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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and is found to have evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia on chest x-ray. On examination the respiratory rate is 36 breaths per minute, pulse rate is 90 per minute and the blood pressure is 106/48 mmHg. Initial bloods show a urea of 12 mmol/l.
What is the patient's CURB 65 score?Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB 65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the hospital as he reports seeing an 'ocean of bees' surrounding him. He is unable to provide a detailed medical history due to his extreme anxiety and confusion, constantly yelling about the 'deafening buzzing.' His heart rate is 140 beats per minute and his breathing rate is 23 breaths per minute. Reviewing his records, it is noted that he has been admitted to the emergency department multiple times due to alcohol intoxication.
What is the initial treatment for his condition?Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are administered to manage delirium tremens/alcohol withdrawal.
When a patient experiences delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal after dependency, chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are commonly prescribed. This condition often leads to the manifestation of visual and auditory hallucinations. While haloperidol can be beneficial in calming the patient, the primary treatment for delirium tremens is administering 10-30 mg of chlordiazepoxide four times daily.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes for a routine check at 28 weeks gestation. During the examination, her symphysis-fundal height measures 23 cm. What is the most crucial investigation to confirm these findings?
Your Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:The symphysis-fundal height measurement in centimetres should correspond to the foetal gestational age in weeks with an accuracy of 1 or 2 cm from 20 weeks gestation. Hence, it can be deduced that the woman is possibly experiencing fetal growth restriction. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct an ultrasound to verify if the foetus is indeed small for gestational age.
The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is a measurement taken from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres. It is used to determine the gestational age of a fetus and should match within 2 cm after 20 weeks. For example, if a woman is 24 weeks pregnant, a normal SFH would be between 22 and 26 cm. Proper measurement of SFH is important for monitoring fetal growth and development during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old male presents to your GP evening clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. He reports experiencing pain in the lower left abdomen which has worsened throughout the day. He also feels feverish, nauseous, and has vomited twice in the past hour. He cannot recall the last time he passed urine or stool and mentions having a small painless lump on his lower left abdomen for the past month which he has not sought medical attention for.
Upon examination, the patient appears unwell and clammy. He is tachycardic and normotensive. His abdomen is mildly distended and very tender to touch, with evidence of localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Additionally, you notice a 2 cm x 2 cm erythematosus lump in the left inguinal area which is now extremely painful to touch.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Call 999 and arrange an urgent assessment of your patient in hospital
Explanation:It is not recommended to manually reduce strangulated inguinal hernias while awaiting surgery. In the scenario of a patient with an acute abdomen and signs of a strangulated hernia, the appropriate response is to call 999 for urgent assessment and inform the surgical registrar on-call. Attempting to manually reduce the hernia can worsen the patient’s condition. Requesting a urine sample or discussing an appendicectomy is not appropriate in this situation.
Understanding Strangulated Inguinal Hernias
An inguinal hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the superficial inguinal ring. This can happen directly through the deep inguinal ring or indirectly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Hernias should be reducible, meaning that the herniated tissue can be pushed back into place in the abdomen through the defect using a hand. However, if a hernia cannot be reduced, it is referred to as an incarcerated hernia, which is at risk of strangulation. Strangulation is a surgical emergency where the blood supply to the herniated tissue is compromised, leading to ischemia or necrosis.
Symptoms of a strangulated hernia include pain, fever, an increase in the size of a hernia or erythema of the overlying skin, peritonitic features such as guarding and localised tenderness, bowel obstruction, and bowel ischemia. Imaging can be used in cases of suspected strangulation, but it is not considered necessary and is more useful in excluding other pathologies. Repair involves immediate surgery, either from an open or laparoscopic approach with a mesh technique. This is the same technique used in elective hernia repair, however, any dead bowel will also have to be removed. While waiting for the surgery, it is not recommended that you manually reduce strangulated hernias, as this can cause more generalised peritonitis. Strangulation occurs in around 1 in 500 cases of all inguinal hernias, and indications that a hernia is at risk of strangulation include episodes of pain in a hernia that was previously asymptomatic and irreducible hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Correct
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An 18-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her menstrual cycle yet. Apart from that, she feels healthy. During the examination, she appears to be of average height and has developed breasts, but has minimal pubic hair growth. The doctor can feel two lumps in her groin area upon examination of her abdomen. Her external genitalia seem normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s presentation is consistent with androgen insensitivity, which is a genetic condition where individuals with XY chromosomes have female physical characteristics due to a lack of testosterone receptors in their tissues. This disorder is X-linked and often results in undescended testes. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is unlikely as it typically causes early puberty and virilization, while Kallmann syndrome does not explain the presence of groin masses. Polycystic ovarian syndrome usually results in secondary amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea and is accompanied by other symptoms such as acne and hirsutism. Turner’s syndrome, which causes primary amenorrhea, is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, heart defects, and abnormal breast development, and does not involve undescended testes.
Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male with hypercalcaemia secondary to primary hyperparathyroidism presents with renal colic. An ultrasound scan reveals ureteric obstruction caused by a stone. Despite multiple attempts at stone extraction, the stone remains lodged. The patient is now experiencing sepsis with a fever of 39.5ºC and has been administered antibiotics. What is the optimal plan of action?
Your Answer: Cystoscopy and insertion of ureteric stent
Correct Answer: Insertion of nephrostomy
Explanation:When a person experiences acute upper urinary tract obstruction, the recommended course of action is to undergo nephrostomy. In this case, it is likely that the obstruction was caused by a calculus or stone in the ureter. If left untreated, the stagnant urine can become infected, which is considered a serious urological emergency. Since the stone cannot be removed, a nephrostomy is necessary.
Hydronephrosis is a condition where the kidney becomes swollen due to urine buildup. There are various causes of hydronephrosis, including pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, calculi, tumors of the renal pelvis, stenosis of the urethra, urethral valve, prostatic enlargement, extensive bladder tumor, and retroperitoneal fibrosis. Unilateral hydronephrosis is caused by one of these factors, while bilateral hydronephrosis is caused by a combination of pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, and tumors of the renal pelvis.
To investigate hydronephrosis, ultrasound is the first-line test to identify the presence of hydronephrosis and assess the kidneys. IVU is used to assess the position of the obstruction, while antegrade or retrograde pyelography allows for treatment. If renal colic is suspected, a CT scan is used to detect the majority of stones.
The management of hydronephrosis involves removing the obstruction and draining urine. In cases of acute upper urinary tract obstruction, a nephrostomy tube is used, while chronic upper urinary tract obstruction is treated with a ureteric stent or a pyeloplasty. The CT scan image shows a large calculus in the left ureter with accompanying hydroureter and massive hydronephrosis in the left kidney.
Overall, hydronephrosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Langerhans cells, which are irregularly shaped cells with dendritic processes, an indented nucleus, and characteristic intracellular Birbeck granules, are distributed in multiple layers of the epidermis. What is the closest relative of these cells in the human body?
Your Answer: Merkel cell
Correct Answer: Monocyte
Explanation:Cell Types in the Skin: Langerhans, Eosinophil, Basophil, Melanocyte, and Merkel Cell
The skin is composed of various cell types, each with their own unique functions. Langerhans cells, originating from the bone marrow, are antigen-presenting cells found in the epidermis. They process antigens that enter the body via the epidermis and are involved in allergic dermatitis reactions. Eosinophils and basophils are rare in the epidermis, but if present, would be found in cutaneous blood vessels or the dermis and/or hypodermis. Melanocytes, on the other hand, are responsible for producing melanin, which gives skin its color. Langerhans cells lack melanin granules and are more closely related to monocytes. Finally, Merkel cells are dendritic cells found in the stratum basale and are associated with nerve fibers, likely playing an important sensory function. Understanding the different cell types in the skin can help in diagnosing and treating various skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 6-year-old child of African descent presents with a 2-day history of increasing abdominal pain. It is not associated with nausea or vomiting, and the bowels are opening regularly. The child’s mother tells you that he has had a few episodes of similar symptoms in the past, but none as severe.
On examination, the child has generalised abdominal tenderness, and splenomegaly is noted. After further investigation, the child is diagnosed with sickle-cell anaemia.
Which organ is most responsible for the removal of sickled red blood cells from the circulatory system?Your Answer: Spleen
Explanation:The Role of Organs in Immune Surveillance and Blood Production
The human body has several organs that play a crucial role in immune surveillance and blood production. The spleen, for instance, is responsible for removing abnormal and aged red blood cells from circulation and monitoring the blood for immune purposes. However, in sickle-cell anaemia patients, the spleen can become non-functional due to continuous hypoxic and thrombotic insults, leading to a process called autosplenectomy.
Lymph nodes, on the other hand, are involved in immunological surveillance of the lymph. They can swell in response to severe bacterial infections in specific body parts, such as the axillary lymph nodes in the case of a hand infection.
The thymus is responsible for programming pre-T cells to differentiate into T cells, which are responsible for the cellular immune response against pathogenic viruses and fungi and the destruction of malignant cells. It is most active during neonatal and pre-adolescent life.
The bone marrow is responsible for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. In sickle-cell anaemia patients, erythropoiesis in the bone marrow is stimulated.
Finally, the liver can become a site of extramedullary erythropoiesis, which means it can produce red blood cells outside of the bone marrow.
Overall, these organs work together to maintain a healthy immune system and blood production in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl is brought from a school party following an episode of loss of consciousness. She was noted to have jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and was incontinent of urine in the episode. Examination is non-contributory. Blood investigations and CT scan of the brain are normal. She mentions a similar case when on holiday about a year before this episode for which she did not receive treatment.
What is an appropriate step in this patient's management?Your Answer: Refer for electroencephalography (EEG) if there are any further episodes
Correct Answer: Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy: Key Steps and Considerations
Epilepsy is a complex condition that requires careful management to ensure optimal outcomes for patients. Here are some key steps and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when treating patients with epilepsy:
1. Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist: Epilepsy nurse specialists can serve as valuable intermediaries between patients and healthcare providers, helping to ensure effective communication and treatment compliance.
2. Advise patients to avoid driving and other high-risk activities: Patients with epilepsy should be advised to avoid driving until they have been seizure-free for a certain amount of time (according to local laws). They should also be cautioned against engaging in other high-risk activities, such as operating heavy machinery or swimming unaccompanied.
3. Refer for diagnostic testing: Patients who have experienced one or more seizures should be referred for diagnostic testing, including blood investigations, EEG, and MRI. These tests can help to identify the underlying cause of seizures and guide treatment decisions.
4. Consider drug treatment: Drug treatment is often necessary for patients with epilepsy, but the choice of medication should be carefully considered based on the patient’s seizure type and individual needs. Sodium valproate and lamotrigine are often used for generalised tonic-clonic seizures, while carbamazepine is first-line for partial seizures.
5. Monitor for side effects: All medications used to treat epilepsy have potential side effects, so patients should be carefully monitored for any adverse reactions. Women of childbearing age should avoid sodium valproate due to the risk of neural tube defects.
6. Consider MRI if EEG shows abnormality: MRI is indicated for patients with new-onset epilepsy or failure of first-line medication, unless there is a clear diagnosis of idiopathic generalised epilepsy. In acute situations, a CT scan may be necessary.
By following these key steps and considerations, healthcare professionals can help to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive the best possible care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman complains that she is unable to leave the house and as a result, her children are missing out and she is a bad mother. She reports feeling anxious most of the time, but when she is in public, she experiences a rapid heartbeat, fast breathing, and believes that everyone is staring at her. These symptoms began approximately three weeks after she lost her job when the company she worked for shut down. Since then, she has been unable to find enjoyment in anything and feels constantly fatigued. What is her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: Depression with secondary anxiety
Explanation:Understanding the Relationship Between Depression and Anxiety: A Clinical Perspective
Depression and anxiety are two common mental health conditions that often co-occur. However, it is important to distinguish between the two and determine which is the primary diagnosis, as this will guide treatment. In cases where depression is the underlying main diagnosis, patients may develop secondary symptoms such as anxiety and panic attacks. On the other hand, in cases where anxiety is the primary diagnosis, patients may also experience secondary depressive symptoms.
One key factor in determining the primary diagnosis is the temporal development of symptoms. In cases where depressive symptoms clearly started first, a correct diagnosis of depression is important, as treating the underlying disorder can also improve secondary anxiety symptoms. Symptoms of depression include low mood, anhedonia, and anergia.
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by uncontrollable and irrational worry or anxiety about a wide range of issues and situations, while agoraphobia is an excessive fear of being in a situation where a person cannot freely escape or where help may not be available. Panic disorder is diagnosed when a person has recurrent, severe panic attacks without an obvious precipitant.
In cases where anxiety is secondary to depression, it is important to address the underlying depressive symptoms in order to improve the abnormal anxiety. Symptoms of abnormal anxiety and depression frequently present co-morbidly, and careful history-taking is necessary to determine which is the primary diagnosis. By understanding the relationship between depression and anxiety, clinicians can provide more effective treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with agitation, dry mouth, and blurred vision. He has a history of major depression and admits to taking an overdose of amitriptyline two hours ago in an attempt to end his life. Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, heart rate is 110 beats/min, and temperature is 37.7°C. What is the primary investigation that should be conducted based on the patient's clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Serum tricyclic antidepressants concentration
Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:If tricyclic overdose is suspected, it is important to perform an ECG to check for any abnormalities. A QRS widening of over 100ms is linked to a higher risk of seizures, while a QRS widening of over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias. Tricyclic overdose can cause sinus tachycardia, QRS widening, and QT interval prolongation. Therefore, an ECG should be conducted on all patients who have intentionally poisoned themselves (or have an unknown cause of altered GCS) to screen for TCA overdose. While urine drug screens, serum tricyclic antidepressant levels, and arterial blood gas tests can help diagnose tricyclic overdose, they are not the most crucial initial tests. Although an electroencephalogram can detect seizure activity in the brain, it does not change the management plan for tricyclic overdose.
Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.
Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year-old male patient complains of a painful swelling at the back of his elbow, without any history of injury. Upon examination, an erythematosus and tender swelling is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Explanation:Common Causes of Elbow Pain
Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.
Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.
Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.
Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients. Understanding the characteristic features of these conditions can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits the sexual health clinic following unprotected sex with a female partner. He reports experiencing coryzal symptoms and myalgia, which began four weeks ago. The patient has a history of asthma, which is managed with salbutamol. The doctor advises him to undergo HIV testing, and he consents. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer: Order a p24 antigen HIV test
Correct Answer: Order HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests
Explanation:The recommended course of action is to order a combination test for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody. The patient is exhibiting symptoms of HIV seroconversion and had unprotected intercourse 4 weeks ago. Combination tests are now the standard for HIV diagnosis and screening, with p24 antigen tests typically turning positive between 1 and 4 weeks post-exposure and antibody tests turning positive between 4 weeks and 3 months post-exposure. If a patient at risk tests positive, the diagnosis should be confirmed with a repeat test before starting treatment.
Offering post-exposure prophylaxis is not appropriate in this case, as the patient had unprotected intercourse 3 weeks ago. Two NRTIs and an NNRTI should not be prescribed as treatment, as the patient has not yet tested positive. Ordering only a p24 antigen or antibody test alone is also not recommended, as combination tests are now standard practice.
Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis
HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.
Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old known intravenous (iv) drug user presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fever, morning stiffness, and joint pain. The patient reports a constant, dull pain in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints bilaterally, with an intensity of 3/10. Her medical history is unremarkable, but her family history includes a skin condition and rheumatoid arthritis. The patient consumes 15 alcoholic units per week and smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. On physical examination, the patient is febrile with a temperature of 38.1 °C. The DIP joints are warm and swollen, and there is symmetric nail pitting. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's current presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Appearance of a silver, scaly rash
Explanation:Differentiating Arthritides: Understanding Clinical and Laboratory Findings
Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, and it can be challenging to distinguish between the various types that exist. However, by considering the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis.
For instance, psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory subtype of arthritis that often affects the DIP joints, sausage digits, and nails. The classic X-ray finding of psoriatic arthritis is the pencil in a cup appearance, although it is not specific to the disease. In contrast, rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by PIP and MCP joint involvement, wrist and cervical spine pain, and positive rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies.
Septic arthritis is a medical emergency that usually involves large joints and is associated with high fever, chills, and rapid joint destruction. Synovial fluid analysis may reveal Gram-positive cocci in cases of septic arthritis caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative joint disease that is associated with subchondral cyst formation, joint space narrowing, and osteophyte formation. It typically affects the DIP and PIP joints and large weight-bearing joints, but it is not an inflammatory arthritis.
In summary, understanding the clinical and laboratory findings associated with different types of arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child presents to antenatal clinic. She had been invited to attend screening for gestational diabetes on account of her booking BMI, which was 32kg/m². Prior to her pregnancy, she had been healthy and had no personal or family history of diabetes mellitus. She takes no regular medications and has no known allergies.
During her antenatal visit, she undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which reveals the following results:
- Fasting glucose 6.9mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.8 mmol/L
An ultrasound scan shows no fetal abnormalities or hydramnios. She is advised on diet and exercise and undergoes a repeat OGTT two weeks later. Due to persistent impaired fasting glucose, she is started on metformin.
After taking metformin for two weeks, she undergoes another OGTT, with the following results:
- Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose 7.2mmol/L
What is the most appropriate next step in managing her glycaemic control?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced. This patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 25 weeks due to a fasting glucose level above 5.6mmol/L. Despite lifestyle changes and the addition of metformin, her glycaemic control has not improved, and her fasting glucose level remains above the target range. Therefore, NICE recommends adding short-acting insulin to her current treatment. Switching to modified-release metformin may help patients who experience side effects, but it would not improve glycaemic control in this case. Insulin should be added in conjunction with metformin for persistent impaired glycaemic control, rather than replacing it. Sulfonylureas like glibenclamide should only be used for patients who cannot tolerate metformin or as an adjunct for those who refuse insulin treatment, and they are not the best option for this patient.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to eye casualty with a painful, red eye and blurred vision. She reports that the pain started suddenly this morning. On examination, there is swelling of the eyelid and a small hypopyon is present. Her vision is blurry in the affected eye and she can only see moving fingers at a distance of one meter. Fundoscopy reveals periphlebitis. The patient has no significant medical history except for cataract surgery performed 3 days ago. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endophthalmitis
Explanation:Endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication of cataract surgery that requires urgent treatment. This patient is experiencing a painful and red eye after undergoing cataract surgery, which is a common symptom of endophthalmitis. The condition occurs when microbial organisms are introduced into the eye during surgery, either from the patient’s normal flora or contaminated instruments. Symptoms include retinal periphlebitis, pain, redness, ocular discharge, and worsening vision. Treatment involves prompt administration of intravitreal or systemic antibiotics. Blepharitis, infective conjunctivitis, and keratitis are other ocular conditions that do not fit the symptoms presented by this patient.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He has a two day history of general malaise, vomiting and vague abdominal discomfort. Over the past twelve hours he has become increasingly drowsy.
On examination, he was unresponsive to verbal commands. His temperature was 36.5°C and his blood pressure was 74/48 mmHg. The following investigations were done:
- Sodium: 121 mmol/L (137-144)
- Potassium: 6.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 11.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 162 µmol/L (60-110)
- Glucose: 1.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
- Chloride: 91 mmol/L (95-107)
- Bicarbonate: 14 mmol/L (20-28)
After giving emergency treatment, what single investigation would be most valuable in confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetracosactrin (Synacthen) test
Explanation:Addisonian Crisis and Diagnosis with Synacthen Test
The patient is experiencing an Addisonian crisis, which is a life-threatening condition caused by a severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone hormones. To confirm the diagnosis of Addison’s disease, a Synacthen test is performed. This test involves injecting a synthetic hormone called Synacthen, which stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol. Blood samples are taken before and after the injection to measure the levels of cortisol in the blood. If the adrenal glands are functioning properly, the cortisol levels will increase significantly after the injection. However, if the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, the levels will remain low. The Synacthen test is a reliable and accurate way to diagnose Addison’s disease and determine the appropriate treatment plan. It is important to diagnose and treat Addison’s disease promptly to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache. She complains of pain behind the eyes and photophobia. She has vomited twice since the headache came on. She says it is the worst headache she has ever had by far. There is no past history of migraine. Examination reveals no neurological deficit.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the head
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Headache: CT Scan, Lumbar Puncture, Plasma Viscosity, MRI, and Angiography
Headaches can have various causes, and it is important to determine the underlying condition to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of a headache:
1. CT Scan of the Head: This imaging test is the initial investigation of choice when subarachnoid haemorrhage is suspected. It can show the presence of blood in the subarachnoid or intraventricular spaces.
2. Lumbar Puncture: If there is doubt about the presence of subarachnoid haemorrhage, a lumbar puncture may be considered 12 hours after the onset of symptoms. Multiple cerebrospinal fluid samples should be sent for microscopy to look for the persistent presence of red blood cells and xanthochromia.
3. Plasma Viscosity: This test is useful when temporal arthritis is suspected as a cause of headache. It will typically be highly elevated. However, it is not useful in the diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
4. MRI of the Head: This imaging test may be considered later in the diagnostic process if other diagnoses are being considered. However, CT scan is a more appropriate first-line test.
5. Angiography: This test is usually performed to identify an aneurysm that may be amenable to intervention, either with open surgery or commonly interventional radiology.
In conclusion, the appropriate diagnostic test for a headache depends on the suspected underlying condition. A thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the most appropriate course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old nulliparous woman presents to her General Practice for a routine cervical smear. Her previous smear was negative, and she is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She had one episode of gonorrhoeae treated two years ago. During the examination, the practice nurse observes a soft, pea-sized, fluctuant lump on the posterior vestibule near the vaginal opening. There is some minor labial swelling, but it is non-tender. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bartholin cyst
Explanation:Common Causes of Lumps in the Vaginal Area in Women
The vaginal area in women can be affected by various lumps, which can cause discomfort and concern. Here are some of the most common causes of lumps in the vaginal area in women:
Bartholin Cyst: This type of cyst occurs when the ducts connecting the Bartholin glands, which are located near the introitus at the 4 and 8 o’clock positions, become obstructed. Bartholin cysts are usually soft, small, and asymptomatic, but they can cause discomfort and require removal in women over 40 to rule out vaginal carcinoma.
Lipoma: A lipoma is a benign adipose tissue that can be found on the labia majora. It is a larger and rarer lump than a Bartholin cyst.
Bartholin Abscess: This condition arises from an infected Bartholin cyst and causes significant labial swelling, erythema, tenderness, and pain on micturition and superficial dyspareunia. Treatment includes antibiotics and warm baths, but surgical management may be necessary.
Haematoma: A haematoma is a collection of blood cells outside the vessels, which presents as a firm, red-purple lump. It usually occurs after trauma or surgery.
Infected Epidermal Cyst: Epidermal cysts are benign tumors that can occur in the perineal area. When infected, they cause erythema, pain, and extravasation of keratin material.
Understanding the Different Types of Lumps in the Vaginal Area in Women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Sarah, a 54-year-old patient, has recently received a renal transplant and has been prescribed a medication called ciclosporin to prevent transplant rejection. She is feeling anxious and wants to know about any potential side effects of this medication.
What are the possible side effects of ciclosporin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatotoxicity
Explanation:Hepatotoxicity is a possible adverse effect of ciclosporin, which is believed to be caused by acute arteriolar vasoconstriction. It is important to note that ciclosporin can also be nephrotoxic. Glaucoma is not a known side effect of ciclosporin, but other medications such as sulfa-based drugs, anticholinergics, and tricyclic antidepressants may induce it. Unlike other immunosuppressants, ciclosporin is considered to be non-myelotoxic according to the BNF. Rifampicin, a common anti-TB medication, is known to cause orange secretions, but this is not a characteristic of ciclosporin.
Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug
Ciclosporin is a medication that belongs to the class of immunosuppressants. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells, which are responsible for the immune response in the body. This is achieved by decreasing the release of IL-2, a cytokine that stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cells. Ciclosporin binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.
Despite its effectiveness in suppressing the immune system, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. These include nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremor, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. Interestingly, it is noted by the BNF to be ‘virtually non-myelotoxic’, which means it does not affect the bone marrow.
Ciclosporin is used in various medical conditions, including following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes, which are the cells that make up the outer layer of the skin, as well as modulating T cell function. Despite its adverse effects, Ciclosporin remains an important medication in the management of several medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 9-week-old boy is presented to his GP by his parents who are concerned about an undescended testis. The patient was born at term following an uncomplicated pregnancy and birth and has been healthy since birth. On examination, the left testicle is not palpable in the scrotal sac and is unretractable, while the right testicle has fully descended. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Review in 1 month
Explanation:If a male child’s testes have not descended by 3 months of age, it is important to refer them for further evaluation. In the case of a 2-month-old child with a unilateral undescended testicle, the appropriate course of action is to review the situation again in 1 month. It is crucial to monitor the child’s condition as undescended testes can increase the risk of testicular cancer and infertility. While there is a chance that the testicle may descend on its own, it is important to ensure that it does so. Reassurance without follow-up would not be appropriate in this case. If the child were over 3 months of age, a routine referral would be necessary, but in this scenario, the child is only 2 months old. An urgent referral is not necessary at this stage. Waiting until the child is 1 year old to review the case would be inappropriate. If the testicle remains undescended by 3 months of age, the child should be referred to paediatric surgery for orchidopexy by 18 months of age.
Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management
Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department, worried about her pregnancy. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications. However, during a shopping trip a few hours ago, she felt a sudden rush of fluid from her vagina and noticed that her underwear was wet.
The triage nurse has already taken her vital signs, which are all within normal limits.
What is the initial test that should be performed based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Speculum examination
Explanation:Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.
The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old gentleman is admitted following a fall with a painful right knee. He has a history of osteoarthritis and atrial fibrillation (AF). Prior to admission, he was independent and living alone. While in the Emergency Department, he gives a history of falling on his knee. Staff reported an incident of urinary incontinence while in their care. No seizure activity was reported. While on the ward, he becomes sleepy but arousable. Later in the night, the nurses state he is no longer opening his eyes to voices and is making incomprehensible noises.
What is the most important potential diagnosis which requires exclusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subdural haematoma
Explanation:Diagnosing Acute Subdural Haematoma: Vital Clues and Differential Diagnoses
Acute subdural haematoma is a serious neurosurgical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and intervention. Elderly patients and those on anticoagulant medications are at higher risk. A fluctuating conscious level in an elderly patient should raise suspicion. Vital clues from the patient’s history, such as a history of AF and fall, episode of urinary incontinence, and rapid drop in conscious level, should be considered. Urgent computed tomography (CT) brain imaging is necessary to exclude this diagnosis.
Other possible diagnoses, such as stroke, postictal state, obstructive sleep apnoea, and hypoglycaemia, may present with similar symptoms. However, given the history of a recent fall and deteriorating GCS, an intracranial event must be investigated. Checking the patient’s capillary glucose level is reasonable, but excluding an acute subdural haematoma is paramount.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman experiences a sudden and severe headache followed by collapse. Imaging reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage, but there are no signs of increased intracranial pressure. What medication should be given?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nimodipine
Explanation:To prevent vasospasm in aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhages, nimodipine is utilized. This medication is a calcium channel blocker that lessens cerebral vasospasm and enhances results. It is given to the majority of subarachnoid haemorrhage cases.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old with schizophrenia presents with a complaint of milk-like nipple discharge. Upon further inquiry and examination, you suspect that this is a side effect of their anti-psychotic medication. Which of the following pathways influenced by anti-psychotics is the most likely cause of this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberoinfundibular pathway blockage
Explanation:The Effects of Anti-Psychotics on Different Pathways in the Brain
Anti-psychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions. However, they can also have unintended effects on different pathways in the brain. Here are some examples:
Tuberoinfundibular pathway blockage: Anti-psychotics can block dopamine, which normally inhibits prolactin. This can lead to hyperprolactinaemia, causing breast milk production, infertility, and sexual dysfunction.
Alpha adrenergic receptor blockage: Blocking α-adrenergic receptors can cause postural hypotension.
Anticholinergic receptor blockage: Blocking anticholinergic receptors can cause urinary retention, dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation.
Histaminergic receptor blockage: Anti-psychotics can also block histamine receptors, causing sedation and weight gain.
Nigrostriatal pathway blockage: Blocking the nigrostriatal pathway can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as parkinsonism, dystonia, and tardive dyskinesia.
In summary, while anti-psychotics can be effective in treating mental health conditions, they can also have unintended effects on different pathways in the brain. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, dry hair and skin, cold intolerance, constipation and low mood. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Hypothyroidism and Differential Diagnosis
Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by a range of symptoms, including lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, difficulty concentrating, and myxoedema coma. Diagnosis is made by measuring TSH and T4 levels, with elevated TSH and decreased T4 confirming the diagnosis. Treatment involves titrating doses of levothyroxine until serum TSH normalizes and symptoms resolve. Differential diagnosis includes hypercalcaemia, hyperthyroidism, Addison’s disease, and Cushing’s disease, each with their own unique set of symptoms. Understanding these conditions and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to his physician with concerns about alterations in his bowel movements, experiencing small droplets of stool, rectal bleeding, and abdominal discomfort. The physician orders a red flag colonoscopy, which reveals no signs of cancer but does show protrusions in the bowel wall that may be responsible for the patient's symptoms. Which section of the large intestine is most likely to exhibit these protrusions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sigmoid colon
Explanation:Diverticula are typically located in the sigmoid colon, and their symptoms often mimic those of malignancy, including changes in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. As a result, individuals with these symptoms are often referred for colonoscopy. The sigmoid colon is the area of the colon with the highest pressure, making it the most common location for diverticular disease. It is rare to find diverticular disease in the rectum.
Understanding Diverticular Disease
Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of colonic mucosa through the muscular wall of the colon. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.
To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. For acutely unwell surgical patients, plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray can identify perforation, while an abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can detect acute inflammation and local complications.
Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses may require surgical or radiological drainage, while recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis may necessitate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, typically require a resection and stoma, with a high risk of postoperative complications and HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed with laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A concerned mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy who has been experiencing recurrent eye problems. The baby has been having persistent sticky discharge and the mother has tried various drops and cleaning methods without success. Upon examination, the baby's pupils are equal and reactive, the conjunctiva shows no signs of inflammation, the sclera is white, and the eyelids appear healthy. The baby has a normal gaze, a normal red reflex, and tracks objects in their visual field appropriately.
Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the best advice to offer the mother?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The condition usually self-resolves by 1 year
Explanation:Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants
Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that affects around 10% of infants at one month of age. It is characterized by a persistent watery eye caused by an imperforate membrane, usually located at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. Fortunately, symptoms usually resolve on their own by the age of one year in 95% of cases.
To manage this condition, parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct to help clear any blockages. However, if symptoms persist beyond one year, it is recommended to seek the advice of an ophthalmologist. In such cases, probing may be considered, which is a procedure done under a light general anaesthetic. By understanding the causes and management of nasolacrimal duct obstruction, parents can take the necessary steps to ensure their child’s eye health and comfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a 5-day history of fatigue, muscle and joint pain, abdominal bloating and a throbbing unilateral headache. She says that she cannot sleep well and has an intense desire to consume chocolate and sweet drinks. On examination, she is alert and orientated. There is bilateral breast tenderness and mild facial and hand puffiness. She seems easily distracted and recalls two of three words after a delay. The rest of the physical examination is unremarkable. She says she has had several similar episodes previously, each lasting about 1 week. During these episodes, she becomes irritable, frequently cries, tends to miss work and occasionally gets into conflict with her husband and colleagues.
To which of the following phases of the menstrual cycle is this condition most likely related?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Luteal phase
Explanation:Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women of reproductive age, characterized by cyclic behavioral, emotional, and physical changes during the late luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. The most severe form of PMS is known as premenstrual dysphoric syndrome. The hallmark psychological changes are depression, irritability, and emotional lability, while physical manifestations include fluid retention, weight gain, and breast tenderness. Symptoms improve shortly after the onset of menses, and the syndrome is unrelated to the menstrual phase. The exact cause of PMS is unknown, but a multifactorial causation has been suggested, including decreased progesterone synthesis and increased prolactin, estrogen, aldosterone, and prostaglandin synthesis during the luteal phase. Hypoglycemia and serotonin deficiency also play a role. Severe PMS is treated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. It is important to understand PMS and its symptoms to seek appropriate treatment and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A patient visits her General Practitioner (GP) with some questions about the Breast Cancer Screening Programme, regarding which she has recently received a letter.
Which of the following most accurately describes the components of breast cancer screening for a patient who is in her 50s?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mammogram every three years
Explanation:Breast Cancer Screening and Assessment: What to Expect Every Three Years
The NHS offers routine breast cancer screening every three years for patients aged 50 to 70. This involves a mammogram, an X-ray of the breast tissue. If a suspicious lesion is found, the patient will be referred for triple assessment, which includes history taking, examination, imaging (mammography or ultrasound), and biopsy.
Ultrasound scans are not used for screening but may be used as an alternative to mammography in younger patients or men. A breast examination by a doctor is not part of the screening program but is performed as part of the triple assessment.
MRI scans are not used for screening but may be used for further assessment after a lesion has been identified. Knowing what to expect every three years can help patients feel more prepared and informed about their breast health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure at the day surgery unit. The surgery is aimed at treating carpal tunnel syndrome. During the procedure, which structure is divided to decompress the median nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor retinaculum
Explanation:The flexor retinaculum is the only structure that is divided in the surgical treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome. It is important to protect all other structures during the procedure as damaging them could result in further injury or disability. The purpose of dividing the flexor retinaculum is to decompress the median nerve.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A systematic review and meta-analysis is used to look at the effects on myocardial events, using a new cholesterol lowering medication. The analysis shows that the review has a high level of heterogeneity.
What analysis should next take place to determine the possible cause of the high levels of heterogeneity in a review of this kind conducted on elderly patients?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sub-group analysis
Explanation:Meta-Analysis Techniques and Sub-Group Analysis
Meta-analysis is a statistical technique used in systematic reviews to combine data from multiple studies. However, the level of heterogeneity among the studies can affect the choice of analysis technique. A high level of heterogeneity suggests that any differences between the studies are due to actual differences, and sub-group analysis should be performed to determine the cause. Fixed-effects meta-analysis assumes that any difference between studies is due to random chance and is suitable for reviews with low heterogeneity. Random-effects meta-analysis is the next choice for reviews with high heterogeneity, but it does not determine the cause. Intention to treat analysis is used in randomized controlled trials to prevent loss to follow-up bias. Number needed to treat analysis does not provide information about the cause of heterogeneity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of heavy and prolonged menstrual bleeding that has been ongoing for six months, despite being treated with mefenamic and tranexamic acid. Upon conducting a transvaginal ultrasound, an endometrial thickness of 15mm is observed. What would be the next appropriate course of investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometrial biopsy at hysteroscopy
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, an endometrial biopsy should be performed if necessary to rule out endometrial cancer or atypical hyperplasia. The biopsy is recommended for women who experience persistent intermenstrual bleeding and for those aged 45 and above who have had unsuccessful or ineffective treatment. In the case of the patient mentioned above, her treatment has not been successful and she has a thickened endometrium. Although there is some debate about the thickness of the endometrium in premenopausal women, this patient qualifies for a biopsy based on her failed medical treatment alone, making it the most appropriate option.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing shortness of breath during light activity and has developed a dry cough. Upon testing, her oxygen saturation was found to be 87% while breathing normally. A chest x-ray revealed a diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrate. Despite an extensive infection screening, no infections were found, leading doctors to believe that her symptoms are a result of a drug she is taking. Which medication is the most likely culprit for this adverse reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Potential Side Effects of Common Rheumatoid Arthritis Medications
Methotrexate, a commonly prescribed medication for rheumatoid arthritis, has been known to cause acute pneumonitis and interstitial lung disease. Although this is a rare complication, it can be fatal and should be closely monitored. Azathioprine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression and increase the risk of infection. Cyclosporin, often used in combination with other medications, can cause neurological and visual disturbances. Hydroxychloroquine, while generally well-tolerated, can lead to abdominal pain and visual disturbances in cases of toxicity. Sulfasalazine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can affect liver function tests and cause bone marrow suppression, requiring careful monitoring.
It is important for patients to be aware of the potential side effects of their medications and to communicate any concerns with their healthcare provider. Regular monitoring and follow-up appointments can help to identify and manage any adverse effects. With proper management, the benefits of these medications can outweigh the risks for many patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain, fever and weight loss. Abdominal imaging revealed multiple retroperitoneal lymph nodes. She was diagnosed with intestinal tuberculosis and received a full drug regimen for six months. However, after completion of treatment, her symptoms remain. She presents to us with a body weight of 38 kg. There is angular stomatitis and diffuse loss of hair. She looks tanned. Repeat abdominal imaging reveals persistence of the lymph nodes. Her son, who accompanied her, complains that his mother is becoming listless and she has even given up her favourite hobby of Sudoku. She also has a few involuntary movements of her face, such as chewing.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Whipple’s disease
Explanation:Whipple’s Disease: A Multisystem Disorder with Malabsorption and Cognitive Decline
This patient presents with iron deficiency, abdominal lymphadenopathy, hyperpigmentation, and cognitive decline. Despite treatment for tuberculosis, there has been no improvement. These symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Whipple’s disease, a multisystem disorder caused by infection with Tropheryma whipplei. Malabsorption with abdominal lymphadenopathy is a common manifestation, and extraintestinal symptoms can include cognitive decline with facial involuntary movements, arthritis, hyperpigmentation, retinitis, and endocarditis. HIV dementia, prion disease, Huntington’s chorea, and coeliac disease are all ruled out based on the patient’s clinical presentation and lack of risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presented 9 months after discharge from hospital, following a myocardial infarction. He had no further chest pain but had developed swelling of the breasts, which was uncomfortable on occasion. Upon examination, tender bilateral gynaecomastia was observed.
Which medication he is currently taking is most likely responsible for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Digoxin is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and congestive heart failure. However, it has a narrow therapeutic window, meaning that even small changes in dosage can cause significant side effects. Common side effects include dizziness, skin reactions, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Gynaecomastia, or breast enlargement in males, is a rare side effect of digoxin. Signs of digoxin toxicity include drowsiness, confusion, bradycardia, shortness of breath, and blurred vision. Other medications that can cause gynaecomastia include anti-androgens, 5-a reductase inhibitors, exogenous estrogens, and certain chemotherapy agents.
Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker used to control heart rate in atrial fibrillation, treat hypertension and congestive heart failure, and prevent secondary heart attacks. Side effects of bisoprolol and beta-blockers in general include vivid dreams, mood changes, bronchospasm in asthmatics, dizziness, and nausea.
Aspirin is an anti-platelet medication that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, tinnitus, and Reye’s syndrome.
Eplerenone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used to treat heart failure and post-MI. It can cause hyperkalemia, diarrhea, constipation, dizziness, hypotension, and hyponatremia. Unlike spironolactone, another aldosterone antagonist, eplerenone does not have anti-androgenic, estrogenic, or progestogenic properties.
Simvastatin is an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor used to lower cholesterol. Side effects include muscle cramps, rhabdomyolysis, hepatitis, hair thinning, abdominal pain, and tiredness. Other cardiovascular drugs that may cause gynaecomastia include spironolactone, ACE inhibitors, amiodarone, and calcium channel blockers. Many drugs can cause gynaecomastia, including anti-androgens, antimicrobial medications, anti-ulcer drugs, hormonal therapies, psychoactive drugs, and drugs of abuse. Aspirin is generally well-tolerated at anti-platelet dosages, with bleeding being the main adverse effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old primip is brought in by ambulance at 38+2 weeks’ gestation. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy so far, and she is a smoker. This morning, she had sudden-onset abdominal pain, which has become very severe. The uterus is hard and contracted. There is no vaginal bleeding, and the os is closed, with a long cervix. She looks clammy and pale.
Her observations are as follows: heart rate (HR) 130 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 98/56 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 20 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 96% on air, and temperature 37.1 °C. The cardiotocogram shows fetal distress, and fetal movements cannot be palpated.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency Caesarean section
Explanation:Management of Placental Abruption: Emergency Caesarean Section and Other Options
Placental abruption is a serious obstetric emergency that can lead to maternal and fetal mortality. Risk factors include smoking, pre-eclampsia, cocaine use, trauma, and maternal age >35. Symptoms may include sudden-onset, severe pain, a contracted uterus, and fetal distress. In severe cases, an emergency Caesarean section is necessary to reduce the risk of mortality.
If a patient presents with a history suggestive of placental abruption but no maternal or fetal compromise, a transabdominal and/or transvaginal ultrasound scan can confirm the diagnosis and assess fetal wellbeing.
Admission for monitoring and analgesia may be appropriate in cases where there is a concealed or resolved placental abruption and the patient is stable without fetal distress. However, in the presence of maternal and fetal compromise, induction of labor is not appropriate.
In cases where there is no maternal or fetal distress, admitting for intravenous analgesia and fluids can be appropriate to assess the patient and make a timely decision for delivery as required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 38
Incorrect
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You are summoned to the ward by nursing staff to assess a 79-year-old man who has been admitted with acute urinary retention. Despite a well-functioning catheter, he is experiencing pain in his penis. Upon examination, his abdomen appears normal, but his penis is swollen with a tight constricting band located just proximal to the glans penis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paraphimosis
Explanation:Common Urological Conditions
Paraphimosis is a condition where the foreskin cannot be pulled forward over the glans penis after it has been retracted. This can occur after urinary catheterisation and may require a dorsal slit procedure to reduce the paraphimosis. If left untreated, a circumcision may be necessary. Catheter trauma can cause haematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine. Hypospadias is a congenital abnormality where the urethral meatus is abnormally placed. Peyronie’s disease is a condition where the penis has an abnormal curvature. Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin cannot be retracted. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these conditions are present to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 4 month old boy is suspected of having hypospadias. In boys with this condition, where is the urethral opening most commonly located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: On the distal ventral surface of the penis
Explanation:The anomaly is typically situated on the underside and frequently towards the end. Urethral openings found closer to the body are a known occurrence. Surgical removal of the foreskin may hinder the process of repairing the defect.
Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis
Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.
Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old construction worker has had a fall from scaffolding at work and you suspect a midshaft humeral fracture. Which nerve would be most at risk in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extend the wrist
Explanation:Fractures in the middle of the humerus bone often result in damage to the radial nerve. Therefore, it is important to test the function of the radial nerve. Among the options given, only extending the wrist can effectively test the radial nerve as it provides innervation to the extensor muscles. If the radial nerve is affected, it can cause wrist drop.
While extending the elbow can also test the radial nerve, it may not provide as much information as wrist extension because the injury may be located proximal to the innervation of the triceps. This means that a more distal injury could be missed. Nonetheless, it is still likely to be performed as part of the testing process.
Reference:
Shao YC, Harwood P, Grotz MR, et al. (2005). Radial nerve palsy associated with fractures of the shaft of the humerus: a systematic review. J Bone Joint Surg Br; 87(12):1647-52.Anatomy and Function of the Radial Nerve
The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It has both motor and sensory functions, innervating muscles in the arm and forearm, as well as providing sensation to the dorsal aspect of the hand.
The nerve follows a path from the axilla, where it lies posterior to the axillary artery on subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, and teres major, to the arm, where it enters between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. It spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.
The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. Damage to the nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. In the forearm, the nerve innervates the supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, extensor indicis, extensor digiti minimi, extensor pollicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus. Paralysis of these muscles can result in weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the radial nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect its function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old is brought in by her friend to the Emergency Department (ED). She is intoxicated, and you suspect that she has taken an overdose of an unknown drug. Her friend leaves before you can gather any additional information from her.
Despite your best resuscitation efforts, the patient ultimately passes away. Upon reviewing her medical records, you discover that she has no prior medical or psychiatric history and has never been hospitalized before.
In terms of medicolegal considerations, who should you notify first in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The coroner
Explanation:Roles and Responsibilities in a Suspicious Death Case
In cases where a death is deemed suspicious or unnatural, it is important to involve the appropriate authorities. In the case of a patient who has taken an overdose and passed away, the following individuals may be involved:
1. The Coroner: The death should be referred to the coroner as there are reasonable grounds to believe that the death is suspicious. The coroner may request a post-mortem.
2. The Pathologist: If a post-mortem is carried out, the pathologist will be involved in determining the cause of death.
3. The Police: The police will likely be involved in investigating the circumstances surrounding the death.
4. The On-Call Registrar: The on-call registrar may already be aware of the situation, but the priority should be informing the coroner.
5. The Registrar for Births and Deaths: The next of kin should be traced and informed, and the registrar for births and deaths will be informed when the death certificate is issued.
Overall, it is important to follow proper procedures and involve the appropriate authorities in cases of suspicious or unnatural deaths.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He reports consuming five cans of lager per week, which is believed to be the cause of his abnormal liver function tests. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis affecting his hips and knees. What tests should be performed to determine the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum ferritin and iron studies
Explanation:Haemochromatosis as a Cause of Hypogonadism
The patient’s medical history suggests that haemochromatosis may be the underlying cause of their hypogonadism. While their moderate alcohol consumption of 10 units per week may contribute to liver dysfunction, other potential explanations should be explored. Additionally, the patient’s history of type 2 diabetes and seronegative arthropathy are consistent with iron storage diseases. Haemochromatosis can lead to reduced insulin production, resulting in a presentation similar to type 2 diabetes. To confirm the diagnosis, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be evaluated, as elevated levels of both are highly indicative of haemochromatosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient reports experiencing mild jaundice following periods of fasting or exercise. Upon examination, his complete blood count and liver function tests appear normal. What is the recommended course of treatment for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No treatment required
Explanation:Gilbert Syndrome
Gilbert syndrome is a common genetic condition that causes mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, resulting in intermittent jaundice without any underlying liver disease or hemolysis. The bilirubin levels are usually less than 6 mg/dL, but most patients exhibit levels of less than 3 mg/dL. The condition is characterized by daily and seasonal variations, and occasionally, bilirubin levels may be normal in some patients. Gilbert syndrome can be triggered by dehydration, fasting, menstrual periods, or stress, such as an intercurrent illness or vigorous exercise. Patients may experience vague abdominal discomfort and fatigue, but these episodes resolve spontaneously, and no treatment is required except supportive care.
In recent years, Gilbert syndrome is believed to be inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there are reports of autosomal dominant inheritance. Despite the mild symptoms, it is essential to understand the condition’s triggers and symptoms to avoid unnecessary medical interventions. Patients with Gilbert syndrome can lead a normal life with proper care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents to the Emergency department with complaints of central chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is currently taking ramipril, metformin, atorvastatin, and gliclazide. On examination, his blood pressure is 129/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 81. Bibasal crackles are heard on auscultation of his chest.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 138 g/L (130-180)
- White cell count: 8.9 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet: 197 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 141 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 123 µmol/L (79-118)
- Glucose: 12.3 mmol/L (<7.0)
- ECG: Anterolateral ST depression
The patient is given sublingual GTN. What is the next most appropriate therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, clopidogrel 300 mg and unfractionated heparin
Explanation:Treatment Plan for High-Risk Patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
This patient, who has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, is considered high risk and requires immediate treatment. The recommended treatment plan includes loading the patient with both aspirin and clopidogrel to reduce the risk of further complications. If the patient experiences further chest pain or if ECG signs do not improve, additional interventions such as angiography may be necessary.
In addition to aspirin and clopidogrel, unfractionated heparin is also recommended as an alternative to fondaparinux for patients who are likely to undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours of admission. If the patient does not progress to angiogram, screening for ischaemia should be considered prior to discharge.
Overall, it is important to closely monitor this high-risk patient and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in a state of distress. She admits to having lost a significant amount of money through gambling and then taking 4 packets of paracetamol. This is not the first time she has engaged in such behavior. She discloses that her partner of 3 years has been offered a job overseas and is considering accepting it. Despite her initial heartbreak, they had a major argument and she now claims to be indifferent about whether he stays or goes.
What is the most appropriate course of action based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy
Explanation:Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by recurrent self-harm and intense interpersonal relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation as a way to cope with strong emotions during strained relationships. The defense mechanism of devaluation is evident in the patient’s quick emotional switches, without middle ground. Dialectical behavior therapy is an effective treatment for BPD, while cognitive behavior therapy is more suitable for depression or anxiety disorders. The clinical picture is more consistent with BPD than depression, and antidepressants may not be effective for BPD. Lithium, the mood stabilizer of choice for bipolar disorder, is not appropriate for this acute event, which occurred over the past few hours rather than days.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 46
Incorrect
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You review the blood results taken from a 12-week pregnant woman at her booking visit. In addition to the standard antenatal bloods she also had her rubella status checked as she didn't have the MMR vaccine as a child. She is currently in good health.
Rubella IgG NOT detected
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her of the risks and the need to keep away from anyone who has rubella
Explanation:Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.
The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.
If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.
If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man, who is on warfarin, visits his GP for a blood test to check his international normalised ratio (INR). He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and epilepsy. His desired INR range is between 2 and 3. However, the test shows an INR of 4. When asked, he discloses that he has recently begun taking a new drug.
Which medication is the probable cause of the INR alteration?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 35 year old pregnant woman undergoes routine pregnancy screening blood tests and is found to have an elevated alpha-fetoprotein level. This prompts investigation with ultrasound scanning. The scan reveals a fetus with an anterior abdominal wall defect and mass protruding through, which appears to still be covered with an amniotic sac. What is the standard course of action for managing this condition, based on the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caesarian section and staged repair
Explanation:If a fetus is diagnosed with exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to lower the risk of sac rupture. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein may indicate abdominal wall defects. The appropriate course of action is a caesarian section with staged repair, as this reduces the risk of sac rupture and surgery is not urgent. Immediate repair during caesarian section would only be necessary if the sac had ruptured. Vaginal delivery with immediate repair is only recommended for gastroschisis, as immediate surgery is required due to the lack of a protective sac. Therefore, the other two options are incorrect.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 49
Incorrect
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Which artery provides blood supply to the anal canal when examining the arterial supply to perineal structures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior rectal artery
Explanation:Blood Supply to the Pelvic Region
The pelvic region is supplied with blood by various arteries, each with its own specific function. The inferior rectal artery provides blood to the anal canal, while the perineal artery supplies blood to the transversus perinei and superficialis muscles. The internal pudendal artery also plays a significant role in the blood supply to the pelvic region, with branches such as the posterior labial/scrotal branches, artery of the bulb of vestibule/bulb of penis, and the dorsal and deep arteries of the clitoris/penis. In males, the internal pudendal artery also gives rise to the perforating arteries of the penis.
The external iliac artery is responsible for supplying blood to the muscles of the thighs. Lastly, the superior rectal artery provides blood to the rectum and anus. the blood supply to the pelvic region is crucial in diagnosing and treating various conditions that may arise in this area. Proper blood flow is essential for the proper functioning of the pelvic organs and muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the surgical assessment unit with a complaint of severe, slow onset pain in her left iliac fossa. Upon examination, left iliac fossa pain is confirmed, and she denies being sexually active. However, there is some clinical evidence of peritonitis. What investigation should be requested next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy test
Explanation:A pregnancy test is compulsory in all instances of acute abdomen in females who are of childbearing age.
Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions
Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.
Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.
It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 51
Incorrect
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What is the primary factor that determines if someone is a suitable candidate for an organ transplant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Someone for whom a transplant offers a reasonable likelihood of recovery.
Explanation:Factors to Consider for Transplant Suitability
When determining the suitability of a transplant, the most crucial factor is whether the condition can be cured by the transplant. While age may be a consideration, physical health is typically more important, as it depends on the specific organ or tissue being transplanted. Emotional stability can increase the chances of a successful outcome, but it is not the most critical factor. While knowledge of the underlying condition is helpful, it is not always necessary, as in the case of cardiomyopathy. The cause of the condition is often unknown, but this does not necessarily rule out the possibility of transplantation. Overall, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s health and medical history is necessary to determine the suitability of a transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Miscellaneous
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old woman visits your GP clinic with her mother to discuss contraceptive options. She reports heavy periods and prefers non-invasive methods. She also has a history of migraine with aura. What would be the most suitable option for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone only contraceptive pill (POCP)
Explanation:There are many options available for contraception, each with their own advantages and disadvantages. It is important to discuss these options to find the best fit for the patient. In this case, the progesterone only contraceptive pill is the most appropriate option due to the patient’s history of migraine with aura and heavy menstrual cycle. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for this patient. The intrauterine system is a popular option for menorrhagia, but the patient does not want an invasive device. The contraceptive implant is also invasive and not preferred by the patient. Condoms are a good barrier method, but the POCP will also help with the patient’s heavy and irregular periods.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is admitted at the request of his family due to a 3-month history of increasing confusion and unsteady gait. They have also noted intermittent jerking movements of both upper limbs. He was previously healthy and till the onset of symptoms, had continued to work part-time as a carpenter. On examination, he is not orientated to time, person or place. Myoclonic jerks of both upper limbs are noted together with non-specific cerebellar signs. CT brain and blood work-up for common causes of dementia is normal.
Which of the following tests will help in diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI of the brain
Explanation:Diagnostic Procedures for Suspected Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) is a rare and fatal neurological disorder that presents with rapidly progressive dementia and other non-specific neurological symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic procedures that are typically used when sCJD is suspected.
Clinical diagnosis of sCJD is based on a combination of typical history, MRI findings, positive CSF 14-3-3 protein, and characteristic EEG findings. Definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy, but this is often not desirable due to the difficulty in sterilizing equipment.
Renal biopsy is not indicated in cases of suspected sCJD, as the signs and symptoms described are not indicative of renal dysfunction. Echocardiography is also not necessary, as sCJD does not affect the heart.
Muscle biopsy may be indicated in suspected myopathic disorders, but is not useful in diagnosing sCJD. Similarly, bone marrow biopsy is not of diagnostic benefit in this case.
Overall, a combination of clinical history, imaging, and laboratory tests are used to diagnose sCJD, with biopsy reserved for cases where definitive diagnosis is necessary. It is important to note that there is currently no curative treatment for sCJD, and the disease is invariably fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic with a lump in his left groin. He is uncertain when it first appeared and reports no pain, abdominal discomfort, or alterations in bowel movements. During the examination, a mass is visible above and towards the middle of the pubic tubercle, and it vanishes when he lies down. It does not transilluminate. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is taking metformin.
What is the best course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine surgical referral
Explanation:It is recommended to refer patients with inguinal hernias for repair, even if they are not experiencing any symptoms. This is because many patients eventually become asymptomatic and require surgery anyway. Urgent surgical referral is not necessary unless there are signs of incarceration or strangulation. Watching and waiting for the hernia to resolve is not recommended as it does not spontaneously resolve. Fitting a truss is an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but in this case, routine surgical referral is the most appropriate course of action.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.
The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.
Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated at 7 cm above the sternal angle and there are large V-waves. On auscultation of the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is audible at the left sternal edge.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve disorders. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:
Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V-waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.
Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border.
Pulmonary Stenosis: Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur in the second left intercostal space.
Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.
Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).
Knowing the characteristics of these murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional if you suspect you may have a heart murmur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He feels she is distant and suspects she is spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office. Upon further questioning, he reveals a history of feeling uninterested in past relationships and struggles with mood swings. He expresses feeling alone in the world and that even his friends are against him. Although he self-harms, he denies any suicidal thoughts. A referral to psychiatry leads to a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)
Explanation:Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man, who has a history of hypertension and gout, visits you with a severely inflamed big toe on his right foot. He is currently taking indomethacin and allopurinol for his gout, but he is dissatisfied with the treatment and wants an alternative for arthritis control. You prescribe colchicine, and after three doses, his pain and swelling subside. What is the mechanism of action of colchicine in treating gout?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibiting monosodium urate-induced activation of neutrophils
Explanation:Colchicine is a medication used to treat acute gout attacks when NSAIDs are not effective or cannot be used. It works by inhibiting the activation of neutrophils by monosodium urate crystals, which disrupts the cytoskeleton and prevents the appropriate inflammatory response. However, it can cause side-effects such as diarrhea, nausea, and hepatic/renal toxicity.
Decreasing the breakdown of purines is not the mechanism of action of colchicine, but rather of allopurinol, which inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase and blocks the formation of uric acid. This medication is used to prevent gout attacks and hyperuricemia from chemotherapy, but can cause side-effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and hepatotoxicity.
Inhibiting phospholipase A2 is not the mode of action of colchicine, but rather of glucocorticoids. Similarly, inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase is not the mechanism of action of colchicine, but rather of NSAIDs. These medications can cause side-effects such as gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration.
Finally, suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes is not the mechanism of action of colchicine, but rather of immunosuppressive medications like glucocorticoids and tacrolimus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A final-year medical student takes a history from a 42-year-old man who suffers from narcolepsy. Following this the student presents the case to her consultant, who quizzes the student about normal sleep regulation.
Which neurotransmitter is chiefly involved in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep regulation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
Explanation:Neurotransmitters and Sleep: Understanding the Role of Noradrenaline, Acetylcholine, Serotonin, and Dopamine
Sleep architecture refers to the organization of sleep, which is divided into non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. NREM sleep is further divided into stages 1-4, with higher stages indicating deeper sleep. During sleep, individuals cycle between different stages of NREM and REM sleep. While the function of neurotransmitters in sleep is not fully understood, acetylcholine is believed to play a role in the progression of sleep stages, while noradrenaline is the primary regulator of REM sleep. Serotonin’s function in sleep is poorly understood, but studies have shown that its destruction can lead to total insomnia. Dopamine, on the other hand, is not implicated in the regulation of sleep in current neurotransmitter models. Abnormalities in cholinergic function can cause sleep fragmentation in individuals with dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department 2 hours after ingesting approximately 70 of his mother's blood pressure pills following a recent breakup. He reports feeling fatigued, experiencing heart palpitations, and noticing a yellow-green tint to his vision. The medical team conducts observations, an ECG, and urgent blood tests. The ECG reveals sinus tachycardia. Oxygen saturation on air is 98%, heart rate is 115, blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 16. The blood tests show hyperkalemia with a potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0). The appropriate definitive management, besides treating the hyperkalemia, is what?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer Digibind
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for severe digoxin toxicity is Digibind. The patient’s symptoms, such as a yellow-green tinge to vision and lethargy, strongly suggest a digoxin overdose. Administering 50g activated charcoal within an hour of ingestion may be helpful, but it is no longer applicable in this case. Watchful waiting is not advisable due to the severity of the overdose. Although the patient’s vital signs are currently normal except for tachycardia, admission to a coronary care unit (CCU) is necessary. While EDTA is a chelating agent used for heavy metal poisoning, it is not relevant to this case.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A large area of grey-blue pigment is noted over the left buttock of a 6-month-old baby by the pediatrician during a routine check-up. There are no other signs of bleeding or bruising visible on the baby. The baby was born full-term and the mother has no health conditions.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermal melanocytosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Bruising in Newborns
Newborns may develop bruises for various reasons, and it is essential to identify the cause to ensure appropriate management. Here are some common causes of bruising in newborns:
1. Dermal melanocytosis: These blue-grey birthmarks are common in babies of African, Middle Eastern, Mediterranean, or Asian descent. They usually appear on the lower back or buttocks and do not require any treatment.
2. Haemophilia: This inherited clotting disorder may present later in childhood as prolonged bleeding following an injury or haemarthrosis.
3. Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn: This condition is caused by vitamin K deficiency and may present with bleeding from the GI tract, umbilical cord, or venipuncture sites.
4. Non-accidental injury: While rare in newborns, non-accidental injury can cause bruising. However, this is not a consideration in a newborn who has not yet been exposed to any risk of abuse.
5. Osteogenesis imperfecta: This genetic condition affects bone strength and may present with multiple fractures from minimal-impact injuries. A sign of the condition is blue-grey tingling of the sclera but not of the skin.
It is crucial to consult a healthcare provider if you notice any unexplained bruising in your newborn to rule out any underlying medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man felt dizzy at work and later had a rhythm strip (lead II) performed in the Emergency Department. It reveals one P wave for every QRS complex and a PR interval of 240 ms.
What does this rhythm strip reveal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: First-degree heart block
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Heart Block
Heart block is a condition where the electrical signals that control the heartbeat are disrupted, leading to an abnormal heart rhythm. There are different types of heart block, each with its own characteristic features.
First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval, but with a 1:1 ratio of P waves to QRS complexes. This type of heart block is usually asymptomatic and does not require treatment.
Second-degree heart block can be further divided into two types: Mobitz type 1 and Mobitz type 2. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach’s phenomenon, is characterized by a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped. Mobitz type 2, on the other hand, is characterized by intermittent P waves that fail to conduct to the ventricles, leading to intermittent dropped QRS complexes. This type of heart block often progresses to complete heart block.
Complete heart block, also known as third-degree heart block, occurs when there is no association between P waves and QRS complexes. The ventricular rate is often slow, reflecting a ventricular escape rhythm as the ventricles are no longer controlled by the sinoatrial node pacemaker. This type of heart block requires immediate medical attention.
Understanding the different types of heart block is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any symptoms of heart block, such as dizziness, fainting, or chest pain, seek medical attention right away.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain. The pain is exacerbated by lying down, relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to the left shoulder. He has recently undergone two cycles of radiotherapy for prostate cancer. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm, which appears to fade on inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals low-voltage QRS complexes.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid using a 20 ml syringe and 18G needle under echocardiographic guidance. An ECG should be obtained to rule out MI and PE. GTN spray is used to manage MI, but it is not part of the treatment for tamponade. DC cardioversion is used for unstable cardiac arrhythmias, not tamponade. A fluid challenge with 1 liter of sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the tamponade. LMWH is used to manage pulmonary embolus, but it is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if the cause is haemopericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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In which tissue is glycolysis the primary direct means of generating ATP?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythrocytes
Explanation:The Importance of Glycolysis in Erythrocytes
Mature erythrocytes lack mitochondria, which means that they can only produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through anaerobic glycolysis. This makes them particularly vulnerable to deficiencies in glycolytic enzymes, such as pyruvate kinase deficiency, which affects 1 in 20,000 people and can cause varying degrees of haemolytic anaemia. The lack of pyruvate kinase directly impairs ATP production, as it is responsible for producing 2 ATP molecules from each glucose. Additionally, the build-up of intermediaries like 2,3 DPG can cause feedback inhibition of earlier stages of glycolysis, further impairing ATP production.
In contrast, other tissues rely on oxidative phosphorylation to generate the majority of their ATP under normal, aerobic conditions. The importance of glycolysis in erythrocytes highlights the unique metabolic needs of these cells and the consequences of deficiencies in glycolytic enzymes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with progressively worsening shortness of breath on exertion and has recently been waking up at night feeling short of breath. He has a pansystolic murmur found on auscultation, as well as coarse bilateral basal crackles found on auscultation. His echocardiogram reveals a reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) and severe mitral regurgitation. Cardiologists recommend that he commences certain medications to improve both his symptoms and long-term outcomes until he has definitive treatment of his valvular pathology.
Which one of the following medications has been shown to reduce mortality in patients with the described condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carvedilol
Explanation:Common Heart Failure Medications and Their Effects on Mortality Rates
Beta-blockers were once contraindicated in the treatment of congestive cardiac failure (CCF) due to their negative inotropic effect. However, current guidelines recommend beta-blocker treatment in patients who have been stabilized on diuretic and angiotensin-converting inhibitor (ACEI) therapy, as data show that their ability to decrease cardiac contractility and overall cardiac effort increases long-term mortality in patients with CCF.
Nifedipine does not improve mortality rates in heart failure and should be avoided, as most calcium channel blockers worsen symptoms and increase mortality rates in patients with heart failure.
Furosemide is a mainstay in the treatment of both acute and long-term heart failure, effectively relieving symptoms of fluid overload. However, there is little data to prove that it improves long-term mortality in patients with chronic CCF, potentially due to its nephrotoxic effects and changes in electrolyte imbalances.
Aspirin is known to be cardioprotective for patients with coronary artery disease, but there is no conclusive evidence to suggest that it offers any reduction in mortality rates or benefit for patients with heart failure.
Digoxin does not decrease mortality in heart failure and is no longer recommended as first-line therapy. Its use is reserved for patients in atrial fibrillation and those who cannot be controlled on an ACEI, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic.
Understanding the Effects of Common Heart Failure Medications on Mortality Rates
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man visits the urology clinic due to recurring renal colic episodes. His CT scans indicate the presence of several stones, and his 24-hour urine collection shows elevated urinary calcium levels. What is the most effective medication to decrease his stone formation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiazide diuretic
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics can be used to decrease calcium excretion and stone formation in patients with hypercalciuria and renal stones. Allopurinol, cholestyramine, oral bicarbonate, and pyridoxine are not effective in reducing calcium stones, but may help with other types of stones. Thiazide diuretics work by increasing distal tubular calcium resorption, which reduces calcium in the urine and prevents stone formation.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with gradual onset proximal shoulder and pelvic girdle muscular pains and stiffness. She is experiencing difficulty getting dressed in the morning and cannot raise her arms above the horizontal. She is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and recently completed a course of clarithromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection (penicillin-allergic). Blood tests were conducted, and the results are as follows:
Hb 128 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
WBC 12.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 66 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 64 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 32 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 55 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 37 g/L (35 - 50)
CRP 72 mg/L (< 5)
ESR 68 mg/L (< 30)
Creatine kinase 58 U/L (35 - 250)
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with an increase in creatine kinase levels. Instead, blood tests typically reveal signs of inflammation, such as elevated white blood cell count, C-reactive protein, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. These findings, combined with the patient’s medical history and demographic information, strongly suggest polymyalgia rheumatica as the diagnosis. In contrast, conditions such as polymyositis and dermatomyositis typically involve a significant rise in creatine kinase levels, and dermatomyositis also presents with a distinctive rash. Fibromyalgia does not typically show any signs of inflammation on blood tests. While statin-induced myopathy is a possibility based on the patient’s history, the absence of elevated creatine kinase levels makes this diagnosis less likely.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man, with a history of acromegaly, presents with a swollen, red, hot, and painful right knee that developed over the past three days. He denies having a fever and was previously healthy. He receives monthly octreotide for his acromegaly and does not take any diuretics. An X-ray reveals chondrocalcinosis. What results would you anticipate from the joint fluid microscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weakly positive birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals
Explanation:Acromegaly patients are at an increased risk of developing pseudogout, which is characterized by chondrocalcinosis. The crystals involved in pseudogout are rhomboid-shaped and weakly positively birefringent. It is important to note that negatively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals do not cause crystal arthropathy, while negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals are associated with gout crystal arthropathy. Additionally, weakly positive birefringent needle-shaped crystals are not known to cause crystal arthropathy.
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents with persistent diarrhoea and abdominal pain. During the past week, he experienced several days of reduced bowel movements. Upon further questioning, he admits to occasional blood in his stools.
On examination, his heart rate is 86 bpm and his temperature is 37.9ºC. There is tenderness in the lower left quadrant. He is admitted and treated. A CT chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveals mural thickening of the colon and pericolic fat stranding in the sigmoid colon.
What lifestyle recommendations can aid in managing the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase fruit and vegetables in his diet
Explanation:Increasing dietary fibre intake, specifically through the addition of fruits and vegetables, is a helpful measure for managing diverticular disease. In the case of this man, his altered bowel habits and presence of blood in his stools, along with the CT scan findings of sigmoid colon inflammation and pericolic fat stranding, indicate acute diverticulitis. This diagnosis is supported by his low-grade fever. Diverticular disease is the most common cause of inflammation in the sigmoid colon, and constipation is a common cause of diverticulosis. Therefore, increasing dietary fibre intake can help prevent constipation and reduce the likelihood of worsening diverticular disease. Restricting fluid intake, reducing alcohol consumption, smoking cessation, and stress reduction are not directly helpful for managing diverticular disease in this patient.
Understanding Diverticular Disease
Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of colonic mucosa through the muscular wall of the colon. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.
To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. For acutely unwell surgical patients, plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray can identify perforation, while an abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can detect acute inflammation and local complications.
Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses may require surgical or radiological drainage, while recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis may necessitate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, typically require a resection and stoma, with a high risk of postoperative complications and HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed with laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of vision loss in his right eye. He experienced flashes and floaters before the loss of vision, which began at the edges and progressed towards the centre. There was no history of trauma, headaches, or eye redness, but he has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He wears corrective glasses and sometimes contact lenses, but cannot recall his prescription. What factor raises the likelihood of this patient developing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Retinal detachment should be considered as a potential cause of sudden vision loss in patients with diabetes mellitus, as they are at an increased risk. Symptoms of RD may include a gradual loss of peripheral vision that progresses towards the centre, often described as a veil or curtain descending over the visual field. Prior to detachment, patients may experience flashes and floaters due to vitreous humour pulling on the retina. Prompt medical attention is necessary to prevent permanent vision loss.
Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic with poorly controlled rheumatoid arthritis. Her hands and feet have been swollen and painful for the past five years, particularly her metacarpophalangeal joints. The stiffness and pain are worse in the morning but improve with use throughout the day. Despite trying methotrexate and sulfasalazine, both treatments have been unsuccessful. The doctor decides to start her on a trial of TNF-inhibitors. What should be done before beginning treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest x-ray
Explanation:Performing a chest X-ray before starting biologics for rheumatoid arthritis is crucial to check for TB as these medications can trigger reactivation of the disease. This is the correct answer. An abdominal X-ray is not necessary in this scenario as it is typically used for suspected abdominal perforation. While full blood count and liver function tests are essential monitoring tools for DMARDs, they are not required before initiating treatment due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis.
Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies
The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward. She appears lethargic. When asked about her emotions, she responds, 'Let me start by telling you about my recent job interview. It went well, but I'm still waiting to hear back. I really need this job to pay off my student loans and start saving for a house. I've been feeling stressed about money lately.' She continues to talk about her financial situation.
Upon further questioning, she exhibits similar behavior and speaks slowly throughout.
How would you describe her behavior?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tangentiality
Explanation:Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after consuming a peanut butter sandwich. During the examination, she displays symptoms of anaphylaxis.
What is the initial sign that is likely to appear first in a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Runny nose, skin rash, swelling of the lips
Explanation:Understanding the Signs of Anaphylaxis: From Early Symptoms to Late Indicators of Shock
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. The first signs of anaphylaxis may look like normal symptoms of an allergy, such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips. However, if left untreated, more serious signs can appear within 30 minutes, indicating compromise of circulation and end-organs.
One of the later and more severe indicators of respiratory compromise in patients with anaphylaxis is stridor. This is a prominent wheezing sound caused by the obstruction of the airway due to swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat. If the swelling continues, complete blockage can occur, resulting in asphyxiation.
Hypotension is another late sign of anaphylaxis when the patient goes into shock. During anaphylaxis, the body reacts and releases chemicals such as histamine, causing blood vessels to vasodilate and leading to a drop in blood pressure. This can result in episodes of syncope, or fainting, as well as other symptoms of end-organ dysfunction such as hypotonia and incontinence.
A weak pulse is also a late sign of anaphylaxis, indicating compromised circulation. However, it is not one of the first signs to present, as the body goes through a series of reactions before reaching this stage.
In summary, understanding the signs of anaphylaxis is crucial for prompt treatment and prevention of life-threatening complications. Early symptoms such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips should not be ignored, as they can progress to more severe indicators of respiratory and circulatory compromise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 73
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about fractures of the scaphoid bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: When complicated by avascular necrosis the proximal pole is usually affected
Explanation:Scaphoid Fractures and Wrist Injuries
Scaphoid fractures are frequently seen in young adult males and are caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. If the fracture is complicated by avascular necrosis, the proximal pole is typically affected due to the scaphoid blood supply’s distal to proximal direction. Undisplaced fractures can be treated with a plaster. Wrist fractures are also common. Due to difficulties in visualizing fractures, initial radiographs usually involve four views of the scaphoid.
In summary, scaphoid fractures and wrist injuries are prevalent in young adult males and can result from falls on outstretched hands. If complicated by avascular necrosis, the proximal pole is typically affected. Undisplaced fractures can be treated with a plaster, and initial radiographs usually involve four views of the scaphoid due to difficulties in visualizing fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents to you with her parents. She has been experiencing chronic diarrhoea for the past eight months, with five to seven loose stools per day. Her parents report that the stools appear to contain undigested food from previous meals, such as carrots, peas, and sweet corn. Despite this, she has been growing well and remains stable on the 75th percentile for weight, height, and head circumference. She has not experienced any other symptoms or abdominal pain, and her examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis from the options below?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toddlers diarrhoea
Explanation:In exams, if a toddler’s stool has undigested food and includes carrots and peas, it is likely an indication of chronic nonspecific diarrhea or toddler’s diarrhea.
Understanding Diarrhoea in Children
Diarrhoea is a common condition in children that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is gastroenteritis, which is often accompanied by fever and vomiting for the first two days. The main risk associated with this condition is severe dehydration, which can be life-threatening if left untreated. The most common cause of gastroenteritis is rotavirus, and the diarrhoea may last up to a week. The treatment for this condition is rehydration.
Chronic diarrhoea is another type of diarrhoea that can affect infants and toddlers. In the developed world, the most common cause of chronic diarrhoea in infants is cow’s’ milk intolerance. Toddler diarrhoea, on the other hand, is characterized by stools that vary in consistency and often contain undigested food. Other causes of chronic diarrhoea in children include coeliac disease and post-gastroenteritis lactose intolerance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents for an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) screening at his GP's office. During the ultrasound, it is discovered that he has a supra-renal aneurysm measuring 4.9 cm in diameter. The patient reports no symptoms. What is the appropriate management plan for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-monthly ultrasound assessment
Explanation:For medium aneurysms (4.5-5.4 cm), it is recommended to undergo ultrasound assessment every 3 months to monitor any rapid diameter increase that may increase the risk of rupture. Small AAAs (<4.5 cm) have a low risk of rupture and may only require ultrasound assessment every 12 months. However, patients with AAAs who smoke should be referred to stop-smoking services to reduce their risk of developing or rupturing an AAA. Urgent surgical referral to vascular surgery is necessary for patients with large aneurysms (>5.4 cm) or rapidly enlarging aneurysms to prevent rupture.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her worried father. He reports that she has had a low-grade fever and a runny nose for the past week, and in the last few days, she has been struggling to breathe and making grunting noises. He is concerned because she is not eating well and her diapers are not as wet as usual. Upon examination, you observe chest retractions, wheezing, and bilateral inspiratory crackles.
What is the most suitable treatment for the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for supportive treatment
Explanation:The appropriate action for a child with bronchiolitis is to admit them for supportive treatment, as antibiotics are not necessary. This condition is typically caused by RSV and can be managed with supportive care. However, if the child is experiencing severe respiratory distress and a significant reduction in feeding, they should be admitted to the hospital for treatment. Admitting for IV antibiotics would not be appropriate unless pneumonia or another bacterial infection was suspected. Salbutamol nebulisers are not typically effective for bronchiolitis. Discharging the child home with advice or oral antibiotics would not be appropriate if they are showing signs of potentially serious illness.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has been ongoing for eight hours. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine and atenolol, and type 2 diabetes that is controlled through diet. Upon examination, the patient displays watering of the right eye, a slight droop of the eyelid, and displacement of the eye to the right. The left eye appears to have a full range of movements, and the pupil size is the same as on the left. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes
Explanation:Causes of Painless Partial Third Nerve Palsy
A painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. This condition is thought to be due to a microangiopathy that leads to the occlusion of the vasa nervorum. On the other hand, an aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery is associated with a painful third nerve palsy, and pupillary dilation is typical. Cerebral infarction, on the other hand, does not usually cause pain. Hypertension, which is a common condition, would normally cause signs of CVA or TIA. Lastly, cerebral vasculitis can cause symptoms of CVA/TIA, but they usually cause more global neurological symptoms.
In summary, a painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. Other conditions such as aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery, cerebral infarction, hypertension, and cerebral vasculitis can also cause similar symptoms, but they have different characteristics and causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the condition to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor for contraception options after having two children and deciding not to have any more. She expresses interest in long-acting reversible contraception and ultimately chooses the copper IUD. What other condition should be ruled out besides pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation:If a woman has pelvic inflammatory disease, she cannot have a copper IUD inserted. Women who are at risk of this condition, such as those with multiple sexual partners or symptoms that suggest pelvic inflammatory disease, should be tested for infections like Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae and treated if necessary. To test for these infections, endocervical swabs are used. While the insertion of a copper IUD does carry a risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease, this risk is low for women who are at low risk of sexually transmitted infections.
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of a labial lump that has been present for two weeks. Although she does not experience any pain, she reports that the lump is very itchy and rubs against her underwear. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, and she takes amlodipine, metformin, and sitagliptin daily. During the examination, the physician observes a firm 2 cm x 3 cm lump on the left labia majora. The surrounding skin appears normal without signs of erythema or induration. Additionally, the physician notes palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vulval carcinoma
Explanation:A labial lump and inguinal lymphadenopathy in an older woman may indicate the presence of vulval carcinoma, as these symptoms are concerning and should not be ignored. Although labial lumps are not uncommon, it is important to be vigilant and seek medical attention if a new lump appears.
Understanding Vulval Carcinoma
Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.
There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.
It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male comes to your travel clinic requesting anti-malarial medication for his upcoming trip to rural Philippines. After consultation, you decide to prescribe him doxycycline. Can you advise him on a common side effect of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensitivity to light
Explanation:Doxycycline, a type of antibiotic known as a tetracycline, is commonly used to prevent malaria, treat acne, and manage various sexually transmitted infections. However, it is important to note that taking doxycycline can make a person more sensitive to light. It is also contraindicated for pregnant women and children under 12 years old due to the risk of discoloration in developing bones and teeth, but this is not a concern for adult patients.
Drugs that can cause sensitivity to light
Photosensitivity is a condition where the skin becomes more sensitive to light, resulting in rashes, blisters, and other skin irritations. Certain drugs can cause photosensitivity, making it important to be aware of the medications that can cause this condition. Some of the drugs that can cause photosensitivity include thiazides, tetracyclines, sulphonamides, ciprofloxacin, amiodarone, NSAIDs like piroxicam, psoralens, and sulphonylureas.
Thiazides are a type of diuretic that can cause photosensitivity, while tetracyclines, sulphonamides, and ciprofloxacin are antibiotics that can also cause this condition. Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm problems, but it can also cause photosensitivity. NSAIDs like piroxicam are pain relievers that can cause photosensitivity, while psoralens are used to treat skin conditions like psoriasis and can also cause photosensitivity. Sulphonylureas are medications used to treat diabetes that can cause photosensitivity as well.
It is important to note that not everyone who takes these medications will experience photosensitivity, but it is still important to be aware of the potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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You are working in the pediatric unit and examine a 6-month-old infant. On examination, you observe a small left-sided hematoma over the parietal bone. The hematoma is soft to touch and does not extend beyond the margins of the parietal bone. The infant is otherwise healthy. The infant was born at term via spontaneous vaginal delivery, and there were no prenatal or labor complications. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cephalhaematoma
Explanation:Medical students may mistake a cephalhaematoma for a caput succedaneum, but there are distinguishing features. Cephalhaematomas typically develop after birth and do not cross the skull’s suture lines, as the blood is contained between the skull and periosteum. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is an extraperiosteal collection of blood that can cross over the suture lines and may be present at birth. Subaponeurotic haemorrhages are a serious condition caused by bleeding in the potential space between the periosteum and subgaleal aponeurosis. They typically present as a boggy swelling that grows insidiously and is not confined to the skull sutures. In severe cases, the neonate may experience haemorrhagic shock. Chignons are birth traumas that occur after the use of a ventouse device during delivery, while a cranial abrasion usually occurs after a caesarean section or instrumental delivery.
A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.
In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having ceased breastfeeding her youngest child two weeks prior. Her past medical history is significant for previous episodes of mastitis when breastfeeding her older children. On examination the lump is in the right breast at the six o'clock position, 3 cm from the nipple. The lump is non-tender and the overlying skin seems unaffected. Her observations are as follows:
Heart rate: 90,
Respiratory rate: 14,
Blood pressure: 112/72 mmHg,
Oxygen saturation: 99%,
Temperature: 37.5 Cº.
What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Galactocele, no further investigation necessary
Explanation:Galactocele and breast abscess can be distinguished based on clinical history and examination findings, without the need for further investigation.
Recent discontinuation of breastfeeding is a risk factor for both mastitis/abscess formation and galactocele formation. Galactoceles are distinguishable from breast abscesses because they are painless and non-tender upon examination, and there are no signs of infection locally or systemically.
Although the patient’s history of mastitis increases the likelihood of a breast abscess, the clinical presentation strongly suggests a galactocele (i.e. painless lump, no localized redness, and absence of fever).Understanding Galactocele
Galactocele is a condition that commonly affects women who have recently stopped breastfeeding. It occurs when a lactiferous duct becomes blocked, leading to the accumulation of milk and the formation of a cystic lesion in the breast. Unlike an abscess, galactocele is usually painless and does not cause any local or systemic signs of infection.
In simpler terms, galactocele is a type of breast cyst that develops when milk gets trapped in a duct. It is not a serious condition and can be easily diagnosed by a doctor. Women who experience galactocele may notice a lump in their breast, but it is usually painless and does not require any treatment. However, if the lump becomes painful or infected, medical attention may be necessary. Overall, galactocele is a common and harmless condition that can be managed with proper care and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner due to experiencing epigastric pain. The pain occurs approximately 3 hours after eating a meal. Despite using both histamine 2 receptor blockers and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), he has only experienced moderate relief and tests negative on a urease breath test. An endoscopy is performed, revealing multiple duodenal ulcers. The patient's gastrin level is tested and found to be above normal. A computed tomography (CT) scan is ordered, and the patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which hormone typically inhibits gastrin secretion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatostatin
Explanation:Hormones and Enzymes: Their Effects on Gastrin Secretion
Gastrin secretion is regulated by various hormones and enzymes in the body. One such hormone is somatostatin, which inhibits the release of gastrin. In the treatment of gastrinomas, somatostatin analogues like octreotide can be used instead of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs).
Aldosterone, on the other hand, is a steroid hormone that is not related to gastrin and has no effect on its secretion. Similarly, glycogen synthase and hexokinase, which play regulatory roles in carbohydrate metabolism, do not affect gastrin secretion.
Another steroid hormone, progesterone, also does not play a role in the regulation of gastrin secretion. Understanding the effects of hormones and enzymes on gastrin secretion can help in the development of targeted treatments for gastrointestinal disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP surgery by his mother. He has a two-year history of asthma which has previously been controlled with a salbutamol inhaler twice daily and beclomethasone 50 micrograms bd. He has an audible wheeze that has been gradually worsening over the last few weeks and has not responded to additional doses of salbutamol. His mother also reports that he has a night-time cough for the past 6 weeks.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add a trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:If a child under the age of 5 has asthma that is not being controlled by a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), then a leukotriene receptor antagonist should be added to their asthma management plan.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 85
Incorrect
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You are an FY1 in a busy A&E department. In your haste to finish all the jobs in time, you attain a needle stick injury while taking blood samples from a patient. The patient is known as an IV drug user.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action?
You are an FY1 in a busy A&E department. In your haste to finish all the jobs in time, you attain a needle stick injury while taking blood samples from a patient. The patient is known as an IV drug user.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Run the injury under a cold tap and allow it to bleed
Explanation:Proper Response to Needlestick Injuries: Running the Injury Under a Cold Tap
Needlestick injuries can be frightening, especially when dealing with patients with a history of IV drug use. However, it is important to remain calm and take immediate action. The most appropriate response is to run the injury under a cold tap and encourage it to bleed. This will help to flush out any potential pathogens. Afterward, seek advice and treatment from A&E or the Occupational Health department. It is also important to report the incident to Occupational Health, but only after taking care of the injury. Going through the patient’s notes may be helpful in ordering tests for HIV and hepatitis, but it is not the first thing to do. Leaving work and going home is not an option as it is a probity issue. Remember to prioritize your own safety and seek help when needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with atrial fibrillation was admitted to hospital with a fractured neck of femur. He was maintained on digoxin 187.5 μg daily. On examination, his pulse was 70 bpm and his blood pressure was 124/76 mmHg. He was fully conscious.
Investigation: plasma digoxin (taken at least 6 hours post-dose) 2.5 nmol/l (1.0–2.0)
What is the most appropriate action regarding his digoxin dosage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce digoxin to 125 μg and retest the serum level in a few days
Explanation:Managing Digoxin Toxicity in Patients: Options and Considerations
Digoxin therapy requires careful monitoring due to its narrow therapeutic window. Patients on digoxin should have their plasma levels tested regularly, with desired levels ranging from 0.8-2 ng/ml. Toxicity is defined as levels exceeding 2 nmol/l. The most common cause of digoxin toxicity is hypokalemia in patients with heart failure on diuretic therapy.
Signs of digoxin toxicity include central nervous system-related symptoms, cardiac-related symptoms, gastrointestinal-related symptoms, and vision changes. However, in cases where patients are rate-controlled and display no symptoms of toxicity, reducing the dose of digoxin and retesting levels in a few days may be adequate.
In cases where it is difficult to maintain therapeutic levels, switching to atenolol or another β blocker for rate control may be an option. Giving a loading dose of digoxin or increasing the daily dose is not advised as it can exacerbate toxicity.
In cases where patients exhibit symptoms of cardiac toxicity, treatment with digoxin Fab fragments may be necessary. However, emergency treatment with haemodialysis to lower digoxin levels is not required unless the patient is experiencing cardiac instability. Overall, careful monitoring and prompt intervention are crucial in managing digoxin toxicity in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of yellow vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal odor, vulvar itching, and pain while urinating. During the examination, the PCP notices a purulent discharge and a patchy erythematous lesion on the cervix. The PCP suspects Trichomonas vaginalis as the possible diagnosis. What would be the most suitable investigation to assist in the diagnosis of T. vaginalis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wet mount and high vaginal swab
Explanation:Diagnosis and Testing for Trichomoniasis: A Common STD
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the protozoan parasite T. vaginalis. While both men and women can be affected, women are more likely to experience symptoms. Diagnosis of trichomoniasis is typically made through wet mount microscopy and direct visualisation, with DNA amplification techniques offering higher sensitivity. Urine testing is not considered the gold standard, and cervical swabs are not sensitive enough. Treatment involves a single dose of metronidazole, and sexual partners should be treated simultaneously. Trichomoniasis may increase susceptibility to HIV infection and transmission. Symptoms in women include a yellow-green vaginal discharge with a strong odour, dysuria, pain on intercourse, and vaginal itching. Men may experience penile irritation, mild discharge, dysuria, or pain after ejaculation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents to the doctor with a week history of frank haematuria. He has no other symptoms to note and is otherwise well although he has been a little tired. He has a history of hypertension which is well controlled on with perindopril. He smokes 10 cigarettes a day and has done so since his teens.
Examination of the abdomen reveals no abnormalities. A dipstick test of the urine reveals blood +++.
The patient is especially concerned that he may have a kidney tumour, as his father died from the condition over 20 years ago.
Which of the following malignancies of the kidney the most common in the adult population ?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Types of Kidney Tumors: An Overview
Kidney tumors are abnormal growths that can develop in different parts of the kidney. The most common type of kidney cancer in adults is renal cell carcinoma, which accounts for about 80% of all renal malignancies. Risk factors for this condition include obesity, hypertension, smoking, and certain genetic conditions. Family history of renal cell carcinoma also increases the risk of developing the disease. Symptoms may include blood in the urine, flank pain, abdominal mass, fatigue, and weight loss. Treatment options depend on the stage of the tumor and may include surgery, immunotherapy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy.
Other types of kidney tumors are much rarer. Primary renal lymphoma, for instance, is a very uncommon cancer that affects less than 1% of patients. Transitional cell carcinoma, also known as urothelial carcinoma, accounts for about 15% of all adult renal tumors and often starts in the renal pelvis. Renal sarcoma is a rare tumor that makes up less than 2% of all renal tumors in adults. Finally, nephroblastoma, or Wilms tumor, is the most common type of kidney cancer in children but is very rare in adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man is brought to your clinic by his family for assessment. The patient recently graduated from university and has been struggling to adjust to post-graduate life. His family notes that he has always been a solitary person, preferring to spend his time in his room, playing video games and building models of his favourite characters. They had hoped that graduating from university would help him become more social. However, he has not made any new friends, and only his family is concerned about this. Instead of socializing, he continues to play video games alone in his room.
During the interview, he appears withdrawn and quiet. His emotional range is limited, and he does not show any clear signs of happiness or joy when discussing activities that he claims to enjoy. He denies experiencing any auditory or visual hallucinations and has no intention of harming himself or others. He claims that his sleep, appetite, energy, and concentration have not changed.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Schizoid Personality Disorder: Differentiating from Other Disorders
Personality disorders are characterized by enduring patterns of perception, processing, and engagement that become ingrained, inflexible, and maladaptive. Schizoid personality disorder is one of the disorders in Cluster A, also known as the weird cluster. Patients with this disorder are withdrawn loners with flat affects, preferring to work and play alone. However, they do not exhibit weird or magical thinking (schizotypal) or psychotic symptoms (schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder).
It is important to differentiate schizoid personality disorder from other disorders such as avoidant personality disorder, where patients are distressed by their social isolation, and schizoaffective disorder and schizophrenia, which both involve psychotic symptoms. By understanding the unique characteristics of each disorder, clinicians can provide appropriate treatment and support for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with ischaemic heart disease presents with sudden onset palpitations. She has no other complaints. On examination, a regular tachycardia is present. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. Chest is clear. ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a QRS width of 80 ms and a rate of 149 beats per min in a sawtooth pattern.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial flutter
Explanation:Common Cardiac Arrhythmias: Types and Characteristics
Cardiac arrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that can cause serious health complications. Here are some common types of cardiac arrhythmias and their characteristics:
1. Atrial Flutter: A type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a sawtooth pattern on the ECG. It is caused by a premature electrical impulse in the atrium and can degenerate into atrial fibrillation. Treatment involves rate or rhythm control, and electrical cardioversion is more effective than in atrial fibrillation.
2. Fast Atrial Fibrillation: Another type of supraventricular tachycardia that presents as an irregularly irregular tachycardia.
3. Ventricular Tachycardia: A common arrhythmia in cardiopaths that is characterized by a wide-complex tachycardia on ECG.
4. Mobitz Type II: A form of second-degree heart block that is characterized by intermittent non-conducted P waves on ECG without progressive prolongation of the QRS interval.
5. Brugada Syndrome: A rare electrophysiological condition that causes sudden death in young adults. ECG findings usually show ST elevation in leads V1 to V3 with a right bundle branch block.
It is important to identify and treat cardiac arrhythmias promptly to prevent serious health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless and not associated with any obstructive feature. On examination, his blood pressure was found to be 166/90 mmHg, although his earlier medical check-up 1 year ago was normal. His only past history was nephrotic syndrome 6 years ago, which was diagnosed histologically as minimal change disease and treated successfully. Urine examination revealed blood only with a trace of protein. He is not currently taking any drugs.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a possible cause of hypertension and haematuria in a patient with a history of nephrotic syndrome. This condition may develop after renal biopsy or trauma, which are risk factors for the formation of renal AVMs. Acquired causes account for 70-80% of renal AVMs, and up to 15% of patients who undergo renal biopsy may develop renal fistulae. However, most patients remain asymptomatic. Hypertension in renal AVM is caused by relative renal hypoperfusion distal to the malformation, which activates the renin-angiotensin system. Pre-existing kidney disease is a risk factor for the development of AVM after biopsy. Renal AVMs may produce bruits in the flanks and vermiform blood clots in the urine. Sudden pain in a patient with renal AVM may be due to intrarenal haemorrhage or blood clot obstruction of the ureters. Renal vein thrombosis is unlikely in a patient in remission from nephrotic syndrome. Renal stones are not a likely cause of painless haematuria in this patient. Bladder carcinoma is not a likely cause of hypertension in a young patient without relevant environmental risk factors. Therefore, an AV fistula formation after biopsy is the most likely diagnosis.
Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident. She has sustained blunt trauma to her abdomen and is experiencing central back pain. Upon assessment, her blood pressure is 87/58 mmHg, heart rate is 106 bpm, and respiratory rate is 17/min. Her peripheries are warm, and she has generalised abdominal tenderness and localised tenderness over T3. Despite being conscious, she is distressed and reports numbness in her feet. Her ECG is normal. What type of shock is most likely affecting this woman?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neurogenic shock
Explanation:The correct type of shock for the given clinical scenario is neurogenic shock, which is a form of distributive shock. The patient’s localized spinal pain and lack of feeling in her feet suggest a spinal cord transection, which can cause neurogenic shock. This type of shock maintains peripheral vascular resistance, resulting in warm peripheries. Anaphylactic shock is not a possibility as there are no signs of an allergic reaction. Cardiogenic shock is also unlikely as there are no risk factors present, and it leads to cool peripheries. While haemorrhagic shock may be possible due to abdominal trauma, the patient’s warm peripheries do not align with this type of shock.
Understanding Shock: Aetiology and Management
Shock is a condition that occurs when there is inadequate tissue perfusion. It can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, haemorrhage, neurogenic injury, cardiogenic events, and anaphylaxis. Septic shock is a major concern, with a mortality rate of over 40% in patients with severe sepsis. Haemorrhagic shock is often seen in trauma patients, and the severity is classified based on the amount of blood loss and associated physiological changes. Neurogenic shock occurs following spinal cord injury, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is commonly caused by ischaemic heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe hypersensitivity reaction that can be life-threatening.
The management of shock depends on the underlying cause. In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics and haemodynamic stabilisation are crucial. In haemorrhagic shock, controlling bleeding and maintaining circulating volume are essential. In neurogenic shock, peripheral vasoconstrictors are used to restore vascular tone. In cardiogenic shock, supportive treatment and surgery may be required. In anaphylactic shock, adrenaline is the most important drug and should be given as soon as possible.
Understanding the aetiology and management of shock is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide timely and appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of prostate cancer is found to be positive for a BRCA2 mutation on genetic screening. He has a strong family history of prostate cancer, with both his father and uncle receiving treatment for the condition at a young age.
He is worried that he may have passed the gene onto his son and daughter. He is also concerned that his brother may have the gene, given their family history.
During counselling, what is the most appropriate statement to make regarding the risk of his family inheriting the BRCA2 gene?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Both children and her sister have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene
Explanation:Breast Cancer Risk Factors: Understanding the Predisposing Factors
Breast cancer is a complex disease that can be influenced by various factors. Some of these factors are considered predisposing factors, which means they increase the likelihood of developing breast cancer. One of the most well-known predisposing factors is the presence of BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, which can increase a person’s lifetime risk of breast and ovarian cancer by 40%. Other predisposing factors include having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer, nulliparity, having a first pregnancy after the age of 30, early menarche, late menopause, combined hormone replacement therapy, combined oral contraceptive use, past breast cancer, not breastfeeding, ionizing radiation, p53 gene mutations, obesity, and previous surgery for benign disease.
To reduce the risk of developing breast cancer, it is important to understand these predisposing factors and take steps to minimize their impact. For example, women with a family history of breast cancer may choose to undergo genetic testing to determine if they carry the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes. Women who have not yet had children may consider having their first child before the age of 30, while those who have already had children may choose to breastfeed. Additionally, women who are considering hormone replacement therapy or oral contraceptives should discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider. By understanding these predisposing factors and taking proactive steps to reduce their impact, women can help protect themselves against breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the labour ward at 38+4 weeks gestation. This is her first pregnancy and she reports that contractions began approximately 12 hours ago. Upon examination, her cervix is positioned anteriorly, is soft, and is effaced at around 60-70%. Cervical dilation is estimated at around 3-4 cm and the fetal head is located at the level of the ischial spines. No interventions have been performed yet.
What is the recommended intervention at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No interventions required
Explanation:The patient’s cervical dilation is 3-4 cm with a fetal station of 0, and her Bishop’s score is 10. Since her labor has only been ongoing for 10 hours, no interventions are necessary. A Bishop’s score of 8 or higher indicates a high likelihood of spontaneous labor, and for first-time mothers, the first stage of labor can last up to 12 hours. If the Bishop’s score is less than 5, induction may be necessary, and vaginal prostaglandin E2 is the preferred method.
If other methods fail to induce labor or if vaginal prostaglandin E2 is not suitable, amniotomy may be performed. However, this procedure carries the risk of infection, umbilical cord prolapse, and breech presentation if the fetal head is not engaged. Maternal oxytocin infusion may be used if labor is not progressing, but it is not appropriate in this scenario at this stage due to the risk of uterine hyperstimulation.
A membrane sweep is a procedure where a finger is inserted vaginally and through the cervix to separate the chorionic membrane from the decidua. This is an adjunct to labor induction and is typically offered to first-time mothers at 40/41 weeks.
Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.
The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 95
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is admitted to hospital after suddenly losing all sensation to his right leg and right arm. He has no loss of consciousness, no visual disturbances, no slurring of speech and no motor symptoms. A stroke is suspected.
Based on the findings, what type of stroke is most likely?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lacunar stroke
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Strokes: A Guide to Symptoms and Diagnoses
When it comes to strokes, there are different types that can affect individuals in various ways. One type of stroke is a lacunar stroke, which typically presents with purely sensory symptoms. This occurs when small infarcts develop around the basal ganglia, internal capsule, thalamus, or pons. Lacunar strokes can present in five different ways, including pure motor, pure sensory, mixed sensorimotor, dysarthria, and ataxic hemiparesis.
Another type of stroke is Millard-Gubler syndrome, which is caused by a PICA or vertebral artery. This syndrome typically presents with paralysis of the abducens resulting in diplopia and loss of lateral movement of the eye, as well as paralysis of the facial muscles. However, it would not result in pure sensory symptoms.
Locked-in syndrome is another type of stroke, but it is characterized by widespread motor paralysis, which is not present in the case of the patient with purely sensory symptoms.
Partial anterior circulation stroke and total anterior circulation stroke are two other types of strokes that can occur. A partial anterior circulation stroke would have two out of three symptoms, including hemiparesis and/or sensory deficit, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cortical dysfunction. On the other hand, a total anterior circulation stroke would have all three of these symptoms present.
Understanding the different types of strokes and their associated symptoms can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with complaints of weakness and fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 145/100 mm Hg. Further testing reveals hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia. What diagnostic investigation would you choose to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plasma renin to aldosterone ratio
Explanation:Underlying Causes of Hypertension in Young Patients
Hypertension in young patients may have underlying secondary causes, as illustrated in this scenario. The patient in question was diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, a relatively common cause of hypertension. This condition is characterized by high levels of aldosterone, suppressed renin, alkalosis, low potassium and magnesium, and normal or high sodium levels.
It is important to consider differential diagnoses, such as renal artery stenosis, when evaluating young patients with hypertension. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome), adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma (rare), or glucocorticoid deficiency (also known as glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism). It is important to note that glucocorticoid deficiency only affects cortisol levels, leading to increased ACTH levels and aldosterone production. This is different from Addison’s disease, which involves deficiencies in both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid hormones.
In conclusion, hypertension in young patients may have underlying secondary causes, and it is important to consider differential diagnoses when evaluating these patients. Primary hyperaldosteronism is a common cause of hypertension and can be caused by various factors, including adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, and glucocorticoid deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of struggling to maintain positive relationships with her coworkers. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that the woman has a rigid value system and moral code, making it challenging for her to work with colleagues who have different beliefs and work practices. What personality disorder is most likely present in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Explanation:Patients with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder tend to be inflexible when it comes to morals, ethics, and values. They often have difficulty delegating tasks to others, as seen in this case. Other symptoms include an excessive focus on details, rules, lists, and order, as well as perfectionism that can interfere with completing tasks.
Antisocial personality disorder is not applicable in this case. This disorder is characterized by aggressive and unlawful behavior, deception, and a lack of empathy.
Borderline personality disorder is also not applicable. This disorder is characterized by unstable self-image, unstable relationships, fear of abandonment, and chronic feelings of emptiness.
Paranoid personality disorder is not applicable. This disorder is characterized by a tendency to question the loyalty of friends, hypersensitivity to insult, and preoccupation with conspiracies and hidden meanings.
Narcissistic personality disorder is not applicable. This disorder is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, sense of entitlement, and preoccupation with fantasies of success, power, or beauty.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 98
Incorrect
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What virus has a single stranded RNA genome and a 3% vertical transmission rate through blood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation:Different Types of Hepatitis and CMV Infections
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a type of DNA herpes virus that infects 50-80% of adults. It is a common and widespread infection.
Hepatitis A, on the other hand, is a picornavirus that spreads through the fecal-oral route. This virus has a single-stranded, positive-sense genome.
Hepatitis B is a member of the Hepadnaviridae family and has a unique partially double-stranded circular genome. It has a high vertical transmission rate of 90%, meaning it can easily be passed from mother to child during childbirth.
Lastly, Hepatitis D is an incomplete virus with a small RNA genome. It can only infect patients who are already infected with Hepatitis B (HBV).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 99
Incorrect
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An emergency call is made for a 10-year-old boy who has collapsed in the waiting room. The receptionists have already called 999. After 10 seconds, there are no signs of respiration and the boy does not respond to stimulation. There is no apparent foreign object in his mouth. What should be the next appropriate action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give 5 rescue breaths
Explanation:The current guidelines for paediatric basic life support still prioritize rescue breaths, despite the shift in focus for adult cases. This is because most cases of paediatric cardiac arrest are caused by issues with the airway or breathing. It is recommended to administer 5 rescue breaths if the child shows no signs of breathing during initial assessment.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents for her first antenatal appointment following a positive pregnancy test. She has no significant medical or family history and reports no smoking or alcohol consumption. Her BMI is 30.9kg/m², blood pressure is within normal limits, and a urine dipstick is unremarkable. What tests should be offered to her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks
Explanation:Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 22-year old woman comes to see her GP, seeking medication for opioid withdrawal. She explains that she has been using heroin for the past six months since losing her job as a store manager. She informs the GP that she has decided to quit using heroin and has not taken any for the past three days. She reports experiencing severe withdrawal symptoms that have been affecting her daily life and asks if there is anything that can be prescribed to alleviate her symptoms.
What are the observable indications of opioid withdrawal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dilated pupils, yawning, rhinorrhoea, epiphora
Explanation:Identifying Objective Signs of Opioid Withdrawal and Intoxication
It is crucial to recognize objective signs of opioid withdrawal and intoxication to prevent fatal outcomes. In psychiatric settings, individuals may falsely claim withdrawal to obtain opioid medications. Objective signs of withdrawal include epiphora, rhinorrhoea, agitation, perspiration, piloerection, tachycardia, vomiting, shivering, yawning, and dilated pupils. Pinpoint pupils, yawning, and galactorrhoea are indicative of opiate intoxication. Respiratory depression is a feature of opioid intoxication, along with pinpoint pupils and bradycardia. Opioid intoxication can also cause pulmonary oedema, stupor, pallor, severe respiratory depression, and nausea. By recognizing these objective signs, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat opioid withdrawal and intoxication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic exhibiting typical symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. He also reports experiencing eye itchiness. What is the most probable diagnosis to accompany seborrhoeic dermatitis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis, dry eye syndrome, and acne rosacea are conditions that may be linked to blepharitis. However, the treatment for blepharitis remains consistent, with patients advised to clean their eyelids twice daily and use a warm compress with their eyes closed for 5-10 minutes. There is no apparent reason for an elevated risk of the other conditions mentioned.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis and his condition is not well controlled. His rheumatologist suggests starting him on a new medication. In cases of predominantly axial disease, how many non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs must be ineffective before anti-TNF alpha inhibitors can be considered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:In cases of axial ankylosing spondylitis that have not responded to two different NSAIDs and meet the criteria for active disease on two separate occasions 12 weeks apart, the use of anti-TNF alpha inhibitors is recommended. Additionally, physiotherapy should be incorporated throughout the treatment process.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with severe abdominal pain and increased confusion. His family reports that he has been having difficulty walking. Upon examination, a full abdomen with a palpable bladder is noted. A prostate examination reveals a smooth, slightly enlarged prostate with an empty rectum. A bladder scan shows 1 L of urine in his bladder. The patient's medication list includes aspirin, fexofenadine, ramipril, paracetamol, prazosin, and insulin. Which medication is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fexofenadine
Explanation:Urinary retention may be caused by antihistamines, likely due to their anticholinergic properties. Fexofenadine is a specific antihistamine that has been associated with this side effect. It is important to consider urinary retention as a potential cause of delirium, especially in older patients. Aspirin is known for causing gastrointestinal side effects, but not urinary retention. Paracetamol has very few side effects and is not associated with urinary retention. Prazosin, an alpha-blocker commonly used for benign prostatic hyperplasia, may cause increased frequency of urination as a side effect, along with dizziness, drowsiness, headache, weakness, and palpitations.
Drugs that can cause urinary retention
Urinary retention is a condition where a person is unable to empty their bladder completely. This can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Some drugs that may lead to urinary retention include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline, anticholinergics such as antipsychotics and antihistamines, opioids, NSAIDs, and disopyramide. These drugs can affect the muscles that control the bladder, making it difficult to urinate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with pain of the hand, wrist, ankle and knee which is asymmetrical and has been going on for the past few months. She has developed a rash on her face and has developed a dry cough and pain on inspiration. She has a child but has had two previous miscarriages (Gravida 3, Para 1). She has no other concurrent medical problems or medications.
Testing for which one of the following autoantibodies is most likely to reveal the diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA
Explanation:Understanding Autoantibodies: Differentiating Connective Tissue Diseases
Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly attack the body’s own tissues. These antibodies can be used as diagnostic markers for various connective tissue diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of autoantibodies and their association with specific diseases.
Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a multisystem connective tissue disease that can affect the heart, lungs, kidneys, and brain. Patients with SLE may present with a malar rash, polyarthritis, and pleuritis, as well as an increased rate of miscarriage.
Anti-Jo is associated with myositis, such as polymyositis or dermatomyositis, which present with muscle pain and a rash but no pleuritic pain or an associated history of miscarriage.
Anti-Ro is associated with Sjögren syndrome, which can have similar features to SLE, including myalgia or polyarthralgia in 50% of patients, as well as skin features of purpura and annular erythema. However, it will not cause pleuritic pain.
Anti-centromere is associated with limited cutaneous scleroderma, a multisystem autoimmune disease resulting in abnormal growth of connective tissue. It can cause nonspecific musculoskeletal pain but not an associated history of pleuritic and miscarriage.
Anti-Rh is an antibody to a receptor on blood cells and is not associated with connective tissue disease.
In conclusion, the presence or absence of autoantibodies does not confirm or exclude a diagnosis of connective tissue disease. A diagnosis is based on a combination of clinical presentation and laboratory tests. Understanding the association between autoantibodies and specific diseases can aid in the diagnosis and management of these complex conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is worried about several recent incidents related to his sleep. He reports experiencing paralysis upon waking up and occasionally when falling asleep, accompanied by what he describes as 'hallucinations' such as seeing another person in the room. These episodes are causing him increasing anxiety. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sleep paralysis
Explanation:Understanding Sleep Paralysis
Sleep paralysis is a condition that affects many people and is characterized by a temporary inability to move the skeletal muscles when waking up or falling asleep. It is believed to be linked to the natural paralysis that occurs during REM sleep. This phenomenon is recognized in various cultures and is often accompanied by hallucinations or vivid images.
The paralysis occurs either before falling asleep or after waking up, and it can be a frightening experience for those who are not familiar with it. However, it is a relatively harmless condition that does not require medical attention in most cases. If the symptoms are particularly bothersome, medication such as clonazepam may be prescribed to alleviate the symptoms.
In summary, sleep paralysis is a common occurrence that affects many people. It is characterized by temporary paralysis of the skeletal muscles and is often accompanied by hallucinations. While it can be a frightening experience, it is generally harmless and does not require medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old male with a six year history of type 2 diabetes has been diagnosed with ischaemic heart disease and started taking atorvastatin 80 mg daily to manage his cholesterol level of 6.2 mmol/L. However, he has returned to the clinic complaining of muscle aches and pains, and his liver function tests have shown elevated levels from his baseline. His pre-treatment ALT was 60 IU/L, and now it is 95 IU/L. He is concerned about the side effects of the statin and asks if he should stop taking it. What is the most appropriate next step to manage his hypercholesterolaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 40 mg daily
Explanation:Managing Statin Intolerance in Patients with Ischaemic Heart Disease and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus are recommended to receive high-dose statins to manage their elevated cholesterol levels. However, some patients may experience intolerance to statins, such as myalgia and raised liver function tests. In such cases, NICE advises reducing the dose or considering an alternative statin. Fibrate and ezetimibe are generally not recommended for these patients, and referral to a specialist may be necessary if statins are completely not tolerated.
To minimize the risk of side effects, starting at a low dose and gradually titrating up can be helpful. Rosuvastatin and pravastatin may have a lower incidence of myalgia compared to other statins. However, cautious monitoring of liver function tests should be performed if starting another statin. If a patient has a history of statin-related hepatitis or rhabdomyolysis, statins should generally be avoided in the future if possible.
In summary, managing statin intolerance in patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus requires careful consideration of alternative options and cautious monitoring of side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant ingests an excessive amount of lithium. After being stabilised, her baby is delivered without complications. However, during routine neonatal examinations, a pansystolic murmur is detected. Further evaluation through cardiac echocardiogram shows tricuspid incompetence with a large right atrium, a small right ventricle, and a low insertion of the tricuspid valve. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly
Explanation:Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that results in the ‘atrialisation’ of the right ventricle. This condition is characterized by a low insertion of the tricuspid valve, which causes a large right atrium and a small right ventricle, leading to tricuspid incompetence. It is important to note that Ebstein’s anomaly is not the same as Fallot’s tetralogy, coarctation of the aorta, or transposition of the great arteries.
Understanding Ebstein’s Anomaly
Ebstein’s anomaly is a type of congenital heart defect that is characterized by the tricuspid valve being inserted too low, resulting in a large atrium and a small ventricle. This condition is also known as the atrialization of the right ventricle. It is believed that exposure to lithium during pregnancy may cause this condition.
Ebstein’s anomaly is often associated with a patent foramen ovale (PFO) or atrial septal defect (ASD), which causes a shunt between the right and left atria. Additionally, patients with this condition may also have Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome.
The clinical features of Ebstein’s anomaly include cyanosis, a prominent a wave in the distended jugular venous pulse, hepatomegaly, tricuspid regurgitation, and a pansystolic murmur that is worse on inspiration. Patients may also have a right bundle branch block, which can lead to widely split S1 and S2 heart sounds.
In summary, Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve and can cause a range of symptoms. It is often associated with other conditions such as PFO or ASD and can be diagnosed through clinical examination and imaging tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 109
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man without known psychiatric history is admitted to the psychiatry ward, after presenting to the emergency department with delusions and homicidal ideations.
Following a negative drugs screen, antipsychotic treatment is initiated with haloperidol.
The patient is reviewed 3-hours after the initiation of treatment and is noted to have a sustained upward deviation of both eyes. When asked, he reports that his eyes are extremely painful.
What is the most appropriate initial management option based on the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Procyclidine
Explanation:Acute dystonic reactions, such as oculogyric crisis, can occur within the first 4 days of starting or increasing the dose of antipsychotic medication. These reactions can be treated with anticholinergic procyclidine, which can take effect within 5 minutes. To prevent future attacks, the dose of antipsychotic medication may need to be reduced.
Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, are not effective in treating acute dystonic reactions. However, they can be used to treat serotonin syndrome, which can occur after taking serotonin agonists like SSRIs and MAOIs. Serotonin syndrome presents with rigidity, hyperreflexia, and autonomic dysfunction.
Levodopa, a dopamine precursor used to treat Parkinson’s disease, is not effective in managing extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs) caused by antipsychotic medication. EPSEs are caused by dopamine blockage at the mesolimbic pathway, not a dopamine deficiency.
IV fluids are not helpful in treating oculogyric crisis. However, they can be useful in treating neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another side effect that can occur with antipsychotic treatment. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome presents with lead-pipe muscle rigidity, fever, and autonomic dysfunction.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 110
Incorrect
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What is a common side effect of olanzapine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Side Effects of Olanzapine
Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause several side effects. One of the most common side effects is akathisia, which is characterized by restlessness and an inability to sit still. Other side effects associated with the use of olanzapine include agranulocytosis, hyperprolactinaemia, hyperglycaemia, depression, and anxiety. Agranulocytosis is a condition where the body’s immune system is unable to produce enough white blood cells, which can lead to infections. Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition where the body produces too much of the hormone prolactin, which can cause breast enlargement and lactation in both men and women. Hyperglycaemia is a condition where the body has high levels of glucose in the blood, which can lead to diabetes. Depression and anxiety are also common side effects of olanzapine, which can be particularly problematic for individuals with pre-existing mental health conditions. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking olanzapine and to speak with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman is being evaluated by her physician for potential issues in her hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. The following findings were noted: TSH <0.1 mu/l (0.4-4.0 mu/l), fT4 32 pmol/l (9.0-26.0 pmol/l), fT3 12 pmol/l (3.0-9.0 pmol/l). What condition is indicated by these results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves’ disease
Explanation:Thyroid Disorders: Causes and Effects
Graves’ Disease: This condition is characterized by the presence of circulating thyroid hormones under the influence of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). The release of thyroid hormones in response to TRH causes TSH antibodies to bind to TSH receptors, leading to smooth thyroid enlargement and increased hormone production. This results in raised fT4 and fT3 levels, which act via negative feedback to reduce TSH release from the pituitary.
Early Treatment of Hyperthyroidism: In the early stages of hyperthyroidism treatment, fT4 levels normalize while TSH remains low.
Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis: This autoimmune condition is caused by autoantibodies to thyroid peroxidase and thyroglobulin, and sometimes TSH receptor-blocking antibodies. It results in goitre due to lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltration. It is common in women aged 60-70 years. Patients may be euthyroid or hypothyroid, and rarely, there is an initial period of hyperthyroidism (Hashitoxicosis).
Post-Thyroidectomy: After a thyroidectomy, without replacement therapy, fT4 levels would be low and TSH raised.
Sick Euthyroidism: Non-thyroidal illness causes a reduction in TSH, fT3, and fT4 levels, leading to sick euthyroidism.
Understanding Thyroid Disorders and Their Effects
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man visits his doctor requesting a form to confirm he is ‘fit to fly’. He plans to take a 3-hour flight to Italy in three days’ time. He has a medical history of cardiovascular disease.
What would be the safest diagnosis for air travel in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uncomplicated myocardial infarction six days ago
Explanation:Airline Travel Restrictions for Patients with Cardiovascular Conditions
Patients with cardiovascular conditions may face restrictions when it comes to airline travel. Here are some guidelines to consider:
Uncomplicated Myocardial Infarction: Patients can typically fly after seven days of an uncomplicated myocardial infarction. This man would be eight days post-infarction by the time he is hoping to travel.
Complicated Myocardial Infarction: Patients should wait at least 4-6 weeks after a complicated myocardial infarction before flying. This man will not have reached four weeks by the time he is hoping to travel.
Decompensated Congestive Heart Failure: This condition is a contraindication for airline travel due to lower oxygen pressures at high altitudes, which may increase myocardial oxygen demands and make flying high risk.
Uncontrolled Cardiac Arrhythmia: Patients with cardiac arrhythmias can fly if they have occasional symptoms that are otherwise treated and stable.
Unstable Angina: Patients with chest pain at rest should defer their flight plans until stable.
It is important for patients with cardiovascular conditions to consult with their healthcare provider before making any travel plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
A study investigated the usefulness of serum procalcitonin level in detecting bacteraemia in 100 febrile patients admitted to the hospital. The patients' blood was tested for both serum procalcitonin and bacterial culture. The study found that a serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L had a specificity of 90% in detecting bacteraemia. Can you identify the correct statement based on this information?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10% of the patients who do not have bacteraemia would be expected to have serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 µg/L
Explanation:Specificity in Medical Testing
Specificity is a measure of a medical test’s ability to accurately rule out a disease. It refers to the percentage of healthy individuals who test negative for the disease. To calculate specificity, the number of true negatives is divided by the sum of true negatives and false positives. For instance, a specificity of 90% means that 90% of individuals without the disease will test negative for it. This implies that 10% of healthy individuals may still test positive for the disease, even though they do not have it.
It is important to note that the number of patients being tested does not affect specificity. Rather, specificity is determined by the test’s ability to correctly identify healthy individuals who do not have the disease. In medical testing, specificity is a crucial factor in determining the accuracy of a test. A high specificity means that the test is reliable in ruling out the disease in healthy individuals, while a low specificity indicates that the test may produce false positives, leading to unnecessary treatments and interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman with a long history of bipolar disorder visits the mental health clinic. She reports experiencing an uncomfortable sensation of inner restlessness for several months, and her husband observes that she frequently moves her arms and legs.
What symptom is the woman experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Akathisia is characterized by an inner sense of restlessness and an inability to remain still. It is commonly observed in individuals with a prolonged history of anti-psychotic medication use, often due to schizophrenia. Symptoms of acute dystonia typically involve spasms of facial muscles, while parkinsonism may manifest as changes in gait and resting tremors. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by abnormal involuntary movements, such as lip-licking. Although rare in individuals who have been on anti-psychotics for an extended period, neuroleptic malignant syndrome may present with hyperthermia and muscle rigidity.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 115
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife due to sudden onset of incoherent speech. Upon physical examination, he exhibits right-sided weakness in the upper and lower extremities, a right facial droop, and a loss of sensation in the upper and lower extremities. An initial CT scan of the head reveals no acute changes, and treatment with tissue plasminogen activator is initiated. Which arterial territory is most likely affected by this neurological event?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Explanation:Cerebral Arteries and Their Effects on the Brain
The brain is supplied with blood by several arteries, each with its own specific distribution and function. The middle cerebral artery (MCA) is the largest and most commonly affected by stroke. It supplies the outer surface of the brain, including the parietal lobe and basal ganglia. Infarctions in this area can result in paralysis and sensory loss on the opposite side of the body, as well as aphasia or hemineglect.
The posterior cerebral artery supplies the thalamus and inferior temporal gyrus, and infarctions here can cause contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing. The anterior cerebral artery supplies the front part of the corpus callosum and superior frontal gyrus, and infarctions can result in paralysis and sensory loss of the lower limb.
The posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) supplies the posterior inferior cerebellum, inferior cerebellar vermis, and lateral medulla. Occlusion of the PICA can cause vertigo, nausea, and truncal ataxia. Finally, the basilar artery supplies the brainstem and thalamus, and acute occlusion can result in sudden and severe neurological impairment.
Understanding the specific functions and distributions of these cerebral arteries can help in diagnosing and treating stroke and other cerebrovascular accidents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception four weeks after giving birth to her second child. She is currently breastfeeding and has a BMI of 27 kg/m^2. Her husband has a vasectomy scheduled in two months. What is the best contraceptive option for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone only pill
Explanation:After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 117
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall from a horse. She complains of pain in the left lower limb.
Examination of the patient reveals dry mucous membranes and tachycardia. Her left thigh is swollen and tender, and an X-ray confirms fracture of the left femur.
Which of the following statements regarding a fracture of the femur is CORRECT?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unimpacted fractures of the femoral shaft are typically associated with shortening of the limb.
Explanation:Femoral Fractures: Myths and Facts
Femoral fractures are common and can have serious consequences. However, there are many myths and misconceptions surrounding these injuries. Here are some facts to help dispel these myths:
Myth: Unimpacted fractures of the femoral shaft do not cause limb shortening.
Fact: Unimpacted fractures of the femoral shaft are typically associated with shortening of the limb due to muscle contractions.Myth: Subcapital fractures of the femoral neck do not cause avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
Fact: Intracapsular fractures of the femoral neck can disrupt the blood supply to the femoral head and cause avascular necrosis.Myth: Pertrochanteric fractures of the femur are always associated with avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
Fact: Pertrochanteric fractures lie outside of the line of attachment of the hip joint capsule and are not typically associated with avascular necrosis of the femoral head.Myth: Closed fractures of the femoral shaft do not cause significant blood loss.
Fact: Fractures of the femoral shaft can cause significant blood loss into the soft tissue of the thigh.Myth: Traction splints should always be applied to distal supracondylar fractures of the femur.
Fact: Application of a traction splint to a supracondylar fracture of the distal femur may cause disimpaction of the fracture and damage to the popliteal artery.By understanding the facts about femoral fractures, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients and avoid potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man came to the Emergency Department following a seizure at home, which he had never experienced before. He experienced moderate weakness on his left side during the initial postictal period, which quickly subsided. He is disoriented, and his wife reports that he has been experiencing dull, throbbing headaches that he can feel throughout his head. He has a medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes, which he manages with an ACE inhibitor and metformin. Upon neurological examination, the patient exhibits reduced strength in his right upper limb.
What is the definitive diagnostic test for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain
Explanation:Choosing the Right Investigation for Neurological Symptoms: A Comparison of Imaging Techniques
When a patient presents with neurological symptoms, it is important to choose the right investigation to identify any underlying pathology. In this article, we compare four common imaging techniques and a neurological examination to determine their usefulness in different scenarios.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is the gold standard investigation for identifying space-occupying lesions of the brain. It offers the greatest quality image and is particularly useful for patients with chronic neurological symptoms, reduced power on one side of the body, confusion, and new onset seizures.
Computed tomography (CT) brain is an appropriate investigation for patients with new onset seizures and focal neurological findings. However, an MRI brain provides greater clarity and resolution in identifying underlying pathology, making it the preferred investigation for space-occupying brain lesions.
Computed tomography (CT) brain with contrast is helpful in identifying central nervous system tumours or infections. However, an MRI brain is still the more detailed investigation for significant brain pathology.
A neurological examination is an important and sensitive test that can point to a region or type of pathology. However, its specificity in identifying different pathologies is fairly low, making it necessary to follow up with more advanced imaging techniques.
X-ray head and neck is appropriate for suspected fractures or dislocations in the cervical spine, but not for identifying neurological symptoms.
In conclusion, choosing the right investigation for neurological symptoms depends on the specific symptoms and suspected underlying pathology. MRI brain is the gold standard for identifying space-occupying lesions, while CT brain with contrast is helpful for identifying tumours or infections. A neurological examination is a useful initial test, but more advanced imaging techniques are often necessary for a definitive diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 119
Incorrect
-
A 10-day-old preterm neonate is having difficulty tolerating cow's milk feeds administered by the nurses in the special care baby unit. During the most recent feed, the neonate vomited and the nurse observed bile in the vomit. Although the stools are of normal consistency, the last stool contained fresh red blood. Upon examination, the neonate appears to be well hydrated, but the abdomen is significantly distended. An urgent abdominal x-ray is ordered, which reveals distended loops of bowel with thickening of the bowel wall. What is the next course of action in managing this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence broad spectrum antibiotics
Explanation:The infant in this scenario is likely suffering from bacterial necrotising enterocolitis, given their prematurity and symptoms. Immediate administration of broad spectrum antibiotics is necessary due to the severity of the condition. Therefore, the correct answer is option 2. While changing feeds may be helpful in preventing necrotising enterocolitis in bottle-fed infants, it is not useful in treating the condition once it has developed. While IV fluids are important for maintaining hydration, they are not as urgent as antibiotics in this case. Antenatal administration of erythromycin is intended to prevent necrotising enterocolitis, but it is not effective in treating the condition once it has developed.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 120
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old former intravenous (iv) drug abuser presents to outpatient clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) at the recommendation of his general practitioner. Although he is not experiencing any symptoms, a physical examination reveals hepatomegaly measuring 4 cm. Further blood tests confirm that he is positive for hepatitis C, with a significantly elevated viral load of hepatitis C RNA. What would be the most crucial investigation to determine the appropriate management of his hepatitis C?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C genotype
Explanation:Hepatitis C Management and Testing
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can be acquired through blood or sexual contact, including shared needles during intravenous drug use and contaminated blood products. While some patients may be asymptomatic, the virus can cause progressive damage to the liver and may lead to liver failure requiring transplantation if left untreated.
Before starting treatment for chronic hepatitis C, it is important to determine the patient’s hepatitis C genotype, as this guides the length and type of treatment and predicts the likelihood of response. Dual therapy with interferon α and ribavirin is traditionally the most effective treatment, but newer oral medications like sofosbuvir, boceprevir, and telaprevir are now used in combination with PEG-interferon and ribavirin for genotype 1 hepatitis C.
Screening for HIV is also important, as HIV infection often coexists with hepatitis C, but the result does not influence hepatitis C management. An ultrasound of the abdomen can determine the structure of the liver and the presence of cirrhosis, but it does not alter hepatitis C management. A chest X-ray is not necessary in this patient, and ongoing intravenous drug use does not affect hepatitis C management.
Overall, proper testing and management of hepatitis C can prevent further liver damage and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 121
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is found to have a systolic murmur heard loudest in the aortic region. The murmur increases in intensity with deep inspiration and does not radiate. What is the most probable abnormality in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Explanation:Systolic Valvular Murmurs
A systolic valvular murmur can be caused by aortic/pulmonary stenosis or mitral/tricuspid regurgitation. It is important to note that the location where the murmur is heard loudest can be misleading. For instance, if it is aortic stenosis, the murmur is expected to radiate to the carotids. However, the significant factor to consider is that the murmur is heard loudest on inspiration. During inspiration, venous return to the heart increases, which exacerbates right-sided murmurs. Conversely, expiration reduces venous return and exacerbates left-sided murmurs. To remember this useful fact, the mnemonic RILE (Right on Inspiration, Left on Expiration) can be used.
If a systolic murmur is enhanced on inspiration, it must be a right-sided murmur, which could be pulmonary stenosis or tricuspid regurgitation. However, in this case, only pulmonary stenosis is an option. systolic valvular murmurs and their characteristics is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 122
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman with a history of asthma and eczema visits her General Practitioner and inquires about the reason for her continued wheezing hours after being exposed to pollen. She has a known allergy to tree pollen.
What is the most suitable explanation for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inflammation followed by mucosal oedema
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanisms of Allergic Asthma
Allergic asthma is a condition that is mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE). When IgE binds to an antigen, it triggers mast cells to release histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins, which cause bronchospasm and vasodilation. This leads to inflammation and edema of the mucosal lining of the airways, resulting in persistent symptoms or late symptoms after an acute asthma attack.
While exposure to another allergen could trigger an asthma attack, it is not the most appropriate answer if you are only aware of a known allergy to tree pollen. Smooth muscle hypertrophy may occur in the long-term, but the exact mechanism and functional effects of airway remodeling in asthma are not fully understood. Pollen stuck on Ciliary would act as a cough stimulant, clearing the pollen from the respiratory tract. Additionally, the Ciliary would clear the pollen up the respiratory tract as part of the mucociliary escalator.
It is important to note that pollen inhaled into the respiratory system is not systemically absorbed. Instead, it binds to immune cells and exhibits immune effects through cytokines produced by Th1 and Th2 cells. Understanding the mechanisms of allergic asthma can help individuals manage their symptoms and prevent future attacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 123
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents with urinary problems. He has been passing very frequent small amounts of urine and has also been getting up several times in the night to urinate.
Upon examination, he has a smooth, non-enlarged prostate, and no abdominal masses. Further investigation rules out diabetes, infection, and urological malignancy. It is determined that his symptoms are due to an overactive bladder. Lifestyle advice is discussed, and he is referred for bladder training exercises.
What should be the next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxybutynin
Explanation:Antimuscarinic medications are effective in managing symptoms of overactive bladder. This condition is characterized by storage symptoms such as urinary urgency, frequency, and nocturia, often caused by detrusor overactivity. Oxybutynin is an example of an antimuscarinic drug that can increase bladder capacity by relaxing the detrusor’s smooth muscle, thereby reducing overactive bladder symptoms. Other antimuscarinic drugs include tolterodine and darifenacin. While botulinum toxin injection is an invasive treatment option for overactive bladder, it is not typically the first choice. Finasteride, a 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor, is not indicated for overactive bladder treatment as it is used to decrease prostate size in BPH patients. Mirabegron, a beta-3 adrenergic receptor agonist, can also relax the detrusor’s smooth muscle, but it is only recommended when antimuscarinic drugs are not effective or contraindicated due to side effects.
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.
For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic with a lump in the anterior of his neck. He denies any symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. His family members have noticed that his voice has become increasingly hoarse over the past few weeks. Fine-needle aspiration indicates papillary carcinoma of the thyroid.
Which of the following statements is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy is curative in most cases
Explanation:Myth-busting Facts about Thyroid Cancer
Thyroidectomy is a common treatment for thyroid cancer, and it is curative in most cases. However, there are several misconceptions about this type of cancer that need to be addressed.
Firstly, papillary carcinoma, the most common type of thyroid cancer, is the least aggressive and can be cured with thyroidectomy. Secondly, a hoarse voice is not necessarily an indication of laryngeal involvement, but rather recurrent laryngeal nerve invasion.
Thirdly, while calcitonin levels are raised in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, this type of cancer is rare and accounts for only a small percentage of cases. Finally, contrary to popular belief, most cases of thyroid cancer are sporadic, and only a small percentage are familial.
It is important to dispel these myths and educate the public about the realities of thyroid cancer to ensure accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 35-year-old man who has presented to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath, fever, and unusual breathing sounds for the past twelve hours. He reports having a sore throat for the past few days, which has rapidly worsened. He has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, his vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 30/min, pulse 120 bpm, oxygen saturation 96%, temperature 39.0ºC, blood pressure 110/60 mmHg. From the end of the bed, you can observe that he is visibly struggling to breathe, has a hoarse voice, and is drooling into a container. You can hear a high-pitched wheeze during inspiration.
What would be the most appropriate course of action at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call the on-call anaesthetist to assess the patient for intubation
Explanation:In cases of acute epiglottitis, protecting the airway is crucial and may require endotracheal intubation. Symptoms such as high fever, sore throat, dyspnoea, change in voice, and inspiratory stridor indicate a potential airway emergency. While other treatments may be necessary, securing the airway should be the top priority, following the ABCDE management steps. IV dexamethasone can help reduce laryngeal oedema, but an anaesthetic assessment should be arranged before administering any medication. Nebulised salbutamol is ineffective in treating laryngeal narrowing caused by epiglottitis. X-rays of the neck may be used, but they can take time to organise and delay urgent airway management. Attempting to visualise the larynx without appropriate senior support and intubation capabilities is dangerous in cases of acute epiglottitis. Flexible nasendoscopy should only be performed with the presence of trained personnel who can secure the airway if necessary.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised itch for the past few days. He mentions that it is causing him to lose sleep at night. Upon examination, the GP observes linear burrows on the hands and evidence of excoriation on the abdomen and limbs. The GP suspects scabies as the underlying cause.
What is the initial treatment recommended for non-crusted scabies?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% cream
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies: Understanding the Role of Different Medications
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei parasite. The primary treatment for non-crusted scabies is permethrin 5% cream, which is an insecticide. If permethrin is not tolerated or contraindicated, malathion can be used as a second-line agent. It is important to apply permethrin cream over the entire body and wash it off after 8-12 hours. Treatment should be repeated after one week.
Clotrimazole 2% cream, which is an antifungal medication, is not effective in treating scabies. Similarly, topical antibiotics like fusidic acid cream are not used to treat scabies unless there is a secondary bacterial infection.
Steroids like hydrocortisone 1% ointment are not used to treat scabies directly, but they can be used to alleviate symptoms like itching. Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin are only necessary if there is a suspected secondary bacterial infection.
In summary, understanding the role of different medications in treating scabies is crucial for effective management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s with TB is undergoing induction phase treatment with Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Pyridoxine, and Rifampicin. Among these drugs, which one is most likely to result in peripheral neuropathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid and Peripheral Neuropathy
Peripheral neuropathy is a common side-effect of isoniazid, according to the British National Formulary. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with pre-existing risk factors such as diabetes, alcohol dependence, chronic renal failure, pregnancy, malnutrition, and HIV infection. To reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy, supplementation with pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, is recommended.
In summary, isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, which is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. This side-effect is more likely to occur in individuals with certain risk factors, but can be prevented with the use of pyridoxine supplementation. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential risks and take appropriate measures to prevent them in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A father and his 6-year-old daughter visit your Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS) clinic, as she has recently been diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). The father has already attended an educational program on ADHD and is feeling overwhelmed as his daughter's behavior is difficult to manage at home. He has heard that medication may be helpful. Based on previous interventions, what would be the next most suitable treatment for her ADHD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:Methylphenidate is the recommended initial treatment for ADHD.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A Cardiotocogram (CTG) is performed on a 29-year-old female at 37 weeks gestation who has arrived at labour ward in spontaneous labour. The CTG shows a foetal heart rate of 120 bpm and variable decelerations and accelerations are present. There are no late decelerations. However, the midwife notices a 15 minute period where the foetal heart rate only varies by 2-3bpm. The mum is worried as she has not felt her baby move much for about 15 mins and would like to know what the likely cause is. She starts crying when she tells you that she took some paracetamol earlier as she was in so much pain from the contractions and is concerned this has harmed her baby. What is the most probable reason for this reduced variability?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foetus is sleeping
Explanation:Episodes of decreased variability on CTG that last less than 40 minutes are often attributed to the foetus being asleep. However, if the decreased variability persists for more than 40 minutes, it can be a cause for concern. Other factors that can lead to decreased variability in foetal heart rate on CTG include maternal drug use (such as benzodiazepines, opioids or methyldopa – but not paracetamol), foetal acidosis (usually due to hypoxia), prematurity (which is not applicable in this case), foetal tachycardia (heart rate above 140 bpm, which is also not the case here), and congenital heart abnormalities.
Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her local pharmacy with concerns about needing the emergency contraceptive pill. She explains that she had unprotected sex with her partner of 5 years 2 days ago and did not use any form of contraception. She recently gave birth to a baby boy 4 weeks ago and is currently formula-feeding him.
What advice would be most suitable in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action required
Explanation:After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 35 year old woman presents with a 4 week history of increasing redness over her right breast. She is not breastfeeding and reports feeling generally well. Although the area is not painful, she is worried as it has not improved. Upon examination, there is significant swelling and erythema, but no discharge, nipple changes, or palpable masses. Vital signs are normal and she has no fever. Blood test results are as follows:
- White blood cell count: 6x10^9/L
- C-reactive protein: 4 mg/L
- CA 15-3 level: 57 Units/ml (normal range <30 Units/ml)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inflammatory breast cancer
Explanation:This woman is suffering from inflammatory breast cancer (IBC), which is evident from the typical symptoms of progressive erythema and edema in the breast, without any signs of infection such as fever, discharge, or elevated WCC and CRP. Additionally, her CA 15-3 levels are elevated. Mastitis and cellulitis would present with fever or elevated WCC and CRP, while Paget’s disease of the breast involves the nipple from the beginning and spreads to the areola and breast, presenting with an eczema-like rash over the nipple with discharge and/or nipple inversion. A fibroadenoma presents as a firm, mobile lump in an otherwise normal breast. IBC is a rare but rapidly progressive form of breast cancer caused by lymph drainage obstruction, resulting in erythema and edema. It is usually a primary cancer and is treated with neoadjuvant chemotherapy as the first line of treatment, followed by total mastectomy +/- radiotherapy.
Breast Cancer Treatment Options and Prognosis
Breast cancer is more common in older individuals and the most common type is invasive ductal carcinoma, which may arise from ductal carcinoma in situ. Pathological assessment involves evaluating the tumor and lymph nodes, with sentinel lymph node biopsy being a common method to minimize morbidity. Treatment options include wide local excision or mastectomy, with the final cosmetic outcome being a consideration. Reconstruction is also an option, with the type of procedure tailored to the patient’s age and co-morbidities. The Nottingham Prognostic Index can be used to give an indication of survival, with tumor size, lymph node score, and grade score being major prognostic parameters. Other factors such as vascular invasion and receptor status also impact survival. The aim of treatment should be to have a local recurrence rate of 5% or less at 5 years.
Breast cancer treatment options and prognosis are important considerations for individuals diagnosed with this disease. The most common type of breast cancer is invasive ductal carcinoma, which may arise from ductal carcinoma in situ. Pathological assessment involves evaluating the tumor and lymph nodes, with sentinel lymph node biopsy being a common method to minimize morbidity. Treatment options include wide local excision or mastectomy, with the final cosmetic outcome being a consideration. Reconstruction is also an option, with the type of procedure tailored to the patient’s age and co-morbidities. The Nottingham Prognostic Index can be used to give an indication of survival, with tumor size, lymph node score, and grade score being major prognostic parameters. Other factors such as vascular invasion and receptor status also impact survival. The aim of treatment should be to have a local recurrence rate of 5% or less at 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy came to the clinic with a painful left little finger following a door being shut on it. Upon examination, an X-ray revealed a fracture line that passes through the metaphysis, growth plate, and epiphysis. What classification of fracture is this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salter Harris 4
Explanation:A Salter-Harris type 4 fracture involves the physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis.
Paediatric Fractures and Pathological Conditions
Paediatric fractures can be classified into different types based on the injury pattern. Complete fractures occur when both sides of the cortex are breached, while greenstick fractures only have a unilateral cortical breach. Buckle or torus fractures result in incomplete cortical disruption, leading to a periosteal haematoma. Growth plate fractures are also common in paediatric practice and are classified according to the Salter-Harris system. Injuries of Types III, IV, and V usually require surgery and may be associated with disruption to growth.
Non-accidental injury is a concern in paediatric fractures, especially when there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between proposed and actual mechanism of injury, multiple injuries, injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma, or when children are on the at-risk register. Pathological fractures may also occur due to genetic conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by defective osteoid formation and failure of collagen maturation in all connective tissues. Osteopetrosis is another pathological condition where bones become harder and more dense, and radiology reveals a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, described as marble bone.
Overall, paediatric fractures and pathological conditions require careful evaluation and management to ensure optimal outcomes for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 133
Incorrect
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What are the defining features of Gardner's syndrome, a genetic condition affecting the colon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonic polyposis, osteomas and fibrous skin tumours
Explanation:Gardner’s Syndrome
Gardner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is inherited dominantly. It is characterized by the presence of multiple osteomas, cutaneous and soft tissue tumors, and polyposis coli. In addition to these common features, some individuals with Gardner’s syndrome may also experience hypertrophy of the pigment layer of the retina, thyroid tumors, and liver tumors.
The osteomas associated with Gardner’s syndrome are typically found in the bones of the skull. However, they can also affect the long bones, causing cortical thickening of their ends and sometimes resulting in deformities and shortening. While Gardner’s syndrome is a rare condition, it is important for individuals with a family history of the disorder to be aware of its symptoms and seek medical attention if they suspect they may be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old construction worker presents with a haematemesis.
His wife provides a history that he has consumed approximately six cans of beer per day together with liberal quantities of whiskey for many years. He has attempted to quit drinking in the past but was unsuccessful.
Upon examination, he appears distressed and disoriented. His pulse is 110 beats per minute and blood pressure is 112/80 mmHg. He has several spider naevi over his chest. Abdominal examination reveals a distended abdomen with ascites.
What would be your next course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endoscopy
Explanation:Possible Causes of Haematemesis in a Patient with Alcohol Abuse
When a patient with a history of alcohol abuse presents with symptoms of chronic liver disease and sudden haematemesis, the possibility of bleeding oesophageal varices should be considered as the primary diagnosis. However, other potential causes such as peptic ulceration or haemorrhagic gastritis should also be taken into account. To determine the exact cause of the bleeding, an urgent endoscopy should be requested. This procedure will allow for a thorough examination of the gastrointestinal tract and enable the medical team to identify the source of the bleeding. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with severe pain in her right upper quadrant, along with a fever, rapid heart rate, and fast breathing. What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute cholecystitis
Explanation:Distinguishing between acute cholecystitis and biliary colic can be done by observing the patient’s overall health. Those with cholecystitis are typically unwell, while those with biliary colic are not. A common challenge for students is differentiating between these conditions and acute cholangitis. In the case of acute cholecystitis, the patient will experience pain and systemic illness, whereas jaundice is a common symptom of cholangitis. Additionally, Murphy’s positive sign, which is pain during palpation of the right upper quadrant while inhaling, is a typical sign of acute cholecystitis. Treatment for acute cholecystitis involves IV antibiotics and laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
Acute cholecystitis is a condition where the gallbladder becomes inflamed. This is usually caused by gallstones, which are present in 90% of cases. The remaining 10% of cases are known as acalculous cholecystitis and are typically seen in severely ill patients who are hospitalized. The pathophysiology of acute cholecystitis is multifactorial and can be caused by gallbladder stasis, hypoperfusion, and infection. In immunosuppressed patients, it may develop due to Cryptosporidium or cytomegalovirus. This condition is associated with high morbidity and mortality rates.
The main symptom of acute cholecystitis is right upper quadrant pain, which may radiate to the right shoulder. Patients may also experience fever and signs of systemic upset. Murphy’s sign, which is inspiratory arrest upon palpation of the right upper quadrant, may be present. Liver function tests are typically normal, but deranged LFTs may indicate Mirizzi syndrome, which is caused by a gallstone impacted in the distal cystic duct, causing extrinsic compression of the common bile duct.
Ultrasound is the first-line investigation for acute cholecystitis. If the diagnosis remains unclear, cholescintigraphy (HIDA scan) may be used. In this test, technetium-labelled HIDA is injected IV and taken up selectively by hepatocytes and excreted into bile. In acute cholecystitis, there is cystic duct obstruction, and the gallbladder will not be visualized.
The treatment for acute cholecystitis involves intravenous antibiotics and cholecystectomy. NICE now recommends early laparoscopic cholecystectomy, within 1 week of diagnosis. Previously, surgery was delayed for several weeks until the inflammation had subsided. Pregnant women should also proceed to early laparoscopic cholecystectomy to reduce the chances of maternal-fetal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a change in the shape of her left breast and a lump under her left armpit. She has previously undergone breast augmentation surgery which makes examination difficult, but there is a noticeable difference in the appearance of her breasts. She has no family history or other risk factors for breast cancer. The GP refers her to a specialist who performs an ultrasound of her breast and axilla. The ultrasound reveals a 'snowstorm' sign in the left breast and axillary lymph node. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Implant rupture
Explanation:The presence of the ‘snowstorm’ sign on ultrasound of axillary lymph nodes is indicative of extracapsular breast implant rupture. This occurs when silicone leaks out of the implant and travels through the lymphatic system, resulting in the ‘snowstorm appearance’ in both the breast and lymph nodes. The absence of infection or systemic illness suggests that an abscess is not the cause. While the presence of an axillary lump with any breast change raises suspicion of malignancy, implant rupture is the more probable diagnosis. To confirm whether it is LC, DC, or lymphoma, a biopsy for histology would be necessary.
Non-Malignant Breast Conditions
Duct ectasia is a common condition that affects up to 25% of normal female breasts. It is a variant of breast involution and is not the same as periductal mastitis. Patients with duct ectasia typically present with nipple discharge, which may be from single or multiple ducts and is often thick and green. This condition is usually seen in women over the age of 50.
Periductal mastitis, on the other hand, is more commonly seen in younger women and may present with features of inflammation, abscess, or mammary duct fistula. It is strongly associated with smoking and is usually treated with antibiotics. An abscess will require drainage.
Intraductal papilloma is a growth of papilloma in a single duct and usually presents with clear or blood-stained discharge originating from a single duct. There is no increase in the risk of malignancy.
Breast abscesses are common in lactating women and are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus infection. On examination, there is usually a tender fluctuant mass. Treatment is with antibiotics and ultrasound-guided aspiration. Overlying skin necrosis is an indication for surgical debridement, which may be complicated by the development of a subsequent mammary duct fistula.
Tuberculosis is a rare condition in western countries and is usually secondary TB. It affects women later in their childbearing period, and a chronic breast or axillary sinus is present in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is by biopsy culture and histology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 137
Incorrect
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What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersomnolence
Explanation:Symptoms and Associations of Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Obstructive sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Other common symptoms include personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less frequent symptom. The condition may be associated with acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia. Sleep apnoea is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents with a complaint of dyspnoea that has been worsening with physical activity for the past month. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has had normal prenatal testing. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her lungs are clear bilaterally without cardiac murmur. Mild dependent oedema is noted in her lower extremities. What is the probable cause of her dyspnoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased minute ventilation
Explanation:Physiological Changes During Pregnancy and Breathlessness: Understanding the Relationship
During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes numerous physiological changes that can affect her respiratory system. One of the most significant changes is an increase in tidal volume, which leads to an overall increase in minute ventilation. This increased respiratory workload can result in a feeling of breathlessness, which is experienced by up to 75% of pregnant women, particularly during the first trimester. However, it is important to note that this feeling of breathlessness is typically not indicative of any underlying cardiac or pulmonary issues.
While some degree of dependent leg edema is normal during pregnancy, it is important to understand that other respiratory changes, such as a decrease in residual volume or a reduction in functional residual capacity, do not typically contribute to the feeling of breathlessness. Respiratory rate usually remains unchanged during pregnancy.
Overall, understanding the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy and their impact on the respiratory system can help healthcare providers better manage and address any concerns related to breathlessness in pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man presents with intermittent claudication. He has a body mass index of 32 kg/m2 and smokes 40 cigarettes a day. He admits that he has an extremely unhealthy diet. There is no family history of cardiovascular disease but his father died of complications of diabetes. His blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg.
What is the most likely cause of the claudication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atherosclerosis
Explanation:Atherosclerosis, a disease commonly associated with the elderly, is now being observed in younger patients. This patient exhibits all the risk factors for atherosclerosis, which is the leading cause of intermittent claudication. While diabetes is not a direct cause of limb ischaemia, it is a risk factor for atherosclerosis, which this patient may have. Buerger’s disease, an arthritis that affects young male smokers, is rare and unlikely in this patient who is obese, hypertensive, and has a family history of diabetes. Coarctation of the aorta, which is characterized by hypertension and radiofemoral delay, should be considered in young patients with intermittent claudication, but there are no other signs in this patient. Takayasu’s disease, a rare arthritis that causes claudication and neurological signs, is more common in women and often presents with pulseless upper limbs due to arterial occlusion caused by intimal fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of mild left testicular pain and dysuria that has been going on for six days. During the examination, the patient's scrotum is inflamed, and the epididymis is the most tender area. The patient has a temperature of 37.9°C, and the urine dipstick test came back negative. The cremasteric reflex is present.
What is the most appropriate management plan for the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg bd for 10 days (or single dose 1g azithromycin) plus IM ceftriaxone
Explanation:Acute Epididymitis and its Treatment
Acute epididymitis is a condition characterized by the inflammation of the epididymis, which causes pain and swelling in the testicles over several days. It is most commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections such as Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in patients under 35 years old. In contrast, urinary coliforms are the most common cause in children and men over 35 years old.
To treat acute epididymitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a combination of antibiotics is required. A course of doxycycline or a single dose of azithromycin can cover chlamydia, while ceftriaxone can cover Neisseria, which can be resistant to other antibiotics. It is important to note that single agents do not cover both infections.
Symptomatic relief can be achieved through the use of anti-inflammatory drugs and scrotal support, but they do not treat the underlying cause. It is crucial to seek medical attention promptly to prevent complications and ensure proper treatment.
In summary, acute epididymitis is a painful condition that requires a combination of antibiotics to treat the underlying infection. Prompt medical attention and proper treatment are essential to prevent complications and achieve symptomatic relief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her trunk. The lesions had a collarette of scales at their periphery and were asymptomatic. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Pityriasis Rosea: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Pityriasis rosea is a skin condition that typically begins with a single patch, known as the herald or mother patch. This is followed by smaller patches that appear in clusters, resembling a Christmas tree pattern on the upper trunk of the body. These patches have a fine ring of scales around their edges, known as a collarette. The condition is believed to be caused by a viral infection and typically lasts for six to eight weeks. While there is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, symptoms can be managed with over-the-counter medications and topical creams.
Pityriasis rosea is a common skin condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment for those affected. the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic with a four-month history of abdominal swelling and discomfort along with breathlessness. Upon examination, he appears unwell and pale. The liver is palpable 12 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpable 15 cm below the left costal margin. No lymphadenopathy is detected. The following investigations were conducted:
Hb 59 g/L (130-180)
RBC 2.1 ×1012/L -
PCV 0.17 l/l -
MCH 30 pg (28-32)
MCV 82 fL (80-96)
Reticulocytes 1.4% (0.5-2.4)
Total WBC 23 ×109/L (4-11)
Normoblasts 8% -
Platelets 280 ×109/L (150-400)
Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 5.2 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Monocytes 1.3 ×109/L (0-0.8)
Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
Basophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.1)
Metamyelocytes 5.1 ×109/L -
Myelocytes 1.6 ×109/L -
Blast cells 0.4 ×109/L -
The blood film shows anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and occasional erythrocyte tear drop cells. What is the correct term for this blood picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leukoerythroblastic anaemia
Explanation:Leukoerythroblastic Reactions and Myelofibrosis
Leukoerythroblastic reactions refer to a condition where the peripheral blood contains immature white cells and nucleated red cells, regardless of the total white cell count. This means that even if the overall white cell count is normal, the presence of immature white cells and nucleated red cells can indicate a leukoerythroblastic reaction. Additionally, circulating blasts may also be seen in this condition.
On the other hand, myelofibrosis is characterized by the presence of tear drop cells. These cells are not typically seen in other conditions and are therefore considered a hallmark of myelofibrosis. Tear drop cells are red blood cells that have been distorted due to the presence of fibrous tissue in the bone marrow. This condition can lead to anemia, fatigue, and other symptoms.
Overall, both leukoerythroblastic reactions and myelofibrosis are conditions that can be identified through specific characteristics in the peripheral blood. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these findings in order to properly diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman reports difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids, with occasional food getting stuck and needing to be washed down with a large drink. Achalasia of the oesophagus is suspected. Which nerve supplies the muscularis externa of the oesophagus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vagus nerves
Explanation:The vagus nerves are part of the tenth pair of cranial nerves and work with sympathetic nerves to form the oesophageal plexus. They have a parasympathetic function, stimulating peristalsis and supplying smooth muscle. The lower oesophageal sphincter, which relaxes to allow food into the stomach, is influenced by the vagus nerve. Oesophageal achalasia can occur when there is increased tone of the lower oesophageal sphincter, incomplete relaxation, and lack of peristalsis, leading to dysphagia and regurgitation.
The glossopharyngeal nerves are mixed cranial nerves that supply motor fibres to the stylopharyngeus muscle and parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland. They also form the pharyngeal plexus with the vagus nerve, supplying the palate, larynx, and pharynx.
The greater splanchnic nerves contribute to the coeliac plexus, which supplies the enteric nervous system and the adrenals. The intercostal nerves arise from the anterior rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves and supply various structures in their intercostal space. The phrenic nerves supply the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old motorcyclist experiences a minor motor vehicle accident and damages his left shoulder. During the physical examination, he exhibits a positive belly press and lift-off test, as well as internal rotation weakness and heightened passive external rotation of the left arm.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subscapularis tear
Explanation:Rotator cuff injuries can cause pain during overhead activities and have specific physical exam findings. To test for a subscapularis tear, the patient is asked to internally rotate their arm against resistance while keeping their elbows at their side in 90 degrees of flexion. A positive lift-off test is when the patient is unable to lift their hand away from their back in internal rotation. The belly press test involves the patient pressing their abdomen with their palm while maintaining internal rotation of the shoulder. If the elbow drops back, it indicates deltoid recruitment and a positive test. The supraspinatus muscle is tested with Jobe’s test, which involves abducting the arm to 90 degrees, angled forward 30 degrees and internally rotated, then pressing down on the arm while the patient maintains position. A positive drop sign is when the patient cannot slowly lower their affected arm from a 90-degree position due to weakness or pain. A SLAP tear may be associated with rotator cuff tears and instability, and the O’Brien’s test can be used to diagnose it. The infraspinatus muscle is tested by external rotation when the arm is in neutral abduction/adduction, and the teres minor muscle is tested by external rotation with the arm held in 90 degrees of abduction. Hornblower’s sign is when the patient cannot hold their shoulder in 90 degrees of abduction and 90 degrees of external rotation and falls into internal rotation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A healthcare assistant in her mid-30s presents to her general practitioner (GP) for a routine check-up. She reports a needlestick injury at work that occurred over a month ago, but she did not report it to occupational health as she believed the patient was low risk. She is now concerned about her infection status. The GP orders viral serology tests, which reveal the following results:
HIV PCR: Negative
Hepatitis C antibody: Negative
Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg): Negative
Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core (HBc) antigen: Negative
Anti-HBc (hepatitis B core antigen): Negative
Anti-HBs (hepatitis B surface antibody): Positive
Based on these results, what is the healthcare assistant's hepatitis status?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaccinated against infection
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Serology Results
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can cause liver damage and even liver cancer. Vaccination is the best way to prevent infection, but it’s important to understand the results of hepatitis B serology tests to determine if someone is immune, currently infected, or susceptible to infection.
Vaccinated against infection: This result indicates that the patient has previously been vaccinated with hepatitis B and is now immune to infection.
Current chronic infection: A positive HBsAg, anti-HBc, and positive IgG anti-HBc result would indicate a current chronic infection. However, the picture shown represents a vaccinated individual.
Current acute infection: A positive HBsAg, anti-HBc, and IgM anti-HBc result would indicate a current acute infection. However, the picture shown represents a vaccinated individual.
Resolved infection: A positive anti-HBs and anti-HBc result, in addition to a negative HBsAg result, would indicate a resolved infection.
Susceptible to infection: A completely negative serology result would indicate that the patient is susceptible to infection and should consider vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 146
Incorrect
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What virus is described as a picornavirus with a single stranded RNA genome, transmitted through faecal-oral route, and has no chronic sequelae?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Hepatitis A
Hepatitis A is a type of picornavirus that is responsible for approximately 40% of hepatitis cases worldwide. Unlike other hepatitis viruses, it has a single stranded RNA genome. The virus is commonly spread through poor sanitation and overcrowding, typically through the faecal-oral route. It can survive for months in both fresh and saltwater, and shellfish from polluted water can have a high infectivity rate.
Early symptoms of hepatitis A can be similar to the flu, but some patients, particularly children, may not show any physical symptoms. The incubation period for the virus is typically two to six weeks, after which patients may experience general symptoms such as fever, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, and jaundice. Fatigue and abdominal pain are also common symptoms.
Diagnosis of hepatitis A is done by detecting HAV-specific IgM antibodies in the blood. Unfortunately, there is no medical treatment for hepatitis A. Patients are advised to rest and avoid fatty foods and alcohol. Symptomatic treatment, such as antiemetics, may be given if necessary.
Overall, the symptoms and transmission of hepatitis A is important in preventing its spread. Proper sanitation and hygiene practices, as well as avoiding contaminated water and food, can help reduce the risk of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A mother who has recently moved brings her 9-year-old child to a new local GP for the first time to check for thyroid issues. During the examination, the GP observes that the child has a short neck, flattened nose, and is of short stature. Additionally, the GP notices prominent epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. What long-term condition is this child at a higher risk for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Explanation:It is believed that around 50% of individuals over the age of 85 may suffer from Alzheimer’s. Asthma is an incorrect option as there is no evidence to suggest that individuals with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of developing the condition. The patient was brought in for a thyroid check as there is a link between hypothyroidism and Down syndrome, but no association between Down syndrome and hyperthyroidism exists, making this option incorrect. While acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is associated with Down syndrome, lymphoma is not, making it an incorrect option.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents with gradual onset abdominal pain that has been getting progressively worse for 4 days. She reports feeling nauseated and has vomited twice today. Her temperature is 38.4ºC, blood pressure is 116/82 mmHg, and heart rate is 104 beats per minute. The uterus is palpable just above the umbilicus and a fetal heartbeat is heard via hand-held Doppler. On speculum examination, the cervix is closed and there is no blood. She has a history of menorrhagia due to uterine fibroids. This is her first pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibroid degeneration
Explanation:During pregnancy, uterine fibroids can grow due to their sensitivity to oestrogen. If their growth exceeds their blood supply, they may undergo red or ‘carneous’ degeneration, which can cause symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting. Treatment typically involves rest and pain relief, and the condition should resolve within a week. It is unlikely that this is a multiple pregnancy, as it would have been detected by now, and a closed cervical os suggests that a miscarriage is not imminent.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman (38+2, G1 P0) presents to the labour ward with vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. She reports a small amount of vaginal bleeding and has no significant medical history. However, she is a smoker and consumes 10 cigarettes per day. On examination, her abdomen is tender and tense, and cardiotocography reveals late decelerations. Her vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, oxygen saturation 98%, heart rate 125 beats/min, blood pressure 89/56 mmHg, and temperature 35.9 ºC. What is the initial management for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Category 1 caesarean section
Explanation:A category 1 caesarean section is necessary in cases of suspected uterine rupture, major placental abruption, cord prolapse, fetal hypoxia, or persistent fetal bradycardia. In this scenario, the most likely diagnosis is a major placental abruption due to intense abdominal pain and haemodynamic shock. Guidelines recommend a category 1 caesarean section if the foetus is alive and >36 weeks with foetal distress, as indicated by late decelerations on cardiotocography. This is because the presentation of placental abruption, haemodynamic shock, and late decelerations poses an immediate threat to the lives of both the mother and baby. Administering corticosteroids and observation is not applicable in this scenario, as the foetus is >36 weeks and foetal distress is present. Category 2 and 4 caesarean sections are also inappropriate, as they are not immediately life-threatening and are elective, respectively.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue and difficulty sleeping. She also experiences weakness in her limbs, making it hard to complete household tasks. She has a history of bipolar disorder, which has been well-controlled with lithium carbonate for many years. The following blood tests were taken:
- Hb: 113 g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
- Platelets: 201 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
- WBC: 10.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
- Calcium: 2.81 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate: 0.55 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
- Parathyroid hormone: 17.1 pmol/L (normal range: 2.0-8.5)
- ALP: 207 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
- Serum lithium: 0.67 mmol/L (normal range: 0.4 - 1.0)
What is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroidectomy
Explanation:The patient’s elevated serum calcium, raised ALP, and raised PTH levels, along with low serum phosphate, indicate a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.
Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.
Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.
Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is scheduled for surgery to remove her appendix. She has a history of asthma since the age of 16 and is currently taking a high dose inhaled corticosteroid and theophylline. Despite this, she experiences breathlessness and uses her reliever several times a week. She has been to the emergency department twice in the past year due to asthma attacks. Her most recent peak flow measurement was 70%. She does not smoke or drink alcohol.
As a medical assistant, you are asked by the anesthesiologist to determine the ASA grade for this patient.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).
ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.
ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man presents to the Hepatology Clinic with mild elevations in levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and aminotransferases. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity, but denies alcohol use and past drug use. On physical examination, he is found to be obese with hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies show negative results for hepatitis and autoimmune liver disease. His aminotransferase, ALP, and autoimmune liver results are provided. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight loss
Explanation:Understanding Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease and Treatment Options
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) is a condition characterized by hepatic steatosis in the absence of alcohol or drug misuse. Patients with NAFLD often have other metabolic conditions such as obesity, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Diagnosis involves ruling out other causes of hepatomegaly and demonstrating hepatic steatosis through liver biopsy or radiology. Conservative management with weight loss and control of cardiovascular risk factors is the mainstay of treatment, as there are currently no recommended medications for NAFLD.
Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive medication used in the management of autoimmune hepatitis. Before starting a patient on azathioprine, TPMT activity should be tested for, as those with low TPMT activity have an increased risk of azathioprine-induced myelosuppression. Liver transplant is indicated for patients with declining hepatic function or liver cirrhosis, which this patient does not have.
Naltrexone can be used for symptomatic relief of pruritus in patients with primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), but this patient has negative antibodies for autoimmune liver disease. Oral steroids are indicated in patients with autoimmune liver disease, which this patient does not have. Overall, understanding the diagnosis and treatment options for NAFLD is crucial for managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a traumatic event two weeks ago when a young man demanded her phone and purse while she was walking home from a party. She was alone and feared for her safety. Since then, she has been struggling with nightmares and flashbacks, which have disrupted her sleep. She has also been avoiding going out alone. She is seeking medication to help her sleep. What is her response?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event, while PTSD is diagnosed after four weeks have passed. Although this patient’s symptoms have the potential to develop into PTSD, they currently meet the criteria for acute stress disorder. It is important to monitor their progress and reassess in two weeks.
Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks and is often accompanied by agoraphobia. To be diagnosed with panic disorder, the individual must experience persisting anxiety about the recurrence of attacks for at least one month after the initial episode.
Depression is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness or loss of pleasure in activities, along with a range of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry that is pervasive and persistent, along with a range of somatic, cognitive, and behavioral symptoms. This disorder must be present for longer than two weeks and is typically experienced on a continuum of severity.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.
To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 154
Incorrect
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Which of the following side-effects is most commonly associated with the use of ciclosporin in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatotoxicity
Explanation:Hepatotoxicity is a possible side effect of ciclosporin.
Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug
Ciclosporin is a medication that belongs to the class of immunosuppressants. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells, which are responsible for the immune response in the body. This is achieved by decreasing the release of IL-2, a cytokine that stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cells. Ciclosporin binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.
Despite its effectiveness in suppressing the immune system, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. These include nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremor, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. Interestingly, it is noted by the BNF to be ‘virtually non-myelotoxic’, which means it does not affect the bone marrow.
Ciclosporin is used in various medical conditions, including following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes, which are the cells that make up the outer layer of the skin, as well as modulating T cell function. Despite its adverse effects, Ciclosporin remains an important medication in the management of several medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 155
Incorrect
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In the treatment of autoimmunity and prevention of rejection after solid organ transplantation, various immunosuppressant drugs are used. Despite their effectiveness, these drugs have unwanted side effects that increase the risk of infection and malignancy. However, specific side effects are associated with each drug due to their unique mechanism of action. What is the immunosuppressant drug that is commonly linked to hirsutism and gingival hypertrophy in patients? Also, is there any age group that is more susceptible to these side effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciclosporin
Explanation:Ciclosporin’s Side Effects and Decreased Popularity as a Transplantation Maintenance Therapy
Ciclosporin is a medication that is commonly linked to gingival hypertrophy and hirsutism. These side effects can be unpleasant for patients and may lead to decreased compliance with the medication regimen. Additionally, ciclosporin is not as effective as tacrolimus at inhibiting calcineurin, which is a key factor in preventing transplant rejection. As a result, ciclosporin is becoming less popular as a maintenance therapy for transplantation. Physicians are increasingly turning to other medications that have fewer side effects and are more effective at preventing rejection. While ciclosporin may still be used in some cases, it is no longer considered the first-line treatment for transplantation maintenance therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with known carcinoma of the breast is admitted to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of breathlessness. The patient also describes pleuritic-type chest pain which started just under one hour previously at the same time as the onset of the breathlessness, and she is now breathless at rest.
On examination, the patient is cyanosed, has a tachycardia of 122 bpm and a blood pressure of 86/60 mmHg. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows signs of right ventricular dysfunction.
A diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is made, and the decision is taken to administer a thrombolytic.
Which of the following agents is a thrombolytic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptokinase
Explanation:Common Anticoagulants and Thrombolytics: Mechanisms of Action
Anticoagulants and thrombolytics are commonly used in the management of thrombotic disorders. Here are some of the most commonly used agents and their mechanisms of action:
Streptokinase is a therapeutic fibrinolytic agent that breaks down fibrin, making it useful in the management of acute pulmonary embolus in the case of shock.
Warfarin prevents the formation of a thrombus by decreasing the amount of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, although it does not possess fibrinolytic activity.
Aspirin is an anti-platelet agent that reduces the aggregation of platelets.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which is involved in the formation of a thrombus.
Heparin potentiates the action of antithrombin and also prevents the formation of a thrombus, but has no fibrinolytic activity.
Understanding the mechanisms of action of these common anticoagulants and thrombolytics is important in their appropriate use in the management of thrombotic disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids while on the ward. You receive a call from a nurse on the ward reporting that the patient is experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Upon examination, you order an urgent chest X-ray.
What finding on the chest X-ray would be most indicative of pulmonary edema?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patchy perihilar shadowing
Explanation:Interpreting Chest X-Ray Findings in Heart Failure
Chest X-rays are commonly used to assess patients with heart failure. Here are some key findings to look out for:
– Patchy perihilar shadowing: This suggests alveolar oedema, which can arise due to fluid overload in heart failure. Intravenous fluids should be given slowly, with frequent re-assessment for signs of peripheral and pulmonary oedema.
– Cardiothoracic ratio of 0.5: A ratio of >0.5 on a postero-anterior (PA) chest X-ray may indicate heart failure. A ratio of 0.5 or less is considered normal.
– Patchy shadowing in lower zones: This may suggest consolidation caused by pneumonia, which can complicate heart failure.
– Prominent lower zone vessels: In pulmonary venous hypertension, there is redistribution of blood flow to the non-dependent upper lung zones, leading to larger vessels in the lower zones.
– Narrowing of the carina: This may suggest enlargement of the left atrium, which sits directly under the carina in the chest. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 158
Incorrect
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You assess an 11-year-old girl who has been experiencing worsening constipation for the past 3 years, despite previously having regular bowel movements. All other aspects of her medical history and physical examination are unremarkable. She is not currently taking any medications.
What would be the appropriate next course of action in managing her constipation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osmotic laxative
Explanation:Constipation at this age is most likely caused by dietary factors. Therefore, it is important to offer dietary guidance, such as increasing fiber and fluid consumption. Additionally, advising the individual to increase their activity level may be beneficial. As the constipation is getting worse, a laxative would be helpful. An osmotic laxative is recommended initially, as the stool is expected to be hard. A stimulant laxative may be necessary once the stool has softened.
Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.
If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.
In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals first-degree heart block, tall P-waves, and flattened T-waves. Upon arterial blood gas analysis, her results are as follows: pH 7.55 (normal range 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 30 mmol/L (normal range 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 5.8kPa (normal range 4.5-6kPa), p02 11kPa (normal range 10-14kPa), and Chloride 85mmol/L (normal range 95-108mmol/L). What is the underlying cause of her presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:The palpitations experienced by this patient are likely due to hypokalaemia, as indicated by their ECG. The ABG results reveal a metabolic alkalosis, with low chloride levels suggesting that the cause is likely due to prolonged vomiting resulting in the loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach. This could also explain the hypokalaemia observed on the ECG. The absence of acute nausea and vomiting suggests that this may be a chronic issue, possibly indicating bulimia nervosa as the underlying condition, unless there is a previous medical history that could account for persistent vomiting.
Bulimia Nervosa: An Eating Disorder Characterized by Binge Eating and Purging
Bulimia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives or diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise. The DSM 5 diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode, and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. These behaviors occur at least once a week for three months and are accompanied by an undue influence of body shape and weight on self-evaluation.
Management of bulimia nervosa involves referral for specialist care and the use of bulimia-nervosa-focused guided self-help or individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT-ED). Children should be offered bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN). While pharmacological treatments have a limited role, a trial of high-dose fluoxetine is currently licensed for bulimia. It is important to seek appropriate care for bulimia nervosa to prevent the physical and psychological consequences of this eating disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 160
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man was diagnosed with prostate cancer two years ago. He had radiotherapy. His prostate specific antigen level (PSA) had been normal until it began to rise four months ago.
He is well informed and asks if he should be on hormone treatment.
When should hormone treatment be initiated in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If he has a PSA doubling time of less than 3 months
Explanation:Hormonal Therapy for Biochemical Relapse in Prostate Cancer
According to NICE guidance, a biochemical relapse in prostate cancer, indicated by a rising PSA level, should not always lead to an immediate change in treatment. Hormonal therapy is not typically recommended for men with prostate cancer who experience a biochemical relapse unless they have symptomatic local disease progression, proven metastases, or a PSA doubling time of less than three months. In other words, if the cancer has not spread beyond the prostate and is not causing any symptoms, hormonal therapy may not be necessary. However, if the cancer has spread or is progressing rapidly, hormonal therapy may be recommended to slow down the cancer’s growth and improve the patient’s quality of life. It is important for patients to discuss their individual circumstances with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father who reports a 'barking' cough that has occurred a few times daily for the past two days. The child's appetite and behavior remain unchanged. Upon examination, the pediatrician finds no abnormalities. What is the recommended first-line treatment for mild croup?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:Regardless of severity, a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately for mild croup, which is characterized by a barking cough and the absence of stridor or systemic symptoms.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer and is awaiting surgery. She has started a new relationship and is seeking advice on contraception. In her previous relationship, she used the depo injection and is interested in restarting it. She is a non-smoker, has no history of migraines or venous thromboembolism, and has a BMI of 23 kg/m². Which contraception option would be most suitable for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:Injectable progesterone contraceptives are not recommended for individuals with current breast cancer due to contraindications. This applies to all hormonal contraceptive options, including Depo-Provera, which are classified as UKMEC 4. The copper intrauterine device is the only suitable contraception option in such cases.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of vaginal soreness, itchiness, and discharge. During the examination, the doctor notices an inflamed vulva and thick, white, lumpy vaginal discharge. The cervix appears normal, but there is discomfort during bimanual examination. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which is well-controlled with salbutamol, and type one diabetes, and has no known allergies. What is the most suitable next step in her care, considering the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral fluconazole as a single oral dose
Explanation:If a patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of vaginal candidiasis, a high vaginal swab is not necessary for diagnosis and treatment can be initiated with a single oral dose of fluconazole. Symptoms of vaginal candidiasis include vulval soreness, itching, and thick, white vaginal discharge. Prescribing oral metronidazole as a single dose or taking a high vaginal swab would be incorrect as they are used to treat Trichomonas vaginalis infections or bacterial vaginosis, respectively.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss. She has been experiencing headaches, neck, and shoulder stiffness for the past 4 weeks, which is most severe in the morning and improves throughout the day. Her strength and sensation are normal, but she has limited range of motion in her neck and shoulders due to discomfort. The right eye is completely affected in terms of visual field, and optic disc pallor is observed during fundoscopy. The patient has a history of hypercholesterolemia and is a smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes per day. What is the most probable underlying cause for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischaemia to the anterior optic nerve
Explanation:Giant cell arthritis (GCA) is a condition that can result in vision loss, primarily due to anterior ischemic optic neuropathy. This occurs when the immune system damages the arteries that supply the optic nerve, leading to thrombus formation and occlusion. As a result, nerve fibers at the anterior aspect of the optic nerve die, causing optic disc pallor. It is important to note that interruption of venous drainage from the retina is not the cause of GCA-related vision loss, as this would present with widespread hemorrhages on fundoscopy. Ischemia to the optic radiation is also an incorrect explanation, as it would only cause homonymous quadrantanopias, not the entire visual field loss seen in GCA. Similarly, ischaemia to the posterior optic nerve is unlikely, as it would not show optic disc pallor on fundoscopy. Instead, the presence of optic disc pallor suggests that ischaemia to the anterior optic nerve is the more likely cause of vision loss in GCA.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 165
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately reflects the results of a randomized controlled trial comparing sunscreen A and placebo for skin cancer prevention, where 100 patients were assigned to each group and 10% of patients in group A developed skin cancer with a relative risk of 0.7 compared to placebo?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The relative risk reduction for sunscreen A is 0.3
Explanation:When analyzing the results of a sunscreen study, it is important to consider the relative risk reduction. This value is calculated by subtracting the relative risk from 1. If the relative risk reduction is greater than 0, it means that the group receiving the sunscreen had a lower risk of skin cancer compared to the placebo group. However, without performing a statistical test, it is difficult to determine if the sunscreen is truly effective in preventing skin cancer.
Additionally, it is helpful to look at the absolute risk of skin cancer in the placebo group. In the given example, the absolute risk of skin cancer in group B was 14.2%. This value can be used to calculate the absolute risk reduction, which is the difference between the absolute risk of the placebo group and the absolute risk of the sunscreen group. In this case, the absolute risk reduction was 4.2%.
Overall, these values can provide insight into the effectiveness of a sunscreen in preventing skin cancer. However, it is important to note that further statistical analysis may be necessary to draw definitive conclusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman attending Oncology has metastatic breast cancer with bony metastases in her pelvis and femur. She has hip pain at rest, not relieved by paracetamol and naproxen.
Which of the following analgesic options would be most specific for metastatic bone pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous ibandronate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Metastatic Bone Pain
Metastatic bone pain can be a challenging symptom to manage in patients with advanced cancer. Here are some treatment options:
Intravenous Ibandronate: This bisphosphonate is administered intravenously and is effective in controlling pain from bony metastases.
Oral Gabapentin: Gabapentin is a medication used to treat neuropathic pain.
Oral Oxycontin: Oxycontin is an opioid that can relieve pain, but it is not specific to metastatic bone pain.
Oral Tramadol: Tramadol is an analgesic medication that can be taken orally, but according to NICE guidelines, ibandronic acid is the recommended treatment for metastatic bony pain.
Intravenous Morphine Sulfate: Intravenous morphine is not the preferred medication in palliative care, as it can be difficult to obtain intravenous access in frail patients. Subcutaneous delivery may be an alternative option.
Overall, the choice of treatment will depend on the individual patient’s needs and preferences, as well as the severity of their pain. A multidisciplinary approach involving healthcare professionals and the patient’s family can help to ensure that the patient receives the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to his right thumb. On examination, there is a 1.5 cm laceration on the ulnar aspect of the thumb. The neurovascular supply is intact, and there is no evidence of injury to other structures. What is the suitable local anaesthetic to use for exploring the wound and suturing the laceration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lidocaine 1% - 20 ml
Explanation:Anaesthetics for Wound Management in the Emergency Department
For wound management in the Emergency department, 1% lidocaine is the most commonly used anaesthetic for cleaning, exploring, and suturing wounds. However, adrenaline should not be used in areas supplied by end arteries, such as fingers and toes.
The maximum dose of plain lidocaine in a healthy adult is 3 mg/kg or 200 mg (20 ml of 1%). It is important to note that 1% lidocaine is equivalent to 10 mg/ml. On the other hand, if lidocaine with adrenaline is used, the maximum dose is 7 mg/kg or 500 mg (50 ml of 1%). The duration of action for plain lidocaine is 30-60 minutes, while lidocaine with adrenaline lasts approximately 90 minutes.
Another topical anaesthetic that can be used is ethyl chloride, which is sprayed onto the skin and causes rapid cooling. However, it is very short-acting and lasts less than 60 seconds, making it inadequate for providing sufficient analgesia in most cases.
In summary, the choice of anaesthetic for wound management in the Emergency department depends on the location and severity of the wound, as well as the patient’s overall health. It is important to follow the recommended maximum doses and duration of action to ensure safe and effective pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle reports experiencing mood changes during the week leading up to her period. She describes feeling increasingly anxious and irritable, and these symptoms are severe enough to affect her work and social life. She has a history of migraine with aura. What is the most suitable intervention to alleviate her premenstrual symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI)
Explanation:Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 169
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 38-year-old female who has come to the crisis team with suicidal thoughts. Upon further inquiry, Samantha also reveals experiencing low mood, lack of energy, early morning awakenings, and difficulty concentrating. She reports that these symptoms are persistent, but she has both good and bad days. Samantha has no prior psychiatric history. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate treatment for Samantha?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:When managing a patient with depression, it is important to consider several factors according to NICE guidelines. These include managing suicide risk, safeguarding concerns for vulnerable individuals, and any comorbid conditions such as substance abuse. If the patient exhibits psychotic symptoms or eating disorders, seeking expert advice is recommended. For those with mild depression or subthreshold symptoms, active monitoring and follow-up appointments are suggested. Psychological interventions through IAPT are recommended for persistent subthreshold or mild-to-moderate depression, while antidepressants and high-intensity psychological interventions are recommended for moderate or severe depression. When prescribing antidepressants, it is important to consider the patient’s history and any chronic physical health problems, with sertraline being preferred in such cases due to its lower risk of drug interactions. Practical solutions to stressors contributing to depression should also be discussed.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation for her dating scan. The radiographer calls you in to speak to the patient, as the gestational sac is small for dates and she is unable to demonstrate a fetal heart rate. On further questioning, the patient reports an episode of bleeding while abroad at nine weeks’ gestation, which settled spontaneously.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Missed miscarriage
Explanation:Different Types of Miscarriage: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Miscarriage is the loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks’ gestation. There are several types of miscarriage, each with its own symptoms and diagnosis.
Missed miscarriage is an incidental finding where the patient presents without symptoms, but the ultrasound shows a small gestational sac and no fetal heart rate.
Complete miscarriage is when all products of conception have been passed, and the uterus is empty and contracted.
Incomplete miscarriage is when some, but not all, products of conception have been expelled, and the patient experiences vaginal bleeding with an open or closed os.
Inevitable miscarriage is when the pregnancy will inevitably be lost, and the patient presents with active bleeding, abdominal pain, and an open cervical os.
Threatened miscarriage is when there is an episode of bleeding, but the pregnancy is unaffected, and the patient experiences cyclical abdominal pain and dark red-brown bleeding. The cervical os is closed, and ultrasound confirms the presence of a gestational sac and fetal heart rate.
It is important to seek medical attention if any symptoms of miscarriage occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old male is found unresponsive by his father at home. The father immediately calls for emergency services and begins to assess his son's condition. One of the first things the father does is check his son's pulse.
Where should the father check for the pulse during this assessment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brachial and femoral
Explanation:When assessing for a pulse in infants, the recommended areas to check are the femoral and brachial arteries. This is because the carotid pulse may be difficult to palpate due to the short neck of infants. Checking for a central pulse is important as peripheral pulses may be weaker and harder to feel, especially in unwell patients with peripheral shutdown. It is important to note that according to BLS guidelines, the carotid pulse may only be used in children over 12 months old, making it an inappropriate option for an 8-month-old infant. Therefore, options including the carotid pulse are incorrect.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presented with pruritus in the perineal area, associated with pain on micturition and dyspareunia. She had thin, hypopigmented skin, with white, polygonal patches which, in areas, formed patches.
She returns for review after a 3-month trial of clobetasol proprionate, which has failed to improve symptoms. There is no evidence of infection, and her observations are stable.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical tacrolimus
Explanation:Treatment Options for Lichen Sclerosus: Topical Tacrolimus as Second-Line Therapy
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genital area in men and women, presenting with pruritus and skin irritation. First-line treatment involves high-potency steroids, but if the patient fails to respond, the next step is topical calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus. This immunosuppressant reduces inflammation by inhibiting the secretion of interleukin-2, which promotes T-cell proliferation. However, chronic inflammatory conditions like lichen sclerosus increase the risk of vulval carcinoma, so a tissue biopsy should be obtained if the lesion is steroid-resistant. UV phototherapy and oral retinoids are not recommended as second-line therapy due to uncertain risks, while surgical excision is reserved for severe cases. The combination of potent steroids with antibacterial or antifungal properties is a first-line option in cases of superimposed infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male patient complains of a sudden worsening of his pre-existing psoriasis over the past three days. Is it possible that one of his medications is responsible for this acute deterioration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Medications that can worsen psoriasis
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered or worsened by certain medications. Beta-blockers, commonly used to treat high blood pressure and heart conditions, are known to induce psoriasis or make existing psoriasis worse. Other medications that can exacerbate psoriasis include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antimalarials, and lithium. These medications can contribute to erythrodermic and pustular eruptions, which can be severe and require medical attention. It’s important to note that reactions to these medications can occur anywhere from less than a month to a year after starting the medication. Additionally, tapering doses of steroids can also lead to a worsening of psoriasis symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and decreased consciousness. Upon examination, she has a respiratory rate of 30/min and is tachypnoeic. Oxygen saturations are 98%. Urgent blood gases reveal a pH of 7.04, pO2 16.0 kPa, pCO2 2.6 kPa, HCO3- 3 mmol/l. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Explanation:Causes of Metabolic Acidosis and Alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition characterized by low pH, low carbon dioxide, and low bicarbonate levels. One of the most common causes of metabolic acidosis is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which can lead to confusion and reduced consciousness. Treatment for DKA involves an insulin infusion and intravenous fluids.
On the other hand, respiratory alkalosis is characterized by high pH and low carbon dioxide levels. Asthma and pulmonary embolism are two conditions that can cause tachypnea and respiratory alkalosis due to increased minute volume and blowing off carbon dioxide.
In contrast, metabolic alkalosis is characterized by high pH and high bicarbonate levels. Conn’s syndrome, also known as hyperaldosteronism, is a condition that typically causes hypertension and metabolic alkalosis.
Lastly, diazepam overdose can cause hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis, which is characterized by low pH and high carbon dioxide levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old baby has been brought in by his mother after she is concerned about his movement. He is diagnosed as having developmental dysplasia of the hip on ultrasound.
Which statement is correct regarding the management of developmental dysplasia of the hip?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting
Explanation:Understanding Treatment Options and Complications for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects the hip joint in infants and young children. Treatment options for DDH include splinting with a Pavlik harness or surgical correction. However, both options come with potential complications.
Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting. While Pavlik harness splinting can be less invasive than surgical correction, it may not be effective for all children. If the child is under six months, the splint is usually tried first, and if there is no response, then surgery may be necessary.
The age at diagnosis does not affect the prognosis, but the greater the age of the child at diagnosis, the more likely they will need a more extensive corrective procedure. It is important to note that a Pavlik harness is contraindicated in children over six months old or with an irreducible hip. In these cases, surgery is the only treatment option available.
Recovery following closed reduction surgery is usually complete after four weeks. However, children may need a plaster cast or a reduction brace for three to four months following the procedure. Surgical reduction is always indicated for children in whom a Pavlik harness is not indicated or has not worked. It may also be indicated for children who were too old at presentation to try a harness or have an irreducible hip.
In summary, understanding the treatment options and potential complications for DDH is crucial for parents and healthcare providers to make informed decisions about the best course of action for each individual child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old child presents to the emergency department with symptoms of feeling generally unwell, being off food, and bleeding from the back passage. The child's mother reports no nausea or vomiting. On examination, the patient appears distressed and is tender in the right lower quadrant. No masses are felt in the abdomen. Vital signs show a heart rate of 170 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 68/37 mmHg, and temperature of 36.2 ºC. The patient has no known medical conditions or regular medications. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:The patient does not exhibit any of the typical symptoms associated with appendicitis, such as fever, nausea, vomiting, or loss of appetite. While paroxysmal abdominal colic pain is a common feature of many conditions, an underlying pathological cause has not been identified in this case. The child does not display the sudden onset of inconsolable crying episodes or pallor that is often seen in cases of colic. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a rare genetic disorder that causes hamartomatous polyposis, is unlikely given the patient’s age. Cecal volvulus, which is characterized by sudden onset colicky lower abdominal pain, abdominal distension, and a failure to pass flatus or stool, is also an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.
In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.
To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 177
Incorrect
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Which patient has a creatinine level indicating CKD3?
Patient A:
Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 145 μmol/L
Albumin - 36 g/L
Patient B:
Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
Phosphate - 2.0 mmol/L
PTH - 4.2 pmol/L
Urea - 50 mmol/L
Creatinine - 280 μmol/L
Albumin - 38 g/L
Patient C:
Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
Albumin - 28 g/L
Patient D:
Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 367 μmol/L
Albumin - 40 g/L
Patient E:
Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
Albumin - 18 g/LYour Answer:
Correct Answer: Patient A
Explanation:Renal Impairment and Calcium Homeostasis
Although interpreting creatinine levels can be challenging without information about body habitus and muscle mass, Patient A likely has CKD3 based on their creatinine level of 145. It is important to have a general of the severity of renal impairment based on creatinine levels. Patients with an eGFR of 30-59 ml/min/1.73m2 are classified as having CKD3. This classification applies to men and women between the ages of 20 and 80 years old.
Patients B, C, and D have more advanced renal disease, and depending on the clinical context, patients B and D may have acute renal failure. Patient E, on the other hand, does not have any renal impairment.
Patients with kidney disease often experience multiple abnormalities in calcium homeostasis. At the CKD3 stage, most patients have normal plasma concentrations of calcium and phosphate. However, as CKD3 progresses towards CKD 4, more subtle abnormalities may arise, such as a slight increase in PTH due to reduced hydroxylation of vitamin D by the kidney enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase.
Although Patient A has suboptimal levels of vitamin D, this is not uncommon. Risk factors for vitamin D insufficiency include old age, immobility, institutionalization, and darker skin color.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his ankle. He reports that whilst playing basketball that evening he landed awkwardly on his left foot after jumping for a rebound. He felt a pop at the time of impact and his ankle immediately became swollen.
On examination:
Heart rate: 80/minute; Respiratory rate: 16/minute; Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg; Oxygen saturations: 99%; Temperature: 36.8 ºC. Capillary refill time: 2 seconds.
Left ankle: swollen, erythematosus and disaffirmed. Skin intact. Extremely tender upon palpation of the lateral malleolus. Difficulty weight-bearing and dorsiflexing the ankle. Sensation intact. Pulses present.
Examination of the right ankle and lower limb is unremarkable.
X-rays of the left ankle and foot are carried out which demonstrate a fractured lateral malleolus and associated dislocation of the ankle joint.
What term is used to describe this pattern of injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Galeazzi fracture
Explanation:The patient has a Galeazzi fracture, which involves a dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint and a fracture of the radius. It is important to differentiate this from a Monteggia fracture, which involves a fracture of the proximal ulna and a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint. To remember the difference, one can associate the name of the fracture with the bone that is broken: Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers). Other types of fractures include Colles’ fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, Smith’s fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, and Boxer’s fracture, which involves a fracture of the neck of the fourth or fifth metacarpal with volar displacement of the metacarpal head.
Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.
Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.
Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 1-year-old child is brought to the emergency room with poor muscle tone, gasping respirations, cyanosis, and a heart rate of 80 bpm. The child's APGAR score is 3 and is placed in the sniffing position for airway maintenance. However, there are no changes noted on reassessment. After positive pressure ventilation for 30 seconds, the child is now showing shallow respirations and a heart rate of 50 bpm. Chest compressions are initiated. What is the recommended compression: ventilation ratio for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3:01
Explanation:If a newborn is healthy, they will have good tone, be pink in color, and cry immediately after delivery. A healthy newborn’s heart rate should be between 120-150 bpm. However, if the infant has poor tone, is struggling to breathe, and has a low heart rate that is not improving, compressions are necessary. According to newborn resuscitation guidelines, compressions and ventilations should be administered at a 3:1 ratio. Therefore, the correct course of action in this scenario is to perform compressions.
Newborn resuscitation involves a series of steps to ensure the baby’s survival. The first step is to dry the baby and maintain their body temperature. The next step is to assess the baby’s tone, respiratory rate, and heart rate. If the baby is gasping or not breathing, five inflation breaths should be given to open the lungs. After this, the baby’s chest movements should be reassessed. If the heart rate is not improving and is less than 60 beats per minute, compressions and ventilation breaths should be administered at a rate of 3:1.
It is important to note that inflation breaths are different from ventilation breaths. The aim of inflation breaths is to sustain pressure to open the lungs, while ventilation breaths are used to provide oxygen to the baby’s body. By following these steps, healthcare professionals can increase the chances of a newborn’s survival and ensure that they receive the necessary care to thrive. Proper newborn resuscitation can make all the difference in a baby’s life, and it is crucial that healthcare professionals are trained in these techniques.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 180
Incorrect
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You see a 40-year-old office worker in General Practice who is concerned about gaining extra weight. He tells you that he is currently very mindful of his diet and avoids any ‘unhealthy foods’. He meticulously counts calories for all meals and snacks and refrains from consuming anything for which he cannot find calorie information. He would like to know the recommended daily calorie intake for an average man to prevent weight gain.
What is the recommended daily calorie intake for an average man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2500 kcal
Explanation:Understanding Daily Calorie Intake Recommendations
The daily recommended calorie intake for men is approximately 2500 kcal, while for women it is around 2000 kcal. However, these are just guidelines and can vary based on factors such as age, BMI, muscle mass, and activity levels. In addition to calorie intake, the government also recommends specific daily intake levels for macronutrients, including protein, fat, carbohydrates, and dietary fiber, as well as limits for saturated fat, free sugars, and salt.
For weight loss in an average male with a normal activity level, a daily intake of 1500 kcal is recommended. However, an intake of 1800 kcal may be too low to maintain weight in the same individual. For females aged 19-64, the daily recommended calorie intake is 2000 kcal. For maintenance of body weight in the average male, a daily intake of 2500 kcal is recommended, but this may vary for larger individuals, those with higher muscle mass, or those who are highly active. Understanding these recommendations can help individuals make informed choices about their daily diet and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a stroke caused by a lack of blood flow to the brain four weeks ago but has since made a remarkable recovery. However, the patient experienced severe abdominal discomfort and diarrhea when he switched from taking 300mg of aspirin daily to 75 mg of clopidogrel. Consequently, he stopped taking clopidogrel, and his symptoms have subsided.
What would be the most suitable medication(s) to recommend for preventing a secondary stroke?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg plus modified release dipyridamole
Explanation:When clopidogrel cannot be used, the recommended treatment for secondary stroke prevention is a combination of aspirin 75 mg and modified-release dipyridamole. Studies have shown that this combination is more effective than taking either medication alone. Ticagrelor is not currently recommended for this purpose by NICE, and prasugrel is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants like warfarin are generally not used for secondary stroke prevention, with antiplatelets being the preferred treatment.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of facial erythema. She has developed papules and pustules with visible telangiectasia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acne Rosacea
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatments
Acne Rosacea:
Acne rosacea is a chronic skin condition that typically affects women and people with fair skin between the ages of 30-50. The exact cause is unknown, but environmental factors such as alcohol, caffeine, heat, and stress can aggravate the condition. Symptoms include a persistent erythematosus rash on the face, particularly over the nose and cheeks, with associated telangiectasia. Treatment involves lifestyle modifications and pharmacological interventions with topical or oral antibiotics.Acne Vulgaris:
Acne vulgaris is an inflammatory response to Propionibacterium acnes, a normal skin commensal. It commonly affects adolescents and presents with a variety of lesions ranging from comedones to cysts and scars. It predominantly affects areas with high concentrations of sebaceous glands, such as the face, back, and chest.Discoid Lupus Erythematosus:
Discoid lupus erythematosus is a cutaneous form of lupus erythematosus that affects sun-exposed areas of the skin. It typically presents in women between the ages of 20-40 and presents as red patches on the nose, face, back of the neck, shoulders, and hands. If left untreated, it can cause hypertrophic, wart-like scars.Pityriasis Rosea:
Pityriasis rosea is a self-limiting skin condition that affects young adults, mostly women. It presents with salmon-pink, flat or slightly raised patches with surrounding scale known as a collarette. The rash is usually symmetrical and distributed predominantly on the trunk and proximal limbs.Psoriasis:
Psoriasis is an autoimmune skin condition that presents with red scaly patches on the extensor surfaces of the limbs and behind the ears. Treatment involves topical or systemic medications to control symptoms and prevent flares. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male has been diagnosed with rectal carcinoma and is scheduled for a lower anterior resection with the goal of restoring intestinal continuity. What type of stoma would be most suitable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loop ileostomy
Explanation:The loop ileostomy is a technique used to redirect the flow of bowel contents away from a distal anastomosis, typically in cases of rectal cancer. When the ileostomy is reversed, it allows for the restoration of bowel continuity and can greatly enhance the patient’s quality of life.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 184
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 75-year-old woman admitted to the surgical ward with complaints of unilateral leg swelling and shortness of breath. Upon examination, her heart rate is 98 beats per minute, and breath sounds are normal. The patient underwent a total hip replacement surgery a week ago, which was uneventful, and she was prescribed a 10-day course of unfractionated heparin post-surgery. Her blood tests reveal Hb levels of 138 g/L (Female: 115-160 g/L), platelet count of 120 * 109/L (150-400 * 109/L), and WBC count of 7.4 * 109/L (4.0-11.0 * 109/L). An ELISA test is conducted, which comes back positive for platelet factor 4. Based on the given information, what is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
Explanation:HIT, or heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, is the correct diagnosis for this patient. While a small drop in platelet count is common in patients receiving unfractionated heparin, a more serious immune-mediated thrombocytopenia can occur in a smaller percentage of patients. This is caused by the development of antibodies against heparin-platelet factor 4 complexes (PF4), which is positive in this patient. HIT is a prothrombotic state and can present as a deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, which is consistent with the patient’s symptoms of tachycardia, unilateral leg swelling, and shortness of breath. The administration of unfractionated heparin is a risk factor for HIT.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is unlikely as it is characterized by recurrent miscarriages, venous/arterial thrombosis, and thrombocytopenia, none of which are present in this patient. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is also incorrect as it has a more acute onset and is characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, which is not present in this patient. While Factor V Leiden is a possible differential, the administration of unfractionated heparin is a risk factor for HIT, and the positive platelet factor 4 is a strong indicator of HIT.
Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.
Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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What type of psychotherapy focuses on a patient's early past experiences, particularly within the family, to determine perceptions of others, including the therapist, and identify patterns of thinking and relating to others? The goal of this therapy is to allow the patient to gain insight into unconscious motivations, improve effectiveness in the adult world, and enhance interpersonal relationships.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychoanalysis
Explanation:Overview of Different Types of Psychotherapies
Psychoanalysis, cognitive therapy, behavior therapy, brief interpersonal therapy, and structural family therapy are some of the different types of psychotherapies available today. Each therapy has its own unique approach to treating mental health issues.
Psychoanalysis, the forerunner of all contemporary psychotherapies, focuses on the theory of human mental life and psychological symptom formation. It posits that adult beliefs and patterns of relating are determined by early experiences with important people. Cognitive therapy, on the other hand, works with the patient’s conscious beliefs about themselves, others, and their world. Behavior therapy, derived from animal research, teaches patients to behave in more adaptive ways. Brief interpersonal therapy deals with specific circumstances thought to contribute to depression, while structural family therapy is designed to help families in which a child shows psychiatric symptoms, behavior problems, or unstable chronic illness.
Regardless of the type of therapy, the goal is to help patients achieve better mental health and well-being. Each therapy has its own unique approach, but all aim to help patients understand and overcome their mental health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with chest pain. The man reports the pain as crushing in nature, exacerbated by exertion, particularly when climbing stairs in his home. The pain is typically relieved by rest, but he has experienced several episodes while watching television in the past two weeks. He has no other medical history and is generally in good health.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to hospital for admission for observation and urgent elective angiogram
Explanation:Appropriate Management for a Patient with Unstable Angina
Unstable angina is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. In the case of a patient displaying textbook signs of unstable angina, such as crushing chest pain occurring at rest, admission to the hospital is necessary. Sending the patient home with only glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray is not appropriate, as the patient is at high risk of having a myocardial infarction (MI). Instead, the patient should be seen by Cardiology for consideration of an urgent elective angiogram.
Prescribing ramipril and simvastatin is not indicated unless there is evidence of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, including exercise recommendation, is also not appropriate for a patient with unstable angina. The immediate problem should be addressed first, which is the need for an angiogram.
It is important to differentiate between unstable and stable angina. Unstable angina presents with symptoms at rest, indicating a significant worsening of the patient’s cardiac disease. On the other hand, stable angina only presents with symptoms on exertion.
Sending the patient for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is not necessary unless there is evidence of an MI. The pain experienced due to angina will alleviate itself most commonly at rest, unless the angina is unstable. Therefore, an urgent elective angiogram is the appropriate management for a patient with unstable angina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 187
Incorrect
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John, a 35-year-old Caucasian man visited his doctor with a range of symptoms. He reported feeling feverish on and off for the past few months, experiencing fatigue, unintentional weight loss of around 3kg, and general muscle aches and pains. He was not taking any medication. Upon examination, his doctor found no abnormalities in his observations or physical examination. The doctor ordered a full blood count, which showed the following results:
- Hb 112g/L Male: (130 - 180)
- Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 3.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Lymphocytes 2.8 * 109/L (1.0 - 4.5)
- Mean corpuscular volume 92 fL (76 - 98)
- Mean corpuscular haemoglobin 31 pg (27 - 32)
- Ferritin 40 ng/mL (20 - 230)
Based on these results, the doctor suspects that John may have systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and orders further blood tests. Which test, if positive, would best indicate that John is likely to have this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA
Explanation:The sensitivity of ANA is high, making it a valuable test for ruling out SLE, but its specificity is low. Anti-histone antibodies are typically utilized as an indicator for drug-induced SLE. ESR is not a serum antibody and is not employed for diagnosing or ruling out SLE.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male suddenly cries out, grabs the back of his head, and collapses in front of a bystander. After receiving appropriate treatment, he is now recovering in the hospital. As you assess his condition, you begin to consider potential complications that may arise. What is the most probable complication that he may experience due to his underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient presents with an overdose of an unknown quantity of an unknown drug, which she took 4 hours earlier. During your assessment, she complains of severe ‘ringing’ in her ears. She has a resting respiratory rate of 24/min. Chest examination is clear.
Which one of the following drugs is she most likely to have taken?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Common Overdose Symptoms and Treatments for Various Medications
Aspirin overdose can lead to tinnitus and hyperventilation, which are caused by metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis. Treatment for salicylate overdose is generally supportive care, but some patients may require urinary alkalinisation or haemodialysis.
Lithium overdose can cause neurological symptoms such as myoclonic jerks and twitches, confusion, and seizures, as well as cardiac dysrhythmias.
Paracetamol overdose is initially symptomless or causes gastrointestinal disturbance.
Amitriptyline overdose results in a stereotypical tricyclic overdose syndrome with dry mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention, hypotension, low Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, and seizures.
Codeine phosphate overdose can have opiate effects.
Symptoms and Treatments for Common Medication Overdoses
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman presented to the general medical clinic with a complaint of progressive diffuse myalgia and weakness that had been ongoing for three months. She reported experiencing difficulty walking up and down stairs due to weakness in her shoulder muscles and thighs. Her medical history included hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she took atenolol and simvastatin regularly. On examination, there were no abnormalities in the cranial nerves or detectable neck weakness. However, there was general myalgia in the upper limbs and proximal weakness of 3/5 with preserved distal power. A similar pattern of weakness was observed in the lower limbs with preserved tone, reflexes, and sensation.
The following investigations were conducted: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, ESR (Westergren), serum sodium, serum potassium, serum urea, serum creatinine, plasma lactate, serum creatine kinase, fasting plasma glucose, serum cholesterol, plasma TSH, plasma T4, and plasma T3. Urinalysis was normal.
Based on these findings, what is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Statin-induced myopathy
Explanation:Statins and Muscle Disorders
Myalgia, myositis, and myopathy are all known side effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, commonly known as statins. The risk of these muscle disorders increases when statins are taken in combination with a fibrate or with immunosuppressants. If therapy is not discontinued, rhabdomyolysis may occur, which can lead to acute renal failure due to myoglobinuria. Inclusion body myositis is a type of inflammatory myopathy that causes weakness in a distal and asymmetric pattern. On the other hand, McArdle’s disease is an autosomal recessive condition that typically presents in children with painful muscle cramps and myoglobinuria after intense exercise. This condition is caused by a deficiency in myophosphorylase, which impairs the body’s ability to utilize glucose. There are no additional neurological symptoms to suggest a mitochondrial disorder, and the plasma lactate level is normal. Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 191
Incorrect
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You are the out-of-hours General Practitioner (GP) on call. You receive a call from the relative of an 85-year-old woman with palliative breast cancer and a complete Do Not Attempt Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (DNACPR) order. The relative believes she has passed away and is not sure what to do. You offer your condolences and arrange a home visit to confirm death.
Which of the following should be confirmed in order to diagnose death?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No response to verbal/painful stimuli, absence of carotid pulse, absence of breath sounds for more than three minutes, absence of heart sounds for more than two minutes, pupils fixed and dilated
Explanation:Assessing for Death: Signs and Symptoms
When diagnosing death, it is important to look for signs of life initially, including skin color, signs of respiratory effort, and response to verbal/painful stimuli. Painful stimuli can be assessed using various methods, such as fingernail bed pressure, supraorbital pressure, or trapezius squeeze. Pupils should be assessed using a pen torch, as they become fixed and dilated after death. A central pulse, such as the carotid pulse, should be palpated, and doctors should listen for heart sounds for at least two minutes and breath sounds for at least three minutes. Exact durations may vary, but a minimum of five minutes of auscultation should be conducted to confirm irreversible cardiorespiratory arrest.
However, assessing for a gag reflex is not a routine part of diagnosing death, and the absence of a gag reflex may not necessarily indicate death. Instead, the absence of a corneal reflex can be used to diagnose death.
It is important to note that one minute of auscultation for breath and heart sounds would be insufficient to diagnose death. Additionally, assessing for a peripheral pulse, such as the radial pulse, would not be accurate, as it can be lost in peripherally shut down or hypotensive patients. Confirmation of death requires the absence of a central pulse, such as the carotid pulse, and the absence of breath and heart sounds for an adequate amount of time, along with fixed and dilated pupils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 192
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 27-year-old woman who has presented to her doctor with complaints of feeling down, difficulty sleeping and frequent headaches. She reports that these symptoms occur around the same time every month and cease just before her menstrual cycle. Sophie is worried about how these symptoms are impacting her work performance but does not have any immediate plans to start a family.
What is the recommended treatment for Sophie's likely diagnosis at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drospirenone‐containing COC taken continuously
Explanation:Premenstrual syndrome can be treated with a combination of oral contraceptives and SSRIs, along with cognitive behavioral therapy. While the copper intrauterine device is effective for long-term contraception, it does not address the hormonal changes that cause PMS symptoms. The most appropriate option for Lydia is a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill containing drospirenone, which can alleviate her symptoms. Progesterone-only contraception is not recommended for PMS, and sodium valproate is not a recognized treatment for this condition. It is important to take the COC continuously for maximum benefit.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman who has a history of injecting heroin has just received a positive HIV diagnosis. During her initial visits to the HIV clinic, she is offered a cervical smear. What is the recommended follow-up for her as part of the cervical screening program?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual cervical cytology
Explanation:Due to a weakened immune response and reduced clearance of the human papillomavirus, women who are HIV positive face an elevated risk of cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer. If HIV positive women have low-grade lesions (CIN1), these lesions may not clear and could progress to high-grade CIN or cervical cancer. Even with effective antiretroviral treatment, these women still have a high risk of abnormal cytology and an increased risk of false-negative results. Therefore, it is recommended that women with HIV receive cervical cytology at the time of diagnosis and annually thereafter for screening purposes.
Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.
The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman has presented to the hospital with a five-hour history of intermittent retrosternal chest pain radiating into the shoulder and jaw with associated diaphoresis, dyspnoea, and dizziness.
She has a past medical history of Crohn's disease and takes azathioprine 150 mg daily. She was previously started on sulfasalazine but developed facial swelling.
ECG shows normal sinus rhythm at 78 bpm but demonstrates 3mm of ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF.
Blood results are:
Urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 132 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Initial Troponin T 17 ng/L (5-14)
5 hour Troponin T 326 ng/L (5-14)
A diagnosis of an inferior non-ST elevation myocardial infarction is made.
Which medication should be avoided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:There is a risk of allergy to sulfasalazine for patients who are allergic to aspirin.
The correct answer is aspirin. Evidence suggests that there is cross-sensitivity between aspirin and sulfasalazine, so if a patient is allergic to one, they may also be allergic to the other. Bisoprolol is safe to administer as there are no known contraindications, allergies, or intolerances. Clopidogrel is also safe to administer in the current situation, but its use should be reviewed if the patient is experiencing an acute flare of Crohn’s with excessive rectal bleeding. Ramipril is safe to administer.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old unemployed man visits his GP seeking assistance with his heroin addiction. He has been using heroin for more than a year after a friend suggested trying the drug after a night out. As a result, he has frequently used heroin. He has lost his job, ended his long-term relationship, and is currently sleeping on his friend's couch.
A few months ago, he attempted to quit because he wanted to turn his life around, but he found the withdrawal symptoms too difficult to handle and ended up using heroin again. He is eager to try and quit drugs, but he feels he cannot do it without some form of assistance.
Which of the following can be used for substitution therapy in opioid-dependent patients?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methadone
Explanation:Medications for Opioid Dependence and Withdrawal
Opioid dependence can be treated with medications under medical supervision. Methadone and buprenorphine are two options that can be used to substitute for illicit opioids. Buprenorphine should be given when the patient is experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam and diazepam are used to treat withdrawal symptoms but not as a substitute for opioids. Lofexidine is also used to treat withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone, an opioid antagonist, can be used to sustain abstinence in consenting patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has been diagnosed with non-small-cell bronchial carcinoma during a bronchoscopy. Despite her diagnosis, she is in good health. CT imaging for staging did not show any signs of metastatic disease. Her surgeon has suggested a pneumonectomy but wants to conduct a PET scan. How will this test aid in managing the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Demonstrates any metastatic disease not found at CT
Explanation:PET Imaging in Cancer Diagnosis and Treatment
PET imaging is a diagnostic tool that uses radiolabelled molecules to identify areas of high metabolic activity, such as cancerous tumors. When combined with CT, PET can be more sensitive in detecting metastatic disease. However, PET has limitations in identifying blood supply and primary tumor masses, which may require other imaging techniques such as angiography or MRI. PET also cannot label tumors for easier identification during surgery, but newer techniques using fluorescent labeling are emerging. Finally, PET does not have any therapeutic effect on the tumor itself, but can be used to guide neoadjuvant therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old student is admitted to hospital with symptoms of fever, headache, photophobia and vomiting. The general practitioner administers 1.2 g of intramuscular benzylpenicillin before transferring the patient to the hospital. On examination, the patient's temperature is 38.0 °C, pulse 100 bpm and blood pressure 150/80 mmHg. No rash is visible, but there is mild neck stiffness. A CT scan of the brain is performed and shows no abnormalities. A lumbar puncture is also performed, and the results are as follows:
- Opening pressure: 20 cm H2O
- Appearance: Clear
- Red cell count: 25/mcl
- Lymphocytes: 125/mcl
- Polymorphs: 5/mcl
- Glucose: 4.5 mmol/l (blood glucose 5.5 mmol/l)
- Protein: 0.5 g/l
- Gram stain: No organisms seen
- Culture: No growth
What diagnosis is consistent with these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral meningitis
Explanation:Viral meningitis is a serious condition that should be treated as such if a patient presents with a headache, sensitivity to light, and stiffness in the neck. It is important to correctly interpret the results of a lumbar puncture to ensure that the appropriate treatment is administered. The appearance, cell count, protein level, and glucose level of the cerebrospinal fluid can help distinguish between bacterial, viral, and tuberculous meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is characterized by cloudy or purulent fluid with high levels of polymorphs and low levels of lymphocytes, while tuberculous meningitis may have a clear or slightly turbid appearance with a spider web clot and high levels of lymphocytes. Viral meningitis typically has clear or slightly hazy fluid with high levels of lymphocytes and normal protein and glucose levels. A subarachnoid hemorrhage may present with similar symptoms but would not have signs of infection and would show a large number of red blood cells and a color change in the cerebrospinal fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a lengthy history of alcoholic cirrhosis reported experiencing intense dysphagia and a burning sensation in his retrosternal area. While performing an oesophagoscopy, the endoscopist inserted the endoscope until it reached the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm.
At which vertebral level is it most probable that the endoscope tip reached?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:Vertebral Levels and Their Corresponding Anatomical Structures
T10 vertebral level is where the oesophageal hiatus is located, allowing the oesophagus and branches of the vagus to pass through. T7 vertebral level corresponds to the inferior angle of the scapula and where the hemiazygos veins cross the midline to reach the azygos vein. The caval opening, which is traversed by the inferior vena cava, is found at T8 vertebral level. T9 is the level of the xiphoid process. Finally, the aortic hiatus, which is traversed by the descending aorta, azygos and hemiazygos veins, and the thoracic duct, is located at T12 vertebral level. Understanding these anatomical structures and their corresponding vertebral levels is important in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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Based on the most recent guidance regarding cosmetic surgery from the General Medical Council, (GMC), which of the following statements is true if we consider the latest age criteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The person undertaking the procedure must not delegate the responsibility of discussing it with the patient and seeking their consent
Explanation:Understanding GMC Guidelines for Cosmetic Procedures
The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided guidelines for cosmetic procedures that must be followed by all medical professionals. It is important to understand these guidelines, even as a junior doctor, as you may be asked to be involved in cosmetic procedures.
Firstly, the person performing the procedure must be the one to discuss it with the patient and obtain their consent. Consent must be obtained by someone with the experience to perform the procedure and answer any questions the patient may have. For cosmetic procedures, the doctor performing the procedure must seek consent themselves.
While cosmetic procedures can be performed on patients under 18 years old, certain conditions must be met. The procedure must be in the best interest of the child, the environment must be suitable for young people, and advertising must not target children directly.
It is important to discuss the procedure with the patient’s GP, but only with the patient’s consent. If the patient does not want their GP involved, this must be recorded in the notes and the surgeon should consider whether the procedure should still go ahead.
Cosmetic services must not be provided as a prize, according to the GMC guidelines. Injectable cosmetic medicines, such as Botox, cannot be prescribed by telephone. A physical examination of the patient must be carried out before prescribing these medicines.
In conclusion, understanding the GMC guidelines for cosmetic procedures is crucial for all medical professionals. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety and well-being of patients undergoing cosmetic procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the past six months. She recently experienced moderate vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Additionally, she has gained around 14 pounds in weight during this time. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Secondary Amenorrhea and Miscarriage: A Possible Sign of Pregnancy
Secondary amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months in women who have previously had regular cycles, can be a sign of pregnancy. In cases where a patient with secondary amenorrhea experiences a miscarriage, it is important to consider the possibility of pregnancy. This information is highlighted in the book Williams Gynecology, 4th edition, authored by Barbara L. Hoffman, John O. Schorge, Lisa M. Halvorson, Cherine A. Hamid, Marlene M. Corton, and Joseph I. Schaffer.
The authors emphasize the importance of considering pregnancy as a possible cause of secondary amenorrhea, especially in cases where a miscarriage has occurred. This highlights the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in their assessment of patients with secondary amenorrhea and to consider pregnancy as a possible diagnosis. Early detection of pregnancy can help ensure appropriate prenatal care and management, which can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
In conclusion, secondary amenorrhea followed by a miscarriage should raise suspicion of pregnancy. Healthcare providers should be aware of this possibility and consider pregnancy as a potential diagnosis in patients with secondary amenorrhea. Early detection and appropriate management of pregnancy can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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