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  • Question 1 - A 6-month-old, full-term boy presents with a four-week history of regurgitation of feeds....

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old, full-term boy presents with a four-week history of regurgitation of feeds. He is otherwise well, with a normal growth chart. Examination is also normal.
      What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux

      Explanation:

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux, also known as posseting, is a common occurrence in infants between 1-4 months of age due to the underdeveloped lower oesophageal sphincter. This condition is characterized by effortless regurgitation and doesn’t require any investigation or treatment as it usually resolves on its own as the child grows and adopts an upright posture. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia, hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, and urinary tract infection are not the correct diagnoses for this scenario. Infective gastroenteritis may cause sudden onset diarrhea and vomiting, but it doesn’t fit with the symptoms described in this case.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 2 - A 15-month old girl is brought to you by her father, concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month old girl is brought to you by her father, concerned about her fine motor skills development. She was born at term without any complications during pregnancy or delivery. Her father feels that she is not progressing in the same way as her older siblings did at this age.

      At 12 months old, she was able to pick up small objects using her thumb and index finger. What is the next fine motor developmental milestone that you would expect this child to have achieved by now?

      Your Answer: Pass an object from one hand to another

      Correct Answer: Pincer grip

      Explanation:

      The fully formed pincer grip is the latest fine motor development that can be expected at 12 months old. While finger pointing typically develops around 9 months old, there is no indication that the child in question has achieved this milestone yet. The palmar grasp, which is typically present at 6 months old, was only achieved at 9 months old, suggesting a potential developmental delay. Passing an object from one hand to another should be present at 6 months old but was only achieved at 12 months old. Reaching for an object is expected at 3 months old in normal development.

      Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones

      Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.

      In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.

      It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.

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  • Question 3 - An apprehensive mother has called the clinic to report that her family had...

    Incorrect

    • An apprehensive mother has called the clinic to report that her family had significant contact with a confirmed case of measles yesterday. Her husband believes he had measles when he was younger, but their three children, aged 6 months, 5 years, and 11 years, have not received the MMR vaccine. You are contemplating administering post-exposure prophylaxis with the MMR vaccine.

      What is the minimum age requirement for the MMR vaccine to be effective as post-exposure prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: No lower age limit

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      MMR Vaccine Administration Guidelines

      The MMR vaccine can be administered at any age, but it is recommended to consult with your local Health Protection Team if the child is under 1 year of age. In case of exposure to measles, mumps, or rubella, most individuals can receive post-exposure prophylaxis with the MMR vaccine within three days, provided that the vaccine is not contraindicated. However, the response to MMR vaccine in infants under 6 months of age is not optimal, and it is not recommended as post-exposure prophylaxis in this age group.

      For children under 6 months of age, pregnant women, and immunocompromised individuals, human normal immunoglobulin should be considered if the MMR vaccine cannot be given. It is important to follow the recommended guidelines for MMR vaccine administration to ensure the best protection against these diseases.

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  • Question 4 - In your morning clinic, a 13-month-old girl is brought in by her father....

    Incorrect

    • In your morning clinic, a 13-month-old girl is brought in by her father. She has been unwell for 2 days with a fever that has been over 39ºC. She has a cough and has been refusing to eat. Although she has been drinking normal amounts of milk, her urine output is less than usual. Her nose has been very runny, and she keeps rubbing her left ear. Her father is most worried about her cough and breathing and is wondering if she needs antibiotics.

      During the examination, she appears alert but coryzal. Her temperature is 39.2ºC. Her heart rate is 150 beats per minute. Her respiratory rate is 60 breaths per minute. Her capillary refill time is < 2 seconds, and her mucous membranes are moist. You can hear transmitted sounds from her upper airway throughout her chest, but nothing focal. She has no visible rashes. Her throat is red with enlarged tonsils, and her left ear has a red, bulging tympanic membrane.

      You consult the NICE traffic light system for feverish children. What observation is considered a red symptom, requiring admission to the hospital for further evaluation?

      Your Answer: Decreased urine output

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >60 per minute

      Explanation:

      The NICE paediatric traffic light system identifies a respiratory rate of over 60 per minute as a red flag, regardless of age. Other symptoms that are considered amber or red flags include decreased urine output, dry mucous membranes, and a heart rate of over 150 beats per minute in 12-24-month-olds. A fever of over 39ºC is not an amber or red symptom, but it is considered an amber symptom in 3-6-month-olds and a red flag in children under 3 months.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

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  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old patient presents with diarrhoea and is examined to reveal dry mucous...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old patient presents with diarrhoea and is examined to reveal dry mucous membranes. The caregiver reports a decrease in wet nappies. The medical team decides to administer oral rehydration therapy. What is the recommended amount to be given over a 4-hour period, in addition to the usual maintenance fluids?

      Your Answer: 20 ml/kg

      Correct Answer: 50 ml/kg

      Explanation:

      Managing Diarrhoea and Vomiting in Children

      Diarrhoea and vomiting are common in young children, with rotavirus being the most common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. The 2009 NICE guidelines provide recommendations for managing these symptoms in children. Diarrhoea typically lasts for 5-7 days and stops within 2 weeks, while vomiting usually lasts for 1-2 days and stops within 3 days. When assessing hydration status, NICE suggests using normal, dehydrated, or shocked categories instead of the traditional mild, moderate, or severe categories.

      Children younger than 1 year, especially those younger than 6 months, infants who were of low birth weight, and those who have passed six or more diarrhoeal stools in the past 24 hours or vomited three times or more in the past 24 hours are at an increased risk of dehydration. Infants who have stopped breastfeeding during the illness and children with signs of malnutrition are also at risk. Features suggestive of hypernatraemic dehydration include jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, convulsions, and drowsiness or coma.

      If clinical shock is suspected, children should be admitted for intravenous rehydration. For children with no evidence of dehydration, continue breastfeeding and other milk feeds, encourage fluid intake, and discourage fruit juices and carbonated drinks. If dehydration is suspected, give 50 ml/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) solution over 4 hours, plus ORS solution for maintenance, often and in small amounts. It is also important to continue breastfeeding and consider supplementing with usual fluids (including milk feeds or water, but not fruit juices or carbonated drinks). Stool culture should be done in certain situations, such as when septicaemia is suspected or there is blood and/or mucous in the stool, or when the child is immunocompromised.

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  • Question 6 - During a local measles outbreak you are contacted by a number of elderly...

    Incorrect

    • During a local measles outbreak you are contacted by a number of elderly patients who are enquiring about immunisation for themselves.

      In which of the following groups is MMR vaccine contraindicated?

      Your Answer: Egg allergy

      Correct Answer: Gelatin allergy

      Explanation:

      Contraindications and Considerations for MMR Vaccine

      Anaphylaxis to the MMR vaccine is rare, with less than 15 cases per million. The few contraindications to the vaccine include pregnancy, immunosuppression, gelatin or neomycin allergy with previous known anaphylaxis, and anaphylaxis to a previous dose of MMR. Egg allergy is not a contraindication, but some regions suggest immunizing in the secondary care setting. Breastfeeding and milk allergy are also not contraindications. Patients with pre-existing neurological conditions can receive the vaccine, but it is advised to postpone immunization if the condition is poorly controlled or progressive.

      According to the Green Book, minor illnesses without fever or systemic upset are not valid reasons to postpone immunization. However, if an individual is acutely unwell, immunization should be postponed until they have fully recovered to avoid confusing the differential diagnosis of any acute illness by wrongly attributing any signs or symptoms to the adverse effects of the vaccine. It is important to note that patients who have received the MMR vaccine in the past can receive another dose, and the risk of allergy reduces with each successive immunization. At least two doses should provide satisfactory cover, but further immunization may not be required.

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  • Question 7 - A 12-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. The parent is questioned about the child's developmental milestones.
      Which of the following is this child most likely to be able to achieve by its current age?

      Your Answer: Use a spoon and fork

      Correct Answer: Finger feed

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones for Infants: Typical Achievements by 14-21 Months

      Infants develop at different rates, but most achieve certain skills by certain ages. By 14 months, most infants can finger feed themselves. By 19 months, they can use a spoon and fork, as well as run. By 20 months, they can take off clothes with help, and by 21 months, they can walk up steps. These milestones are important markers of typical development for infants.

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  • Question 8 - During a localised outbreak of measles your practice is inundated with requests for...

    Correct

    • During a localised outbreak of measles your practice is inundated with requests for MMR vaccine from worried parents of young children.

      In which of the following age groups is MMR vaccine contraindicated?

      Your Answer: Pregnant women

      Explanation:

      Who Should Not Receive the MMR Vaccine?

      There are only a few circumstances where the MMR vaccine cannot be given. Firstly, pregnant women should not receive the vaccine. Secondly, those with a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to gelatin or neomycin should not receive the vaccine. Thirdly, those who are immunocompromised should not receive the vaccine. Lastly, those who have had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of measles, mumps or rubella-containing vaccine should not receive the vaccine.

      Breastfeeding is not a contraindication to MMR immunisation, and MMR can be given to breastfeeding mothers without any risk to the baby. While two MMR vaccinations are needed for 99% protection, there is no limit to the number of MMR vaccinations an individual can receive. The risk of adverse reactions becomes less with increasing doses of MMR. Additionally, there is no upper age limit to receiving the MMR vaccine, and a 1-year-old child could theoretically receive the vaccine.

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  • Question 9 - If a 6-year-old boy is diagnosed with absence seizures, what is the likelihood...

    Correct

    • If a 6-year-old boy is diagnosed with absence seizures, what is the likelihood that he will become seizure-free by the time he turns 17?

      Your Answer: 90-95%

      Explanation:

      Absence seizures have a favorable prognosis.

      Absence seizures, also known as petit mal, are a type of epilepsy that is commonly observed in children. This form of generalised epilepsy typically affects children between the ages of 3-10 years old, with girls being twice as likely to be affected as boys. Absence seizures are characterised by brief episodes that last only a few seconds and are followed by a quick recovery. These seizures may be triggered by hyperventilation or stress, and the child is usually unaware of the seizure. They may occur multiple times a day and are identified by a bilateral, symmetrical 3Hz spike and wave pattern on an EEG.

      The first-line treatment for absence seizures includes sodium valproate and ethosuximide. The prognosis for this condition is generally good, with 90-95% of affected individuals becoming seizure-free during adolescence.

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  • Question 10 - What is a condition that is not included in the routine immunisation schedule...

    Incorrect

    • What is a condition that is not included in the routine immunisation schedule in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Poliomyelitis

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      BCG Immunisation Programme in the UK

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a disease that has been targeted by the bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) immunisation programme in the UK since 1953. However, changes in the trends of the disease have led to modifications in the programme to focus on ‘at-risk’ populations. The Green Book, published by Public Health England, provides clear guidelines on who should receive BCG vaccination. Neonatal immunisation is now used to protect children who are most at risk of contracting TB.

      In contrast, the other conditions listed in the options are covered in the routine immunisation schedule and are offered to all.

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  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old child comes to the clinic after visiting a petting zoo about...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child comes to the clinic after visiting a petting zoo about 2 weeks ago. The child complains of watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and a low-grade fever. The mother reports that the child is still able to eat and drink normally and is urinating normally. Upon examination, the child appears pale, and the abdomen is slightly tender but soft. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli O157

      Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Explanation:

      Differentials for Gastrointestinal Illness

      Differentials for a gastrointestinal illness include Cryptosporidium, Escherichia coli O157, and S. aureus. S. aureus food poisoning, which is usually caused by dairy products, results in vomiting shortly after ingestion. On the other hand, Escherichia coli O157 usually presents with non-bloody diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting three to four days after exposure. The diarrhea may become bloody after two to three days, and only a small percentage of patients develop haemolytic uraemic syndrome. In contrast, Cryptosporidium results in a chronic watery diarrheal illness that begins around ten days after exposure.

      By understanding the different symptoms and timelines associated with these illnesses, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with gastrointestinal illnesses. It is important to note that proper hygiene and food safety practices can help prevent the spread of these illnesses.

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  • Question 12 - A 5-year-old girl presents with intermittent leg pains, which have been occurring for...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with intermittent leg pains, which have been occurring for four weeks. They occur at night and wake her from sleep. The pain is relieved when her mother rubs her legs. The girl is otherwise well and examination is normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Growing pains

      Explanation:

      Understanding Childhood Musculoskeletal Conditions: Differential Diagnosis

      Childhood musculoskeletal conditions can present with a variety of symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. One common condition is growing pains, which are episodic muscular pains that typically affect the legs and wake children from sleep. Another condition, Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), can cause joint pain, abdominal pain, and a purpuric rash on the legs and buttocks, as well as renal involvement. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia may also cause bone and joint pain, but patients usually deteriorate rapidly and become unwell. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is characterized by joint inflammation persisting for at least six weeks. Perthes’ disease, on the other hand, presents with pain in the hip and limited movement. Understanding the differences between these conditions can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 13 - A 12-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her mother, complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her mother, complaining of a rash of small red dots on both arms that has been gradually worsening over the past month. The patient reports feeling generally well, but has been experiencing increased fatigue lately. Upon examination, you note a petechial rash on both forearms and her left calf, as well as hepatomegaly and splenomegaly (3 cm and 2cm below the costal margin, respectively). What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer her for an immediate specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      The presence of a deteriorating petechial rash, fatigue, and hepatosplenomegaly indicates a possible case of leukemia in this patient. As per NICE guidelines, an urgent referral for specialist evaluation is advised. The specialist will conduct additional tests, including blood tests and bone marrow biopsy, and discuss potential hospitalization and treatment options.

      Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.

      Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.

      Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.

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  • Question 14 - A three-month-old boy presents to the clinic with a scrotal mass that his...

    Incorrect

    • A three-month-old boy presents to the clinic with a scrotal mass that his mother has noticed. Upon examination, you observe a smooth, soft swelling on the right side of the scrotum. The testicle cannot be felt separately, and the lump is contained within the scrotum. You are able to palpate above the mass, and transillumination testing is positive. What is the most suitable course of action at this stage?

      Your Answer: Watch and wait

      Correct Answer: Anti-inflammatory treatment

      Explanation:

      Hydrocoele in Infants

      A hydrocoele is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid around the testicle within the tunica vaginalis. This condition is common in infants and is usually asymptomatic. The swelling is smooth and fluctuant, and the testis cannot be felt separately. Transillumination is used to confirm the diagnosis.

      In most cases, hydrocoeles resolve spontaneously within the first year of life as the processus vaginalis gradually becomes obliterated. Therefore, watchful waiting is usually recommended, and the hydrocoele can be reviewed after the first year of life. However, if the hydrocoele persists, it can be assumed that the processus vaginalis will not close spontaneously, and surgical referral is necessary.

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  • Question 15 - At what age would the typical toddler begin to wave goodbye? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age would the typical toddler begin to wave goodbye?

      Your Answer: 9 months

      Correct Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones in Social Behaviour, Feeding, Dressing, and Play

      Developmental milestones are important markers in a child’s growth and development. In terms of social behaviour and play, there are several milestones that parents and caregivers can look out for. At six weeks, a baby may start to smile, which develops into laughter by three months. At six months, they become less shy, but by nine months, they may exhibit shyness. Additionally, babies at this age tend to put everything in their mouths.

      In terms of feeding, a six-month-old may start to put their hand on the bottle while being fed. By 12-15 months, they can drink from a cup and use a spoon, which develops over a three-month period. At two years, they become competent with a spoon and don’t spill with a cup, and by three years, they can use a spoon and fork. Finally, at five years, they can use a knife and fork.

      When it comes to dressing, a child may start to help with getting dressed and undressed at 12-15 months. By 18 months, they can take off shoes and hats but may not be able to replace them. At two years, they can put on hats and shoes, and by four years, they can dress and undress independently, except for laces and buttons.

      Lastly, in terms of play, a nine-month-old may start to play peek-a-boo and wave bye-bye. By 12 months, they may play pat-a-cake, and at 18 months, they can play contentedly alone. At two years, they may play near others but not necessarily with them, and by four years, they can play with other children. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s development and ensure they are meeting age-appropriate goals.

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  • Question 16 - A 10-year-old boy is brought in by his father. He has been complaining...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought in by his father. He has been complaining of hip pain and he is concerned because he has started to limp over the past five weeks. He is otherwise fit and well. Although he regularly plays football with his friends, there is no history of trauma.

      On examination, he is limping a little but is able to weight bear. He appears plump but there is no anaemia or lymphadenopathy. There is no fever. Examination of the knee is normal but you think that the affected leg is shortened and externally rotated a little.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perthes disease

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Epiphysis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Slipped upper epiphysis is a condition that commonly affects overweight boys aged 10-15 and is associated with obesity and hypothyroidism. Patients often present with pain, which may be referred to the knee, and a thorough examination of the hips is necessary. Reduced range of movement of abduction and internal rotation, leg shortening, and external rotation with hip flexion are key findings that support the diagnosis.

      Slipped epiphysis can be classified as acute, chronic, or acute on chronic, and as unstable or stable. Unstable cases require urgent surgical repair due to the risk of avascular necrosis, while stable cases are usually treated with in situ screw fixation. Prophylactic fixation of the contralateral hip may also be considered.

      If the slipped epiphysis is chronic and stable, an x-ray is the first line investigation, but U&Es, serum TFTs, and serum growth hormone may also be considered. Perthes disease, trochanteric bursitis, and osteomyelitis are differential diagnoses that should be considered. Perthes disease typically affects a younger age group, while trochanteric bursitis is more common in older adults. Osteomyelitis may present with pain, fever, inflammation, and acute tenderness, but a bone scan or MRI may be necessary for diagnosis.

      In summary, slipped upper epiphysis is a condition that requires careful examination and diagnosis. Treatment depends on the classification of the condition and may involve surgical repair or in situ screw fixation. Differential diagnoses should also be considered to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 17 - A mother of an 8-year-old boy is worried that her son might have...

    Incorrect

    • A mother of an 8-year-old boy is worried that her son might have developed an egg allergy. The child is experiencing abdominal pain, constipation, and atopic eczema/erythema. What is the most appropriate test to explore the likelihood of a food allergy?

      Your Answer: Skin prick test

      Correct Answer: Elimination diet

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to try eliminating egg as the symptoms indicate a non-IgE-mediated food allergy.

      Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.

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  • Question 18 - Which statement about childhood vaccination is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about childhood vaccination is accurate?

      Your Answer: Children with stable neurological disorders should be immunised as per schedule

      Explanation:

      Important Information about Vaccinations

      Vaccinations are an essential part of maintaining good health and preventing the spread of diseases. The MMR vaccine, for example, should be given twice – once at around 1 year and then repeated as a Preschool booster – to improve immune response. On the other hand, live polio vaccination has been replaced by an injectable inactive polio vaccine.

      It is crucial to maintain the cold chain for vaccines, as they can be damaged by freezing. Additionally, while vaccinations can be given to pregnant women on occasion, live vaccines are contraindicated. It is also important to note that children with stable neurological conditions like spina bifida should be vaccinated as per schedule.

      Overall, vaccinations are a vital tool in protecting ourselves and our communities from the spread of diseases. By following the recommended vaccination schedule and guidelines, we can ensure that we are doing our part in promoting good health and preventing the spread of illnesses.

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  • Question 19 - A 5-year-old girl has a history of constipation and is diagnosed with faecal...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl has a history of constipation and is diagnosed with faecal impaction. Despite receiving lactulose therapy, there has been no improvement. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Sodium citrate enema (Microlax)

      Correct Answer: Macrogol

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for faecal impaction and loading is macrogols.

      Understanding Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.

      After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.

      In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.

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  • Question 20 - A 16-year-old girl is seen with a two to three month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is seen with a two to three month history of poor sleep, tiredness, reduced appetite and weight loss. She reports low mood and anxiety worse on waking in the mornings.

      She has a history of self harm and you can see evidence of recent deliberate self harm with several superficial cuts to her forearms. She admits to recent suicidal thoughts but has not acted on these and has no acute suicidal intent. She has no psychotic symptoms.

      Following your assessment you make a diagnosis of moderate depression.

      What is the most appropriate approach in this instance?

      Your Answer: Refer for intensive psychological therapy

      Correct Answer: Continue with watchful waiting as no specific intervention is appropriate at this stage

      Explanation:

      Managing Depression in Children: A Tiered Approach

      In managing moderate to severe depression in children, the first step is to refer them for assessment to tier 2-3 CAMHS. The three tiers of CAMHS cover practitioners who are not mental health specialists and work in universal services (Tier 1), CAMHS specialists working in community and primary care (Tier 2), and multidisciplinary teams delivering specialist services in community mental health clinics (Tier 3).

      For mild depression, Tier 1 management is sufficient. However, for moderate to severe depression, specific psychological therapy in the form of individual CBT, interpersonal therapy, or shorter-term family therapy is the first-line treatment. If the depression is unresponsive to psychological therapy after four to six sessions, a multidisciplinary review should be conducted, and alternative or additional psychological therapies and medication should be considered.

      In summary, managing depression in children requires a tiered approach that involves referral to the appropriate CAMHS tier and the use of specific psychological therapies. It is essential to monitor the child’s response to treatment and adjust the management plan accordingly.

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  • Question 21 - Jane, age 14, comes to morning surgery requesting the contraceptive pill. She looks...

    Incorrect

    • Jane, age 14, comes to morning surgery requesting the contraceptive pill. She looks a lot older than her age. You have to decide whether to prescribe or not.

      The Sexual Offences Act 2003 considers children under what age as too young to give consent to sexual activity?

      Your Answer: Under 16 years

      Correct Answer: Under 13 years

      Explanation:

      Child Protection and Sexual Offences

      The Sexual Offences Act 2003 states that children under the age of 13 are not capable of giving consent to sexual activity. Any sexual offence involving a child under 13 should be treated with utmost seriousness. Health professionals should consider referring such cases to social services under the Child Protection Procedures. It is advisable to seek advice from designated child protection professionals in the first instance.

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  • Question 22 - You see a 12-year-old boy with an unusual pattern of bruising on his...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 12-year-old boy with an unusual pattern of bruising on his back. He is accompanied by his older sister who is aged 20, as the mother is unwell. The boy says he fell awkwardly while at school.

      After the consultation, the older sibling tells the boy to wait in the waiting room and then tells you that she thinks that her mother is hitting the boy. She asks you not to say anything as she doesn't want to get her mother into trouble.

      How would you manage this situation?

      Your Answer: You should refer the case to the child protection lead

      Correct Answer: You should refer the child to a haematologist to investigate the bruising

      Explanation:

      Responding to Suspected Child Abuse in a Medical Setting

      When presented with possible cases of child abuse, it is our duty to be vigilant and take action. If a child discloses abuse to you in a medical setting, it is important to respond appropriately. The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has produced a toolkit to assist practices in managing suspected cases of abuse.

      If a child discloses abuse to you, it is important to stay calm and listen actively to what they are saying. Find an appropriate opportunity to explain that the information will likely need to be shared with others and avoid promising to keep secrets. Allow the child to continue at their own pace and ask only clarifying questions, avoiding leading questions.

      Reassure the child that they have done the right thing by telling you and explain what you will do next and with whom the information will be shared. It is important to record what has been said in writing, using the child’s own words as much as possible, and noting the date, time, any names mentioned, and to whom the information was given. Do not delay passing this information on.

      In summary, responding to suspected child abuse in a medical setting requires active listening, appropriate communication, and prompt action.

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  • Question 23 - A mother brings her 4-year-old child in to receive the DTP booster. Which...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old child in to receive the DTP booster. Which one of the following would make it inappropriate to give the vaccination today?

      Your Answer: Recent onset of a seizure disorder currently being investigated

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Safe Immunisation

      Immunisation is an important aspect of public health, and the Department of Health has published guidelines to ensure its safe administration. The guidelines, titled ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’, outline general contraindications to immunisation, situations where vaccines should be delayed, and specific contraindications to live vaccines.

      General contraindications include confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or to another component in the relevant vaccine, such as egg protein. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection.

      Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression. In the case of the DTP vaccine, vaccination should be deferred in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition.

      However, there are several situations where immunisation is not contraindicated. These include asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), being breastfed, a previous history of natural infection with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella, a history of neonatal jaundice, a family history of autism, neurological conditions such as Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids.

      Overall, these guidelines aim to ensure the safe administration of vaccines and protect individuals from infectious diseases.

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  • Question 24 - A 3-year-old child is brought to see you by their parents. They report...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is brought to see you by their parents. They report that for the last couple of days the child has been unwell with a runny nose and 'wheezy cough'. There is no history of apnoea.

      The child was born at 37 weeks via a normal vaginal delivery. There is no significant antenatal or postnatal history. The parents tell you that this is the first time the child has been significantly unwell.

      The child usually eats well but over the last two days has been eating less and becoming breathless during meals. Despite the reduced amounts taken per meal, the child is maintaining their eating frequency.

      On examination, the child looks comfortable at rest. Temperature is recorded as 37.9°C. There is no respiratory distress and no nasal flaring or grunting. Respiratory rate is 38/minute. Auscultation of the chest reveals fine inspiratory crackles and a slight high pitched wheeze heard throughout both lung fields. Oxygen saturations are 96% in room air.

      Which of the following factors in this case should prompt acute hospital admission for paediatric assessment?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate

      Correct Answer: Oxygen saturations

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis in Infants: When to Seek Hospital Admission

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in infants that can range from mild to severe. While most cases can be managed at home, severe cases may require hospital admission. It is important to be aware of the signs that indicate more severe disease and prompt immediate hospitalization. These signs include reduced feeding, lethargy, history of apnoea, respiratory rate over 60 breaths per minute, respiratory distress, cyanosis, and oxygen saturations of 95% or less.

      It is especially important to seek medical attention for infants under 3 months of age and those born at less than 35 weeks gestation, as the threshold for admission should be lowered for these vulnerable populations.

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  • Question 25 - At what age would a typical child develop a vocabulary of 200 words?...

    Incorrect

    • At what age would a typical child develop a vocabulary of 200 words?

      Your Answer: 3 ½ years

      Correct Answer: 2 ½ years

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones in Speech and Hearing

      As children grow and develop, they reach various milestones in their speech and hearing abilities. These milestones are important indicators of a child’s progress and can help parents and caregivers identify any potential issues early on.

      At three months old, a baby will begin to quieten down when they hear their parents’ voices and turn towards sounds. They may also start to make high-pitched squeals. By six months, they will begin to produce double syllables such as adah and erleh.

      At nine months, a baby will typically say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they will know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.

      Between 12 and 15 months, a baby will know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they will be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. They will also have a vocabulary of around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old.

      At three years old, a child will begin to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They will also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they will start asking why, when, and how questions.

      Overall, these milestones provide a helpful guide for parents and caregivers to track a child’s speech and hearing development. If there are any concerns, it is important to seek advice from a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 26 - A three-year-old is brought to see you by his father. The father describes...

    Incorrect

    • A three-year-old is brought to see you by his father. The father describes how this morning his son 'blacked out'.
      On further questioning, the child was having a tantrum and started crying, he then seemed to turn blue and collapsed. Dad reports that after the collapse the child seemed to stiffen briefly but then recovered quickly. The child was well before the incident and has been well since.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reflex anoxic seizure

      Correct Answer: Breath holding attack

      Explanation:

      Breath Holding Attacks and Reflex Anoxic Seizures in Toddlers

      Breath holding attacks and reflex anoxic seizures are two types of episodes that can occur in toddlers. Breath holding attacks are triggered by upset and can start as early as six months of age, with a peak incidence at two years and typically stopping by five years of age. During a breath holding attack, the child cries, holds their breath, and becomes cyanosed, which can sometimes lead to loss of consciousness and stiffening. However, rapid recovery is common, and no treatment is required.

      On the other hand, reflex anoxic seizures are triggered by pain or discomfort, such as minor head trauma, cold food, or fright. After the trigger, the child becomes pale and falls to the floor, which can induce a seizure due to hypoxia resulting from cardiac asystole from vagal inhibition. These episodes are characterized by the pallor typically seen in reflex anoxic seizures.

      It is important to note that breath holding attacks can be confused with other options, especially when the child stiffens or progresses to a seizure. However, understanding the differences between these two types of episodes can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate care and reassurance to the child.

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  • Question 27 - A mother has noticed that her 2-year-old daughter takes little interest in other...

    Incorrect

    • A mother has noticed that her 2-year-old daughter takes little interest in other children. She comes to clinic concerned the child may have autism.
      Which of the following features is most suggestive of a diagnosis of autistic spectrum disorder in a child of this age?

      Your Answer: Not yet walking

      Correct Answer: Lack of gestures (eg pointing, waving goodbye)

      Explanation:

      Identifying Early Signs of Autism Spectrum Disorder

      Autism spectrum disorder is a complex developmental condition that affects social interactions and restricts interests. Early identification is crucial for effective intervention. Here are some important indicators that should lead to further evaluation in a young child:

      – Lack of gestures (e.g. pointing, waving goodbye) by 12 months
      – No use of single words by 16 months
      – No use of two-word phrases by 24 months
      – Regression of language or social skills at any time
      – Reduced or missing ‘make-believe’ play

      It’s important to note that not all children with autism will display these signs, and some may develop typically before showing symptoms. However, if you have concerns about your child’s development, it’s always best to seek professional advice.

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  • Question 28 - A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since yesterday she has been taking reduced feeds and has been 'not her usual self'. On examination the baby appears well but has a low-grade temperature of 38.2ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      If a child is under 3 months old and has a temperature above 38ºC, it is considered a ‘red’ characteristic in the updated NICE guidelines, necessitating immediate referral to a pediatrician.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

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  • Question 29 - A 7-year-old girl has recently been seen by the dermatologists.
    She had some scalp...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl has recently been seen by the dermatologists.
      She had some scalp scrapings and hair samples sent to the laboratory for analysis following a clinical diagnosis of tinea capitis. The laboratory results confirmed the diagnosis of tinea capitis and the dermatologists faxed through a letter asking you to prescribe griseofulvin suspension at a dose of 12 mg/kg once daily.
      The child weighs 20 kg. Griseofulvin suspension is dispensed at a concentration of 125 mg/5 ml.
      What is the correct dosage of griseofulvin in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 9 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Griseofulvin Dosage

      When calculating the dosage of Griseofulvin for a patient, it is important to consider their weight and the recommended dose per kilogram. For example, if a patient weighs 15 kg and the recommended dose is 15 mg/kg OD, then the total dosage would be 225 mg.

      Griseofulvin is available in a concentration of 125 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 25 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, divide the total dosage (225 mg) by the concentration (25 mg/ml), which equals 9 ml. Therefore, the correct dosage for this patient would be 9 ml OD. It is important to carefully calculate and administer the correct dosage to ensure the patient receives the appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 30 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner for a consultation. The...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner for a consultation. The child's mother is worried about the appearance of her infant’s face. The back of the head appears flattened and the right side of the head appears pushed forward relative to the left side. The mother thinks the shape of the skull was normal at birth.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Positional plagiocephaly

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Craniofacial Abnormalities: Causes and Characteristics

      Craniofacial abnormalities in infants and children can arise from a variety of causes, ranging from positional factors to genetic syndromes. Here are some common types of abnormalities and their characteristics:

      Positional Plagiocephaly: This occurs when a baby’s head becomes flattened on one side due to sleeping in the same position or pressure in the uterus. It can cause asymmetry in the head shape, such as misaligned ears and a parallelogram-like appearance.

      Facial Nerve Palsy: While rare, facial palsy in infants can occur due to congenital factors or birth trauma. It may also develop during childhood, such as with Bell’s palsy.

      Congenital Torticollis: This is a muscular condition in which one or more neck muscles are extremely tight, causing the head to tilt and the chin to point in the opposite direction. It can lead to the development of plagiocephaly.

      Craniosynostosis: This occurs when one or more fibro sutures in the skull prematurely fuse, changing the growth pattern and resulting in an abnormal head shape and facial features. Surgery is often necessary.

      Frontal Bossing: This is an unusually prominent forehead, sometimes associated with heavy brow ridges. It can be caused by conditions such as thalassaemia major and sickle cell anaemia, as well as rare syndromes like Russell-Silver dwarfism and Hurler syndrome.

      Understanding these craniofacial abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and address them early on for optimal treatment and outcomes.

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  • Question 31 - The parents of a 6-month-old baby have brought their child to see you...

    Correct

    • The parents of a 6-month-old baby have brought their child to see you due to ongoing problems with reflux.

      The baby has been seen in paediatric outpatients and was started on ranitidine. You can see from the clinic letters that this was started at an initial dose of 1 mg/kg three times a day but to achieve symptom control it has been titrated to 3 mg/kg TDS. The higher dose seems to be controlling symptoms well.

      The paediatricians have asked you to continue to prescribe the ranitidine at a dose of 3 mg/kg until they review the child again in four weeks time.

      You weigh the child today and the current weight is 6 kg. Ranitidine oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml.

      What is the correct dosage in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 1 ml TDS

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Ranitidine Dose for a 5 kg Child

      When administering medication to a child, it is important to calculate the correct dosage based on their weight. In this case, the child weighs 5 kg and the prescribed dose of ranitidine is 3 mg/kg TDS. To calculate the correct dose, we multiply the child’s weight by the prescribed dose: 5 x 3 = 15 mg TDS.

      The oral solution of ranitidine is available in a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml. This means that there is 15 mg of ranitidine in 1 ml of the solution. Therefore, the correct dose for the child is 1 ml TDS.

      It is important to ensure that the correct dosage is administered to avoid any potential adverse effects or ineffective treatment. By following the appropriate calculations and using the correct concentration of medication, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective treatment for their patients.

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  • Question 32 - A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is...

    Incorrect

    • A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is worried about a lump in his neck.

      Which of the following characteristics would worry you the most and would warrant an urgent referral?

      Your Answer: Tender cervical lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Firm, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      When to Worry About Lymph Node Enlargement in Children

      Lymphadenopathy, or lymph node enlargement, is a common occurrence in children. In most cases, it is benign and resolves on its own. However, there are certain characteristics that warrant urgent referral to a healthcare provider. These include non-tender, firm or hard lymph nodes, nodes larger than 2 cm, progressively enlarging nodes, general ill-health, fever or weight loss, involvement of axillary nodes (in the absence of local infection or dermatitis), or involvement of supraclavicular nodes.

      It is important to note that these characteristics are particularly concerning if there is no evidence of local infection.

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  • Question 33 - You are treating a group of teenagers for head lice after a live...

    Correct

    • You are treating a group of teenagers for head lice after a live head louse is found in one of them. You are giving some general advice. Which of the following is appropriate advice to give?

      Your Answer: Children who are being treated for head lice can still attend school

      Explanation:

      Understanding Head Lice: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Head lice, also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’, is a common condition in children caused by a parasitic insect called Pediculus capitis. These small insects live only on humans and feed on our blood. The eggs, which are grey or brown and about the size of a pinhead, are glued to the hair close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits, on the other hand, are the empty egg shells and are white and shiny. They are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.

      Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and tend to be more common in children who play closely together. It is important to note that head lice cannot jump, fly, or swim. When newly infected, cases have no symptoms, but itching and scratching on the scalp occur 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.

      To diagnose head lice, fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair is necessary. Treatment is only indicated if living lice are found. A choice of treatments should be offered, including malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, and cyclomethicone. Household contacts of patients with head lice do not need to be treated unless they are also affected. It is important to note that school exclusion is not advised for children with head lice.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of head lice is crucial in preventing its spread. By taking the necessary precautions and seeking appropriate treatment, we can effectively manage this common condition.

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  • Question 34 - You see a 3-year-old girl who you suspect has asthma. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 3-year-old girl who you suspect has asthma. She has a moderate response to an inhaled short-acting beta-2-agonist (SABA) but you are planning to trial an inhaled corticosteroid to see if her control can be improved.

      How long should a trial of inhaled corticosteroid be for a child under three years of age with suspected asthma?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Correct Answer: 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Children Under Five with Suspected Asthma

      For children under the age of five with suspected asthma, NICE recommends an eight week trial of a moderate dose of inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) if there are symptoms that clearly indicate the need for maintenance therapy. These symptoms include occurring three times a week or more, causing waking at night, or being uncontrolled with a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) alone.

      After the eight week trial, the ICS treatment should be stopped and the child’s symptoms monitored. If the symptoms did not resolve during the trial period, an alternative diagnosis should be considered. If the symptoms resolved but reoccurred within four weeks of stopping the ICS treatment, the ICS should be restarted at a low dose as first-line maintenance therapy. If the symptoms resolved but reoccurred beyond four weeks after stopping the ICS treatment, another eight week trial of a moderate dose of ICS should be repeated.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure proper management of asthma in young children.

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  • Question 35 - A 12-year-old boy is diagnosed with haemophilia A after being evaluated for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is diagnosed with haemophilia A after being evaluated for a haemarthrosis. Among his family members, who is the most probable to have the same condition?

      Your Answer: Mother

      Correct Answer: Mother's brother

      Explanation:

      The answer is mother’s brother, as X-linked recessive conditions are exclusive to males and do not transmit from male to male.

      X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.

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  • Question 36 - Which one of the following statements regarding vaginal problems in adolescents is incorrect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding vaginal problems in adolescents is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Sexual abuse may occasionally present as vulvovaginitis

      Correct Answer: Vaginal swabs should be taken by the GP to guide treatment

      Explanation:

      Gynaecological Problems in Children: Vulvovaginitis

      In children, gynaecological problems are not uncommon, and vulvovaginitis is the most prevalent disorder. This condition is often caused by poor hygiene, tight clothing, lack of labial fat pads protecting the vaginal orifice, and lack of protective acid secretion found in the reproductive years. Bacterial or fungal organisms may be responsible for the infection, and in rare cases, sexual abuse may present as vulvovaginitis. If there is a bloody discharge, it is essential to consider a foreign body.

      It is not recommended to perform vaginal examinations or vaginal swabs on children. Instead, referral to a paediatric gynaecologist is appropriate for persistent problems. Most newborn girls have some mucoid white vaginal discharge, which usually disappears by three months of age.

      The management of vulvovaginitis includes advising the child about hygiene, using soothing creams, and applying topical antibiotics or antifungals. In resistant cases, oestrogen cream may be necessary. It is crucial to seek medical attention if the symptoms persist or worsen.

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  • Question 37 - A two-year-old girl is presented to the clinic by her mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A two-year-old girl is presented to the clinic by her mother due to complaints of abdominal pain for the past two weeks. She has also been experiencing a decreased appetite and difficulty with bowel movements. During the physical examination, a lump is palpable on the right side of her abdomen, although her abdomen is soft and non-tender.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral for an urgent ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Very urgent referral to paediatrics

      Explanation:

      If a child has a noticeable mass in their abdomen or an unexplained enlargement of an abdominal organ, it is crucial to refer them for specialist assessment for neuroblastoma and Wilms’ tumour within 48 hours. This referral should be made urgently and not delayed by arranging imaging through general practice. Prescribing Movicol or Nitrofurantoin would not be appropriate as they do not address the underlying issue. Any child with a palpable abdominal mass should be referred to paediatrics for review as soon as possible.

      Understanding Neuroblastoma in Children

      Neuroblastoma is a type of cancer that affects children and is responsible for 7-8% of childhood malignancies. It develops from neural crest tissue found in the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system. Typically, the disease is diagnosed in children around 20 months old and presents with a range of symptoms, including abdominal mass, weight loss, bone pain, and hepatomegaly. In some cases, paraplegia and proptosis may also occur.

      To diagnose neuroblastoma, doctors will typically look for raised levels of urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA). Additionally, calcification may be visible on an abdominal x-ray, and a biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Overall, neuroblastoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. By understanding the symptoms and diagnostic process, parents and caregivers can work with healthcare providers to ensure that children receive the best possible care.

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  • Question 38 - A 6-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner for a consultation. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner for a consultation. The infant was born at home in the presence of a midwife. The midwife is concerned about the appearance of the feet of the infant. Both feet are involved and appear turned inwards and downwards.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Metatarsus adductus

      Correct Answer: Talipes equinovarus

      Explanation:

      Talipes equinovarus, also known as clubfoot, is a common birth defect that affects about 1 in every 1000 live births. It is characterized by a foot that points downwards at the ankle, with the midfoot deviating towards the midline and the first metatarsal pointing downwards. In most cases, it is a positional deformity that can be corrected with gentle passive dorsiflexion of the foot. However, in some cases, it is a fixed congenital deformity that may be associated with neuromuscular abnormalities such as cerebral palsy, spina bifida, or arthrogryposis. Treatment options depend on the degree of rigidity, associated abnormalities, and secondary muscular changes, and may involve conservative measures such as immobilization and manipulation or surgical correction.

      Genu valgum, or knock-knee, is a condition in which the knees angle in and touch each other when the legs are straightened. It is commonly seen in children between the ages of 2 and 5 and often resolves naturally as the child grows.

      Cerebral palsy is a neuromuscular abnormality that is only rarely associated with the presentation of talipes equinovarus.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hips is a condition that affects the hips and should not affect the appearance of the feet. While there have been reports of an association between idiopathic congenital talipes equinovarus and developmental dysplasia of the hip, this link remains uncertain.

      Metatarsus adductus, or pigeon-toed, is a congenital foot deformity in which the forefoot points inwards, forming a C shape. It has a similar incidence rate to clubfoot.

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  • Question 39 - You are seeing a 6-year-old male with no significant medical history who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 6-year-old male with no significant medical history who has presented with lower abdominal pain and urinary frequency.

      Urine dipstick testing is positive for nitrites and shows 2+ leucocytes. He has a low grade fever but doesn't require hospital admission. You decide to treat him with a course of trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection.

      He weighs 22 kilograms and trimethoprim should be prescribed at a dose of 4 mg/kg (maximum 200 mg) twice daily. Trimethoprim suspension is dispensed at a concentration of 50 mg/5 ml.

      What is the correct dosage in millilitres to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: 8 ml OD

      Correct Answer: 8 ml BD

      Explanation:

      Calculating the Correct Dose of Trimethoprim for a Child

      When administering medication to a child, it is important to calculate the correct dose based on their weight. In this case, the child weighs 20 kg and requires a dose of 4 mg/kg of trimethoprim twice daily. This equates to a total daily dose of 80 mg.

      The trimethoprim solution available is 50 mg/5 ml, which can be simplified to 10 mg in 1 ml. To calculate the correct dose, we need to determine how many milliliters of the solution contain 80 mg of trimethoprim.

      By dividing 80 mg by 10 mg/ml, we get a total of 8 ml. Therefore, the child should take 8 ml of the trimethoprim solution twice daily to receive the correct dose. It is important to always double-check calculations and measurements to ensure the safety and effectiveness of medication administration.

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  • Question 40 - A 12-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis comes to the clinic with abrupt onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis comes to the clinic with abrupt onset of intense pleuritic chest pain. There is no record of hemoptysis. During the examination, he has a normal body temperature but an elevated respiratory rate and reports sharp chest pain with every inhalation. The pain is localized to the right side of his chest. Auscultation reveals breath sounds on both sides. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Costochondritis

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Pneumothorax in Children with Cystic Fibrosis

      Pneumothorax is a known complication of cystic fibrosis, and sudden onset of severe pleuritic chest pain is a common symptom. However, only large pneumothoraces give the classic reduced breath sounds and hyperresonant percussion note. Children with congenital lung disease like cystic fibrosis may develop small pneumothoraces, which can be difficult to diagnose due to airflow limitation.

      If a child with cystic fibrosis presents with sudden onset of severe pleuritic chest pain, they should be referred to the hospital for a chest X-ray to confirm the diagnosis and assess the need for drainage. Pneumothoraces can also occur due to chest trauma or pneumonia infection.

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  • Question 41 - A 16-year-old female patient is being treated by the paediatric team for obesity...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female patient is being treated by the paediatric team for obesity and has also been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The team has decided to include orlistat in her management plan for weight loss, which the patient has agreed to. The dietician has suggested some dietary supplements. What specific nutrients should be monitored to prevent deficiencies in this patient?

      Your Answer: Vitamins A, D, E and K

      Explanation:

      In rare cases, Orlistat may be prescribed to children who have co-existing medical conditions such as type 2 diabetes, but only under the supervision of a specialist pediatric team and not in primary care. Orlistat works by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase, which reduces fat absorption from the gut. To avoid unpleasant side effects, patients must adhere to a low-fat diet. Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K is a significant concern, and all nutrients, including calcium for bone health, should be considered.

      Understanding Obesity in Children

      Childhood obesity is a complex issue that requires careful assessment. Unlike adults, defining obesity in children is challenging as body mass index (BMI) varies with age. To make an accurate assessment, BMI percentile charts are needed. According to recent NICE guidelines, the ‘UK 1990 BMI charts’ should be used to provide age- and gender-specific information.

      NICE recommends tailored clinical intervention if BMI is at the 91st centile or above. If BMI is at the 98th centile or above, assessing for comorbidities is necessary. Lifestyle factors are the most common cause of obesity in childhood. However, other associations of obesity in children include being Asian, female, and taller than average.

      There are several medical conditions that can cause obesity in children, such as growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, Down’s syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Obesity in children can lead to various consequences, including orthopaedic problems, psychological consequences, sleep apnoea, benign intracranial hypertension, and long-term consequences such as an increased incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and ischaemic heart disease.

      In conclusion, understanding obesity in children requires careful assessment and consideration of various factors. Early intervention and management can prevent long-term consequences and improve the overall health and well-being of children.

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  • Question 42 - A 4-year-old girl presents as febrile. On examination, there are no focal symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presents as febrile. On examination, there are no focal symptoms to suggest the site of an infection.
      According to NICE guidelines, which of the following is most appropriate in regards for the need for urgent admission to hospital?

      Your Answer: Decreased activity

      Correct Answer: Continuous cry

      Explanation:

      Assessing Febrile Children: Understanding Risk Signs

      When assessing a febrile child, it is important to understand the different risk signs and their implications. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, a continuous cry or a weak/high-pitched cry is a red, high-risk sign. On the other hand, a drowsy child who awakens quickly is a green, low-risk sign, while a child who requires prolonged stimulation to wake up is an amber, intermediate-risk sign. Similarly, decreased activity and partial response to social cues are also amber signs. It is important to provide parents and/or carers with a safety net or refer to a specialist for further assessment in such cases. Failure to respond at all to social cues or appearing ill enough to worry the doctor are red, high-risk signs that may require hospital admission. Understanding these risk signs can help healthcare providers make informed decisions and provide appropriate care for febrile children.

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  • Question 43 - A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the thigh and a shorter leg.

      Possible diagnoses include which of the following?

      Your Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that primarily affects boys aged 10 to 15. It occurs when the upper femoral epiphysis slips in a posterior inferior direction with respect to the femur. The exact cause of this condition is unclear, but it has been suggested that hormonal or calcification abnormalities may play a role. Obese children with delayed secondary sexual development or tall thin boys are particularly susceptible.

      Symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include rest pain, limp, pain on movement, reduced range of abduction and internal rotation, and an externally rotated and shortened affected leg. It is important to note that musculoskeletal disease doesn’t typically present with a shortened leg.

      Other conditions that may be mistaken for slipped upper femoral epiphysis include Perthes’ disease, Osgood-Schlatter syndrome, and chondromalacia patellae. Perthes’ disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head in childhood, while Osgood-Schlatter syndrome is an overuse syndrome associated with physical exertion before skeletal maturity. Chondromalacia patellae is softening of the articular cartilage of the patella usually caused by indirect trauma.

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  • Question 44 - You receive a call from the mother of a 2-year-old boy who has...

    Correct

    • You receive a call from the mother of a 2-year-old boy who has been suffering from a suspected viral upper respiratory tract infection for the past few days. The mother reports that the child has just had a seizure, and three months ago, he had a confirmed febrile convulsion after a similar illness. You schedule an appointment to see the child that morning. What factor should indicate the need for referral to paediatrics?

      Your Answer: The child still being drowsy 2 hours after the seizure

      Explanation:

      If a child remains drowsy for more than an hour, it is unlikely that they are experiencing a ‘simple’ febrile convulsion. A tonic-clonic seizure is a common occurrence and should not cause concern. Additionally, the presence of a confirmed infection focus, such as otitis media, should provide reassurance rather than necessitating hospitalization.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ºC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

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  • Question 45 - Which one of the following conditions is NOT an autosomal recessive condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following conditions is NOT an autosomal recessive condition?

      Your Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Exceptions aside, metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, while structural conditions are usually inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. However, it should be noted that hereditary spherocytosis is an example of a condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.

      Autosomal recessive conditions are often referred to as metabolic conditions, while autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural. However, there are notable exceptions to this rule. For example, some metabolic conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD are X-linked recessive, while some structural conditions like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia are autosomal recessive.

      Autosomal recessive conditions occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. Some examples of autosomal recessive conditions include albinism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and Wilson’s disease. These conditions can affect various systems in the body, including metabolism, blood, and the nervous system. It is important to note that some conditions, such as Gilbert’s syndrome, are still a matter of debate and may be listed as autosomal dominant in some textbooks.

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  • Question 46 - A mother is worried because her 2-year-old girl was exposed to measles two...

    Correct

    • A mother is worried because her 2-year-old girl was exposed to measles two days ago.

      Which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Immunisation with the live attenuated virus is advised within 72 hours to confer protection

      Explanation:

      Measles Treatment and Complications

      If a person has been exposed to measles within the past 72 hours, the measles vaccine is the preferred treatment option. This vaccine can provide lifelong immunity, although it is not 100% effective in preventing the disease. If the vaccine is not an option, immune globulin can be given within six days of exposure.

      Complications from measles are common, with one-third of those infected experiencing issues such as pneumonia, otitis media, and diarrhea. However, the most serious complication is the development of subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis.

      Measles typically begins with coryzal symptoms, followed by the appearance of a rash several days later.

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  • Question 47 - You see a 14-month-old boy in your clinic. He was seen by your...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 14-month-old boy in your clinic. He was seen by your colleague four days ago for fever, rhinitis and a cough. At that point, it was felt to be a viral upper respiratory tract infection. Today, his mother reports that his temperature has increased to 39.5c and the cough worsened. A new erythematous rash has appeared on his chest. On examination, you note some pale lesions on his oral mucosa.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST likely diagnosis? Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Measles

      Correct Answer: Scarlet fever

      Explanation:

      Measles Presentation and Importance of Vaccination History

      Measles typically begins with a prodromal phase that includes symptoms such as conjunctivitis, rhinitis, cough, and fever. By day four to five, an erythematous maculopapular rash appears, starting on the head and spreading to the trunk and limbs. The rash can become confluent as it progresses. Koplik spots, which are pathognomonic for measles, may appear before the rash.

      It is crucial to obtain a vaccination history and check the oral mucosa when evaluating a patient with suspected measles. Additionally, good safety-netting is essential to ensure appropriate follow-up and management. By being aware of the typical presentation of measles and the importance of vaccination, healthcare providers can help prevent the spread of this highly contagious disease.

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  • Question 48 - Rohan is a 9-month-old baby who is brought in by his dad. He...

    Correct

    • Rohan is a 9-month-old baby who is brought in by his dad. He has developed an eczema type rash on his body and has more loose stools. His dad noticed these changes after he started weaning. Prior to this he was exclusively breastfed. On examination he is well, except for mild eczema. You suspect a diagnosis of cow's milk protein allergy.

      Which of the following milks could Rohan also be intolerant of?

      Your Answer: Soya milk

      Explanation:

      Babies with cow’s milk protein allergy may also have an intolerance to soya milk. The primary milk alternatives used for such babies are extensively hydrolysed formula and alpha amino acid formula. Oat and almond milk are not advised for babies with this allergy, although there is no evidence of any adverse reactions to them.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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  • Question 49 - A 4-year-old child presents with a six day history of fever, coryzal symptoms,...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child presents with a six day history of fever, coryzal symptoms, cough and red watery eyes. Yesterday a red maculopapular rash appeared around the ears and face.

      On examination, in the mouth there are tiny white spots on an erythematous base, opposite the premolars on the buccal mucosa.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Correct Answer: Varicella

      Explanation:

      Measles vs Rubella: Understanding the Differences

      Measles and rubella are two viral infections that can cause similar symptoms, but they have some key differences. Measles is typically more severe and can have serious consequences, while rubella is usually milder and may go unnoticed in some individuals.

      In the case of measles, the illness usually starts with a prodromal phase that includes fever, dry cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis. After a few days, tiny white spots called Koplik’s spots appear on the buccal mucosa, followed by a rash that spreads downwards from the face and behind the ears.

      On the other hand, rubella tends to be shorter in duration and milder in symptoms. It may not even be noticed in some individuals. However, if a pregnant woman contracts rubella, it can pose a serious risk to the developing fetus.

      Understanding the differences between these two viral infections is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 50 - The practice health visitor informs you that a mother of a 6-month-old baby...

    Incorrect

    • The practice health visitor informs you that a mother of a 6-month-old baby is coming to seek advice. The mother was diagnosed with Hepatitis B during pregnancy, and the baby received a vaccination before being discharged. What is the recommended Hepatitis B vaccine schedule for the baby?

      Your Answer: Two further injections at 6 months and 12 months

      Correct Answer: Further injections at 4,8,12 & 16 weeks of age plus one at 12 months

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Vaccination for Newborns

      Babies born to mothers with hepatitis B require immediate vaccination to prevent the transmission of the virus. Within 24 hours of birth, the newborn should receive the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine. Subsequent doses should be given at 4, 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age, with the final dose administered when the child is 1-year-old. This vaccination schedule is crucial in protecting the child from developing chronic hepatitis B infection, which can lead to liver damage and other serious health complications. By following this vaccination schedule, parents can ensure the health and well-being of their newborn.

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