aneurysm. It is important to note that the presence of peripheral vascular disease significantly increases the risk of aortic aneurysm.

      Contrast studies are not typically conducted as part of a primary care assessment. Instead, the focus should be on managing lower limb symptoms and addressing cardiovascular risk factors. By doing so, primary care providers can help reduce the risk of complications and improve overall patient outcomes.

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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with chronic shortness of breath and symptoms of heart failure. After primary care investigation, she was urgently referred to the cardiologists due to an abnormal ECG and elevated brain natriuretic peptide level. The echocardiogram performed by the cardiologists confirmed a diagnosis of heart failure with left ventricular dysfunction.
      Her current medications include: lisinopril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, furosemide 20 mg daily, and pantoprazole 40 mg daily.
      During examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse rate is 75 beats per minute and regular, her lungs are clear, and heart sounds are normal. There is no peripheral edema.
      What is the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add in bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure Patients

      Beta-blockers are recommended for all patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of age or comorbidities such as peripheral vascular disease, interstitial pulmonary disease, erectile dysfunction, diabetes, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease without reversibility. However, asthma is a contraindication to beta-blocker use.

      Bisoprolol, carvedilol, or nebivolol are the beta-blockers of choice for treating chronic heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction. These three beta-blockers have been proven effective in clinical trials and have prognostic benefits. Bisoprolol and carvedilol reduce mortality in all grades of stable heart failure, while nebivolol is licensed for stable mild to moderate heart failure in patients over the age of 70.

      Even if a patient with heart failure is currently well and showing no signs of fluid overload, beta-blockers are still recommended due to their prognostic benefits.

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  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rapidly worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rapidly worsening shortness of breath over the past four to five weeks. He reports bilateral ankle swelling and has experienced two episodes of gasping for breath in the past week. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes indapamide and amlodipine. On examination, his BP is 122/72, his pulse is 90 and regular, and he has bibasal crackles on chest auscultation and bilateral pitting edema. Laboratory investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 122 g/L (135-177), white cells of 8.3 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 182 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 141 mmol/L (135-146), potassium of 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine of 122 μmol/L (79-118), and BNP of 520 pg/mL (<100). Based on the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence ramipril and review in four weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Suspected Heart Failure with Elevated BNP Levels

      According to NICE CG106, individuals with suspected heart failure and an NT-proBNP level between 400 and 2,000 ng/litre should be referred for specialist assessment and transthoracic echocardiography within 6 weeks. Urgent referral within 2 weeks is recommended for those with NT-proBNP levels above 2,000 ng/litre due to the poor prognosis associated with very high levels of BNP.

      For individuals with NT-proBNP levels below 400 ng/litre, alternative causes for symptoms of heart failure should be reviewed. If there is still concern that the symptoms may be related to heart failure, consultation with a physician with subspeciality training in heart failure is recommended.

      It is important to note that very high levels of BNP carry a poor prognosis with respect to both morbidity and increased risk of hospital admission and mortality from heart failure. If transthoracic echocardiogram images are poor, other imaging methods such as radionucleotide scanning or transoesophageal echo should be considered.

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  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with a thiazide diuretic, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, for which he takes a high dose seretide inhaler and tiotropium. Pulmonary function testing showed only 8% reversibility. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 149/72 mmHg, pulse is 80 beats per minute and regular. Laboratory results show a haemoglobin level of 138 g/L (135-177), white cell count of 5.4 ×109/L (4-11), platelet count of 203 ×109/L (150-400), sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level of 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine level of 131 μmol/L (79-118). An echocardiogram revealed an ejection fraction of 35%. Based on NICE guidelines, which medication would you adjust in the next step of his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start ramipril and furosemide

      Explanation:

      Management of Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction

      Managing heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) requires adherence to NICE guidelines. One key performance indicator is recognizing that patients with COPD who have no significant reversibility may safely be treated with beta blockers licensed for heart failure. Another important aspect is the sequential treatment approach, starting with diuretics and then offering an ACEI and BB. If symptoms persist, an MRA may be added, with careful monitoring of serum sodium, potassium, and renal function. In patients with an eGFR of 30 to 45 ml/min/1.73 m2, lower doses or slower titration of certain medications may be necessary. Co-prescription of beta blockers and ACE inhibitors is recommended, with careful titration to achieve optimal therapeutic effect. It is important to note that diltiazem and verapamil are not recommended for HFrEF by NICE guidelines. By following these guidelines, patients with HFrEF can receive effective management and improve their outcomes.

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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He reports experiencing shortness of breath on exercise, which has worsened over the past few months. He can now only walk 200-300 yards on flat ground and has difficulty climbing stairs. The patient has a history of hypertension and is currently taking amlodipine 5 mg and indapamide 2.5 mg. In the clinic, his blood pressure is 195/90, and he has bibasal crackles indicative of heart failure, but no ankle edema is present.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Haemoglobin: 139 g/L (115-165)
      - White cells: 7.1 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelets: 203 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Sodium: 139 mmol/L (135-146)
      - Potassium: 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5)
      - Creatinine: 129 μmol/L (79-118)
      - Ejection fraction: 55%

      What is the most appropriate next therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Management of Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction

      Whilst the patient in question has been diagnosed with heart failure, their ejection fraction is preserved. According to the NICE guidelines on Chronic heart failure (NG106), the recommended course of action is to manage the patient’s comorbidities. In this case, the patient’s hypertension is the most significant issue, and stepwise blood pressure control with ACE inhibition is the next logical addition to their therapy. If the patient had a reduced ejection fraction, a bblocker would be added at the same time.

      Additionally, the patient should be referred for an abdominal ultrasound to check for differential kidney size, which could indicate the presence of renovascular disease. By addressing the patient’s comorbidities and monitoring for potential complications, healthcare providers can effectively manage heart failure with preserved ejection fraction.

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  • Question 14 - A senior, delicate lady is admitted to the nearby nursing home following a...

    Incorrect

    • A senior, delicate lady is admitted to the nearby nursing home following a stroke. How can her risk of developing a pressure ulcer be evaluated appropriately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Waterlow score

      Explanation:

      The Waterlow score is utilized to recognize patients who are susceptible to developing pressure ulcers.

      Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management

      Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.

      The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.

      To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.

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  • Question 15 - You are called to a nursing home to see a 85-year-old lady who...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to a nursing home to see a 85-year-old lady who has become acutely confused.

      She has a past medical history of hypertension and hypothyroidism. These are well controlled on bendroflumethazide 2.5 mg OD and thyroxine 100 mcg OD.

      On arrival she is disoriented to time and place; and the nursing staff report that earlier she seemed to be hallucinating. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.1°C, pulse rate of 92 regular and a blood pressure of 108/88 mmHg. Blood sugar is 4.6.

      What is the next most appropriate acute action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Think sepsis and check symptoms and signs using a local or national tool

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Confusional State in Elderly Patients

      This patient is presenting with an acute confusional state and pyrexia, which is most likely caused by an underlying infection. An anxiolytic is not the appropriate treatment as it doesn’t address the underlying cause. Additionally, oral glucose is not necessary as the patient’s blood sugar is within the normal range. While a cerebrovascular accident should be considered in any elderly patient who is confused, this patient doesn’t exhibit any focal neurological signs and the clinical picture is more consistent with an infective cause. Therefore, administering aspirin is not recommended.

      For elderly patients over 65 years old, a urine dipstick test should not be performed. Instead, healthcare providers should use the PINCH ME method to exclude other causes of delirium. In cases of an acutely confused, pyrexial, elderly patient, sepsis should be considered and managed accordingly.

      When it comes to urinary tract infections, antibiotics should only be prescribed when appropriate. Factors such as the severity of symptoms, the presence of complicating factors, and the likelihood of bacterial infection should be taken into account before prescribing antibiotics. Overuse of antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance, so it is important to use them judiciously.

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  • Question 16 - When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple...

    Incorrect

    • When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple comorbidities, you observe that he has a heart rate of 57, indicating bradycardia. Which of his medications could be causing this side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Donepezil is a drug used for treating Alzheimer’s disease, but it may cause bradycardia as a side effect, along with other adverse reactions such as gastrointestinal problems, agitation, hallucinations, and syncope. Patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications like beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers, or digoxin should use caution when taking these drugs. Although specialists like psychiatrists, elderly care specialists, and neurologists typically initiate the use of these medications, GPs may be asked to prescribe and monitor them under Shared Care Agreements, so it’s important to be aware of potential prescribing issues. The BNF lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

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  • Question 17 - You are preparing to conduct a search for all your elderly patients who...

    Incorrect

    • You are preparing to conduct a search for all your elderly patients who need the yearly flu shot. Which of the following groups should not be included in the registry?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asthmatics controlled with salbutamol only

      Explanation:

      If an asthmatic is at BTS stage 1 and only takes salbutamol, they do not require any vaccinations. However, if they are at BTS stages 2-4 and use a steroid inhaler, they should receive an annual influenza vaccination. For those with severe asthma who require regular or long-term use of prednisolone at BTS stage 5, they should receive both an annual influenza and pneumococcal vaccination.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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  • Question 18 - You think that an 80-year-old man has dementia.

    Which one of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • You think that an 80-year-old man has dementia.

      Which one of the following is more suggestive of vascular dementia than Alzheimer's?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emotional lability

      Explanation:

      Emotional lability in Vascular Dementia

      Emotional lability, which refers to sudden and exaggerated changes in mood or emotions, is a common symptom in patients with vascular dementia. This type of dementia is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, leading to damage in different areas of the brain. Emotional lability can manifest as sudden outbursts of anger, crying spells, or inappropriate laughter.

      On the other hand, other symptoms such as memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with language and communication are more suggestive of Alzheimer’s disease. It is important to differentiate between the two types of dementia as they have different underlying causes and may require different treatment approaches.

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  • Question 19 - A 75-year-old gentleman recently began taking donepezil for his moderate dementia. His family...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman recently began taking donepezil for his moderate dementia. His family became worried when they noticed he was more confused than usual. During examination, he displayed muscle rigidity, sweating, tremors, and was pyrexial. Repeated BP readings were: 160/90, 100/70, 150/80. A urine dipstick test came back negative, and his lung fields were clear upon auscultation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Clues and Considerations for Patients on AChE Inhibitors

      When a patient presents with unexplained pyrexia, autonomic dysfunction, and muscle rigidity, a GP should take note of recent medication changes, such as the initiation of donepezil. These symptoms may indicate a serious adverse reaction to acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors, which are becoming more commonly prescribed. In such cases, the GP should discuss the case with the on-call medical team for an immediate review.

      To better understand the potential side effects of AChE inhibitors, it is helpful to review the CKS link provided below. This resource outlines both common and rare adverse reactions to these medications, which can range from gastrointestinal disturbances to more serious neurological symptoms. By staying informed and vigilant, healthcare providers can help ensure the safe and effective use of AChE inhibitors for their patients.

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  • Question 20 - During a new patient consultation for an 82-year-old man who has recently joined...

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    • During a new patient consultation for an 82-year-old man who has recently joined the practice, you observe that he is significantly underweight and suspect that he may be malnourished. As per NICE guidelines, what is the BMI threshold for diagnosing malnutrition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Understanding Malnutrition and its Management

      Malnutrition is a complex and multifactorial problem that can be difficult to manage. It is an important consequence of and contributor to chronic disease. NICE defines malnutrition as having a Body Mass Index (BMI) of less than 18.5, unintentional weight loss greater than 10% within the last 3-6 months, or a BMI of less than 20 and unintentional weight loss greater than 5% within the last 3-6 months.

      Around 10% of patients aged over 65 years are malnourished, with the majority of those living independently. Screening for malnutrition is mostly done using the Malnutrition Universal Screen Tool (MUST), which takes into account BMI, recent weight change, and the presence of acute disease. It categorizes patients into low, medium, and high risk and should be done on admission to care/nursing homes and hospitals or if there is concern, such as an elderly, thin patient with pressure sores.

      Managing malnutrition is difficult, but NICE recommends a few points. If the patient is high-risk, dietician support is necessary. A ‘food-first’ approach with clear instructions, such as adding full-fat cream to mashed potato, is preferred over just prescribing oral nutritional supplements (ONS) like Ensure. If ONS is used, it should be taken between meals, rather than instead of meals.

      In conclusion, malnutrition is a serious issue that requires proper screening and management. By following the guidelines set by NICE, healthcare professionals can help prevent and treat malnutrition in their patients.

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  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old nursing home resident, with a long-term catheter in situ, had a...

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    • A 70-year-old nursing home resident, with a long-term catheter in situ, had a urine sample sent for investigation after staff felt her urine was more cloudy than usual. The MSU grew Escherichia coli. The patient is otherwise well with a normal general examination, normal observations and is at their baseline cognition.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral trimethoprim for three days

      Explanation:

      Managing Urinary Tract Infection in Adults with Long-Term Indwelling Catheters

      The SIGN guidance provides clear instructions on how to manage urinary tract infection (UTI) in adults with long-term indwelling catheters. It states that all patients with such catheters are bacteriuric, but treatment is not necessary unless they exhibit symptoms such as new costovertebral tenderness, fevers, rigors, or new onset delirium. It is important to note that classical UTI symptoms cannot be relied upon in these patients. Additionally, the guidance advises against sending urine samples for culture based on the appearance or smell of the urine. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage UTI in this patient population.

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  • Question 22 - An 80-year-old woman presents for a check-up. She complains of feeling fatigued and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents for a check-up. She complains of feeling fatigued and drained and requests some tests. She has a medical history of hypertension treated with valsartan, chronic atrial fibrillation and chronic heart failure managed with digoxin and furosemide, and asthma for which she uses salbutamol. During the examination, her potassium level is measured and found to be low at 3.1 mmol/l. Which medication is the probable culprit for her hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol

      Explanation:

      Medications and their effects on potassium levels

      Whilst both salbutamol and furosemide can lead to hypokalaemia, furosemide has a more significant impact on potassium levels at therapeutic doses. On the other hand, digoxin toxicity may cause vomiting and hypokalaemia, but it is not directly linked to low potassium levels. In contrast, spironolactone and valsartan are known to cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to be aware of the potential effects of medications on potassium levels to ensure appropriate monitoring and management of electrolyte imbalances.

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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old smoker with severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis is seen following discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old smoker with severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis is seen following discharge after suffering an ischaemic stroke. He has been treated with antiplatelet medication, lipid lowering medication and antihypertensives. He is following a smoking prevention programme and is in sinus rhythm. Apart from hypertension, there is no other relevant history.

      According to NICE CKS Guidance, what is the target systolic blood pressure range for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 120-130

      Explanation:

      Target Systolic Blood Pressure Range for Patients with Severe Bilateral Carotid Artery Stenosis

      When managing blood pressure following stroke or TIA, it is important to consider the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis. For most patients, the target systolic blood pressure should be below 130mmHg. However, in the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis, the target systolic blood pressure range should be between 140-150mmHg.

      It is important to note that other considerations such as lifestyle advice, lipid lowering therapy, and antiplatelets should also be taken into account. However, when specifically asked about the target systolic blood pressure range, it is important to focus on this without distraction. Treatment for hypertension may include a thiazide-like diuretic, long-acting calcium channel blocker, or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. By considering the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management for their patients.

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  • Question 24 - What is the accurate statement about pharmacology in elderly individuals? ...

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    • What is the accurate statement about pharmacology in elderly individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal function tends to remain stable despite advancing age

      Explanation:

      Care of Older Adults in General Practice

      The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has emphasized that the care of older adults will be a significant part of a General Practitioner’s workload. It is crucial to consider issues such as comorbidity, communication difficulties, polypharmacy, and the need for support for increasingly dependent patients.

      One important factor to keep in mind is that there is a reduced plasma protein binding of drugs with age. This can result in more drug availability, leading to side effects. Additionally, declining renal and hepatic function in the elderly can make them more susceptible to drug toxicity. Therefore, it may be necessary to prescribe lower doses than those given to a healthy adult.

      As people age, their renal function tends to decline, and the rate of gastric emptying slows down. Hepatic mass and blood flow also decrease, and intestinal motility tends to decrease with age. These factors must be considered when prescribing medication to older adults.

      The British National Formulary provides guidelines for prescribing medication to the elderly, and it is essential to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety and well-being of older patients.

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  • Question 25 - A 75-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion.

    Preceding this, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion.

      Preceding this, he fell three weeks ago in the bathroom. In the afternoon he was examined by his GP and he was alert with a normal physical examination. The patient has a history of hypertension for which he takes bendroflumethiazide.

      Three weeks later the patient was visited at home because the dazed state had returned. He is afebrile, has a pulse of 80 per minute regular and blood pressure of 152/86 mmHg. His response to questions is slightly slowed, he is disoriented in time and there is some deficit in recent memory.

      The patient moves slowly, but muscle strength is preserved. Neurologic examination shows slight hyperactivity of the tendon reflexes on the right. Plantar responses are unclear because of bilateral withdrawal. That gives him a GCS score of 14.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next investigation for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum alcohol concentration

      Explanation:

      Chronic Subdural Haematoma in the Elderly

      The patient’s history of a previous fall and subsequent development of confusion and neurological symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of chronic subdural haematoma. The best investigation for this condition is a CT scan, which is the preferred choice over a skull x-ray that may only reveal a fracture.

      Chronic subdural haematoma is a common condition in the elderly, and it occurs when blood accumulates between the brain and the outermost layer of the brain’s protective covering. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including confusion, headaches, and difficulty with balance and coordination. If left untreated, chronic subdural haematoma can lead to serious complications, such as seizures, coma, and even death.

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  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and difficulty moving for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and difficulty moving for the past three days. She denies any chest or abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, sweating, or fever. This patient is known to be a private individual and can be difficult to deal with. She has no family except for a daughter whom she has not spoken to in 20 years. On examination, she appears pale and mildly short of breath, with crackles at both lung bases and an intermittent ventricular gallop. Her blood pressure is 126/70 mm Hg sitting and 119/65 mmHg standing. Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 90 g/L, plasma glucose of 5.3 mmol/L, urea of 7 mmol/L, serum creatinine of 100 µmol/L, sodium of 135 mmol/L, potassium of 4.0 mmol/L, and bicarbonate of 24 mmol/L. Despite your recommendation for hospital admission, she refuses and asks that you not contact her daughter. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe furosemide, 40 mg orally, and visit her again the next day

      Explanation:

      Managing Heart Failure Related Peripheral Oedema in Primary Care

      This patient is not incompetent and has clearly expressed her wishes, which should be respected. She has requested that her daughter not be contacted. Additionally, a physical examination has revealed heart failure, likely exacerbated by her anaemia. The most appropriate initial therapy would be diuretics, which should be prescribed and the patient closely monitored. While hospitalization may be suggested, it is important to approach this with sensitivity and attempt to gain the patient’s agreement. In managing heart failure related peripheral oedema in primary care, it is crucial to prioritize patient autonomy and provide appropriate medical interventions.

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  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old man presents with ankle swelling and signs of heart failure. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with ankle swelling and signs of heart failure. He has a past medical history of hypertensive heart disease and is currently taking amlodipine and bendroflumethiazide. He was recently treated for an infection at the hospital but cannot recall the name of the medication or the infection. What are some possible causes of heart failure in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Itraconazole

      Explanation:

      Itraconazole and Heart Failure Risk

      The use of itraconazole, a common antifungal medication, can increase the risk of heart failure in certain patients. Those most at risk include individuals with a history of heart disease, those taking calcium antagonists, and the elderly. Patients with liver disease or who are taking statins may also experience adverse effects from itraconazole. It is recommended that baseline liver function tests be performed before starting treatment. While dyspepsia, abdominal pain, nausea, and constipation are common side effects, the negative ionotropic effect of itraconazole can lead to heart failure in susceptible patients. Therefore, itraconazole should be avoided in patients with a history of heart failure unless the benefits outweigh the risks.

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  • Question 28 - A 68-year old gentleman is seen for follow up. He has recently been...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old gentleman is seen for follow up. He has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. His echocardiogram shows a reduced ejection fraction. On reviewing his medications you can see that he has been taking atenolol going back many years for hypertension.

      Which of the following beta blockers would you recommend he switches to in order to enhance his heart failure treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta Blockers for Heart Failure

      Beta blockers have been proven to increase the survival rate of patients with heart failure in numerous clinical trials. In the UK, there are three licensed drugs for this purpose: Bisoprolol, Carvedilol, and Nebivolol. If a patient is newly diagnosed with left ventricular systolic function and is already taking a beta blocker, it is recommended to switch them to one of the beta blockers that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. This can help improve the patient’s overall health and increase their chances of survival.

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  • Question 29 - A 78-year-old man presents with angina, episodes of feeling dizzy and faint, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with angina, episodes of feeling dizzy and faint, and breathlessness. He has noticed progressively worsening symptoms over the last 1-2 years.

      On examination he has a slow rising carotid pulse on palpation.

      Which of the following is most likely to be heard on auscultation of his heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids

      Explanation:

      Valvular Heart Disorders and Their Classic Symptoms

      Aortic stenosis is a common valvular heart disorder that mainly affects older people. It is characterized by scarring and calcium build-up that narrows the valve over time. Classic symptoms include angina, dizziness/syncope, and cardiac failure. Without intervention, the condition usually deteriorates progressively.

      On examination, a slow rising pulse is a characteristic finding, and the classic murmur is that of an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Tricuspid stenosis is characterized by an early diastolic murmur heard at the left sternal edge in inspiration. Aortic regurgitation is marked by a high-pitched early diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient sitting forward. Mitral regurgitation is indicated by a pansystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla. Finally, mitral stenosis is characterized by a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient lying on their left side.

      In summary, understanding the classic symptoms and examination findings of valvular heart disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old man with a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia presents as an emergency. He was at home four days ago when he experienced slurred speech and weakness in his right arm. His wife noticed that his face appeared droopy on one side and he had difficulty raising his right arm. The episode lasted for about 90 minutes before resolving on its own. His wife ignored it, but his son insisted that they bring him to the clinic. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, he is in sinus rhythm at 70 bpm, and there are no focal neurological findings. He takes aspirin 75 mg daily. The diagnosis is a transient ischaemic attack. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue aspirin 75 mg OD and as symptoms have fully resolved arrange follow-up at the practice in one week to optimise her blood pressure control

      Explanation:

      Updated Guidance for Assessing Patients with TIA

      Some healthcare professionals may still be using the old ABCD2 scoring system for assessing patients with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). However, updated guidance advises that if a patient has had a TIA within the last week, they should be given 300 mg aspirin immediately and urgently assessed by a specialist stroke physician within 24 hours. Exceptions include patients with bleeding disorders or those taking anticoagulants, in which case immediate admission for urgent assessment and imaging is necessary. Patients taking low-dose aspirin regularly should continue their current dose until reviewed by a specialist, while those for whom aspirin is contraindicated should have their management discussed urgently with the specialist team.

      To aid in rapid assessment, the Face Arm Speech Test (FAST test) can be used. This test is positive if the patient exhibits new facial weakness (such as drooping of the mouth or eye), arm weakness, or speech difficulty (such as slurring or difficulty in finding names for commonplace objects). Proper assessment and management of patients with TIA can help prevent future strokes and improve patient outcomes.

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