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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of a persistent blocked nose...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of a persistent blocked nose and reduced sense of smell for the past few months. During examination, the doctor observes pale grey mucosal sacs in both nostrils. The patient has a history of allergies but is otherwise healthy. What is the most likely condition she is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Aspirin usage

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Medication Usage: A Brief Overview

      Aspirin Usage and Nasal Polyps
      Nasal polyps, asthma, and rhinosinusitis are all symptoms of aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease. This condition is caused by hypersensitivity to aspirin or other cyclooxygenase 1 inhibitors and typically develops in individuals aged 30-40 years. Treatment involves avoiding non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and in some cases, aspirin desensitization may be performed.

      COPD and Nasal Polyps
      While nasal polyps can be associated with asthma, there is no known association with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smokers with nosebleeds or unilateral nasal polyps should be referred for urgent ENT assessment to rule out malignancy.

      Infective Endocarditis and Nasal Polyps
      Infective endocarditis occurs when bacteria enters the bloodstream, usually via poor dentition, an open wound, or mechanical device placed in the heart. There is no known association between nasal polyps and infective endocarditis.

      Paracetamol Usage and Nasal Polyps
      Nasal polyps are associated with aspirin sensitivity, not sensitivity to paracetamol. According to the British National Formulary, the only side effect of oral paracetamol is thrombocytopenia, which is considered very rare.

      Simvastatin Usage and Nasal Polyps
      Nasal polyps are not a recognized side effect of statins, which can cause muscle aches, headaches, diarrhea, and sleep disturbances.

      Understanding Medical Conditions and Medication Usage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The action of warfarin is characterized by which of the following statements? ...

    Incorrect

    • The action of warfarin is characterized by which of the following statements?

      Your Answer: It increases vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

      Correct Answer: It interacts with miconazole to increase anticoagulant effect

      Explanation:

      Warfarin, a medication used to prevent blood clots, can interact with other drugs and have various effects on the body. For example, certain antimicrobial agents can increase the risk of bleeding in patients taking warfarin, including azole antifungals, macrolides, quinolones, co-trimoxazole, penicillins, and cephalosporins. Miconazole, in particular, can greatly enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by blocking the action of vitamin K epoxide reductase, which reactivates vitamin K1. This decreases the clotting ability of certain factors in the blood. However, warfarin can also have negative effects, such as warfarin necrosis, a rare but serious complication that can lead to skin necrosis and limb gangrene. When taking warfarin, it is important to consider drug interactions, such as displacement from protein-binding sites or enzyme inhibition or induction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old patient presents with a month-long fever and occasional afebrile episodes. Blood...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient presents with a month-long fever and occasional afebrile episodes. Blood cultures and infection screening have yielded negative results. During examination, the patient has a temperature of 38°C and nontender lymph nodes in the neck. What is the most crucial step in reaching a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymph node biopsy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Lymph Node Biopsy in Diagnosing Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      When it comes to diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a lymph node biopsy is the most reliable method. Fine-needle aspiration should not be used as the sole method for diagnosis. In addition to the biopsy, a thorough evaluation should include a medical history and examination, blood tests, liver function tests, serum protein tests, HIV testing, chest radiograph, CT scans, and bone marrow biopsy. Gallium scans can also be performed to document radioisotope uptake by the tumor. Lymphangiography may be necessary if the presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is subdiaphragmatic. While a raised ESR can indicate Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is not the most important step in obtaining a diagnosis. Similarly, repeating a CRP test or blood cultures would not be appropriate if the initial results were negative. In summary, a lymph node biopsy is crucial in diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma and should be the first step in the evaluation process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment at 10 weeks’ gestation. This...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment at 10 weeks’ gestation. This is her second pregnancy. She has a history of hypertension and is taking medication for it. She is offered antenatal screening for chromosomal abnormalities, including Down syndrome.
      Which of the following tests is used in antenatal screening for Down syndrome?

      Your Answer: Nuchal thickness

      Explanation:

      Prenatal Screening Tests for Fetal Abnormalities

      During pregnancy, various screening tests are conducted to detect any fetal abnormalities. One such test is the measurement of nuchal thickness, which is the fluid-filled sac between the back of the neck and the skin. An increase in thickness is associated with a decreased chance of normal birth and can detect 60-70% of Down syndrome cases. Other screening tests include measuring pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A), b-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG), E3, and α-fetoprotein (AFP). Low PAPP-A, in combination with free β-hCG, is 65% accurate in diagnosing Down syndrome. The biparietal diameter (BPD) is the diameter across the skull and is associated with neurodevelopmental outcomes. Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate is an adrenal androgen that is not influenced by pregnancy. Ultrasound assessment for herniation of the dural sac is used to screen for spina bifida. Utero-placental Doppler is used to identify at-risk women for pre-eclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction but is not useful in detecting Down syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department after collapsing on the...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department after collapsing on the street. He reports feeling increasingly lethargic over the past week and has been coughing up green sputum. He has a history of alcoholic pancreatitis.

      His vital signs are as follows:
      - Temperature: 38.4ºC
      - Heart rate: 122 bpm
      - Blood pressure: 106/54 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate: 22 breaths/min
      - Oxygen saturations: 94% on 2L nasal cannulae

      Upon examination, coarse crackles are heard in the left upper lobe. His heart sounds are normal and his abdomen is soft and nontender.

      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is a gram-negative rod that commonly causes a cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobes, particularly in individuals with a history of diabetes and alcoholism. The presence of upper zone crackles is a sign of Klebsiella pneumoniae infection, while a history of alcoholic pancreatitis suggests chronic alcohol use.

      Legionella pneumophila causes Legionnaire’s disease, an atypical pneumonia that typically spreads through contaminated water sources, such as air conditioner vents. Symptoms include fever, cough, and myalgia, with bilateral chest symptoms being more common. Other extra-pulmonary symptoms, such as hyponatremia and hepatitis, may also be present.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is another cause of atypical pneumonia, with symptoms including coryza and a dry cough. This form of pneumonia is associated with extra-pulmonary symptoms such as haemolytic anaemia and erythema multiforme, which are not present in this case.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely cause of pneumonia following influenza virus infection. However, since there is no history of preceding coryza and the patient has upper zone crackles and alcoholism, Staphylococcus aureus is less likely to be the cause of this patient’s pneumonia.

      Klebsiella Pneumoniae: A Gram-Negative Rod Causing Infections in Humans

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is a type of Gram-negative rod that is typically found in the gut flora of humans. Although it is a normal part of the body’s microbiome, it can also cause a variety of infections in humans, including pneumonia and urinary tract infections. This bacterium is more commonly found in individuals who have diabetes or who consume alcohol regularly. In some cases, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can occur following aspiration.

      One of the distinctive features of Klebsiella pneumoniae infections is the presence of red-currant jelly sputum. This type of sputum is often seen in patients with pneumonia caused by this bacterium. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections tend to affect the upper lobes of the lungs.

      Unfortunately, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can be quite serious and even life-threatening. They commonly lead to the formation of lung abscesses and empyema, and the mortality rate for these infections is between 30-50%. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for Klebsiella pneumoniae infections, particularly in patients who are at higher risk due to underlying health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic to...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic to inquire about the whooping cough vaccine. She mentions that her friend, who also sees the same GP, received the vaccine at 32 weeks of pregnancy. She wants to know if she can get the vaccine at this stage of her pregnancy.

      Your Answer: She can have the vaccine now

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women at 16-32 weeks are given the option to receive the pertussis vaccine.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      60.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old man with hypertension complains of recurring headaches accompanied by sensitivity to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with hypertension complains of recurring headaches accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, and occasional vomiting. The headaches usually affect the right side of his head and sometimes cause temporary vision problems. They last up to 10 hours and occur approximately once every 4-6 weeks. The neurological examination and blood pressure are normal.

      What would be the most suitable initial medical treatment for acute attacks? Choose the ONE most appropriate first-line medical treatment from the options provided.

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Migraines: A Comparison of Medications

      Migraines are a recurring type of headache that can last for several hours to a few days. They are often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light and sound, nausea, and vomiting. There are several medications available for the treatment of migraines, each with its own benefits and drawbacks.

      Ibuprofen is a simple analgesic that is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for the treatment of acute migraine attacks. It is safe for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but the daily dose should not exceed 1200 mg.

      Sumatriptan is a serotonin-receptor agonist that causes intracerebral vasoconstriction. It is recommended by NICE for the treatment of acute migraines, but it is contraindicated in patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease.

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that is used for long-term prophylaxis of migraines. It is recommended by NICE for this use but not for acute treatment.

      Co-codamol, an opiate medication, is not recommended by NICE for the treatment of migraines due to the risk of medication-overuse headache and worsening of nausea and vomiting symptoms.

      Ergotamine tartrate, another medication that was previously used to treat migraines, is now limited in use due to its unpleasant side effects such as nausea and vomiting. NICE advises against its use for the treatment of acute migraines.

      In conclusion, the choice of medication for the treatment of migraines should be based on the patient’s medical history and the severity of their symptoms. Patients should consult with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old man with hypertension presents to the clinic with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man with hypertension presents to the clinic with a complaint of ankle swelling that has developed over the past two months. Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blockers may cause adverse effects such as headaches, flushing, and swelling in the ankles.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the most frequent reason for hepatocellular carcinoma in the UK, particularly...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent reason for hepatocellular carcinoma in the UK, particularly among older adults?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Hepatocellular carcinoma is primarily caused by hepatitis B worldwide, while in Europe, hepatitis C is the most common cause.

      Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of cancer that ranks as the third most common cause of cancer worldwide. The leading cause of HCC globally is chronic hepatitis B, while chronic hepatitis C is the most common cause in Europe. The primary risk factor for developing HCC is liver cirrhosis, which can result from various factors such as hepatitis B and C, alcohol, haemochromatosis, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, hereditary tyrosinosis, glycogen storage disease, aflatoxin, certain drugs, porphyria cutanea tarda, male sex, diabetes mellitus, and metabolic syndrome.

      HCC tends to present late, and patients may exhibit features of liver cirrhosis or failure such as jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, and splenomegaly. In some cases, decompensation may occur in patients with chronic liver disease. Raised AFP levels are also common. Screening with ultrasound and alpha-fetoprotein may be necessary for high-risk groups, including patients with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B and C or haemochromatosis, and men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol.

      Management options for early-stage HCC include surgical resection, liver transplantation, radiofrequency ablation, transarterial chemoembolisation, and sorafenib, a multikinase inhibitor. It is important to note that Wilson’s disease is an exception to the typical causes of liver cirrhosis and HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      68.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with left-sided weakness. She takes warfarin...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with left-sided weakness. She takes warfarin for deep vein thrombosis and her international normalised ratio (INR) is usually in the therapeutic range of 2–3. Her INR is measured on admission to hospital and is 1.1. She has recently started a new medication.
      Which of the following medications is this patient most likely to have recently started?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Cytochrome P450 Enzyme Inducers and Inhibitors and their Effects on Warfarin Metabolism

      Warfarin is a commonly used anticoagulant medication that requires careful monitoring of the international normalized ratio (INR) to ensure therapeutic efficacy and prevent bleeding complications. However, certain medications can affect the metabolism of warfarin by inducing or inhibiting cytochrome P450 enzymes in the liver.

      One example of a cytochrome P450 enzyme inducer is carbamazepine, which can increase warfarin metabolism and reduce its effectiveness. This can result in a decreased INR and potentially increase the risk of blood clots. On the other hand, cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitors such as cimetidine, erythromycin, ketoconazole, and sulfamethoxazole can reduce warfarin metabolism and increase its potency, leading to an increased INR and higher risk of bleeding complications.

      To remember these medications, a helpful mnemonic is PC BRAS for enzyme inducers and SICKFACES.COM for enzyme inhibitors. Patients starting these medications should be closely monitored for changes in their INR and warfarin dosages may need to be adjusted accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 92-year-old male was admitted to the stroke ward with right-sided facial droop...

    Incorrect

    • A 92-year-old male was admitted to the stroke ward with right-sided facial droop and hemiplegia. CT head revealed a significant infarct in the left middle cerebral artery. The patient has finished a 2-week course of high-dose aspirin (300mg) for the management of an acute ischemic stroke. What is the best choice for secondary prevention?

      Your Answer: Switch to a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)

      Correct Answer: Switch to clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      The preferred antiplatelet for secondary prevention following a stroke is clopidogrel 75mg, as it reduces the risk of major adverse cardiovascular events. It is recommended for patients who have had a transient ischaemic attack or confirmed stroke after two weeks of high-dose aspirin. Low-dose aspirin (75mg) and modified-release dipyridamole can be used as an alternative if clopidogrel is contraindicated. High-dose aspirin (300 mg) is only indicated in the first 2 weeks after an acute ischaemic stroke. Anticoagulants such as DOACs and warfarin are used to prevent clot formation and embolisation in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) to reduce the risk of stroke. However, since there is no evidence of AF in this patient, these options are not applicable.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old man has been taking medication for psoriasis with arthropathy for a...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has been taking medication for psoriasis with arthropathy for a prolonged period. He has recently experienced a dry cough and worsening shortness of breath with minimal activity.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
      Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Probable Cause of Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Methotrexate is the correct answer as it is a well-known drug-related cause of pulmonary fibrosis, which is the probable cause of the patient’s symptoms. Hydroxychloroquine, azathioprine, ciclosporin, and penicillamine are not known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, although some of them have the potential to cause pneumonitis. Ciclosporin has been studied as a treatment for the disease, but it is not recommended by NICE. Therefore, it is important to identify the probable cause of pulmonary fibrosis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 14-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner complaining of pain to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner complaining of pain to the left knee which is worse after running. The knee is stiff in the morning and sometimes locks. There is a knee effusion present on examination and an X-ray shows a loose body in the knee joint.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Knee Pain in Adolescents and Young Adults

      Knee pain is a common complaint among adolescents and young adults. There are several possible causes of knee pain, including osteochondritis dissecans, chondromalacia patellae, Osgood-Schlatter disease, osteoarthritis, and patellar dislocation.

      Osteochondritis dissecans occurs when the articular cartilage separates from the joint surface, typically in the knee joint. This condition is common in teenagers and young adults and can cause vague, achy joint pain that worsens with activity. Other symptoms may include swelling, locking, catching, and giving way. Diagnosis is confirmed with an X-ray and magnetic resonance imaging can help with management and prognosis.

      Chondromalacia patellae is characterized by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. This condition is a common cause of chronic knee pain in teenagers and young adults. Symptoms include anterior knee pain that worsens after sitting for a prolonged period or walking down stairs. Diagnosis is made through examination and a positive shrug test.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease is a cause of knee pain in young adolescents, particularly sporty boys. It is caused by overuse of the quadriceps, which strains the patellar ligament attachment to the tibia. Symptoms include pain inferior to the patella that worsens with activity and improves with rest. Diagnosis is usually clinical and treatment involves simple analgesics and ice packs.

      Osteoarthritis is a disease of older age caused by degeneration of the articular cartilage. It is often seen in weight-bearing areas such as the knee and hip, but is unlikely in young adults.

      Patellar dislocation is most common in teenage girls and often occurs during sports. Symptoms include sudden pain and an inability to weight bear on the affected side. Examination reveals a dislocated patella, often laterally, and an associated osteochondral fracture may be seen on an X-ray.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 75-year-old man with known type 2 diabetes presents with a 1-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with known type 2 diabetes presents with a 1-week history of polydipsia, feeling generally unwell and drowsy. On examination, he looks very dehydrated and is difficult to rouse. He appears confused when he does talk to you.

      Admission bloods show:
      Na+ 149 mmol/l
      K+ 5.2 mmol/l
      Urea 22.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 254 µmol/l
      His blood glucose is 36 mmol/L.

      What is the most important initial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give calcium gluconate due to hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Rehydrate with 0.9% Saline

      Explanation:

      Complications of the hyperosmolar state, such as rhabdomyolysis, venous thromboembolism, lactic acidosis, hypertriglyceridemia, renal failure, stroke, and cerebral edema, contribute to the mortality of HONK. Identifying precipitants, such as a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, infection, high-dose steroids, myocardial infarction, vomiting, stroke, thromboembolism, and poor treatment compliance, is crucial.

      Supportive care and slow metabolic resolution are the mainstays of HONK management. Patients with HONK often have a fluid deficit of over 8 liters, and caution should be exercised to avoid rapid fluid replacement, which can cause cerebral edema due to rapid osmolar shifts. In this scenario, fluid resuscitation should be the top priority, followed closely by initiating a sliding scale. Some experts recommend waiting for an hour before starting insulin to prevent rapid changes and pontine myelinolysis. However, the fluid alone can lower blood sugar levels, and some argue that administering insulin immediately can cause a precipitous drop in osmolality.

      Understanding Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State

      Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a medical emergency that can be life-threatening and difficult to manage. It is characterized by severe dehydration, electrolyte deficiencies, and osmotic diuresis resulting from hyperglycaemia. HHS typically affects elderly individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM).

      The pathophysiology of HHS involves hyperglycaemia leading to increased serum osmolality, osmotic diuresis, and severe volume depletion. Precipitating factors include intercurrent illness, sedative drugs, and dementia. Clinical features of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, signs of dehydration, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness, and focal neurological deficits.

      Diagnosis of HHS is based on the presence of hypovolaemia, marked hyperglycaemia, significantly raised serum osmolarity, no significant hyperketonaemia, and no significant acidosis. Management of HHS involves fluid replacement with IV 0.9% sodium chloride solution, potassium monitoring, and insulin administration only if blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids. Patients with HHS are at risk of thrombosis due to hyperviscosity, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is recommended.

      Complications of HHS include vascular complications such as myocardial infarction and stroke. It is important to recognize the clinical features of HHS and manage it promptly to prevent mortality.

      Overall, HHS is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention and management. Understanding its pathophysiology, clinical features, and management is crucial in providing appropriate care to patients with HHS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes a spirometry evaluation with the following findings: a decrease in forced vital capacity (FVC), an increase in the forced expiratory volume in one second to forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1:FVC ratio), and a decrease in the transfer factor for carbon monoxide (TLCO), indicating impaired gas exchange. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      68.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He is...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He is worried that his daughter has been refusing to eat for 3 days and has been more irritable than usual. When asked, the girl points to her neck and complains of soreness. She has no significant medical history and is up to date with her vaccinations.

      During the examination, the girl has a temperature of 38.7ºC. Her tonsils are enlarged and inflamed, and her throat is red. There are palpable lymph nodes in the anterior cervical chain that are tender to the touch. The rest of her examination is normal, and Kernig's sign is negative.

      What is the most appropriate treatment to prescribe for this 6-year-old girl?

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic treatment should be given to individuals who are likely to have Streptococcus species isolated. However, Amoxicillin is not the most appropriate antibiotic for tonsillitis. Chlorhexidine mouthwash is not indicated for the treatment of tonsillitis. Dexamethasone is primarily used for the management of croup, which is characterized by a barking cough and is more common in the winter months.

      Sore throat is a term used to describe various conditions such as pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, throat swabs and rapid antigen tests should not be routinely carried out for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be managed with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not typically necessary. However, in cases where there is marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when three or more Centor criteria are present, antibiotics may be indicated. The Centor and FeverPAIN scoring systems can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin (for penicillin-allergic patients) can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. It is worth noting that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, although this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up. He has discontinued his modified-release metformin due to experiencing nausea and diarrhoea. Lately, he has been feeling increasingly fatigued and thirsty. His blood pressure measures 150/110 mmHg and he reports no issues with his eyesight. Laboratory tests reveal an HbA1c level of 56 mmol/mol. The QRISK score is calculated and shows 23%. He is a non-smoker and non-alcoholic.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for his management?

      Your Answer: Offer gliclazide

      Correct Answer: Offer dapagliflozin

      Explanation:

      Gliclazide is not the preferred initial treatment for type 2 diabetes. Due to the patient’s inability to tolerate metformin and a QRISK score of >10, there is now a higher likelihood of cardiovascular disease.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents. They are...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents. They are concerned that he has been experiencing excessive thirst and needing to go to the bathroom to urinate frequently. There is suspicion that this may be a case of diabetes insipidus. Upon investigation, it is found that his symptoms are unresponsive to a desmopressin (ADH analogue).
      What is the most suitable medication for managing this child's condition?

      Your Answer: Bumetanide

      Correct Answer: Chlorothiazide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to respond to ADH, resulting in excessive urination and thirst. Thiazide diuretics are paradoxically used to treat this condition by blocking the NaCl transporter in the distal tubule, leading to increased uptake of sodium and water in the proximal collecting duct. This results in less water loss through urination and improved symptoms. Desmopressin is not effective in treating nephrogenic diabetes insipidus as it works by increasing ADH levels. Loop diuretics like bumetanide are not used to treat this condition. Insulin has no use in diabetes insipidus. Terlipressin is only effective in cranial diabetes insipidus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP clinic with a complaint of painful...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP clinic with a complaint of painful blisters and ulcers on his glans, accompanied by pain during urination. He is sexually active and does not use protection during intercourse. His last unprotected sexual encounter was a week ago. What medication would be beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Male patients with gonorrhea typically experience urethral discharge and dysuria as symptoms, rather than painful ulcers.

      Understanding Genital Herpes

      Genital herpes is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital lesions respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The infection is characterized by painful genital ulceration, which may be accompanied by dysuria and pruritus. Primary infections are usually more severe than recurrent episodes and may present with systemic symptoms such as headache, fever, and malaise. Tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and urinary retention may also occur.

      To diagnose genital herpes, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are the preferred investigation method as they are considered superior to viral culture. HSV serology may be useful in certain situations, such as recurrent genital ulceration of unknown cause. Management of the infection involves general measures such as saline bathing, analgesia, and topical anaesthetic agents like lidocaine. Oral aciclovir is also prescribed, and some patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir.

      In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes occurring after 28 weeks gestation may require an elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low. Understanding genital herpes and its management is crucial in preventing transmission and managing symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which one of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is accurate?

      Your Answer: Women of Afro-Caribbean origin are at an increased risk

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      27.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

ENT (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/3) 33%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (3/3) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/3) 33%
Renal Medicine/Urology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
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