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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman with sialolithiasis of the submandibular gland is having the gland removed. During the mobilization of the duct, which nerve is in danger?
Your Answer: Lingual nerve
Explanation:Wharton’s duct is encircled by the lingual nerve, which is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the front two-thirds of the tongue.
Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland
The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.
The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.
The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the neck, in the area between the omohyoid and digastric muscles. During surgery to explore the injury, a nerve injury is discovered just above the lingual artery where it branches off from the external carotid artery. What is the most probable outcome of this injury?
Your Answer: Paralysis of the ipsilateral side of the tongue
Explanation:The external carotid artery is located posterior to the hypoglossal nerve, while the lingual arterial branch is situated below it. In case of damage to the nerve, the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles on the same side will become paralyzed. When the patient is instructed to stick out their tongue, it will deviate towards the affected side.
The Anterior Triangle of the Neck: Boundaries and Contents
The anterior triangle of the neck is a region that is bounded by the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lower border of the mandible, and the anterior midline. It is further divided into three sub-triangles by the digastric muscle and the omohyoid muscle. The muscular triangle contains the neck strap muscles, while the carotid triangle contains the carotid sheath, which houses the common carotid artery, the vagus nerve, and the internal jugular vein. The submandibular triangle, located below the digastric muscle, contains the submandibular gland, submandibular nodes, facial vessels, hypoglossal nerve, and other structures.
The digastric muscle, which separates the submandibular triangle from the muscular triangle, is innervated by two different nerves. The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is supplied by the mylohyoid nerve, while the posterior belly is supplied by the facial nerve.
Overall, the anterior triangle of the neck is an important anatomical region that contains many vital structures, including blood vessels, nerves, and glands. Understanding the boundaries and contents of this region is essential for medical professionals who work in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman with hypertension and heart failure has been prescribed hydralazine. She now presents with joint pain, fatigue, a cough, and a rash on her cheeks. Her blood test reveals positive results for anti-histone antibodies.
What is the underlying reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Drug induced lupus
Explanation:Hydralazine has the potential to cause drug-induced lupus, which is the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. Lupus is characterized by respiratory symptoms, arthralgia, fatigue, and a malar rash (butterfly rash), and the patient has no prior history of these symptoms but has tested positive for anti-histone antibodies. Other drugs that can induce lupus include procainamide, isoniazid, and methyldopa.
Leukaemia, on the other hand, would present with abnormal full blood count results and a more gradual onset, making it less likely in this case.
Pneumonia and parvovirus B19 are also less likely causes, as the patient’s lack of fever and positive anti-histone antibodies do not align with these conditions.
Drug-induced lupus is a condition that differs from systemic lupus erythematosus in that it does not typically involve renal or nervous system complications. This condition can be resolved by discontinuing the medication that caused it. Symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint and muscle pain, skin rashes (such as a malar rash), and pleurisy. Patients with this condition will test positive for ANA, but negative for dsDNA. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith are only present in around 5%. The most common causes of drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine, while less common causes include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department following a fall on the street. He reports experiencing difficulty breathing and sharp, stabbing pain upon inhalation. A chest X-ray reveals a pneumothorax located at the lung's apex. Which bone is most likely fractured, resulting in the pneumothorax?
Your Answer: 1st rib
Correct Answer: Clavicle
Explanation:The apex of the pleural cavity is situated behind the middle third of the clavicle, which can be susceptible to breaking if there is force applied through the shoulders. Unlike the clavicle, the 1st and 2nd ribs are not commonly broken except in severe trauma such as road traffic accidents. The acromion is also an uncommon site for fractures, typically occurring from falling on outstretched hands. Similarly, the coracoid process is rarely fractured and is usually associated with shoulder dislocation.
Anatomy of the Clavicle
The clavicle is a bone that runs from the sternum to the acromion and plays a crucial role in preventing the shoulder from falling forwards and downwards. Its inferior surface is marked by ligaments at each end, including the trapezoid line and conoid tubercle, which provide attachment to the coracoclavicular ligament. The costoclavicular ligament attaches to the irregular surface on the medial part of the inferior surface, while the subclavius muscle attaches to the intermediate portion’s groove.
The superior part of the clavicle’s medial end has a raised surface that gives attachment to the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid, while the posterior surface attaches to the sternohyoid. On the lateral end, there is an oval articular facet for the acromion, and a disk lies between the clavicle and acromion. The joint’s capsule attaches to the ridge on the margin of the facet.
In summary, the clavicle is a vital bone that helps stabilize the shoulder joint and provides attachment points for various ligaments and muscles. Its anatomy is marked by distinct features that allow for proper function and movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old man was in a car accident where two cars collided at around 60 miles per hour. After being stabilized, the doctor conducts a secondary survey and finds that the patient's right leg is adducted, flexed, and internally rotated. The diagnosis is a hip dislocation. What type of dislocation is probable and why?
Your Answer: Posterior dislocation as the iliofemoral ligament is strongest
Explanation:The iliofemoral ligament is the strongest ligament stabilizing the hip joint, making posterior dislocations more common. The deep acetabulum of the hip provides stability and reduces the risk of anterior dislocation. The ischiofemoral ligament is the weakest of the three capsular ligaments and does not play a significant role in hip stability. Therefore, the iliofemoral ligament is the most important factor in preventing hip dislocation.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is admitted to the renal ward after presenting with lethargy, swelling and two episodes of haematuria. Bloods revealed the following:
Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 11.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Neuts 4.5 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Lymphs 3.0 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
Mono 0.8 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
Eosin 4.0 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)
ESR 130 mm/hr Men: < (age / 2)
Women: < ((age + 10) / 2)
He was found to have high circulating levels for perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA).
What is the main target of this antibody within the cell?Your Answer: Lysozyme
Correct Answer: Myeloperoxidase (MPO)
Explanation:The primary focus of pANCA is on myeloperoxidase (MPO), although it also targets lysosome, cathepsin G, and elastase to a lesser extent. Meanwhile, cANCA primarily targets PR3. All of these targets are located within the azurophilic granules of neutrophils.
ANCA testing can be done through ELISA or immunofluorescence, which can detect anti-MPO or anti-PR3 antibodies in the blood. The pattern of immunostaining would vary depending on the specific condition.
ANCA testing is useful in diagnosing and monitoring the disease activity of certain conditions, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegner’s granulomatosis), eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), and microscopic polyangiitis. MPO antibodies are more sensitive in detecting microscopic polyangiitis compared to EGPA.
ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Types, Symptoms, and Management
ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA). These include granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome), and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with symptoms such as renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, vasculitic rash, and ear, nose, and throat symptoms.
To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria, blood tests for renal impairment, full blood count, CRP, and ANCA testing. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with cANCA being associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis and pANCA being associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis and other conditions.
Once suspected, ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams to allow an exact diagnosis to be made. The mainstay of management is immunosuppressive therapy. Kidney or lung biopsies may be taken to aid the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome and requires surgical exploration of the carpal tunnel. What structure will be closest to the hamate bone within the carpal tunnel during the procedure?
Your Answer: Radial artery
Correct Answer: The tendons of flexor digitorum profundus
Explanation:The nine flexor tendons found in the carpal tunnel include the flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus. Among these tendons, the flexor digitorum profundus is situated deepest in the tunnel and is therefore closest to the hamate bone.
Carpal Bones: The Wrist’s Building Blocks
The wrist is composed of eight carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows of four. These bones are convex from side to side posteriorly and concave anteriorly. The trapezium is located at the base of the first metacarpal bone, which is the base of the thumb. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones do not have any tendons attached to them, but they are stabilized by ligaments.
In summary, the carpal bones are the building blocks of the wrist, and they play a crucial role in the wrist’s movement and stability. The trapezium bone is located at the base of the thumb, while the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones are stabilized by ligaments. Understanding the anatomy of the wrist is essential for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department following a car accident. He has no visible wounds or head trauma, but he is experiencing left lower limb pain and is unable to walk. Upon examination, he displays a high stepping gait and there is swelling and deformity below the knee. An X-ray confirms a fractured neck of the fibula.
Which function is most likely impacted in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsiflexion of foot
Explanation:A fibular neck fracture can result in foot drop due to common peroneal nerve injury. The nerve is often injured because it winds around the neck of the fibula. The common peroneal nerve is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot, and an injury to this nerve can cause foot drop, which is characterized by a high stepping gait. In foot drop, the foot appears floppy, and the toes point downward, scraping the ground while walking. The patient tends to lift their foot very high to avoid dragging it on the ground. Eversion of the foot is not the correct answer, as it is controlled by the superficial peroneal nerve. Flexion of toes is also an incorrect answer, as it is controlled by the medial plantar nerve.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteal lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old retiree visits his doctor with a skin lesion on the back of his right hand. The lesion appears as a red papulo-nodule with scaling and ulceration. After a biopsy, the diagnosis of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma is confirmed.
What histological findings are expected from the biopsy examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratin pearls
Explanation:Keratin pearls are a characteristic finding in cutaneous squamous cell carcinomas on biopsy. Atypical melanocytes are typically found in melanomas, not squamous cell carcinoma. Central invagination with a keratotic core is more commonly seen in keratoacanthomas. Basal cell carcinomas are characterized by the proliferation of basaloid cells parallel to the long axis of the epidermis. Seborrheic keratosis, a benign proliferation of immature keratinocytes, is typically identified by small keratin-filled cysts and a well-demarcated lesion with a stuck-on appearance.
Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin
Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that is commonly seen in individuals who have had excessive exposure to sunlight or have undergone psoralen UVA therapy. Other risk factors include actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease, immunosuppression, smoking, long-standing leg ulcers, and genetic conditions. While metastases are rare, they may occur in 2-5% of patients.
This type of cancer typically appears on sun-exposed areas such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms. The nodules are painless, rapidly expanding, and may have a cauliflower-like appearance. Bleeding may also occur in some cases.
Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma involves surgical excision with margins of 4mm for lesions less than 20 mm in diameter and 6mm for larger tumors. Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites. Prognosis is generally good for well-differentiated tumors that are less than 20 mm in diameter and less than 2mm deep. However, poorly differentiated tumors that are larger than 20 mm in diameter and deeper than 4mm, as well as those associated with immunosuppression, have a poorer prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which muscle is not a part of the rotator cuff?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deltoid
Explanation:Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles
The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.
The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.
Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 3-year-old son to the GP worried about his motor development. Since he started walking 9 months ago, the child has been limping and avoiding weight bearing on the left leg. He has otherwise been healthy. He was born at term via a caesarean section, due to his breech position, and weighed 4.5kg. What is the probable reason for his limp?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Explanation:The condition is developmental dysplasia of the hip, which is typically observed in individuals under the age of 4.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pins and needles in her right hand, which worsen at night and improve when she hangs her hand over the bed's edge. She has a medical history of hypothyroidism. On examination, there is atrophy of the thenar aspect of her right hand, and Tinel's test is positive on the right side only. Despite conservative management, the patient returns to the practice with no improvement in symptoms and is referred for surgery. What is the surgical procedure that can alleviate this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor retinaculum
Explanation:The surgical management of carpal tunnel syndrome involves dividing the flexor retinaculum, which is the structure spanning the anteromedial surface of the ulna and the distal interphalangeal joints of the phalanges. This procedure is indicated by symptoms such as thenar wasting and a positive Tinel’s test. It is important to note that the cubital retinaculum, Osborne’s ligament, palmar aponeurosis, and pisometacarpal ligament are not involved in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.
There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Incorrect
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John, a 29-year-old male, presented to the emergency department after a fall where he landed on his outstretched hand. He reports experiencing pain.
During the examination, John's neurovascular status is intact, but he is tender to touch and has a dinner fork deformity. The emergency physician orders an x-ray of his right hand, wrist, and arm. The x-ray report reveals a Colles' fracture.
What will the x-ray report show as abnormal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fracture of distal radius with posterior displacement of distal fragment
Explanation:Smith’s fracture is the name given to a fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment, while Colles’ fracture refers to a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment, resulting in a dinner fork deformity. Another type of fracture involving the forearm is the Monteggia fracture, which involves a fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with dislocation of the proximal head of the radius.
Understanding Colles’ Fracture: A Common Injury from a Fall
Colles’ fracture is a type of injury that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand, also known as a FOOSH. This type of fracture involves the distal radius, which is the bone located near the wrist joint. The fracture is characterized by a dorsal displacement of the bone fragments, resulting in a deformity that resembles a dinner fork.
Classical Colles’ fractures have three distinct features. Firstly, the fracture is transverse, meaning it occurs horizontally across the bone. Secondly, the fracture is located approximately one inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint, which is the joint that connects the radius to the wrist bones. Finally, the fracture results in dorsal displacement and angulation of the bone fragments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old renal transplant recipient due to polycystic kidney disease visits the follow-up clinic. She has been prescribed mycophenolate mofetil as part of her immunosuppressant regimen.
What is the mechanism of action of mycophenolate mofetil?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inosine-5'-monophosphate dehydrogenase inhibitor
Explanation:Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) is an immunosuppressant that inhibits inosine-5′-monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme necessary for purine synthesis. MMF is commonly used in organ transplantation and autoimmune disorders. Azathioprine also inhibits purine synthesis, but through a different mechanism.
Calcineurin inhibitors, such as tacrolimus and ciclosporin, reduce T-cell differentiation to suppress the immune system.
Protease inhibitors, like ritonavir and darunavir, are antivirals used to treat HIV and hepatitis.
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, such as statins, lower LDL cholesterol levels.
Hydroxycarbamide is a ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor that reduces the production of deoxyribonucleotides, thereby decreasing DNA synthesis. It is used to treat cancer.
Mycophenolate Mofetil: How it Works as an Immunosuppressant
Mycophenolate mofetil is a medication that is often prescribed to prevent the rejection of organ transplants. It works by inhibiting the activity of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme that is necessary for the synthesis of purines. Since T and B cells rely heavily on this pathway for their proliferation, mycophenolate mofetil can effectively reduce the activity of these immune cells.
In simpler terms, mycophenolate mofetil works by blocking a key enzyme that immune cells need to grow and multiply. By doing so, it can help prevent the body from attacking and rejecting a transplanted organ. This medication is often used in combination with other immunosuppressants to achieve the best possible outcomes for transplant patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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In pediatric patients with sickle cell disease, what is the most common causative organism of osteomyelitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salmonella species
Explanation:Salmonella is the most common infecting organism in children with osteomyelitis worldwide.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.
The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old patient is admitted for surgery after fracturing their tibia in a car accident. 24 hours after the operation, the patient reports experiencing severe pain and tingling sensations. Upon examination, the anterior leg appears red, swollen, and feels cooler than the rest of the limb. Dorsiflexion of the foot is impaired, and there is a loss of sensation over the first and second toes. The intracompartmental pressure of the anterior compartment measures 40mmHg. A weak pulse is palpated just lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon. Which artery's pulse is felt at this anatomical site?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery
Explanation:The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is true in relation to the sartorius muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forms the Pes anserinus with Gracilis and semitendinous muscle
Explanation:The superficial branch of the femoral nerve provides innervation to it. It is a constituent of the pes anserinus.
The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).
The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.
In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of ongoing stiffness and pain in his lower back for the past 6 months. He reports no specific injury that could have caused his symptoms and mentions that he leads an active lifestyle. The pain is particularly severe in the morning but improves with physical activity. Following imaging tests, he is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. What is the gene linked to this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human leucocyte antigen- B27
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with the HLA-B27 serotype, with approximately 90% of patients with the condition testing positive for it. Adrenal 21-hydroxylase deficiency is thought to be linked to HLA-B47, while HLA-DQ2 is associated with coeliac disease and the development of autoimmune diseases. HLA-DR4 is primarily linked to rheumatoid arthritis, while HLA-DR2 is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple sclerosis, and leprosy, but not ankylosing spondylitis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more common in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are often elevated, but normal levels do not rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not very useful in making the diagnosis as it is positive in 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and 10% of normal patients. The most useful diagnostic tool is a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, which may show subchondral erosions, sclerosis, squaring of lumbar vertebrae, bamboo spine, and syndesmophytes. If the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI may be obtained to confirm the diagnosis. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis includes regular exercise such as swimming, NSAIDs as first-line treatment, physiotherapy, and disease-modifying drugs such as sulphasalazine if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy such as etanercept and adalimumab may be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Research is ongoing to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Into which of the following structures does the superior part of the fibrous capsule of the shoulder joint insert?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The anatomical neck of the humerus
Explanation:Due to its shallow nature, the shoulder joint has a high degree of mobility, but this is achieved at the cost of stability. The fibrous capsule is connected to the anatomical neck in a superior position and the surgical neck in an inferior position.
The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of pain in his left hand following a fall that occurred 4 days ago. The pain is located on the dorsum of his hand, near the base of his index finger. He reports that he tripped and fell while running and used his left hand to break his fall.
Upon examination, there is significant tenderness upon palpation of the base of the first metacarpal on the dorsum of his hand. There is also noticeable swelling in the affected area.
What type of fracture is the patient most likely to have sustained?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scaphoid fracture
Explanation:The most likely cause of the patient’s pain in the anatomical snuffbox is a scaphoid fracture, which is often the result of falling onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH). Scaphoid fractures are the most common type of carpal fracture. In contrast, a boxer’s fracture involves the 5th metacarpal bone and is typically caused by punching something with a closed fist, while a Colles’ fracture affects the distal radius and causes a dorsal displacement of the fragments. A Galeazzi fracture involves the radial bone and dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, and is typically caused by a fall on the hand with rotational force.
A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that usually occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to identify scaphoid fractures as they can lead to avascular necrosis due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically experience pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination involves checking for tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox, wrist joint effusion, pain on telescoping of the thumb, tenderness of the scaphoid tubercle, and pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist. Plain film radiographs and scaphoid views are used to diagnose scaphoid fractures, but MRI is considered the definitive investigation. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures typically treated with a cast and displaced fractures requiring surgical fixation. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union and avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A young adult is started on a novel medication for managing their Crohn's disease. They are advised that the medication is to be taken once a week and may elevate their susceptibility to infections. Additionally, folic acid is prescribed alongside the new medication to mitigate other potential adverse effects.
What is the mode of action of this drug?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
Explanation:Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase to suppress the immune system and manage Crohn’s disease. This medication is taken once weekly and prescribed with folic acid. Methotrexate blocks the production of nucleotides, which impairs cell replication, particularly in rapidly replicating immune cells, leading to a reduced autoimmune response. Binding to steroid receptors, inhibiting dihydropteroate synthetase, and mimicking the shape of purines are incorrect answers. These mechanisms of action belong to other medications used to manage different conditions.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy is out on a movie date with his girlfriend. During the film, he keeps his arm over her seat. However, when the movie ends, he realizes that he has limited wrist movement. Upon examination, he is unable to extend his wrist and has reduced sensation in his anatomical snuff box. Which nerve did he damage while at the cinema?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial
Explanation:Saturday night syndrome is a condition where the brachial plexus is compressed due to sleeping with the arm over the back of a chair. This can result in a radial nerve palsy, commonly known as wrist drop, where the patient is unable to extend their wrist and it hangs flaccidly.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a submandibular gland stone is undergoing excision of the submandibular gland. The incision is sited transversely approximately 4 cm below the mandible. After incising the skin, platysma and deep fascia which of the following structures is most likely to be encountered.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial vein
Explanation:When accessing the submandibular gland, the facial vein and submandibular lymph nodes are the structures that are most easily visible. The gland is divided into a superficial and deep part by the mylohyoid muscle. The facial artery runs along the surface of the gland and can be seen in a groove. It then passes between the gland and the mandible before emerging on the face. During surgery, the facial vein is encountered first as the incision is made 4 cm below the mandible to prevent damage to the marginal mandibular nerve.
Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland
The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.
The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.
The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which one of the following structures does not pass anterior to the lateral malleolus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peroneus brevis
Explanation:The lateral malleolus is located posterior to the path of the peroneus brevis.
Anatomy of the Lateral Malleolus
The lateral malleolus is a bony prominence on the outer side of the ankle joint. Posterior to the lateral malleolus and superficial to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the sural nerve and short saphenous vein. These structures are important for sensation and blood flow to the lower leg and foot.
On the other hand, posterior to the lateral malleolus and deep to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis tendons. These tendons are responsible for ankle stability and movement.
Additionally, the calcaneofibular ligament is attached at the lateral malleolus. This ligament is important for maintaining the stability of the ankle joint and preventing excessive lateral movement.
Understanding the anatomy of the lateral malleolus is crucial for diagnosing and treating ankle injuries and conditions. Proper care and management of these structures can help prevent long-term complications and improve overall ankle function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A high school football player comes to the emergency department after a hard tackle. He complains of pain in the front of his shoulder, limited movement in his affected arm, and notices that his collarbone is protruding outward. An X-ray shows that his clavicle is displaced, particularly at the lateral end, but still intact. The medial end of the clavicle is still in contact with the sternum, and there are no other bone abnormalities. Given the extent of the dislocation, you suspect that multiple ligaments have been torn. Which of the following ligaments is the least likely to be affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coracoacromial ligament
Explanation:The coracoacromial ligament is not likely to be damaged in a clavicle dislocation, as it does not connect to the clavicle. The ligaments that attach to the lateral end of the clavicle include the acromioclavicular ligament, trapezoid ligament, and conoid ligament (collectively known as the coracoclavicular ligament). In the case of an acromioclavicular joint dislocation, the severity of the injury depends on which ligaments are damaged. Mild cases may involve only a sprain or rupture of the acromioclavicular ligament, while more severe cases may involve rupture of all ligaments attaching to the lateral end of the clavicle.
Anatomy of the Clavicle
The clavicle is a bone that runs from the sternum to the acromion and plays a crucial role in preventing the shoulder from falling forwards and downwards. Its inferior surface is marked by ligaments at each end, including the trapezoid line and conoid tubercle, which provide attachment to the coracoclavicular ligament. The costoclavicular ligament attaches to the irregular surface on the medial part of the inferior surface, while the subclavius muscle attaches to the intermediate portion’s groove.
The superior part of the clavicle’s medial end has a raised surface that gives attachment to the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid, while the posterior surface attaches to the sternohyoid. On the lateral end, there is an oval articular facet for the acromion, and a disk lies between the clavicle and acromion. The joint’s capsule attaches to the ridge on the margin of the facet.
In summary, the clavicle is a vital bone that helps stabilize the shoulder joint and provides attachment points for various ligaments and muscles. Its anatomy is marked by distinct features that allow for proper function and movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which one of the following structures does not pass posteriorly to the medial malleolus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibialis anterior tendon
Explanation:Structures Passing Posterior to the Medial Malleolus
The medial malleolus is a bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle joint. Several important structures pass posterior to it, including the tibialis posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery, tibial nerve, and tendon of flexor hallucis longus.
The tibialis posterior tendon is responsible for plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, while the flexor digitorum longus tendon helps to flex the toes. The posterior tibial artery supplies blood to the foot and ankle, while the tibial nerve provides sensation and motor function to the muscles of the lower leg and foot. Finally, the tendon of flexor hallucis longus helps to flex the big toe.
It is important to be aware of these structures when performing any procedures or surgeries in the area, as damage to them can result in significant complications. Understanding the anatomy of the ankle and foot can also help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting these structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is receiving community physiotherapy after a prolonged period of immobility caused by depression. He is experiencing difficulty with hip abduction. Which muscle is primarily responsible for this movement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gluteus medius
Explanation:The correct muscle for hip abduction is the gluteus medius, which has anterior and posterior parts. The anterior part contributes to hip flexion and internal rotation, while the posterior part contributes to hip extension and external rotation. When both parts work together, they abduct the hip. The gluteus maximus primarily functions for hip extension and external rotation, while the hamstrings coordinate flexion and extension of the hip and knee joints but do not contribute to abduction. The iliopsoas primarily functions for hip extension.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to the doctor with a complaint of lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. The pain spreads to his buttocks and is most severe in the morning, but gets better with physical activity. Sometimes, it even wakes him up at night.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a condition that typically affects young men and causes lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the mornings. It is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that leads to inflammation of the lower axial skeleton. Sacroiliitis, which is inflammation of the sacroiliac joints, is a common sign on x-ray. Unlike many other rheumatological conditions, ankylosing spondylitis is more prevalent in men than women.
Intervertebral disc herniation is not the correct answer. This condition typically causes back pain and dermatomal leg pain that does not improve throughout the day or with exercise. It is usually caused by an injury rather than developing gradually without a clear cause.
Reactive arthritis is also an incorrect answer. This is another type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that occurs after exposure to certain gastrointestinal and genitourinary infections, such as Chlamydia, Salmonella, and Campylobacter jejuni.
Rheumatoid arthritis is also not the correct answer. This is a chronic inflammatory condition that causes inflammation of the synovial tissue and is more common in women. It typically presents with symmetrical, polyarticular arthritis of the small joints.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while the patient may experience night pain that improves upon getting up.
Clinical examination of patients with ankylosing spondylitis may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. The Schober’s test, which involves drawing a line 10 cm above and 5 cm below the back dimples and measuring the distance between them when the patient bends forward, may also be used to assess the condition. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (which is more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who is worried about her daughter's hearing loss. The girl has a history of frequent bone fractures. During the examination, the doctor observes that the external ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal and there is no discharge or swelling. However, the girl's sclera has a bluish tint. What type of collagen is most likely affected in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 1
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a defect in type 1 collagen, which is found in the skin, tendons, vasculature, and bones. This abnormality results in fragile bones, leading to multiple fractures, as seen in a child with deafness, blue sclera, and fractures. Type 2 collagen is present in cartilage and is not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta. Type 3 collagen is the primary component of reticular fibers, which are also not typically affected in this condition. Type 4 collagen makes up basement membranes, which are also not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta.
Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.
This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of low back pain. She is in good health otherwise. She reports several finger and wrist fractures during her childhood. Her father and sister have also experienced multiple fractures throughout their lives. On examination, she displays paralumbar tenderness and scoliosis. Her sclera is blue-grey. What type of collagen mutation is likely responsible for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 1
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by an abnormality in type 1 collagen, which is the primary component of bone, skin, and tendons. The diagnosis is based on a combination of factors, including a history of fractures, scoliosis, family history, and physical examination findings. In contrast, mutations in type 2 collagen can lead to chondrodysplasias, while mutations in type 3 collagen may cause a type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Additionally, mutations in type 4 collagen can result in Alport’s syndrome and Goodpasture’s syndrome, as this type of collagen forms the basal lamina.
Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.
This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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