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Question 1
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at the Emergency Department with severe chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is sweating heavily and the pain does not subside with rest or sublingual nitroglycerin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III and avF.
What is the leading cause of death within the first hour after the onset of symptoms in this patient?Your Answer: Arrhythmia
Explanation:After experiencing an inferior-wall MI, the most common cause of death within the first hour is a lethal arrhythmia, such as ventricular fibrillation. This can be caused by various factors, including ischaemia, toxic metabolites, or autonomic stimulation. If ventricular fibrillation occurs within the first 48 hours, it may be due to transient causes and not affect long-term prognosis. However, if it occurs after 48 hours, it is usually indicative of permanent dysfunction and associated with a worse long-term prognosis. Other complications that may occur after an acute MI include emboli from a left ventricular thrombus, cardiac tamponade, ruptured papillary muscle, and pericarditis. These complications typically occur at different time frames after the acute MI and present with different symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
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Which of the options below is not a cause of mid-diastolic murmur?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Causes of Heart Murmurs
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat. Aortic stenosis, a condition where the aortic valve narrows, causes an ejection systolic murmur. On the other hand, left atrial myxomas and right atrial myxomas, which are rare tumors, can cause a mid-diastolic murmur by blocking the valve orifice during diastole. Mitral stenosis, which is often the result of rheumatic fever or a congenital defect, causes mid-diastolic murmurs. Lastly, tricuspid stenosis, which is also commonly caused by rheumatic fever, can cause a mid-diastolic murmur. the causes of heart murmurs is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents with pyrexia, night sweats and has recently noticed changes to his fingernails. He has no past medical history except he remembers that as a child he was in hospital with inflamed, painful joints, and a very fast heartbeat following a very sore throat.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pyrexia and Splinter Haemorrhages
The patient’s past medical history suggests a possible case of rheumatic fever, which can lead to valvular damage and increase the risk of infective endocarditis later in life. The current symptoms of pyrexia, night sweats, and splinter haemorrhages point towards a potential diagnosis of infective endocarditis. There are no clinical signs of septic arthritis, hepatitis, or pneumonia. Aortic regurgitation may present with different symptoms such as fatigue, syncope, and shortness of breath, but it is less likely in this case. Overall, the differential diagnosis for this patient includes infective endocarditis as the most probable diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old intravenous drug user presents with a systolic murmur that is most audible at the fifth costal cartilage on the left sternal edge. What is the most probable anatomical site of the disease causing the murmur?
Your Answer: Mitral valve
Correct Answer: Tricuspid valve
Explanation:Auscultation of Heart Murmurs and Associated Cardiac Structures
When listening to heart sounds, the location of the murmur can provide clues about the underlying cardiac structure involved. A pansystolic murmur heard at the left sternal margin at the fifth costal cartilage suggests tricuspid regurgitation, likely caused by infective endocarditis in an intravenous drug user. A ventricular septal defect can be auscultated as a pansystolic murmur, while an atrial septal defect is associated with an ejection systolic murmur and split second heart sound over the pulmonary area. Abnormalities of the mitral valve are heard in the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line, and the aortic valve can be auscultated at the second intercostal space in the right sternal edge. Understanding the relationship between heart murmurs and associated cardiac structures can aid in diagnosis and management of cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Correct
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You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to the Emergency department after confessing to consuming 14 units of alcohol and taking 2 ecstasy tablets tonight. He is alert and oriented but is experiencing palpitations. He denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 180 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 115/80 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and reveals an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (SVT).
What would be your first course of action in terms of treatment?Your Answer: Vagal manoeuvres
Explanation:SVT is a type of arrhythmia that occurs above the ventricles and is commonly seen in patients in their 20s with alcohol and drug use as precipitating factors. Early evaluation of ABC is important, and vagal manoeuvres are recommended as the first line of treatment. Adenosine is the drug of choice if vagal manoeuvres fail, and DC cardioversion is required if signs of decompensation are present. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for regular narrow complex SVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
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A 54-year-old man comes to his doctor for a regular check-up after experiencing a heart attack 6 weeks ago. During the examination, he appears unwell, sweaty, and clammy, and mentions feeling constantly feverish. His recent blood work reveals an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and anemia. What is the most probable post-heart attack complication that this man is experiencing?
Your Answer: Dressler’s syndrome
Explanation:Complications Following Myocardial Infarction
One of the complications that can occur 2-6 weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI) is Dressler’s syndrome. This autoimmune reaction happens as the myocardium heals and can present with pyrexia, pleuritic chest pain, and an elevated ESR. Pulmonary embolism is not suggested by this presentation. Another complication is myomalacia cordis, which occurs 3-14 days post-MI and involves the softening of dead muscles leading to rupture and death. Ventricular aneurysm may also form due to weakened myocardium, resulting in persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Anticoagulation is necessary to prevent thrombus formation within the aneurysm and reduce the risk of stroke. Heart failure is unlikely to cause the above presentation and blood test results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology clinic with a heart murmur. During the physical exam, the patient exhibits a collapsing pulse. Upon auscultation, a 2/5 early diastolic murmur is heard at the lower left sternal edge, which is more pronounced during expiration.
What is the most probable clinical sign that will be observed?Your Answer: Corrigan’s sign
Explanation:Cardiac Signs and Their Associated Conditions
Corrigan’s Sign: This sign is characterized by an abrupt distension and collapse of the carotid arteries, indicating aortic incompetence. It is often seen in patients with a collapsing pulse and an early diastolic murmur, which are suggestive of aortic regurgitation. A wide pulse pressure may also be found.
Malar Flush: Mitral stenosis is associated with malar flush, a mid-diastolic murmur, loudest at the apex when the patient is in the left lateral position, and a tapping apex. A small-volume pulse is also typical.
Tapping Apex: A tapping apex is a classical sign of mitral stenosis.
Pulsatile Hepatomegaly: Severe tricuspid regurgitation can cause reverse blood flow to the liver during systole, resulting in pulsatile hepatomegaly.
Clubbing: Clubbing is more commonly seen in lung pathology and is unlikely to present in aortic regurgitation. It is seen in congenital cyanotic heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female with Down's syndrome presents with a systolic murmur on clinical examination. What is the most prevalent cardiac anomaly observed in individuals with Down's syndrome that could account for this murmur?
Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:Endocardial Cushion Defects
Endocardial cushion defects, also referred to as atrioventricular (AV) canal or septal defects, are a group of abnormalities that affect the atrial septum, ventricular septum, and one or both of the AV valves. These defects occur during fetal development when the endocardial cushions, which are responsible for separating the heart chambers and forming the valves, fail to develop properly. As a result, there may be holes or gaps in the septum, or the AV valves may not close properly, leading to a mix of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart. This can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, poor growth, and heart failure. Treatment for endocardial cushion defects typically involves surgery to repair the defects and improve heart function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female patient visited her doctor complaining of general malaise, lethargy, and fatigue. She couldn't pinpoint when the symptoms started but felt that they had been gradually developing for a few months. During the physical examination, the doctor detected a murmur and referred her to a cardiologist based on the findings. The cardiac catheterization results are as follows:
Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
End systolic/End diastolic
Superior vena cava 77 -
Right atrium (mean) 79 7
Right ventricle 78 -
Pulmonary artery 87 52/17
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 16
Left ventricle 96 120/11
Aorta 97 120/60
What is the most accurate description of the murmur heard during the chest auscultation of this 20-year-old woman?Your Answer: A pansystolic murmur, heard loudest at the apex and radiating to the axilla
Correct Answer: A continuous 'machinery' murmur at the left upper sternal edge with late systolic accentuation
Explanation:Characteristics of Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Patent ductus arteriosus is a condition that is characterized by an unusual increase in oxygen saturation between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery. This is often accompanied by elevated pulmonary artery pressures and a high wedge pressure. These data are typical of this condition and can be used to diagnose it. It is important to note that patent ductus arteriosus can lead to serious complications if left untreated, including heart failure and pulmonary hypertension. Therefore, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes and preventing long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is being evaluated in the Cardiac Unit. He has developed a ventricular tachycardia of 160 bpm, appears ill, and has a blood pressure of 70/52 mmHg. What would be the most immediate treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DC cardioversion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ventricular Arrhythmia: Evaluating the Choices
When faced with a patient experiencing ventricular arrhythmia, it is important to consider the appropriate treatment options. In the scenario of a broad complex tachycardia with low blood pressure, immediate DC cardioversion is the clear choice. Carotid sinus massage and IV adenosine are not appropriate options as they are used in the diagnosis and termination of SVT. Immediate heparinisation is not the immediate treatment for ventricular arrhythmia. Intravenous lidocaine may be considered if the VT is haemodynamically stable, but in this scenario, it cannot be the correct answer choice. It is important to carefully evaluate the available options and choose the most appropriate treatment for the patient’s specific condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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