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Question 1
Correct
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You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to her irregular menstrual cycle and hot flashes. Which of the following situations would provide evidence for this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Patient age 39 with raised FSH/LH and low oestradiol
Explanation:Premature menopause is characterized by irregular menstrual cycles occurring before the age of 45, along with elevated FSH/LH levels and low oestradiol levels in blood tests. The pituitary gland releases more hormones in an attempt to stimulate the failing ovary to produce oestrogen, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, options 1, 3, 4, and 5 are incorrect. Option 5 depicts primary pituitary failure.
Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility of her twins having Down's syndrome. What is the most suitable investigation to perform in this case?
Your Answer: Nuchal translucency ultrasonography on each twin
Explanation:There are several methods for screening and diagnosing Down’s syndrome in pregnancy. The nuchal translucency scan, which measures fluid in the fetal neck, is best done between 11 and 14 weeks and can detect an increased risk of genetic syndromes. The triple screen, which measures levels of certain hormones in the mother’s blood, is done in the second trimester and can detect up to 69% of cases in singleton pregnancies, but may have a higher false positive or false negative in twin pregnancies. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling are invasive diagnostic tests that can detect chromosomal disorders with high accuracy, but carry a small risk of pregnancy loss. The routine anomaly scan should not be used for Down’s syndrome screening. Cell-free fetal DNA screening is a newer method that can detect about 99% of Down’s syndrome pregnancies, but is currently only offered by private clinics at a high cost. A positive screening result suggests an increased risk for Down’s syndrome, and definitive testing with chorionic villous sampling or amniocentesis is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with her partner, reporting 2 years of unsuccessful attempts at conceiving. Neither she nor her partner have any children from previous relationships. The patient has a medical history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits and her BMI is 24 kg/m². What is the recommended initial approach to enhance fertility?
Your Answer: In-vitro fertilisation
Correct Answer: Clomifene
Explanation:Clomifene is the recommended first-line treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. This patient has been diagnosed with PCOS, which can cause infertility and other symptoms such as hirsutism. Clomifene works by inducing ovulation and has been shown to improve fertility outcomes in these patients.
Goserelin is not a suitable treatment for infertility in PCOS patients. It is a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonist used for conditions such as prostate carcinoma, endometriosis, and dysfunctional uterine bleeding. In-vitro fertilisation is not typically the first option for improving fertility in PCOS patients and is usually considered later on.
While metformin is an important drug in the management of PCOS, it is not the primary treatment for improving fertility. It is often prescribed in combination with clomifene to address metabolic issues associated with PCOS. However, clomifene is the key drug for improving overall fertility outcomes in these patients.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomifene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like clomifene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with clomifene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman presents with post-menopausal bleeding. She has experienced multiple episodes over the past 6 months. The bleeding is heavy enough to require sanitary pads, but she denies any clots. She reports no bowel or urinary symptoms and has not experienced any weight loss. She went through menopause at 50 years old and took hormone replacement therapy for 2 years to alleviate hot flashes and mood swings. She has one child who was born via spontaneous vaginal delivery 45 years ago. There is no family history of gynaecological issues. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:When women experience postmenopausal bleeding (PMB), it is important to rule out the possibility of endometrial cancer. The first step is to conduct a speculum examination to check for any visible abnormalities. For women over 40 years old, an endometrial biopsy and hysteroscopy should be performed to diagnose endometrial cancer. Risk factors for this type of cancer include advanced age, never having given birth, using unopposed estrogen therapy, starting menstruation at an early age and experiencing menopause later in life, being overweight, and having submucosal fibroids that typically calcify after menopause.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A pregnant woman presents at 24 weeks pregnant. What would be the expected symphysis-fundal height?
Your Answer: 13 - 15 cm
Correct Answer: 22 - 26 cm
Explanation:The symphysis-fundal height in centimeters after 20 weeks of gestation is equal to the number of weeks of gestation.
The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is a measurement taken from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres. It is used to determine the gestational age of a fetus and should match within 2 cm after 20 weeks. For example, if a woman is 24 weeks pregnant, a normal SFH would be between 22 and 26 cm. Proper measurement of SFH is important for monitoring fetal growth and development during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has a long-standing history of heavy menstrual bleeding, which has worsened over the past six months. She denies experiencing dysmenorrhea, intermenstrual bleeding, or postcoital bleeding. She has completed her family and does not desire any more children. Her gynecological exam is unremarkable, and her cervical screening is current. What is the preferred treatment option?
Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for menorrhagia is the intrauterine system (Mirena).
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.
[Insert flowchart here]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman goes to her first prenatal appointment and is found to have a urinary tract infection based on a urine dipstick test. Despite being asymptomatic, which antibiotic should she steer clear of during the first trimester of pregnancy?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Urinary tract infections in pregnancy should be treated to prevent pyelonephritis. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester due to teratogenicity risk. Erythromycin is not typically used for UTIs and nitrofurantoin should be avoided close to full term. Sulfonamides and quinolones should also be avoided in pregnancy.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35 year old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and vomiting. She is admitted to the obstetrics ward after a routine blood pressure measurement was 190/95 mmHg. Examination reveals right upper quadrant abdominal pain and brisk tendon reflexes. The following blood tests are shown:
Hb 85 g/l
WBC 6 * 109/l
Platelets 89 * 109/l
Bilirubin 2.8 µmol/l
ALP 215 u/l
ALT 260 u/l
γGT 72 u/l
LDH 846 u/I
A peripheral blood film is also taken which shows polychromasia and schistocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:The symptoms of HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia, include haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). A patient with this condition may experience malaise, nausea, vomiting, and headache, as well as hypertension with proteinuria and epigastric and/or upper abdominal pain. The patient in this case meets the requirements for a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.
Liver Complications During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.
Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.
Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes that occur randomly and are affecting her work as a lawyer, especially during court sessions. She is hesitant to try hormone replacement therapy due to its side effects and is seeking alternative options. What medication can be prescribed to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Pregabalin
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, women experiencing vasomotor symptoms during menopause can be prescribed fluoxetine, a selective serotonin uptake inhibitor (SSRI). While clonidine is also approved for treating these symptoms, its effectiveness is not well-established and it can cause side effects such as dry mouth, sedation, depression, and fluid retention. Gabapentin is being studied for its potential to reduce hot flushes, but more research is needed.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.
HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of gallstones is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy in two months. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 (combined oral contraceptive pill) and is concerned about the increased risk of blood clots. What advice should be given to the patient in this scenario?
Your Answer: She should stop Microgynon 28 days before the procedure
Explanation:Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications and even death. However, it is preventable. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for 2018 to provide recommendations for the assessment and management of patients at risk of VTE in hospital. All patients admitted to the hospital should be assessed individually to identify risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk. The department of health’s VTE risk assessment tool is recommended for medical and surgical patients. Patients with certain risk factors, such as reduced mobility, surgery, cancer, and comorbidities, are at increased risk of developing VTE. After assessing a patient’s VTE risk, healthcare professionals should compare it to their risk of bleeding to decide whether VTE prophylaxis should be offered. If indicated, VTE prophylaxis should be started as soon as possible.
There are two types of VTE prophylaxis: mechanical and pharmacological. Mechanical prophylaxis includes anti-embolism stockings and intermittent pneumatic compression devices. Pharmacological prophylaxis includes fondaparinux sodium, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), and unfractionated heparin (UFH). The choice of prophylaxis depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and bleeding risk.
In general, medical patients deemed at risk of VTE after individual assessment are started on pharmacological VTE prophylaxis, provided that the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding and there are no contraindications. Surgical patients at low risk of VTE are treated with anti-embolism stockings, while those at high risk are treated with a combination of stockings and pharmacological prophylaxis.
Patients undergoing certain surgical procedures, such as hip and knee replacements, are recommended to receive pharmacological VTE prophylaxis to reduce the risk of VTE developing post-surgery. For fragility fractures of the pelvis, hip, and proximal femur, LMWH or fondaparinux sodium is recommended for a month if the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding.
Healthcare professionals should advise patients to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy four weeks before surgery and mobilize them as soon as possible after surgery. Patients should also ensure they are hydrated. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent VTE and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman seeks guidance on the Mirena (intrauterine system). What impact is expected on her menstrual cycle?
Your Answer: Initially irregular bleeding later followed by light menses or amenorrhoea
Explanation:Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25 year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a two week history of pale and homogenous vaginal discharge that has an offensive odor but is not causing any itching or irritation. Upon examination, there is no inflammation of the cervix or vagina and the discharge has a pH of 6.3. A sample of the discharge is collected. What is the probable result of the analysis of the discharge sample?
Your Answer: Lactobacilli
Correct Answer: Gram-positive and negative bacteria
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is the identified condition, primarily caused by an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms in the vagina, with Gardnerella vaginalis being the most prevalent. This results in the displacement of lactobacilli, which would not be detected in the sample. The presence of hyphae suggests the existence of Candida (thrush).
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about a discharge coming from his nipples. Which medication is the most probable cause for this symptom?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Gynaecomastia may be linked to each of the remaining four drugs instead of galactorrhoea.
Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea
Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. Galactorrhoea is a condition characterized by the production of breast milk in individuals who are not breastfeeding. It is important to distinguish the causes of galactorrhoea from those of gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of male breast tissue.
Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism. Additionally, certain medications like metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, haloperidol, SSRIs, and opioids can also increase prolactin levels.
In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the GP clinic for preconception counseling. She plans to conceive within the next 6 months. She has never been pregnant before and has a medical history of Type 1 diabetes mellitus and irritable bowel syndrome. She is currently taking insulin and has no known drug allergies. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2, and she does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no family history of neural tube defects, and her partner has no history of neural tube defects. What is the recommended folic acid dosage for her?
Your Answer: Folic acid 400 micrograms once a day from now to 12 weeks of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once a day from now to 12 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:If a woman has Type 1 diabetes mellitus, she is at a high risk of having a baby with neural tube defects. To prevent this, she should take 5mg of folic acid daily for three months before getting pregnant until the first 12 weeks of pregnancy. Any other dosage or duration of the regime would be incorrect for her.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding endometriosis is false?
Your Answer: Laparoscopy is the gold-standard investigation
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic findings correlate well with the severity of symptoms and can guide treatment
Explanation:Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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At what age should a woman be offered her initial cervical smear as a part of the cervical cancer screening program in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: 25
Explanation:Screening for cervical cancer
Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect pre-malignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that around 15% of cervical adenocarcinomas are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification, and the NHS has now moved to an HPV first system. This means that a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. However, cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months post-partum, unless there are missed screenings or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
It is recommended to take a cervical smear around mid-cycle, although there is limited evidence to support this advice. Overall, the UK’s cervical cancer screening program is an essential tool in preventing cervical cancer and promoting women’s health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 32-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP for advice on starting a family. She and her partner are eager to conceive and she has been taking folic acid for the past four weeks. The patient has no other medical history and is currently taking methotrexate, paracetamol, ibuprofen, and lansoprazole. She is aware that her sister had to stop some of her rheumatoid arthritis medications before getting pregnant and wants to know if she needs to do the same.
What is the appropriate management advice for this patient?Your Answer: Stop methotrexate at least six months before conception
Explanation:When it comes to methotrexate, it is important to discontinue the drug at least six months before attempting to conceive, regardless of gender. This is because methotrexate can potentially harm sperm in males and cause early abortion in females. By allowing for a full wash-out period, the risk of DNA changes in both gametes can be minimized. While some studies suggest that paternal exposure to methotrexate within 90 days before pregnancy may not lead to congenital malformations, stillbirths, or preterm births, current guidelines recommend avoiding the drug for six months to ensure proper folic acid repletion. Therefore, options suggesting stopping methotrexate for only one or three months before conception are incorrect.
Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis During Pregnancy
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that commonly affects women of reproductive age, making issues surrounding conception and pregnancy a concern. While there are no official guidelines for managing RA during pregnancy, expert reviews suggest that patients with early or poorly controlled RA should wait until their disease is more stable before attempting to conceive.
During pregnancy, RA symptoms tend to improve for most patients, but only a small minority experience complete resolution. After delivery, patients often experience a flare-up of symptoms. It’s important to note that certain medications used to treat RA are not safe during pregnancy, such as methotrexate and leflunomide. However, sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered safe.
Interestingly, studies have shown that the use of TNF-α blockers during pregnancy does not significantly increase adverse outcomes. However, many patients in these studies stopped taking the medication once they found out they were pregnant. Low-dose corticosteroids may also be used to control symptoms during pregnancy.
NSAIDs can be used until 32 weeks, but should be withdrawn after that due to the risk of early closure of the ductus arteriosus. Patients with RA should also be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of atlanto-axial subluxation. Overall, managing RA during pregnancy requires careful consideration and consultation with healthcare professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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A 25-year-old actress visits your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She expresses concern about weight gain as she needs to maintain her figure for her profession. Which contraceptive method has been linked to weight gain?
Your Answer: Depo Provera (Medroxyprogesterone acetate)
Explanation:Weight gain is a known side effect of the Depo Provera contraceptive method. Additionally, it may take up to a year for fertility to return after discontinuing use, and there is an increased risk of osteoporosis and irregular bleeding. Other contraceptive methods such as the combined pill, progesterone only pill, and subdermal implant do not have a proven link to weight gain.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A nurse updates you on a 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant. The patient's blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, up from 152/85 mmHg two days ago. A 24-hour urine collection shows a urinary protein excretion of 0.7g / 24 hours. The patient was previously healthy before pregnancy. Following oral labetalol administration, what is the next step in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Plan delivery of the foetus within 48 hours
Explanation:Pregnant women who have mild or moderate gestational hypertension, are beyond 37 weeks of pregnancy, and exhibit pre-eclampsia symptoms, should be advised to deliver their baby within 24 to 48 hours as per the existing recommendations.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the surgery with a slip from his ex-girlfriend indicating that she has tested positive for Chlamydia. He had sexual intercourse with her 2 months ago and is currently asymptomatic, with no signs of dysuria or discharge. What is the best course of action for managing this situation?
Your Answer: Offer Chlamydia testing and antibiotic treatment if positive
Correct Answer: Offer Chlamydia testing and antibiotic treatment immediately without waiting for the results
Explanation:Treatment is administered based on the individual’s exposure to the infection rather than confirmed infection.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A 32-year old woman who is currently breastfeeding her 8-week-old baby girl presents to the clinic with complaints of a painful right breast. During examination, her temperature is 38.5C, HR 110, the right breast appears significantly red and warm, and there is an area of fluctuance in the upper outer quadrant.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Breast abscess
Explanation:Breast Mass Differential Diagnosis
Breast abscesses typically present with localised breast inflammation, pain, and fever. Treatment involves antibiotics and/or incision and drainage. Early breast cancer may be asymptomatic, but may present with changes in breast size or shape, skin dimpling, nipple abnormalities, and axillary lump. Fat necrosis is a benign inflammatory process that can result from trauma or surgery, and presents as a firm, painless mass. Fibroadenoma is the most common cause of breast mass in women aged <35 years, presenting as a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, mobile, painless mass. Diffuse cystic mastopathy is characterised by cysts of varying sizes due to hormonal changes, but typically presents with multiple lumps and is not associated with inflammation. Clinical examination and biopsy may be needed to differentiate between these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding endometrial cancer is false?
Your Answer: Treatment of early disease is with total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Correct Answer: Has a poor prognosis
Explanation:The prognosis for endometrial cancer is generally favorable.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of right-sided abdominal discomfort during sexual intercourse, specifically during deep penetration, which has been ongoing for a month. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is scheduled, and it reveals a 5cm ovarian cyst filled with fluid and having regular borders. What type of ovarian cyst is most probable?
Your Answer: Corpus luteum cyst
Correct Answer: Follicular cyst
Explanation:The most frequent type of ovarian cyst is the follicular cyst, which is often a physiological cyst in young women. A simple cyst in a young woman is likely to be a follicular cyst. The endometrioma is typically filled with old blood, earning it the nickname chocolate cyst. The dermoid cyst contains dermoid tissue, while the corpus luteum cyst is also a physiological cyst but is less common than follicular cysts.
Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts
Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.
Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.
Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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A 27 year old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) visits her GP seeking medical intervention. Despite implementing recommended lifestyle changes, she has seen minimal relief in her symptoms. She has no immediate plans of starting a family. What treatment option would be appropriate to suggest, provided there are no contraindications?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following is most commonly linked to male infertility?
Your Answer: Varicoceles
Explanation:Infertility may be linked to varicoceles.
Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Varicocele is a medical condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is often asymptomatic, it can lead to infertility, making it an important condition to address. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.
Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While conservative management is often recommended, surgery may be necessary if the patient experiences pain or discomfort. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.
Overall, understanding varicocele is important for men who may be experiencing infertility or other symptoms related to the condition. With proper diagnosis and management, it is possible to address the issue and improve overall reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to the GP with concerns regarding menstruation, as she has not yet started her periods. She has no past medical history.
On examination, there is little to no axillary or pubic hair, and she has a tall stature. Bilateral lower pelvic masses are noted. Her BMI is 19 kg/m².
Investigations are performed:
Hb 130 g/L (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 5.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
FSH 9 IU/L (1 - 12)
LH 7 IU/L (1 - 9)
Testosterone 100 ng/dL (15-70)
Estradiol 30 pg/mL (30 - 400)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Turner's syndrome
Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS). This is because she has not started menstruating by the age of 15, has little to no axillary or pubic hair, and elevated testosterone levels. These symptoms are all indicative of AIS, which is a genetic condition where individuals with male chromosomes (46XY) have a female appearance due to their body’s resistance to testosterone. The lower pelvic masses seen on examination are likely to be undescended testes.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically causes excess male-pattern hair growth, including axillary and pubic hair, which is not seen in this patient. Additionally, CAH would not explain the presence of the lower pelvic masses.
Functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea is also unlikely as this condition is typically associated with low body weight, which is not the case for this patient. Furthermore, her FSH and LH levels are within the normal range, indicating that there is no hypothalamic dysfunction.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically causes irregular periods rather than a complete absence of menstruation. Additionally, patients with PCOS often have excessive hair growth, which is not seen in this patient. PCOS would also not explain the presence of the lower pelvic masses.
Understanding Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic condition that affects individuals with an XY genotype, causing them to develop a female phenotype due to their body’s resistance to testosterone. This condition was previously known as testicular feminization syndrome. The main features of this condition include primary amenorrhea, little or no pubic and axillary hair, undescended testes leading to groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to estrogen.
Diagnosis of androgen insensitivity syndrome can be made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis, which reveals a 46XY genotype. After puberty, testosterone levels in affected individuals are typically in the high-normal to slightly elevated range for postpubertal boys.
Management of androgen insensitivity syndrome involves counseling and raising the child as female. Bilateral orchidectomy is recommended to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes. Additionally, estrogen therapy may be used to promote the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
In summary, androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the development of individuals with an XY genotype, causing them to develop a female phenotype. Early diagnosis and management can help affected individuals lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman and her partner present to the GP clinic due to difficulty conceiving their first child. At what point should investigations begin after a period of regular sexual intercourse?
Your Answer: 12 months
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:If a woman is over 35 years old and has been having regular intercourse for 6 months without conceiving, she should be investigated for infertility earlier. Regular sexual intercourse is defined as having intercourse every 2-3 days. However, if a woman is under 35 years old, investigation should wait until after 12 months of regular intercourse. It is important to consider early referral when the female has amenorrhea, previous pelvic surgery, abnormal genital examination, or is suffering from significant systemic illness. Similarly, early referral should be considered for males who have had previous surgery on genitalia, previous STI, varicocele, or abnormal genital examination.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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A woman in her early stages of pregnancy seeks guidance on whether it is safe to consume alcohol. What advice aligns with the current NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: Avoid alcohol throughout pregnancy
Explanation:Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She had her last period 6 weeks ago and is sexually active without using any hormonal contraception. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has a heart rate of 84 bpm and a blood pressure of 128/78 mmHg. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa. A pregnancy test confirms that she is pregnant, and further investigations reveal a 40 mm left adnexal mass with no heartbeat. The serum b-hCG level is 6200 IU/L. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring
Explanation:For women with no other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingotomy. In the case of a patient with acute-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding after 6-8 weeks following her last period, a positive pregnancy test, and ultrasound findings confirming an ectopic pregnancy, laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring is the correct course of action. This is especially true if the size of the ectopic pregnancy is greater than 35 mm and the beta-hCG levels are higher than 5000 IU/L. Salpingotomy may require further treatment with methotrexate and may not remove the ectopic pregnancy entirely, making salpingectomy the preferred method. Expectant management and monitoring, laparoscopic salpingotomy and monitoring, and methotrexate and monitoring are all inappropriate for this patient’s case.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 30
Correct
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Sophie, 16, has come to her doctor's office to ask for the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). As per the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), what is an absolute contraindication for the COCP?
Your Answer: Migraine with aura
Explanation:The FSRH uses a scale of 1 to 4 to categorize risk factors for contraceptive methods. A rating of 1 indicates no restrictions on use, while a rating of 4 indicates a condition that poses an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Migraine with aura is the only absolute contraindication among the answer options. Ratings of 2 and 3 indicate that the advantages and risks of the contraceptive method should be carefully considered and evaluated by a clinical expert.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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