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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with multiple skin lesions...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with multiple skin lesions that she has noticed over the past few weeks. She is a single mother and works as a waitress, and has a long history of smoking and poor engagement with health and social services.
      On examination, she is overweight with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 (normal range: 20-25 kg/m2), with obvious cigarette burns on her arms. She has multiple small (ranging from 2-12 mm in diameter), flat, purple bruise-like lesions across her chest, back and arms.
      What causative agent is associated with the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)

      Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8)

      Explanation:

      The patient in this case has Kaposi’s sarcoma, a common tumor found in individuals with HIV infection. The tumor presents as dark purple/brown intradermal lesions that resemble bruises and can appear anywhere on the skin or oropharynx. Since HIV often goes undiagnosed, it is important to consider this diagnosis in patients with risk factors. This patient has a history of IV drug use and poor engagement with services, making it possible that they have never been tested for HIV. The patient is underweight with a low BMI, which could be a sign of HIV infection. Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by the human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi’s Sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV).

      Shingles, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, is not related to Kaposi’s sarcoma. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a herpesvirus that can cause serious infections in immunocompromised individuals, but it is not associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is linked to cervical cancer and is not a herpesvirus. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes oral and genital herpes, but it is not responsible for Kaposi’s sarcoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 2 - Liam is a 6-year-old boy who has been brought to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 6-year-old boy who has been brought to the emergency department by his father. He experienced swelling of his lips and an itchy mouth after eating a peach. Liam is generally healthy, with only mild allergies to pollen and occasional skin irritation.

      During the examination, you observe that Liam's lips are swollen, and there are a few red bumps around his mouth. His chest sounds clear, and his vital signs are normal.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most common symptoms of oral allergy syndrome are itching and tingling of the lips, tongue, and mouth. This condition occurs when the body reacts to proteins in certain foods as if they were pollen due to cross-reacting allergens. While the reaction is localized, it can cause an itchy mouth or throat and sometimes hives. However, there is no evidence of anaphylaxis as there is no wheezing or hypotension.

      While contact dermatitis is a possibility, it typically presents with a rash rather than swelling of the lips and an itchy mouth. The presence of hay fever also makes a diagnosis of oral allergy syndrome more likely. Eczema, on the other hand, presents as dry and red skin rather than swelling and itching of the lips.

      Lastly, hand, foot, and mouth is a viral infection that causes a sore throat and high temperature. It can also cause ulcers in the mouth and blisters on the hands and feet.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman complains of light-headedness, weakness, nausea and difficulty breathing within minutes...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of light-headedness, weakness, nausea and difficulty breathing within minutes of a wasp sting. A neighbour brings her into the surgery. She is hypotensive and wheezy. You decide to administer adrenaline.
      Select from the list the single correct option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline 0.5 mg (0.5 ml 1 : 1000) intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      Administering Adrenaline: Dosage and Site of Injection

      When administering adrenaline, it is recommended to inject it intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This site is considered safe, easy, and effective. The standard adult dose is 0.5 ml 1:1000, while children aged 6-12 years should receive 0.3 ml. For younger children, the dose varies from 0.15 ml for those aged 6 months to 6 years, and 0.1-0.15 ml for infants younger than 6 months. If there is no improvement after 5 minutes, a repeat dose of intramuscular adrenaline may be necessary. In some cases, patients may require intravenous adrenaline, which should only be administered by trained and experienced medical professionals such as anaesthetists and A&E consultants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 4 - What is the only true statement about allergy from the given list? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the only true statement about allergy from the given list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allergy is more common in developed areas than rural areas

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes and Patterns of Allergies

      Allergies have become increasingly prevalent in recent years, affecting up to 30-35% of people at some point in their lives. This rise is seen not only in developed countries but also in those undergoing development. The causes of allergies are multifactorial, with both environmental and genetic factors playing a role. Outdoor pollution, particularly diesel exhaust particles, has been linked to an increase in respiratory allergies. The hygiene hypothesis suggests that inadequate exposure to environmental micro-organisms during childhood may result in a tendency towards allergy. This is supported by studies showing that children with regular contact with farm animals have a lower incidence of allergy. The pattern of allergy is also changing, with a significant increase in food allergies, particularly among children. Immunotherapy for allergies should only be carried out in hospital where facilities for resuscitation are immediately available.

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      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising injections can help him overcome it.
      Which of the following ‘allergic conditions’ is the one for which allergen immunotherapy (desensitising vaccines) is most commonly recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity to bee and wasp stings

      Explanation:

      Allergy Treatment Options for Different Types of Allergies

      Bee and Wasp Sting Hypersensitivity:
      Patients who have a systemic reaction to bee or wasp stings should be referred to an allergy specialist. The first line of investigation is to demonstrate specific IgE by skin testing to both bee and wasp venom. Serum tryptase should also be measured to indicate the risk of future severe reactions. Patients should receive a written emergency management plan, an adrenaline auto-injector, and be educated in its use. Venom immunotherapy is effective in treating this type of allergy.

      Peanut Allergy:
      Desensitization is not widely used to treat food allergy because of the risk of anaphylaxis. The British National Formulary approves its use only for bee and wasp venom and pollen allergy.

      Allergic Rhinitis:
      Desensitization is available for severe seasonal rhinitis that has not responded to drugs. Sublingual or subcutaneous administration can be used, but it is recommended that only specialists use them due to concerns about the safety of desensitizing vaccines.

      Chronic Urticaria:
      Chronic urticaria doesn’t normally have an allergic cause. Chronic spontaneous urticaria may be autoimmune, while chronic inducible urticaria is due to physical stimuli such as heat, cold, pressure, and sweating.

      Contact Allergic Dermatitis:
      This type of allergy is not IgE-mediated but rather a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. In contrast, bee and wasp venom and pollen allergies are IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 6 - You are instructing a woman on the proper use of an EpiPen. What...

    Incorrect

    • You are instructing a woman on the proper use of an EpiPen. What is the most suitable guidance regarding the injection site?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh is the recommended site for injecting IM adrenaline.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old man has difficulty swallowing and speaking that worsens after physical activity....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has difficulty swallowing and speaking that worsens after physical activity. The physician suspects he may have myasthenia gravis.
      What is the most likely target of the autoimmune antibodies that cause this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myasthenia Gravis: Targets and Associations

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles, leading to muscle weakness that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. In up to 90% of generalized cases, antibodies form against acetylcholine receptors (anti-AChR). However, other muscle antigens may also be targeted.

      One such antigen is low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (anti-LRP4), which is found in subsets of myasthenia gravis patients. Another target is muscle-specific receptor tyrosine kinase (anti-MuSK), which is detected in about half of generalized myasthenia gravis patients who are seronegative for anti-AChR antibodies. These patients may not respond to anticholinesterase drugs but do respond to steroid immunosuppression.

      An association has also been observed between myasthenia gravis and human leukocyte antigen (HLA), although it is not the most likely target. Additionally, one-half of thymoma patients develop myasthenia gravis, while 15% of myasthenia gravis patients have thymomas. Non-AChR muscle autoantibodies reacting with striated muscle titin and RyR antigens are found in up to 95% of myasthenia gravis patients with a thymoma and in 50% of late-onset myasthenia gravis patients (onset at age of 50 years or later). These antibodies are usually associated with more severe myasthenia gravis.

      Understanding the various targets and associations of myasthenia gravis can aid in diagnosis and treatment of this autoimmune disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old man has a tonic-clonic seizure in the Emergency Room waiting area....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man has a tonic-clonic seizure in the Emergency Room waiting area. He is stabilized and admitted to the hospital as he is not known to be epileptic. He has had several consultations over the past few weeks with joint pains, fatigue, weight loss, a facial rash, and dry eyes. He has been referred to hematology as he has a macrocytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. He is not currently taking any medication.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects multiple systems in the body. Symptoms include weight loss, joint pain and swelling, lethargy, and lymphadenopathy. SLE can also cause hematological abnormalities such as lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, and hemolytic anemia, which can result in macrocytosis. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, peripheral neuropathy, and psychiatric problems can also occur. A malar/butterfly rash across the cheeks and bridge of the nose is a typical feature of SLE, as is dry mouth, which may be due to Sjögren syndrome, a condition commonly associated with SLE.

      Dermatomyositis is a connective tissue disease that presents with proximal symmetrical myositis and skin rashes, including a heliotrope rash on the eyelids, Gottron’s papules on the hands, and nail changes. However, the seizure and hematological abnormalities described in this case are not typical of dermatomyositis.

      Diabetes mellitus may cause weight loss, dry mouth, and lethargy, but joint pain and hematological abnormalities are not typical. Hypoglycemia may cause seizures in patients on diabetes treatment, but this patient is not taking any medication.

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain and multiple tender points on examination. It may also cause lethargy and psychological problems, but seizures are not associated with this condition, and investigations are usually normal.

      Sjögren syndrome is an autoimmune condition that causes dryness of the eyes and mouth. While it may explain the dry mouth, it doesn’t account for all the other symptoms listed. Primary Sjögren syndrome occurs independently, but secondary Sjögren syndrome is commonly associated with SLE or rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over the past year. She has noticed several pale patches on her fingers and wrists of both hands, as well as similar areas on her abdomen.
      She had a history of mild acne in her teenage years, treated with topical creams and antibiotics.
      Upon examination, there are well-defined, white lesions on the dorsum of both hands over the fingers and on the palmar surface of both wrists. The borders are smooth. The lesions are flat and non-itchy.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Symmetrical Acquired Depigmentation

      Symmetrical acquired depigmentation is a common skin condition that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the history and examination findings suggest vitiligo as the most likely diagnosis. Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder that results in the destruction of melanocytes in the skin, leading to smooth, well-demarcated, milky white lesions with no scale. It can occur alone or alongside other autoimmune disorders.

      Other possible differentials include lichen sclerosus, which is a chronic skin disorder that affects the genital and perianal areas, but is usually seen in women over the age of 50 and doesn’t affect the hands. Pityriasis alba, characterised by flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation on the skin, is generally asymptomatic and often found on the cheeks and upper arms, but is unlikely in this patient as there is no history of flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation. Tinea versicolor, a common yeast infection of the skin, appears as flaky discoloured patches on the chest and back, but there are no lesions on the trunk seen in this patient and no indication that the lesions are flaky.

      Lastly, steroid-induced skin depigmentation is unlikely in this patient as the steroid use was historical and ceased 13 years ago, and only involved mildly potent steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 10 - Individuals with primary antibody deficiencies often experience repeated infections. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • Individuals with primary antibody deficiencies often experience repeated infections. What is the most common symptom observed in these individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Antibody Deficiencies: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Primary antibody deficiencies refer to a group of rare disorders that affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens. These disorders may be caused by a mutation in a single gene or by multiple genetic factors, similar to diabetes. While primary antibody deficiencies are the most common forms of primary immune deficiency, other primary immune deficiencies involve defects in cellular immunity, phagocyte defects, and complement defects. It is important to distinguish primary antibody deficiencies from secondary immune deficiencies caused by factors such as malignancy, malnutrition, or immunosuppressive therapy.

      Clinical history is crucial in identifying primary antibody deficiencies. Patients of any age who experience recurrent infections, particularly in the respiratory tract, should be investigated if the frequency or severity of infection is unusual or out of context. While most patients are under 20 years old, common variable immunodeficiency typically peaks in the second or third decade of life. A systematic review has found that respiratory and sinus infections are the most common presenting symptoms, followed by gastrointestinal and cutaneous infections. Meningitis, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis, and ophthalmic infections are much less common.

      In summary, understanding primary antibody deficiencies is essential in diagnosing and managing patients with recurrent infections. Clinical history plays a crucial role in identifying these disorders, which can be caused by genetic factors and affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B infection presents to her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B infection presents to her General Practitioner as she has just discovered that she is pregnant with her first child. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B at the age of 19, following a needlestick injury when she was a student doing voluntary health work abroad and has no risk factors for other blood-borne viruses. She is generally in good health with no symptoms from her chronic hepatitis B infection. Her husband is vaccinated against hepatitis B, and she wants to know how her baby can avoid being infected.
      What is the most appropriate advice to give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her baby will need to be vaccinated against hepatitis B within 24 hours of birth

      Explanation:

      Managing Hepatitis B in Pregnancy: Vaccination and Testing for Newborns

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can be transmitted from mother to child during childbirth. To prevent transmission, it is important to manage hepatitis B in pregnancy. Here are some important points to keep in mind:

      – The baby should receive their first hepatitis B vaccination within 24 hours of birth. This is crucial to prevent transmission, as there is a 90% chance of the infant contracting hepatitis B without immunisation at birth.
      – Subsequently, the baby should receive a further vaccination against hepatitis B at 4 weeks of age, followed by routine immunisations which include hepatitis B at 8, 12 and 16 weeks, and then a 6th and final hepatitis B vaccination at one year of age.
      – Vaccination can occur at 8, 12 and 16 weeks of age, as per the routine immunisation schedule, but babies born to hepatitis B infected mothers require additional hepatitis B vaccinations.
      – The baby should be tested for hepatitis B at 12 months old, at which point they should also have bloods taken to test for hepatitis B infection.
      – The mother should not receive the hepatitis B vaccination at 28 weeks’ gestation, as this is not appropriate advice.
      – The mother should not take antiviral therapy while pregnant and should not avoid breastfeeding her infant to reduce the risk of vertical transmission, as this is not necessary for hepatitis B.

      In summary, managing hepatitis B in pregnancy involves vaccinating the newborn and testing for hepatitis B at 12 months old. With proper management, transmission of hepatitis B from mother to child can be prevented.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and low levels...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and low levels of iron in his blood. You suspect coeliac disease and want to investigate further.
      Choose from the options below the immunoglobulin that may be deficient in individuals with coeliac disease.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Selective IgA Deficiency

      Coeliac disease is more common in individuals with selective IgA deficiency, which affects 0.4% of the general population and 2.6% of coeliac disease patients. Diagnosis of coeliac disease relies on detecting IgA antibodies to transglutaminase or anti-endomysial antibody. However, it is crucial to check total serum IgA levels before ruling out the diagnosis based on serology. For those with confirmed IgA deficiency, IgG tTGA and/or IgG EMA are the appropriate serological tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 13 - A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A father is worried that his 7-year-old daughter has a food allergy. She has been experiencing occasional itchy rashes. He decided to eliminate all nuts from her diet and the rashes have disappeared. However, she recently had an episode of vomiting, so he also removed milk from her diet. He has been giving her antihistamines regularly. He is curious if she can undergo a blood test for allergies.

      What is the most suitable advice you can provide him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is indicated for a child who has a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts

      Explanation:

      Understanding IgE Immunoassay Testing for Peanut Allergies

      IgE immunoassay testing is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate hypersensitivity to various allergens, including peanuts. This test is particularly useful for children who have a suspected allergic reaction after consuming peanuts. IgE produced by B cells in response to specific antigens binds to receptors on mast cells, triggering an immediate (type I) response that can lead to anaphylaxis, urticaria, bronchospasm, and other symptoms.

      Compared to skin-prick testing, IgE immunoassay testing is more sensitive and doesn’t carry the risk of anaphylaxis. However, it can give false-negative results in patients who have true IgE-mediated disease, as confirmed by skin testing or allergen challenge. Therefore, it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes.

      A positive IgE immunoassay test indicates past sensitization to an allergen, but it doesn’t necessarily mean that the patient has clinically relevant disease. Some patients may show positive results but no symptoms associated with that allergen. Therefore, the history is more important in making a diagnosis.

      It is important to note that IgE immunoassay testing cannot be used if a patient is taking antihistamines. However, it is a useful diagnostic tool for patients on long-term corticosteroids, although data are conflicting.

      In summary, IgE immunoassay testing is a valuable diagnostic tool for peanut allergies, but it should be used in conjunction with the patient’s clinical history and not for screening purposes. A positive test supports the diagnosis of peanut allergy, but the history is more important.

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      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old female complains of mild mouth swelling and itching after consuming raw...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female complains of mild mouth swelling and itching after consuming raw spinach, apple, and strawberries, which subsides within 15 minutes. She has a history of birch pollen allergy but no other medical conditions.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Urticarial reactions can be caused by various factors, including drug-induced angioedema or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency. Contact irritant dermatitis is usually the result of prolonged exposure to a mild irritant, but it doesn’t typically produce a rapid and predictable response that resolves quickly. Lip licking dermatitis is a form of skin inflammation that occurs when saliva from repeated lip licking causes redness, scaling, and dryness of the lips.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

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      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a corneal transplant. What is the most indicative sign of graft rejection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red eye, corneal clouding and decreased visual acuity

      Explanation:

      postoperative Complications Following Corneal Transplant Surgery

      Corneal transplant surgery is a common procedure used to treat various eye conditions. However, like any surgery, it can have complications. Here are some postoperative complications that may occur following corneal transplant surgery:

      1. Corneal Graft Rejection: This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the transplanted cornea. Symptoms include a red eye, corneal clouding, with or without uveitis, and decreased visual acuity. Treatment involves urgent referral and the use of topical and systemic steroids.

      2. Early Graft Failure: This is usually due to defective donor endothelium or operative trauma. Symptoms include a red eye and decreased visual acuity.

      3. Positive Seidel’s Test: This test is used to identify a penetrating injury. A positive test would show a wound leak after transplant surgery. Treatment involves urgent referral and surgical intervention.

      4. Corneal Abrasion: Epithelial defects giving symptoms and signs of a corneal abrasion (pain and fluorescein staining) may occur in the postoperative period.

      5. Protruding Sutures: A red eye with an associated foreign body sensation in the postoperative period might be produced by protruding sutures.

      6. Watery Discharge: A watery discharge on its own doesn’t suggest graft rejection.

      In conclusion, it is important to be aware of these potential complications and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Early detection and treatment can improve the chances of a successful outcome.

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      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her fingers. She has a history of mild asthma, which is managed with a salbutamol inhaler, and a known allergy to co-trimoxazole. Her blood tests reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and an anti-CCP antibody level of 150u/ml (normal range < 20u/ml). Which medication could potentially trigger an allergic reaction in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine. However, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide, and methotrexate are all viable options for first-line disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs for rheumatoid arthritis in this patient. Sarilumab may also be considered, but only if the patient has not responded well to other medications and has a disease activity score of over 5.1.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.

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      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic reaction to a wasp sting. She presents to her General Practitioner (GP) a few days later as she is worried about the possibility of this happening again and is seeking advice on what she should do if it does.
      What is the most appropriate initial self-management advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of adrenaline

      Explanation:

      How to Self-Administer an Intramuscular Injection of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The most effective treatment for anaphylaxis is intramuscular (IM) adrenaline, which can be self-administered using adrenaline auto-injectors (AAIs) such as EpiPen® and Jext®.

      Before using an AAI, patients should receive proper training on their use. The recommended dose of adrenaline for adults is 0.3 mg, while for children up to 25-30 kg, it is 0.15 mg. Patients should carry two doses with them at all times, as the dose may need to be repeated after 5-15 minutes.

      It is important to note that a cold compress is not an effective treatment for anaphylaxis, as it is a systemic reaction. Similarly, taking an oral antihistamine should not delay treatment with IM adrenaline.

      If experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to administer the IM adrenaline injection immediately and then seek medical attention. Contacting emergency services is recommended, but should not delay self-administration of the injection. Additionally, if stung by a bee, the sting should be scraped out rather than plucked to avoid squeezing more venom into the skin.

      In summary, knowing how to self-administer an IM injection of adrenaline is crucial for those at risk of anaphylaxis. Proper training and carrying two doses of the medication at all times can help ensure prompt and effective treatment in case of an emergency.

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  • Question 18 - A 6-year-old girl presents with her father with a history of tingling lips...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents with her father with a history of tingling lips and mouth within minutes of eating kiwi. There are no other symptoms. It has occurred on a number of occasions over the past few weeks but only after eating kiwi. Her past medical history includes a diagnosis of eczema. The pediatrician suspects the diagnosis is oral allergy syndrome.

      What other condition is the girl likely to have been diagnosed with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Birch pollen allergy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

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  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local hospital. She has been feeling tired and emotional throughout her course of chemotherapy so far, but presents to the Duty Clinic as today, she is feeling more tired than usual, with no appetite and she has been feeling hot and cold at home and struggling to get comfortable.
      On examination, you find she has a temperature of 38.5 oC, but no focal symptoms, and her respiratory and pulse rates and blood pressure are all within normal limits.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Chemotherapy Patient

      Neutropenic sepsis is a potentially life-threatening complication of neutropenia, commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy. In a patient with fever and neutropenia, neutropenic sepsis should be suspected, and emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review is necessary. Prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics or offering emotional support is not the appropriate management in this situation. The patient requires inpatient monitoring and treatment, as per the ‘sepsis six’ bundle of care, to avoid the risk of sudden deterioration. It is crucial to recognize the urgency of this situation and act promptly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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  • Question 20 - A 12-year-old girl has recently arrived from Lithuania and registered with your practice....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has recently arrived from Lithuania and registered with your practice. Lithuania is a country with an incidence of more than 40 per 100000 of tuberculosis. Mantoux testing has been carried out to screen for latent tuberculosis. It is unclear if she has ever had BCG immunisation and there are no scars suggestive of this. After 3 days the diameter of induration is 10 mm.
      Select from the list the single most correct management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferon γ (IGT) blood test

      Explanation:

      Detecting latent tuberculosis is crucial in controlling the disease, as up to 15% of adults with latent tuberculosis may develop active disease, and the risk may be even higher in children. In immunocompromised individuals, such as those who are HIV positive, the chance of developing active disease within 5 years of latent infection is up to 50%. The Mantoux test is a method of detecting previous exposure to the tuberculosis organism or BCG vaccination by causing a cell-mediated immune reaction. The interpretation of the test depends on factors such as BCG vaccination history, immune status, and concurrent viral infection. While a negative test in HIV-positive patients doesn’t exclude tuberculosis, a positive test at certain thresholds can indicate the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis. Indeterminate results may require further evaluation by a specialist. The use of IGT as a surrogate marker of infection can be useful in evaluating latent tuberculosis in BCG-vaccinated individuals, but it cannot distinguish between latent infection and active disease. NICE recommends different testing strategies based on age and risk factors, but the benefits of IGT over the Mantoux test in determining the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis are not certain. In children under 5 years, a positive test requires referral to a specialist to exclude active disease and consideration of treatment of latent tuberculosis.

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      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 21 - A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as...

    Incorrect

    • A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as they are concerned about his development. He was born at term. He was a little slow to crawl but started walking at around 18 months. He has never had much speech. In the last few weeks, he has stopped walking and stopped feeding himself. He has started clapping his hands every few minutes and at times seems very distressed and screams. He has not been unwell with a fever or recent illness. The is no family history of note.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rett syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child in the video exhibits symptoms of a rare neurological genetic disorder called Rett syndrome. This condition is caused by a random mutation of the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome and typically affects girls between six and 18 months of age. Symptoms include delayed speech, muscle weakness, and jerky hand movements, which can be distressing for the individual. Other possible symptoms include microcephaly, seizures, and scoliosis. Sturge-Weber syndrome, Angelman syndrome, phenylketonuria, and encephalitis are unlikely diagnoses based on the absence of specific symptoms and history.

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  • Question 22 - A 10-year-old severely atopic boy is brought to the practice by his father....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old severely atopic boy is brought to the practice by his father. The father produces drugs from his bag and wants to ‘sort them out and get a repeat prescription’. He says the child is currently reasonably well. Among the items are:
      an empty packet of prednisolone 5 mg tablets (30 tablets) dated 10 months ago, take six tablets daily for five days
      budesonide dry powder inhaler 200 µg, use two puffs twice a day
      hydrocortisone cream 1%, apply twice a day to inflamed skin (30 g tube)
      loratadine syrup (5 mg/5 ml), take one 5 ml dose daily
      sodium cromoglicate eye drops use in both eyes four times a day.
      Which item seems the MOST SIGNIFICANT in importance in the first instance to discuss with the father?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Budesonide

      Explanation:

      Medication Review for an Atopic Child with Asthma

      When reviewing the medication of an atopic child with asthma, it is important to consider the dosage of inhaled corticosteroids, the potency of topical corticosteroids, and the effectiveness of antihistamines and rescue courses of prednisolone. In this case, the child is using a medium dose of budesonide, which suggests the need for specialist care. The use of mild hydrocortisone for atopic eczema may not be sufficient, and a larger tube may be needed. Loratadine is an effective non-sedating antihistamine for allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis, and repeat prescriptions are appropriate. Short courses of prednisolone may be necessary for acute exacerbations, and sodium cromoglicate can be used intermittently for allergic conjunctivitis. Overall, careful consideration of medication is crucial for managing the symptoms of an atopic child with asthma.

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  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 4-week history of a persistent dry cough, gradually worsening breathlessness on exertion and fevers. He usually easily walks for fifteen minutes to the park, but is now unable to walk there as he gets too breathless.
      On examination, he has difficulty taking a full breath due to painful inspiration, and has fine bilateral crackles on auscultation. Oxygen saturations drop from 96% to 90% on walking around the consulting room. He is a non-smoker with no significant past medical history but has had multiple prescriptions for bacterial skin infections and athlete's foot over the years with increasing frequency more recently.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Respiratory Presentation: A Case Study

      Possible diagnoses for a respiratory presentation can be numerous and varied. In this case study, the patient presents with a persistent dry cough, fever, increasing exertional dyspnoea, decreasing exercise tolerance, chest discomfort, and difficulty in taking a deep breath. The following are the possible diagnoses and their respective likelihoods:

      Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP): This is the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s symptoms and history of recurrent fungal infections. PCP is an opportunistic respiratory infection associated with HIV infection and can be fatal if diagnosed late.

      Pulmonary embolism (PE): Although this is a potentially fatal medical emergency, it is unlikely in this case as the patient has no suspicion of DVT, tachycardia, recent immobilisation, past history of DVT/PE, haemoptysis, or history of malignancy.

      Bronchiectasis: This is less likely as the patient’s persistent dry cough is not typical of bronchiectasis.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): This is also less likely as the patient is a non-smoker and has a shorter history of respiratory symptoms.

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF): This is a possibility, but the onset would generally be over a longer time course, and pleuritic chest pain is not a typical feature.

      In conclusion, PCP is the most likely diagnosis in this case, and the patient needs acute medical assessment and treatment. Other possible diagnoses should also be considered and ruled out.

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  • Question 24 - A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with facial swelling that started 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with facial swelling that started 6 hours ago. She is a busy lawyer and has important court cases this week. During the examination, her lips are found to be swollen. Her blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg and her pulse rate is 80 beats per minute. She reports no breathing difficulties or stridor.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loratadine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs exhibited by this woman suggest the presence of angioedema, which is a condition characterized by swelling of the connective tissue beneath the skin in response to a trigger. Unlike anaphylaxis, angioedema doesn’t affect breathing or vital signs. antihistamines are effective in treating this condition, while adrenaline is not necessary as it is primarily used to treat anaphylaxis. Hydrocortisone is also used to treat anaphylaxis, but it is not recommended for angioedema. Furosemide is typically prescribed for leg swelling caused by heart failure and is not suitable for treating angioedema. Chlorphenamine and loratadine are both effective in reducing swelling caused by angioedema, but since the woman has an important job that requires full concentration, loratadine would be the better option as it is a non-sedating antihistamine.

      Understanding Angioedema: Causes and Treatment

      Angioedema is a condition characterized by swelling beneath the skin, which can be caused by different allergens. The treatment for this condition varies depending on the underlying cause, but it often involves the use of antihistamines. Angioedema can be triggered by a variety of factors, including food allergies, insect bites, medication reactions, and genetic factors. The swelling can occur in different parts of the body, such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and hands. In some cases, angioedema can be life-threatening, especially if it affects the airways and causes difficulty breathing.

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  • Question 25 - A 31-year-old woman reports that she recently had anaphylaxis due to a peanut...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman reports that she recently had anaphylaxis due to a peanut allergy. She asks you about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis.
      Which of the following pieces of information about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gradually increasing amounts of allergen are injected

      Explanation:

      Hyposensitisation: Gradual Exposure to Allergens for Allergy Treatment

      Hyposensitisation, also known as immunotherapy, is a treatment that involves gradually exposing a patient to increasing amounts of an allergen to reduce or eliminate their allergic response. The British National Formulary recommends this treatment for seasonal allergic hay fever and hypersensitivity to wasp and bee venoms that have not responded to anti-allergic drugs. However, it should be used with caution in patients with asthma.

      The treatment typically lasts four weeks and can be administered through different dosing schedules, including conventional, modified rush, and rush. In a conventional schedule, injections are given weekly for 12 weeks, with the interval increasing stepwise to two, three, then four weeks. Maintenance treatment is then continued four weekly for at least three years.

      Immunotherapy is recommended for patients with a history of severe systemic reactions or moderate systemic reactions with additional risk factors, such as a high serum tryptase or a high risk of stings, or whose quality of life is reduced by fear of venom allergy. Skin testing can be done, and measuring allergen-specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies is less sensitive.

      Patients need referral to an immunotherapy specialist, and injections can be self-administered at home. However, a healthcare professional who can recognize and treat anaphylaxis should be present at the time of injection, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation facilities should be available. The patient should be observed for one hour after injection, and any symptoms, even if mild, need to be monitored until they resolve.

      While local or systemic reactions may occur, including anaphylaxis, major side-effects are not a significant risk. However, risks are higher in people with asthma. Overall, hyposensitisation can be an effective treatment for allergies that have not responded to other therapies.

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  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother complaining of recurrent episodes of mouth, tongue, and lip itchiness shortly after eating bananas. The symptoms usually subside within half an hour. The child has a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis. He has undergone allergy testing before, which revealed a positive result for birch pollen.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Angioedema can be triggered by drug-induced reactions or, in rare cases, other factors.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels itchy and has red blotchy skin and swollen lips and eyelids. He has an inspiratory stridor and wheeze, and an apex beat of 120/minute. He feels faint on standing and his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg.
      Select from the list the single most important immediate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaphylactic Reactions and Emergency Treatment

      Anaphylactic reactions occur when an allergen triggers specific IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, leading to the rapid release of histamine and other mediators. This can cause capillary leakage, mucosal edema, shock, and asphyxia. The severity and rate of progression of anaphylactic reactions can vary, and there may be a history of previous sensitivity to an allergen or recent exposure to a drug.

      Prompt administration of adrenaline and resuscitation measures are crucial in treating anaphylaxis. Antihistamines are now considered a third-line intervention and should not be used to treat Airway/Breathing/Circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilization, especially in patients with persisting skin symptoms. Corticosteroids are no longer advised for the routine emergency treatment of anaphylaxis.

      The incidence of anaphylaxis is increasing, and it is not always recognized. It is important to understand the causes and emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions to ensure prompt and effective care.

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  • Question 28 - As part of a tutorial on pruritus, you plan to use cases from...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a tutorial on pruritus, you plan to use cases from both yourself and GP registrars who frequently prescribe antihistamines for itchy conditions. Your goal is to determine the scenario in which a non-sedating antihistamine would be most effective. Please select the ONE option that best fits this scenario.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines: Uses and Limitations in Various Skin Conditions

      Urticaria, Chickenpox, atopic eczema, local reactions to insect stings, and general pruritus are common skin conditions that may benefit from antihistamines. However, the effectiveness of antihistamines varies depending on the underlying cause and the individual’s response.

      For a 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria, non-sedating H1 antihistamines are the first-line treatment. If the first antihistamine is not effective, a second one may be tried.

      A 4-year-old girl with Chickenpox may benefit from emollients and sedating antihistamines to relieve pruritus. Calamine lotion may also be used, but its effectiveness decreases as it dries.

      Antihistamines are not routinely recommended for atopic eczema, but a non-sedating antihistamine may be tried for a month in severe cases or when there is severe itching or urticaria. Sedating antihistamines may be used for sleep disturbance.

      For a 50-year-old woman with a local reaction to a wasp sting, antihistamines are most effective when used immediately after the sting. After 48 hours, they are unlikely to have a significant impact on the local reaction.

      Finally, for a 65-year-old man with general pruritus but no rash, antihistamines may be prescribed, but their effectiveness is limited as histamine may not be the main cause of the pruritus.

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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with fatigue, fever, sweating (especially at night), aching joints and headaches. On examination, there are no focal signs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection

      Explanation:

      Infections after Renal Transplantation: Common Types and Risks

      Renal transplant patients are at high risk of infections, with over 50% experiencing at least one infection in the first year. In the first month, the risk is similar to that of non-immunosuppressed individuals, with common infections such as postoperative pneumonias and wound infections. However, in the one to six-month period, immunomodulating viruses like Cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex viruses, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus-6 become more problematic.

      Herpes simplex virus can cause severe lesions, including disseminated mucocutaneous disease, oesophagitis, hepatitis, and pneumonitis. influenza can also cause respiratory symptoms, but the injectable inactivated vaccine is safe for kidney transplant recipients. Pneumonia and urinary tract infections are common in the general population, and patients should receive appropriate immunisation.

      A small group of patients may experience persistent viral infections, and those who require additional immunosuppression are at risk of opportunistic infections like cryptococcus, pneumocystis, listeria, and nocardia. Urinary infections are the most common after renal transplantation, and patients usually receive prophylactic antibiotics and antiviral drugs for a few months after the procedure.

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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of progressive tiredness. She has been working alternative night and day shifts for many months. In the last two months she has experienced intermittent constipation. She reports that her diet is not great because of these awkward shift patterns but that she doesn't restrict it. She thinks she may have lost a small amount of weight over this period. Her legs ache after a long shift and that the tan she obtained in the summer seems to have lingered.
      She has no significant previous illness and doesn't take any regular medications.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 222 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 56 µmol/l 45–84 µmol/l
      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/l 9–24 pmol/l
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.2 mU/l 0.4–4.0 mU/l
      Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 39 mmol/mol < 41 mmol/mol
      Ferritin 50 ng/ml 10–300 ng/ml
      Glucose 5.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with fatigue, weight loss, and electrolyte abnormalities

      Addison’s disease: The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the adrenal glands and leads to a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. The gradual onset of symptoms, including fatigue, weight loss, muscle aches, constipation, and hyperpigmentation, along with mild hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, are consistent with this diagnosis.

      Subclinical hypothyroidism: Although the patient has some symptoms that could be attributed to low thyroid hormone levels, her thyroid function tests are normal, making this diagnosis less likely.

      Dietary related hyponatremia: Mild hyponatremia in a young person is unlikely to be caused by dietary differences or deficiency, suggesting a pathological process.

      Renal disease: While electrolyte abnormalities could be a sign of renal insufficiency, the patient’s normal urea and creatinine levels make this diagnosis less likely.

      Cushing’s disease: Although some symptoms, such as fatigue and muscle weakness, could be attributed to excess cortisol, other expected symptoms, such as weight gain and high blood sugar, are not present in this patient.

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