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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP 10 days after giving birth and reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP 10 days after giving birth and reports a continuous pink vaginal discharge with a foul odor. During the examination, the GP notes a pulse rate of 90 / min, a temperature of 38.2ºC, and diffuse suprapubic tenderness. The uterus feels generally tender upon vaginal examination, while the breast examination is unremarkable. The urine dipstick shows blood ++. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Understanding Puerperal Pyrexia

      Puerperal pyrexia is a condition that occurs when a woman experiences a fever of more than 38ºC within the first 14 days after giving birth. The most common cause of this condition is endometritis, which is an infection of the lining of the uterus. Other causes include urinary tract infections, wound infections, mastitis, and venous thromboembolism.

      If a woman is suspected of having endometritis, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics such as clindamycin and gentamicin until the patient is afebrile for more than 24 hours. It is important to note that puerperal pyrexia can be a serious condition and should not be ignored. By understanding the causes and seeking prompt medical attention, women can receive the necessary treatment to recover from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A female infant is presenting with dyspnea and cyanosis. The mother attempted to...

    Incorrect

    • A female infant is presenting with dyspnea and cyanosis. The mother attempted to feed her but noticed milk coming out of her nose and difficulty breathing during feeding. Upon examination, the infant was found to be tachypneic and tachycardic with intercostal recession. A bulge was observed on the praecordium and an early systolic murmur was heard along the left sternal edge. The chest x-ray revealed cardiomegaly, a loss of the normal thymus shadow, and a right aortic notch. Blood tests were normal except for low corrected serum calcium. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Explanation:

      DiGeorge Syndrome

      DiGeorge syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a deletion of chromosomal region 22q11.2. It affects around 1 in 3000 live births and is characterized by a spectrum of disorders. The poor migration of neural crest cells to the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches is thought to be the cause of the midline abnormalities found in DiGeorge syndrome. These abnormalities include cardiac defects, abnormal facies, thymic hypoplasia, and hypocalcemia.

      Characteristic facies develop as the child grows and include high broad noses, low set ears, small teeth, and narrow eyes. Other systems may also be affected, and cognitive and psychiatric problems are common but variable. Around 80% of patients have an associated cardiac defect, often of a conotruncal variety. Tetralogy of Fallot is also found, as are other defects such as ventricular septal defects and atrial septal defects.

      The diagnosis of DiGeorge syndrome can be difficult, but clinical features consistent with the diagnosis include abnormalities of heart sounds and features of cardiac failure or cyanosis. The chest x-ray helps with the diagnosis, and an echocardiogram and possibly high resolution contrast CT imaging would be helpful in these cases. The above example has a persistent truncus arteriosus, which is a failure to separate the aorta and the main pulmonary artery. This can lead to dyspnea, cyanosis, and cardiac failure.

      In summary, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - In which condition is pseudofracture typically observed? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which condition is pseudofracture typically observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia: Causes and Symptoms

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin D. This condition can be caused by various factors such as malabsorption, renal disease, chronic renal failure, and anticonvulsant therapy. The most common symptom of osteomalacia is bone pain, which is often accompanied by a proximal myopathy. These symptoms are also known as Looser’s zones.

      Malabsorption, which is the inability of the body to absorb nutrients from food, can lead to osteomalacia. Renal disease, such as familial hypophosphataemic rickets, can also cause this condition. Chronic renal failure, which is the gradual loss of kidney function, can also lead to osteomalacia. Additionally, anticonvulsant therapy, which is used to treat seizures, can cause a deficiency of vitamin D and lead to osteomalacia.

      If you experience bone pain or a proximal myopathy, it is important to seek medical attention. A doctor can diagnose osteomalacia through blood tests and imaging studies. Treatment typically involves vitamin D and calcium supplements, as well as addressing the underlying cause of the deficiency. With proper treatment, the symptoms of osteomalacia can be managed and the condition can be prevented from worsening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old college student is rushed to a university hospital after being found...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old college student is rushed to a university hospital after being found semi-conscious at home. Upon examination, the patient has a Glasgow coma scale of 12, a fever of 39.5°C, a pulse of 120/min, a blood pressure of 105/60 mmHg, photophobia, and meningism. The medical team has already inserted a cannula and sent blood cultures. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV antibiotics followed by CT head and subsequent lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Importance of CT Head Scanning and Lumbar Puncture in Suspected Bacterial Meningitis

      The availability of 24-hour computerised tomography (CT) head scanning in hospitals is crucial in the early recognition of any contraindications to lumbar puncture (LP) in patients with suspected bacterial meningitis. Prior to LP, a CT head scan should be performed to prevent the risk of brain herniation or coning. However, it is important to note that antibiotics should not be delayed while waiting for CT head scanning as this may prove fatal. In any case of suspected bacterial meningitis, a lumbar puncture must be performed to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment. Clinicians can refer to the Meningitis Research Foundation Clinician’s Guide to Recognition and Early Management of Meningococcal Disease in Children for further information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A concerned father brings his 14-year-old son to see you because he has...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned father brings his 14-year-old son to see you because he has noticed in the last three months he is increasingly irritable, aggressive and withdrawn. He will refuse to go to school, misses his soccer and guitar classes and does not go out with his friends. The symptoms seem to last for a couple of weeks and then abruptly resolve. They recommence a few days later. This has severely impacted on his education and function.
      The patient denies any physical symptoms, loss of weight or change in appetite. He has regular bowel movements. His observations are normal, and examination is unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) characterized by psychological and behavioral symptoms in the absence of physical symptoms. PMS is a condition that affects the majority of women in reproductive age, with symptoms occurring in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and resolving with menstruation. The exact causes of PMS and PMDD are not yet identified, but hormonal effects on neurotransmitters and psychological and environmental factors may play a role.

      To diagnose PMS or PMDD, organic causes must be excluded through a full history, examination, and blood tests. A prospective diary of symptoms over 2-3 menstrual cycles can also aid in diagnosis. Symptoms must be present in the luteal phase and improve or resolve with menstruation.

      Differential diagnosis for PMDD includes depression, hypothyroidism, and hyperthyroidism. Depression symptoms are continuous and not subject to regular cycling, while hypothyroidism symptoms are persistent and not cyclical. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms mimicking mania and psychosis.

      Mild PMS does not interfere with daily activities or social and professional life, while moderate and severe PMS can impact a woman’s ability to carry out activities. PMDD is a severe form of PMS characterized by psychological and behavioral symptoms in the absence of physical symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - What is the main factor that motivates inspiration? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main factor that motivates inspiration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased intrapulmonary pressure

      Explanation:

      The Mechanics of Breathing

      Breathing is a complex process that involves the contraction and relaxation of various muscles in the thorax and abdomen. During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, causing the ribs to move forward and up. This increases the volume of the thorax, which in turn reduces the pressure inside the lungs. As a result, air is drawn into the lungs from the atmosphere.

      In addition to the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles, there are other muscles involved in breathing. The scalene muscles, for example, are accessory muscles that contract when extra effort is needed to inhale. These muscles are often used by people with respiratory conditions such as asthma.

      Other accessory muscles of respiration include the intercostals and the abdominal muscles. These muscles help to increase the volume of the thorax during inhalation and to decrease it during exhalation.

      During expiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax, causing the ribs to move downward and inward. This reduces the volume of the thorax and increases the pressure inside the lungs, forcing air out of the body. Expiration is usually a passive process, meaning that it does not require much effort from the muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of a painful red eye with a tearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of a painful red eye with a tearing sensation. On a scale of 1 to 10, she rates the pain as 7. She mentions that she wears contact lenses regularly. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Same-day ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      If a contact lens wearer experiences a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty immediately to rule out microbial keratitis. Due to the complexity of assessing red eye in contact lens wearers, a specialist should assess the patient on the same day to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment. While acyclovir is effective in treating viral keratitis, other microbes may be responsible for this condition. Therefore, specialist referral is necessary. The patient should be advised to temporarily discontinue contact lens use and practice good hygiene. Reassurance is not appropriate as microbial keratitis can lead to vision loss if left untreated. It is important to make an urgent referral, which is typically offered to suspected cancer patients within two weeks.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman had a traditional high tie, strip and avulsion procedure for...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman had a traditional high tie, strip and avulsion procedure for her varicose veins in the distribution of the long and short saphenous veins. She experienced difficulty walking after the surgery because she could not dorsiflex or evert her foot. The surgeon had warned her beforehand that nerve damage was a possibility.
      What nerve was affected during the patient's varicose vein surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Foot Drop: Common Peroneal Nerve Damage

      Foot drop, the inability to dorsiflex the foot, is often caused by damage to the common peroneal nerve. This nerve is commonly damaged during varicose vein surgery when the short saphenous vein is avulsed around the head and neck of the fibula. The nerve divides to innervate the anterior and lateral compartments of the leg, and paralysis of these compartments causes foot drop. Patients compensate for the loss of dorsiflexion by adopting a high-stepping gait, resulting in a loud slap with each step. Other nerves, such as the sciatic, medial plantar, lateral plantar, and tibial nerves, may cause different symptoms and pain locations. Understanding the specific nerve damage is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 9 - What is an example of an organism that can only survive inside a...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of an organism that can only survive inside a host cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia Trachomatis: A Unique Intracellular Parasite

      Chlamydia trachomatis is a type of intracellular parasite that infects only humans. Unlike other microorganisms, it cannot produce its own ATP or grow on artificial medium. Initially, it was believed to be a virus, but its unique developmental cycle led to its classification in a separate order. Diagnostic manuals often place it alongside other intracellular parasites like Rickettsiae.

      The genome size of Chlamydia trachomatis is around 500-1000 kilobases and contains both RNA and DNA. It is also highly temperature-sensitive and must be refrigerated at 4°C immediately after obtaining a sample.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 10 - A 33-year-old primiparous woman has been referred at 35+5 weeks’ gestation to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old primiparous woman has been referred at 35+5 weeks’ gestation to the Antenatal Assessment Unit by her community midwife because of a raised blood pressure. On arrival, her blood pressure is 162/114 mmHg despite two doses of oral labetalol and her heart rate is 121 bpm. Examination reveals non-specific abdominal tenderness predominantly in the right upper quadrant; the uterus is soft and fetal movements are palpated. Urine dipstick reveals 3+ protein only. The cardiotocograph is normal.
      Initial blood tests are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 32 × 109/l 150–450 × 109/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 140 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 129 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 μmol/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 253 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
      Which of the following is the most definitive treatment in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate delivery of the fetus to improve blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Pre-eclampsia with HELLP Syndrome

      Severe pre-eclampsia with HELLP syndrome is a serious complication of pregnancy that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. The first-line medication for pre-eclampsia is labetalol, but if it fails to improve symptoms, second-line treatments such as intravenous hydralazine or oral nifedipine can be used. In cases of severe pre-eclampsia, delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment. However, if delivery is planned before 36 weeks, intramuscular betamethasone is required to protect the fetus from neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. Intravenous magnesium sulfate infusion is also necessary for neuroprotection and to lower the risk of eclampsia. It should be considered in cases of mild or moderate pre-eclampsia with certain symptoms. While these interventions are essential in managing severe pre-eclampsia with HELLP syndrome, they are not definitive treatments. Close monitoring of both the mother and fetus is necessary, and delivery should be planned as soon as possible to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to hospital after suddenly losing all sensation to...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to hospital after suddenly losing all sensation to his right leg and right arm. He has no loss of consciousness, no visual disturbances, no slurring of speech and no motor symptoms. A stroke is suspected.
      Based on the findings, what type of stroke is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lacunar stroke

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Strokes: A Guide to Symptoms and Diagnoses

      When it comes to strokes, there are different types that can affect individuals in various ways. One type of stroke is a lacunar stroke, which typically presents with purely sensory symptoms. This occurs when small infarcts develop around the basal ganglia, internal capsule, thalamus, or pons. Lacunar strokes can present in five different ways, including pure motor, pure sensory, mixed sensorimotor, dysarthria, and ataxic hemiparesis.

      Another type of stroke is Millard-Gubler syndrome, which is caused by a PICA or vertebral artery. This syndrome typically presents with paralysis of the abducens resulting in diplopia and loss of lateral movement of the eye, as well as paralysis of the facial muscles. However, it would not result in pure sensory symptoms.

      Locked-in syndrome is another type of stroke, but it is characterized by widespread motor paralysis, which is not present in the case of the patient with purely sensory symptoms.

      Partial anterior circulation stroke and total anterior circulation stroke are two other types of strokes that can occur. A partial anterior circulation stroke would have two out of three symptoms, including hemiparesis and/or sensory deficit, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cortical dysfunction. On the other hand, a total anterior circulation stroke would have all three of these symptoms present.

      Understanding the different types of strokes and their associated symptoms can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful left hip and groin and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful left hip and groin and is struggling to weight-bear. She completed therapy for acute myeloblastic leukaemia some six months earlier.
      On examination, she walks with a limp and there is limitation of hip flexion, internal and external rotation.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 191 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 12 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      The left hip X-ray shows joint sclerosis with collapse of the femoral head.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Arthritis Types: Avascular Necrosis, Gout, Osteoarthritis, Pseudogout, and Septic Arthritis

      Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. However, there are different types of arthritis, each with its own causes, symptoms, and treatments. Here are some key points to differentiate between avascular necrosis, gout, osteoarthritis, pseudogout, and septic arthritis:

      Avascular necrosis is a condition where the bone tissue dies due to a lack of blood supply. It can be caused by corticosteroid use, malignancy, or trauma. Femoral head collapse is a classic radiographic change in avascular necrosis.

      Gout is a type of crystal arthritis that usually affects peripheral joints, such as the big toe, ankle, or knee. It is caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joint, leading to sudden attacks of pain, redness, and swelling.

      Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that occurs when the cartilage that cushions the joints wears down over time. It is more common in older adults and can affect any joint, but femoral head collapse does not occur in osteoarthritis.

      Pseudogout is another type of crystal arthritis that usually affects peripheral joints. It is caused by the buildup of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joint, leading to similar symptoms as gout.

      Septic arthritis is a bacterial infection of the joint that can cause severe pain, swelling, and fever. It is a medical emergency and requires prompt treatment with antibiotics. While septic arthritis should always be considered in a monoarthritis, it is less likely in cases where there are classic radiographic changes of avascular necrosis, risk factors, and a normal CRP without history of fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department via ambulance after twisting...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department via ambulance after twisting her left ankle while hiking in a mountainous national park. She has no significant medical history. X-rays were taken and the radiologist's report states that there is a minimally displaced, transverse fracture distally through the lateral malleolus, below the level of the talar dome, without talar shift. The medial malleolus is unaffected. What is the most suitable immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allow weight bearing as tolerated in a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot

      Explanation:

      According to the radiologist’s report, the patient has a stable Weber A fracture of the lateral malleolus (distal fibula) that is minimally displaced and located below the tibiofibular syndesmosis. As a result, immobilization in a back slab is unnecessary, and reduction is not required. RICE treatment is not recommended as it does not provide adequate immobilization, which can be an effective form of pain relief. Instead, a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot is the appropriate management option as it allows weight-bearing while providing immobilization. Urgent surgical intervention is not necessary in this case due to the fracture’s stability and minimal displacement.

      Ankle Fractures and their Classification

      Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.

      Management of Ankle Fractures

      The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 14 - A 63-year-old man presents with fatigue, weakness, tachycardia and generalised pallor, along with...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with fatigue, weakness, tachycardia and generalised pallor, along with an unintentional weight loss of 10 pounds. He has been experiencing frequent constipation and has noticed streaks of red blood on the surface of his stools over the past year. His family history is notable for a history of colorectal cancer. Upon examination, a mass is palpated on the left lower abdominal quadrant. The barium enema reveals an apple-core lesion of the descending colon, and there are enlarged lymph nodes and foci of liver metastasis on the abdominal CT scan. The serum carcinoembryonic antigen is significantly elevated. Molecular genetic studies have revealed a mutation in a gene located on the short arm of chromosome 12.
      Which gene is most likely affected by this mutation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: KRAS

      Explanation:

      Genes Associated with Cancer: KRAS, Rb, P53, APC, and DCC

      KRAS, Rb, P53, APC, and DCC are genes that play a crucial role in the development of cancer. KRAS is an oncogene that codes for the K-Ras protein involved in regulating cell division. Mutations in KRAS can cause cells to divide uncontrollably and lead to cancer, particularly colorectal cancer. Rb is a tumour suppressor gene that codes for the pRB protein, which regulates cell growth and division. Mutations in Rb are associated with various cancers, including retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma, bladder cancer, melanoma, and some forms of breast and lung cancers.

      P53 is another tumour suppressor gene that codes for the p53 protein, which controls the cell cycle and triggers apoptosis if it detects any abnormalities. Mutations in P53 can cause cells to divide uncontrollably and lead to tumours. APC is a tumour suppressor gene that codes for the APC protein, which controls cell division and prevents uncontrolled division. Mutations in APC can cause loss of control of cell division and tumour formation, leading to familial adenomatous polyposis.

      Finally, DCC is a gene that encodes for the neptrin-1 receptor protein, which controls the development of the nervous system and acts as a tumour suppressor by triggering apoptosis in malfunctioning cells. Mutations in DCC can cause loss of this control and have been associated with over 70% of colorectal cancers. Understanding the role of these genes in cancer development can help in the development of targeted therapies and prevention strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old patient is undergoing treatment with recombinant human growth hormone (GH). What...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient is undergoing treatment with recombinant human growth hormone (GH). What is a known side effect of GH therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Recombinant Human Growth Hormone Treatment

      Recombinant human growth hormone (hGH) treatment is associated with several side effects. One of the most common side effects is raised intracranial pressure (ICP) with a normal MRI, which is a secondary form of idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH). This is believed to be caused by the antidiuretic effect of hGH, particularly in patients with impaired renal homeostasis. However, in patients with intact homeostatic mechanisms, hGH can elevate plasma renin and aldosterone, which counteracts the antidiuretic effect. If IIH is diagnosed, hGH treatment should be stopped and resumed at a lower dose if IIH resolves.

      Aside from IIH, other recognized side effects of hGH include slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), malignancies, gynaecomastia, and impaired glucose metabolism. However, melanoma, osteoporosis, prostatic hypertrophy, and prolongation of the QT interval are not commonly recognized side effects of hGH treatment. It is important to monitor patients closely for these side effects and adjust treatment accordingly to minimize any potential harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man was admitted to hospital for a work-up of a suspected...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man was admitted to hospital for a work-up of a suspected cholangiocarcinoma. He underwent a magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP). After this, he complains of chills, nausea, vomiting and upper-right abdominal pain. He has also spiked a fever of 38.9 °C.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver abscess

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Abdominal Pain and Infective Symptoms

      A liver abscess is the most probable diagnosis for a patient presenting with fever, abdominal pain, chills, nausea, and vomiting after undergoing an MRCP. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is unlikely as the patient does not exhibit characteristic symptoms such as multiorgan failure, shock, widespread bleeding, or clots. Fatty-liver disease could cause similar symptoms but would not have an acute onset or infective symptoms. Hepatitis is a possibility but would typically present with additional symptoms such as dark urine and pale stools. Liver metastases are unlikely to have a sudden onset and infective symptoms. While it is a possibility, a liver abscess is the most likely diagnosis, especially given the patient’s recent MRCP and suspected cholangiocarcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 39-year-old man, with a history of severe depression, is admitted unconscious to...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man, with a history of severe depression, is admitted unconscious to the hospital, following a suicide attempt where he stabbed himself with a knife, with significant intent of causing death. His past psychiatric history suggests that this is his fifth suicide attempt, with the four previous attempts involving taking an overdose of his antidepressants and paracetamol. During this admission, he needed surgery for bowel repair. He is now three days post-operation on the Surgical Ward and is having one-to-one nursing due to recurrent suicidal thoughts after his surgery. The consulting surgeon thinks he is not fit enough to be discharged, and a referral is made to liaison psychiatry. After assessing the patient, the psychiatrist reports that the patient’s current severe depression is affecting his capacity and that the patient’s mental health puts himself at risk of harm. The psychiatrist decides to detain him on the ward for at least three days. The patient insists on leaving and maintains that he has no interest to be alive.
      Which is the most appropriate section for the doctor to use to keep this patient in hospital?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Section 5(2)

      Explanation:

      The Mental Health Act has several sections that allow doctors and mental health professionals to keep patients in hospital for assessment or treatment. Section 5(2) can be used by doctors to keep a patient in hospital for at least 72 hours if they have a history of severe depression, previous suicide attempts, or recurrent suicidal thoughts. Section 2 is used by approved mental health professionals for assessment and allows for a maximum stay of 28 days. Section 4 is used in emergencies and allows for a 72-hour stay. Section 5(4) can be used by mental health or learning disability nurses for a maximum of six hours. Section 3 can be used for treatment for up to six months, with the possibility of extensions and treatment against the patient’s will in the first three months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the hospital as he reports seeing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the hospital as he reports seeing an 'ocean of bees' surrounding him. He is unable to provide a detailed medical history due to his extreme anxiety and confusion, constantly yelling about the 'deafening buzzing.' His heart rate is 140 beats per minute and his breathing rate is 23 breaths per minute. Reviewing his records, it is noted that he has been admitted to the emergency department multiple times due to alcohol intoxication.

      What is the initial treatment for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are administered to manage delirium tremens/alcohol withdrawal.

      When a patient experiences delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal after dependency, chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are commonly prescribed. This condition often leads to the manifestation of visual and auditory hallucinations. While haloperidol can be beneficial in calming the patient, the primary treatment for delirium tremens is administering 10-30 mg of chlordiazepoxide four times daily.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 76-year-old woman presents with lethargy. She has a history of Graves’ disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman presents with lethargy. She has a history of Graves’ disease and thyrotoxicosis. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are found to be 7.3 μU/l (normal range: 0.17–3.2 μU/l). A full blood count is performed and reveals the following: haemoglobin (Hb) is low, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is high, platelet count is normal, white cell count (WCC) is normal.
      What is the most likely cause of her anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of macrocytic anaemia in a patient with a history of Graves’ disease

      This patient presents with a macrocytic anaemia, which can have various causes. Given her history of Graves’ disease and autoimmune hyperthyroidism, it is important to consider hypothyroidism as a possible cause, despite the usual association of hyperthyroidism with a suppressed TSH. Pernicious anaemia, another autoimmune disease that can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, should also be considered. However, in this case, the high TSH makes hypothyroidism more likely. Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency can also cause macrocytic anaemia, but the patient’s history and laboratory findings suggest hypothyroidism as the primary diagnosis. Haemolysis is not a likely cause in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old man presents at the outpatient clinic with altered bowel habit and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents at the outpatient clinic with altered bowel habit and occasional per rectum bleeding for the past 3 months. During examination, he experiences tenderness on the left iliac fossa and is unable to tolerate a pr examination. His liver function tests at the general practice surgery showed an elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level. Based on these symptoms, which of the following autoantibody screen findings is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA)

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Autoantibody Results in a Patient with Abnormal Liver Function Tests and Colitis-like Symptoms

      The patient in question presents with abnormal liver function tests and colitis-like symptoms, including bloody stools and tenderness in the left iliac fossa. The following autoantibody results were obtained:

      – Raised anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): This suggests the possibility of inflammatory bowel disease, particularly ulcerative colitis (UC), which is strongly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). PSC is characterized by immunologically mediated inflammation of the bile ducts, leading to obstruction and a cholestatic pattern of liver dysfunction. ASMA and p-ANCA are often elevated in PSC, and an isolated rise in alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is common.
      – Raised anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA): This enzyme is typically detected in primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), which causes destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts and a cholestatic pattern of jaundice. However, given the patient’s gender and coexisting UC, PBC is less likely than PSC as a cause of the elevated ALP.
      – Raised anti-endomysial antibody: This is associated with coeliac disease, which can cause chronic inflammation of the small intestine and malabsorption. However, the patient’s symptoms do not strongly suggest this diagnosis.
      – Negative result for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) antibodies: SLE is not clinically suspected based on the patient’s history.
      – Raised anti-Jo antibody: This is associated with polymyositis and dermatomyositis, which are not suspected in this patient.

      In summary, the patient’s autoantibody results suggest a possible diagnosis of PSC in the context of UC and liver dysfunction. Further imaging studies, such as ERCP or MRCP, may be necessary to confirm this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 6-week-old baby girl is brought to her pediatrician's office by her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old baby girl is brought to her pediatrician's office by her mother who is worried about her poor feeding over the past 24 hours. The mother has noticed that the baby feels warm but has not observed any signs of cough or cold. The baby is scheduled to receive her vaccinations next week. She has had a wet and dirty diaper today and her urine has a strong odor.

      During the examination, the baby has a fever of 38.9ºC and is fussy, but her chest and abdomen appear normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit same day to the paediatrics ward for assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child under 3 months old is suspected to have a UTI, it is important to refer them to specialist paediatrics services. In the case of a baby with a persistent fever and no clear source of infection, a urine sample should be collected to check for a UTI. It is important to note that a raised temperature alone is considered a red sign according to NICE guidance for assessing fever in children, and the child should be referred for urgent paediatric assessment. It would be inappropriate to reassure the mother that this is just a virus and can be managed at home, and using paracetamol to manage the fever would not be acceptable in this case. While antibiotics may treat the infection, waiting a week for a review could be dangerous for an unwell child who may deteriorate rapidly. Referring the child for a routine review with paediatrics would also not be appropriate, as urgent attention is required. While a health visitor may be helpful for feeding issues, the short history of poor feeding and fever suggests that the baby is struggling to feed due to illness, and this would not address the current presentation.

      Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - You are discussing IVF therapy with a 36-year-old woman and her partner who...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing IVF therapy with a 36-year-old woman and her partner who are interested in starting a family. Would you like to discuss the option of administering a single injection of corifollitropin as an ovarian stimulant instead of a week-long daily FSH therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a longer half life

      Explanation:

      Corifollitropin’s Half Life and Distribution

      Corifollitropin is a drug that has a long half life of around 69 hours. This means that it takes a significant amount of time for the drug’s concentration to decrease by half after it has reached its maximum level post absorption. The drug is produced in Chinese hamster ovary cells, which allows for the addition of the carboxy-terminal peptide of the β-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) to the β-chain of human follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). It is important to note that corifollitropin does not have any intrinsic luteinising hormone (LH) activity.

      The distribution of corifollitropin is similar to other gonadotrophins. It is essential to understand the drug’s half life and distribution to ensure that it is used effectively and safely. Further information on corifollitropin can be found in the electronic Medicines Compendium (eMC) under Elonva 100 and 150 micrograms solution for injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also feels a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He had been doing some DIY work at home without wearing any goggles for the past few days prior to the onset of pain.
      On examination, his visual acuities are 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left is red. The cornea is tested with fluorescein and it shows an uptake in the centre of the cornea which looks like a dendrite. On examination of his face, there are some small vesicles at the corner of his mouth as well.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral keratitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Eye Conditions and Diagnosis for a Patient with Corneal Ulcer

      Upon examination of a patient with a corneal ulcer, several possible eye conditions can be considered. However, based on the presence of a dendritic ulcer and a history of cold sores, a viral keratitis, specifically herpes simplex keratitis, is likely. A corneal abrasion is unlikely as there is no history of eye injury. A corneal foreign body is also unlikely as there is no visible foreign object on the cornea. Fungal keratitis is unlikely as there are no risk factors present. Microbial keratitis is a possibility, but it typically presents with a round-shaped ulcer. Overall, a viral keratitis diagnosis seems most probable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 24 - John, a 35-year-old Caucasian man visited his doctor with a range of symptoms....

    Incorrect

    • John, a 35-year-old Caucasian man visited his doctor with a range of symptoms. He reported feeling feverish on and off for the past few months, experiencing fatigue, unintentional weight loss of around 3kg, and general muscle aches and pains. He was not taking any medication. Upon examination, his doctor found no abnormalities in his observations or physical examination. The doctor ordered a full blood count, which showed the following results:

      - Hb 112g/L Male: (130 - 180)
      - Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 3.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Lymphocytes 2.8 * 109/L (1.0 - 4.5)
      - Mean corpuscular volume 92 fL (76 - 98)
      - Mean corpuscular haemoglobin 31 pg (27 - 32)
      - Ferritin 40 ng/mL (20 - 230)

      Based on these results, the doctor suspects that John may have systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and orders further blood tests. Which test, if positive, would best indicate that John is likely to have this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of ANA is high, making it a valuable test for ruling out SLE, but its specificity is low. Anti-histone antibodies are typically utilized as an indicator for drug-induced SLE. ESR is not a serum antibody and is not employed for diagnosing or ruling out SLE.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She experiences intense one-sided headaches and reports a tingling sensation that travels up her arm before the headache begins. She smokes 10-20 cigarettes on most weekends and has a BMI of 34 kg/m². Her younger sister has a history of thromboembolic disease. What specific aspect of her medical history is the most significant contraindication for prescribing the combined oral contraceptive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Migraine with aura

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms indicate that they may be suffering from migraine, specifically migraine with aura. This condition is classified as UKMEC 4, meaning that it poses a significant health risk when taking combined oral contraceptive pills. While visual disturbances are the most common aura symptoms, some patients may experience sensory or motor symptoms such as tingling, weakness, or difficulty speaking. While other factors in the patient’s medical history may also be relevant, migraine with aura is the primary concern when considering contraception options.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 26 - A 72-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of hand pain. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of hand pain. He reports difficulty with tasks such as buttoning his clothes, which has been ongoing for a few months. The patient notes stiffness in his fingers, particularly in the morning, and swelling, which is more pronounced in his left hand. Upon examination, the doctor observes swelling at the distal interphalangeal joints and limited range of motion, but no other abnormalities. The patient's vital signs are within normal limits. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, gout, and alcohol abuse. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest osteoarthritis, which commonly affects small joints in the hand and can cause swelling at the distal interphalangeal joints (Heberden’s nodes). Gout, pseudogout, and reactive arthritis are unlikely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand

      Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.

      Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.

      Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 27 - A 57-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain, redness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain, redness, and tearing in her right eye for the past two weeks. She also experiences sensitivity to light. The pain is constant and dull, and it can be so intense that it wakes her up at night. The pain sometimes spreads to her jaw, neck, and head. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis.
      During the examination, her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6, while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/9. The eye appears diffusely injected.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Scleritis from Other Eye Conditions

      Scleritis is a condition that causes severe, deep, and boring pain in the eye, often associated with systemic diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, vasculitis, and sarcoidosis. Unlike episcleritis, the pain in scleritis is more intense and may be felt even when the eye moves. The eye appears diffusely red, and the globe is tender to touch. To differentiate between episcleritis and scleritis, topical phenylephrine 2.5-10% can be used, which causes the superficial episcleral vessels to blanch in episcleritis but not the deeper scleral vessels in scleritis.

      Other eye conditions can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, for example, presents with sudden, severe pain and a reduction or loss of vision, while central retinal artery occlusion causes painless vision loss. Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, causes milder pain, and episcleritis may cause teary and photophobic symptoms but is usually not associated with systemic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - A 75-year-old woman presents to a respiratory outpatient clinic with a dry cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to a respiratory outpatient clinic with a dry cough and shortness of breath that has been ongoing for 6 months. Despite being a non-smoker, her husband is a pigeon breeder. Upon examination, she has an SpO2 of 95% on room air and clubbing is present. Chest examination reveals symmetrical and bilateral reduced chest expansion with fine end-inspiratory crepitations. A chest radiograph shows increased interstitial markings in the lower zones of both lungs. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) confirms these findings and also shows bibasal honeycombing. There is no lymphadenopathy present on CT. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (usual interstitial pneumonia)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Interstitial Lung Disease: A Case Study

      Interstitial lung disease (ILD) is a group of lung disorders that affect the interstitium, the tissue and space surrounding the air sacs in the lungs. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is the most common type of ILD, characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. This article discusses the differential diagnosis for ILD, using a case study of a patient presenting with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue.

      Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)
      IPF is characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. Patients present with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue. Clinical examination reveals fine end-inspiratory crepitations throughout the chest with lower zone predominance. Radiological findings include reduced lung volumes and bilateral increased interstitial markings with lower zone predominance on chest X-ray (CXR), and honeycombing and microcyst formation in the lung bases on high-resolution CT (HRCT). Lung transplantation is the only definitive treatment, while steroids are not indicated.

      Tuberculosis
      Tuberculosis presents with chronic cough, haemoptysis, fever, and night sweats. Imaging shows cavitating lesions ± lymphadenopathy.

      Bronchiectasis
      Bronchiectasis presents with productive cough, recurrent chest infections, and haemoptysis. CXR findings are often non-specific, but dilated, thick-walled (ectatic) bronchi are easily seen on HRCT.

      Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis)
      Hypersensitivity pneumonitis may be caused by airborne irritants to lung parenchyma, such as pigeon breeding. Changes are classically found in lung apices, making it less likely than IPF/UIP.

      Sarcoidosis
      End-stage sarcoidosis may present with lung fibrosis, but this does not spare the apices and typically affects the middle and upper zones of the lung.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis for ILD includes IPF, tuberculosis, bronchiectasis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, and sarcoidosis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old woman presents to the Eye Casualty with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to the Eye Casualty with a sudden onset of painful reduction in vision in her left eye. She denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history.

      Upon examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/36 with reduced color vision. Eye movements are normal, but the pain worsens. The swinging torch test reveals left pupil dilation when the torch light swings from the right eye to the left. Dilated fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in her left eye.

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Optic Neuritis in Multiple Sclerosis Patients

      Optic neuritis is a common symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS) and can cause vision loss or pain. While the condition may improve on its own, treatment with steroids is often recommended. Intravenous methylprednisolone is the preferred route of administration for this medication, although it can cause side effects such as mood changes and weight gain.

      Glatiramer acetate and interferon beta are first-line treatments for MS, but are not typically used for isolated episodes of optic neuritis. Natalizumab is a second-line treatment option for MS, but may not be appropriate for all patients.

      It is important to note that oral prednisolone alone is not recommended for optic neuritis in MS patients due to an increased risk of recurrence. Overall, treatment options for optic neuritis in MS patients should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome secondary to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome secondary to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis after presenting with pedal oedema. She is being treated with furosemide 40 mg and prednisolone 60 mg. Her potassium level is 3.0 mEq/l (3.5–5.1).
      Which of the following medications will not increase potassium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Medications that can cause hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can be caused by certain medications. Here are some medications that can lead to hyperkalaemia:

      1. Corticosteroids: Oral or IV steroids with glucocorticoid properties, such as prednisone and hydrocortisone, can be used to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and increase renal potassium excretion.

      2. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs): Use of ARBs can be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. It is important to monitor serum potassium levels shortly after initiating therapy.

      3. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors: Use of ACE inhibitors can also be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by suppressing angiotensin II, which leads to a decrease in aldosterone levels.

      4. Spironolactone: Hyperkalaemia is an established adverse effect of both spironolactone and eplerenone. Potassium levels should be monitored regularly in patients taking spironolactone.

      5. Digoxin: Hyperkalaemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality in acute digoxin toxicity. Chronic toxicity does not cause hyperkalaemia. Digoxin blocks the sodium-potassium ATPase pump.

      It is important to be aware of these medications and their potential to cause hyperkalaemia, and to monitor serum potassium levels in patients taking them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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