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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old woman presents with advanced oesophageal cancer.
    She has an inoperable tumour and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with advanced oesophageal cancer.
      She has an inoperable tumour and is being managed palliatively. From the description of her symptoms you diagnose oesophageal spasm.
      Which of the following would be most helpful in managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Pamidronate

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for oesophageal spasm

      This patient is suffering from oesophageal cancer and is experiencing odynophagia and dysphagia. A clinical diagnosis of oesophageal spasm has been made. There are several treatment options available depending on the underlying cause of the symptoms.

      Dexamethasone is useful if the dysphagia is due to tumour enlargement and physical blockage is causing dysphagia. Fluconazole is used to treat oesophagitis caused by candidal infection. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that can be helpful if symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease are present. Pamidronate is a bisphosphonate that is administered intravenously to treat bone pain and hypercalcaemia.

      Nifedipine can work well in cases like this due to its action of relaxing smooth muscle and can help treat the painful spasm that is underlying the symptoms. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the oesophageal spasm to determine the most effective treatment option. With proper treatment, the patient can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old woman has terminal breast cancer. Her General Practitioner visits her at...

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    • A 70-year-old woman has terminal breast cancer. Her General Practitioner visits her at home. Until her diagnosis five years ago, she had no significant medical history. She is known to have liver metastases and is quite breathless. Her oxygen saturations are 92% in air, and her respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. She is alert, but very frail.
      Which of the following treatments is most likely to be of benefit for this patient’s dyspnoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Morphine

      Explanation:

      Managing Dyspnoea in Terminally Ill Patients: Treatment Options

      Dyspnoea is a common symptom in terminally ill patients and can significantly impact their quality of life. When managing dyspnoea, it is important to identify and treat any reversible causes, such as cardiac failure or pneumonia. However, in cases where the cause cannot be reversed, there are several treatment options available.

      One such option is the use of opioids, such as morphine, which can reduce breathlessness at rest and in the end-of-life phase. A therapeutic trial should be given, and the patient should be monitored for response and side-effects. If morphine is not tolerated, alternative opioids can be used.

      Dexamethasone is another option, particularly in cases of lymphangitis carcinomatosis and superior vena cava airway obstruction. It reduces inflammatory oedema and can also be used post-radiotherapy.

      Furosemide is not likely to be of benefit unless there is evidence of cardiac failure.

      Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, may relieve anxiety and panic associated with severe breathlessness, but it is less effective than opioids and should be considered a second-line treatment.

      Finally, if oxygen saturations are below 92%, a trial of oxygen can be considered for symptom relief. However, it is important to note that there may be a poor relationship between hypoxaemia, dyspnoea, and response to oxygen.

      In conclusion, managing dyspnoea in terminally ill patients requires a multi-faceted approach, including identifying and treating reversible causes and utilizing appropriate medications for symptom relief.

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  • Question 3 - A 62-year-old businessman presents with bilateral leg weakness that has suddenly become worse...

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    • A 62-year-old businessman presents with bilateral leg weakness that has suddenly become worse over the last 12 hours. Some 8 months ago he had a lobar resection for a stage-II squamous-cell carcinoma followed by radiotherapy and adjuvant chemotherapy. On examination there is reduced power and altered sensation in both legs.
      Select the single most likely cause of the current problem.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal cord compression as a result of vertebral metastases

      Explanation:

      Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency

      Spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. The sudden onset of bilateral leg weakness and loss of sensation are common symptoms, along with back pain, urinary retention, and constipation. This condition is often caused by metastatic cancer, with breast, bronchus, prostate, multiple myeloma, and high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma being the most common culprits. While patients may already have a cancer diagnosis, spinal cord compression can sometimes be the first sign of cancer.

      To diagnose spinal cord compression, a whole spinal MRI scan is necessary. Treatment should begin immediately with intravenous dexamethasone, followed by either neurosurgery or radiotherapy. Peripheral neuropathy and spinal tuberculosis can be ruled out based on the time course and lack of relevant history. Paraneoplastic myelopathy is rare and typically associated with small-cell lung cancer, while a secondary spinal tumor deposit would present similarly but is less common.

      In summary, spinal cord compression is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Early intervention can improve outcomes and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer is found to have a corrected...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer is found to have a corrected serum calcium level of 3.2 mmol/L (normal reference range 2.62-2.8 mmol/L). Her presenting symptoms were worsening fatigue and mild confusion.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate measure to recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital or hospice

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypercalcemia in Palliative Care: Admission, Treatment, and Diet Recommendations

      Hypercalcemia, a rise in serum calcium levels, can cause a range of symptoms including weakness, anorexia, nausea, and constipation. Severe cases can lead to delirium, seizures, and coma. While some patients may not experience symptoms, hypercalcemia can be an emergency in palliative care. In cases where treatment is not appropriate, fluid replacement and bisphosphonates can alleviate distressing symptoms. However, symptomatic or moderate to severe hypercalcemia requires immediate admission to a hospital or hospice for management with intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. A low calcium diet is unnecessary, and good hydration is the first-line treatment for mild asymptomatic hypercalcemia. Thiazide diuretics should be avoided as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia, as can lack of mobility.

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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old lady comes to the clinic seeking guidance regarding her potential risk...

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    • A 35-year-old lady comes to the clinic seeking guidance regarding her potential risk of developing cancer. She has received proper treatment for CIN II, is a former smoker, and currently takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her two paternal aunts passed away from ovarian carcinoma at ages 40 and 48. What is the primary predisposing factor for ovarian cancer in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk Factors for Developing Breast Cancer

      Breast cancer is a prevalent disease that affects 1.4% of the overall population. However, the risk of developing breast cancer increases with a family history of the disease. The number of affected first-degree relatives and their age at diagnosis can significantly impact the risk. For instance, having one affected first-degree relative increases the risk to 4-5%, while having two close relatives affected raises the risk to 7%.

      Women with BRCA1 mutation have a 40% carrier risk of developing carcinoma, while those with BRCA2 have a 25% risk. Additionally, women who have had many ovulations, early menarche, and nullipara are more likely to develop breast cancer. However, the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill is associated with a reduced risk of developing the disease.

      In summary, understanding the risk factors for developing breast cancer is crucial in taking preventive measures and seeking early diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man has carcinoma of the prostate with metastases in bone. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has carcinoma of the prostate with metastases in bone. His adjusted serum calcium on routine testing on two occasions is 2.7 mmol/L (normal range 2.15-2.65 mmol/L). He has no symptoms to suggest hypercalcaemia. He still has a reasonable quality of life and is expected to live for several months more. He would prefer not to go into hospital.
      Which of the following options is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase fluid intake (3-4 L per day by mouth)

      Explanation:

      Management of Mild Hypercalcaemia in Palliative Care

      Mild hypercalcaemia, with an adjusted serum calcium concentration of 3.0 mmol/L or less, is a common complication in palliative care, particularly in patients with cancer. While asymptomatic cases may not require hospital admission, specialist advice should be sought to determine the necessity of treatment. In the meantime, patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake to 3-4 L per day to maintain good hydration. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be useful as adjuvant analgesics, but caution should be exercised to avoid renal toxicity from future bisphosphonate treatment. Calcitonin and intravenous bisphosphonates are effective in reducing serum calcium levels, but hospital admission may be necessary for their administration. A low calcium diet is not necessary as intestinal absorption of calcium is usually impaired. Overall, management of mild hypercalcaemia in palliative care requires a tailored approach based on the patient’s individual circumstances and preferences.

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  • Question 7 - You are asked to prescribe diamorphine to go into a syringe driver for...

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    • You are asked to prescribe diamorphine to go into a syringe driver for a 85-year-old gentleman with terminal metastatic colorectal cancer. He is currently taking a total of 100 mg of oral morphine over 24 hours.

      Having calculated the correct dose of diamorphine for his syringe driver over 24 hours, what dose of subcutaneous diamorphine would you prescribe for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 mg

      Explanation:

      Drug Dose Calculations

      Calculating drug doses can be a challenging task, especially when it comes to converting between different medications and routes of administration. One common question in medical exams involves calculating the appropriate dose of a medication for a patient.

      To answer this question correctly, there are several steps to follow. Firstly, the total oral dose of morphine must be converted to diamorphine. Then, the breakthrough dose of subcutaneous diamorphine must be calculated, not the oral morphine dose.

      To calculate the 24-hour dose of diamorphine for a patient, the total daily dose of oral morphine should be divided by 3. For example, if a patient is taking 90 mg of oral morphine over 24 hours, this is equivalent to 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours by syringe driver.

      According to the BNF, the subcutaneous dose for breakthrough pain should be between one sixth and one tenth of the 24-hour dose. Therefore, for this patient, the correct breakthrough dose of subcutaneous diamorphine would be between 3 mg and 5 mg.

      It is important to note that drug dose calculations are a common area of weakness in medical exams. Examiners often include questions on this topic, and it is essential for healthcare professionals to have a good understanding of how to calculate drug doses accurately.

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  • Question 8 - A 78-year-old male with multiple myeloma is currently suffering from sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male with multiple myeloma is currently suffering from sudden onset of back pain. He is taking 7.5mg morphine four times a day and 1g paracetamol four times a day as his regular oral analgesic medications. What is the appropriate dose of morphine for breakthrough pain in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5mg

      Explanation:

      The breakthrough dose is calculated as 1/6th of the daily morphine dose, which is equivalent to 5mg (30 mg total daily dose divided by 6).

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

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  • Question 9 - A 59-year-old man calls for advice regarding persistent hiccups. His medical history shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man calls for advice regarding persistent hiccups. His medical history shows that he was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer two months ago. He has tried simple remedies like drinking cold water, holding his breath, and the Valsalva manoeuvre, but they have not worked. He is asking if you could prescribe something to help. What is the most suitable initial treatment to suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antacid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Persistent Hiccups

      Persistent hiccups can be troublesome for some patients and are often difficult to treat. However, there are several simple manoeuvres that can be tried, such as sipping cold water, breath-holding, and the Valsalva manoeuvre. If hiccups are due to gastric distention, an antacid may help. If these options fail, metoclopramide or domperidone are usually the next treatment options. Baclofen, nifedipine, and chlorpromazine are third-line options that can be tried if the hiccups persist. Haloperidol may also be effective and better tolerated than chlorpromazine. In this case, trying an antacid and antiflatulent preparation is a suitable first-line option as the symptoms are of recent onset and no pharmacotherapy has been tried so far.

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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman has terminal breast cancer. She has liver metastases but her...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has terminal breast cancer. She has liver metastases but her pain is well controlled.

      Her main symptom, however, is anxiety. She feels nervous all the time and has a tremor. She says she feels tense about almost anything. She has read that beta blockers can help people like her and asks whether they would be worthwhile.

      What symptoms are beta blockers most likely to alleviate in a 55-year-old woman with terminal breast cancer and anxiety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychological tension

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers and Anxiety Symptoms

      Beta-blockers are effective in managing the autonomic symptoms of anxiety, such as tremors and palpitations. However, they are not likely to alleviate the psychological symptoms of anxiety. While beta-blockers may help with physical symptoms, other approaches may be necessary to address the emotional and cognitive aspects of anxiety. Therefore, it is important to consider a comprehensive treatment plan that includes therapy, medication, and lifestyle changes to manage anxiety effectively.

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  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old man has been recently diagnosed with terminal pancreatic cancer. His son...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has been recently diagnosed with terminal pancreatic cancer. His son attends with the patient and requests more support at home. When would it be appropriate to complete a DS1500 form?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Death expected within 6 months

      Explanation:

      If a patient or their representative believes that the patient may have a terminal illness, they can request a form DS1500 to be issued. According to Social Security legislation, a terminal illness is a disease that is advancing and is expected to result in death within six months.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

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  • Question 12 - A 58-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with mouth issues. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with mouth issues. He is currently undergoing chemotherapy for lung cancer. Upon examination, the doctor observes an ulcerated, erythematous, and sore mouth. The patient mentions that he can still consume solid food. What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral mucositis

      Explanation:

      Common Oral Conditions in Myelosuppressed Patients

      Myelosuppressed patients, particularly those undergoing cancer treatment, are at a high risk of developing oral complications. One of the most common conditions is oral mucositis, which can occur in up to 70% of patients undergoing stem cell transplantation. This painful condition is caused by a combination of factors, including chemotherapy or radiotherapy damage, the oral environment, myelosuppression, and genetic predisposition. Symptoms include burning, erythema, and ulcerations in the mouth, which can impact the patient’s nutritional status and require supportive treatment with oral hygiene, mucosal-coating agents, and analgesia.

      Other oral conditions that may affect myelosuppressed patients include herpes zoster infection, candidiasis, herpes simplex infection, and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Candidiasis is the most frequent oral infection in myelosuppressed patients, presenting as white patches on the gums, tongue, and inside the mouth. Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) is another common viral infection that causes ulcers on the lips. Herpes zoster infection can involve the mouth and skin, while Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a potentially fatal skin reaction caused by drugs, presenting with macules, target lesions, and bullae affecting the skin and mucosal surfaces.

      In conclusion, myelosuppressed patients are at a high risk of developing various oral complications, which can impact their quality of life and require supportive treatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these conditions and provide appropriate management to improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man is brought to the doctor by his wife because of...

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    • A 68-year-old man is brought to the doctor by his wife because of a 2-week history of increasing confusion. He has advanced prostate cancer. He reports constipation, passing urine more frequently and feeling nauseous. He has no signs of infection, and urine testing is negative. He is taking ibuprofen and paracetamol for backache and receives gonadorelin analogue injections for his cancer, but takes no other medications. The clinical examination is unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment Options

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including constipation, nausea, polyuria, confusion, depression, lethargy, weakness, and bone pain. In chronic cases, hypercalcaemia can lead to the formation of renal stones. If left untreated, calcium levels greater than 3.5 mmol/l can cause renal failure and arrhythmias.

      The treatment of hypercalcaemia involves identifying and removing the underlying causes, rehydration, and, if necessary, the use of bisphosphonates. In cases where primary hyperparathyroidism is the cause, surgical treatment may be necessary.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia is a serious medical condition that can cause a range of symptoms and complications. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further health problems.

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  • Question 14 - A 58-year-old woman has terminal lung cancer. Her level of pain is sufficient...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has terminal lung cancer. Her level of pain is sufficient to commence treatment with a strong opioid analgesic by mouth. Her only other medication is paracetamol 1 g 6-hourly.
      Which of the following additional drugs should be routinely started at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Senna

      Explanation:

      Common Medications Used in Palliative Care

      When introducing an opioid in palliative cancer care, it is recommended to prescribe a stimulant laxative such as senna or a dantron-containing laxative to prevent constipation. Amitriptyline is commonly prescribed as an adjuvant analgesic for neuropathic pain, while ibuprofen is used for bone pain or pain due to soft tissue infiltration. Metoclopramide is a pro-kinetic drug used for vomiting due to gastric stasis, while prochlorperazine is not typically used in palliative care. It is important to consider the specific needs of each patient when selecting medications for palliative care.

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  • Question 15 - A 53-year-old woman who was diagnosed with lung cancer almost a year ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman who was diagnosed with lung cancer almost a year ago presents feeling progressively unwell over the last week or two.

      You review her notes and see that she is under the care of the local respiratory team with a histological diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma. The tumour is not suitable for surgical resection and the patient is being treated palliatively.

      Her current medication consists of: paracetamol 1 g QDS, morphine sulphate 30 mg BD, Oramorph PRN for breakthrough pain, lactulose 15 mls BD and metoclopramide 10 mg TDS.

      She describes feeling generally weak and lethargic and complains of thirst and widespread aches and pains. Her family reports that she has also been a bit more vague and slightly confused over the last few days.

      Further questioning reveals that she is also suffering from some generalised abdominal pain and despite taking a regular laxative has been very constipated.

      What is the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia in a Patient with Squamous Cell Lung Carcinoma

      This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of hypercalcaemia, including confusion, lethargy, musculoskeletal aches and pains, thirst, abdominal pain, and constipation. The underlying cause of her hypercalcaemia is likely ectopic parathyroid hormone production associated with her squamous cell lung carcinoma.

      It is important to consider other potential causes of her symptoms, such as anaemia or an infective cause like atypical pneumonia. However, her medication and superior vena caval obstruction are less likely to be the primary cause of her clinical picture.

      Managing hypercalcaemia in patients with advanced cancer is crucial for symptom control and improving quality of life. The Scottish Palliative Care Guidelines provide recommendations for the management of hypercalcaemia, including hydration, bisphosphonates, and corticosteroids. Close monitoring and communication with the patient’s healthcare team are also essential.

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  • Question 16 - A 57-year-old woman comes to see her GP after a year. Her husband...

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    • A 57-year-old woman comes to see her GP after a year. Her husband is currently receiving treatment for bladder cancer. She expresses feeling very distressed about his condition and treatment. They live together in a house which they own. Since her husband's illness, they have not had a regular income and she is unable to seek employment as she needs to care for her husband and take him to appointments. They have no children. She is distressed and confides in you that she 'did not know where else to turn'.

      What is the most appropriate initial course of action for this patient? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer ongoing GP support and follow-up

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management for a Patient Dealing with a Major Life Event

      When a patient approaches their GP seeking advice and support for a major life event, it is important to provide appropriate management. Starting the patient on night sedatives or an SSRI antidepressant without an assessment for insomnia or depression would not be appropriate at this stage. Referring the patient to a Macmillan Cancer Care Nurse or community mental health services may be required in addition to providing ongoing GP support, but it would not be the initial next step. The initial management should focus on exploring the patient’s needs and offering ongoing GP support and follow-up, upon which later care strategies can be constructed. The GP is uniquely placed to provide medical and supportive care to the patient and possibly their wider family.

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  • Question 17 - Ms. Smith is a 62-year-old woman with lung cancer. She has a husband...

    Incorrect

    • Ms. Smith is a 62-year-old woman with lung cancer. She has a husband and two children; her son has been closely involved in decision making regarding her care throughout her illness and she has previously conferred Power of Attorney for Health and Welfare to him, whereas her daughter only visits very infrequently.
      Ms. Smith has been very clear that she wishes not to receive artificial ventilation if she were to lose capacity. She is worried that her daughter will want to do anything she can to keep her alive. Therefore, Ms. Smith completed an Advance Decision to Refuse Treatment (ADRT) stating she wishes not to receive artificial ventilation at the end of life.
      What conclusions can you draw regarding the ARDT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It will come in to force as soon as Mr James signs it

      Explanation:

      Advance Decisions to Refuse Treatment (ADRTs)

      An Advance Decision to Refuse Treatment (ADRT) is a legally binding document that comes into force once a person loses capacity. It is applicable and valid, and family members cannot override it. It is important to note that there is no legal definition of next of kin.

      For an ADRT that refuses potentially life-sustaining treatment to be valid, it must be written, signed, and witnessed. It should also include a statement indicating that the person completing the ADRT accepts the consequences, even if it means their life is at risk.

      A Lasting Power of Attorney for Health and Welfare can only override the ADRT if it was made after the ADRT and the attorney has the authority to give or refuse consent for treatment related to the ADRT.

      It is essential to complete an ADRT when one is 18 years or older and has the capacity to do so. The document comes into force when the person loses capacity.

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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old man is terminally ill with carcinoma of the pancreas. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is terminally ill with carcinoma of the pancreas. He has abdominal and back pain and his analgesic combination of full doses of paracetamol and codeine is no longer controlling this.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Morphine

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Pain Medication: A Guide to Opioids and Adjuvants

      When it comes to managing pain, healthcare professionals often follow the World Health Organization’s analgesic ladder. This involves starting with non-opioid medications, such as paracetamol, and weak opioids, such as codeine, before moving on to stronger opioids like morphine if necessary.

      In cases where bone pain or soft tissue infiltration is present, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen can be added as an adjuvant at any step in pain management. However, it is important to note that these adjuvants are unlikely to be a substitute for stronger opioids like morphine.

      Dihydrocodeine and tramadol are both weak opioids and are therefore unlikely to provide significant pain relief in cases where stronger medication is needed. Amitriptyline, on the other hand, is an adjuvant typically used for neuropathic pain and is unlikely to be effective in this scenario.

      For patients who require a strong opioid but are unable to take oral medication, fentanyl may be prescribed as a transdermal patch. Ultimately, the choice of pain medication and adjuvants will depend on the individual patient’s needs and the severity of their pain.

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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old retired teacher has been diagnosed with a renal cell carcinoma.

    He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired teacher has been diagnosed with a renal cell carcinoma.

      He has been steadily increasing his analgesia in recent weeks and is currently taking the maximum dose of co-codamol 30/500. You are considering switching to morphine.

      What is the equivalent 24-hour oral morphine dose to maintain the same level of analgesia as his current co-codamol regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      Understanding Equivalent Morphine Dose for Codeine Patients

      When prescribing pain medication, it is important to consider the equivalent morphine dose for patients taking codeine. This can be calculated by dividing the dose of codeine by 10. For example, a patient taking 60 mg of codeine four times a day would have a total daily dose of 240 mg, which is equivalent to 24 mg of morphine.

      Failing to consider the equivalent morphine dose can result in inadequate pain relief for the patient. It is important to note that some patients may metabolize codeine at different rates, but this should not be a major concern in most cases. The majority of patients are normal metabolizers, converting 10% of codeine to morphine.

      Overall, understanding the equivalent morphine dose for codeine patients is a crucial aspect of pain management and should be taken into consideration when prescribing medication.

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  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old woman is diagnosed with locally invasive pancreatic cancer. She has decided...

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    • A 75-year-old woman is diagnosed with locally invasive pancreatic cancer. She has decided she doesn't want any oncological input. She lives with her husband of 50 years. She is clear she would like to be cared for at home as much possible. She comes alone to the appointment. She wants to discuss her care plans; in particular, she would like more information about a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) for Health and Welfare.
      What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The appointed attorney cannot always make decision about the donor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lasting Power of Attorney for Health and Welfare

      Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) for Health and Welfare is a legal document that allows a person to appoint one or more attorneys to make decisions on their behalf when they are unable to do so themselves. This LPA can only be invoked when the donor loses mental capacity, which may occur if they have a living will or have been sectioned.

      It is important to note that the LPA for Health and Welfare doesn’t give the attorney the right to make decisions about pensions and benefits. For such decisions, a separate LPA for Property and Financial Affairs must be considered.

      Once registered, the appointed attorney can make decisions about the donor’s health and care. It is not necessary for the appointed attorney to be a family member; they can be a friend, relative, or even a professional such as a solicitor.

      It is also important to renew the LPA every 12 months. The LPA will endure unless revoked by the donor while they still have mental capacity, revoked by the attorney, the donor loses mental capacity, they divorce or end a civil partnership, or they pass away.

      In summary, understanding the LPA for Health and Welfare is crucial for ensuring that a person’s wishes are respected and their best interests are protected when they are unable to make decisions for themselves.

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  • Question 21 - A 66-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with spinal pain. He has...

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    • A 66-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with spinal pain. He has a history of bronchial carcinoma. Which of the following signs is LEAST indicative of spinal metastases?
      Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar pain relieved by rest and aggravated by movement

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Spinal Metastases: Symptoms and Risks

      Spinal metastases pose a significant risk of spinal cord compression, affecting 5-10% of all cancer patients. While all options may indicate spinal metastases, it is crucial to identify specific symptoms. Lumbar pain that worsens with movement and improves with rest is a common symptom of mechanical back pain, but other concerning features include progressive and nocturnal spinal pain. If a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases, doctors should consult with the local metastatic spinal cord coordinator within 24 hours to ensure prompt and appropriate management.

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  • Question 22 - You are assessing a palliative care cancer patient with advanced metastatic disease who...

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    • You are assessing a palliative care cancer patient with advanced metastatic disease who is in their 70s.

      You have been requested by the palliative care community nurse to attend for a joint home visit as the patient has been experiencing headaches. The patient had a CT head scan four weeks ago that revealed extensive brain metastases.

      No further active treatment has been planned, and the patient has chosen to receive home care with community support. You suspect that the headaches are due to increased intracranial pressure.

      What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe for symptom relief?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Symptoms of Raised Intracranial Pressure in Brain Metastases Patients

      This patient is experiencing symptoms of raised intracranial pressure due to brain metastases. Depending on the treatment aims and ceiling of treatment, radiotherapy may be indicated. However, pharmacotherapy can also aid in palliating symptoms. High dose corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone at 16 mg daily for four to five days, followed by a reduced dose of 4-6 mg daily, can help alleviate headaches caused by raised intracranial pressure. Other options may be considered as adjuncts to treatment for pain, nausea, and agitation. Nevertheless, dexamethasone is the best option as it directly targets the underlying problem causing the symptoms in this case.

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  • Question 23 - You are evaluating a patient with advanced breast cancer. The patient has asked...

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    • You are evaluating a patient with advanced breast cancer. The patient has asked you to fill out a DS1500 form. When is it appropriate to complete this form?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      When an individual’s life expectancy is less than 6 months, a DS1500 form is filled out to expedite the process of receiving benefit payments.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

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  • Question 24 - You are called to see a palliative care patient who is homebound and...

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    • You are called to see a palliative care patient who is homebound and receiving care from the district nurses and community palliative care nurses. The primary diagnosis is lung cancer and symptom control is currently being achieved with the use of a syringe driver. The reason for the call today is that the patient's 85-year-old mother has had three seizures in the last 24 hours. The patient is for palliative treatment only and neither she nor her family want her to be admitted to the hospital. You review the current medications being administered via the syringe driver and see that she is being given diamorphine, cyclizine, and hyoscine hydrobromide.
      Which of the following treatment plans is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin 300 mg daily taken orally

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Seizures in Palliative Care

      In palliative care, patients may experience seizures which can be distressing for both the patient and their family. To prevent further fits and provide symptom palliation, treatment is necessary. However, the method of administration must be considered as the patient may already be receiving medication via a syringe driver. Oral preparations may not be absorbed adequately, and phenytoin is not the medication of choice in this setting. Benzodiazepines can provide palliation of anxiety, restlessness, and breathlessness, as well as treat seizures. However, intramuscular and rectal administration of medication can be uncomfortable for the patient.

      Midazolam is the benzodiazepine antiepileptic of choice for use as a continuous subcutaneous infusion. It is typically administered at initial doses of 20-40 mg over 24 hours. Lorazepam and diazepam also have their roles in palliative care, but they may be preferable in different situations, especially if delivery is by an alternative route to subcutaneous infusion and as required use is indicated for more infrequent symptoms. Overall, the choice of treatment for seizures in palliative care should be carefully considered to ensure the patient’s comfort and well-being.

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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old gentleman with terminal metastatic breast cancer has been on a syringe...

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    • A 65-year-old gentleman with terminal metastatic breast cancer has been on a syringe driver for four days following a period of vomiting. He is currently taking a total of 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours via a syringe driver, but his nausea is now well controlled and he wishes to go back on to oral medication.

      What total dose of oral morphine should you prescribe over a 24-hour period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 120 mg

      Explanation:

      Drug Calculation Learning Point

      When it comes to drug calculations, it’s important to be careful and avoid getting caught out. One common scenario is converting a patient from oral medication to a subcutaneous infusion as their disease progresses. However, it’s also important to be able to take patients off a syringe driver and back on to oral medication. In this case, the total daily dose of diamorphine via syringe driver is one-third of the total oral dose of morphine. It’s easy to get the calculation the wrong way around, so it’s crucial to be familiar with this learning point.

      For example, if a patient is having 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours, the total 24-hour oral dose of morphine would be 30 mg x 3 = 90 mg oral morphine. This is a common area of weakness in the AKT exam, and examiners have highlighted it as an area of poor performance. Therefore, it’s essential to practice this calculation repeatedly during revision time to ensure a thorough understanding of the concept.

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  • Question 26 - You are tasked with completing a death certificate for an 85-year-old patient under...

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    • You are tasked with completing a death certificate for an 85-year-old patient under your care. She passed away yesterday due to pneumonia at home, following a joint decision made by her family and medical team not to admit her to the hospital for further treatment. The patient had a history of dementia and osteoporosis, and you had last assessed her two days prior.

      The patient had recently undergone surgery for a fractured neck of femur, which she sustained after tripping on a step at home. Although her surgery had been successful and she had been recovering well, she began experiencing respiratory symptoms shortly after being discharged from the hospital. What is the appropriate course of action regarding the completion of the death certificate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speak to the coroner

      Explanation:

      It is probable that the patient passed away due to the initial fall, which necessitates referral to the coroner as per the guidance that mandates all deaths related to injury or poisoning.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old gentleman with a history of lung cancer is brought to your...

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    • An 80-year-old gentleman with a history of lung cancer is brought to your clinic by his family with complaints of 'depression'. He has been receiving treatment for his lung cancer for several months now and was doing well both physically and emotionally. However, his family noticed a sudden change in his behavior yesterday. He became withdrawn, quiet, and tearful, which is not typical of his usual self. There was no apparent trigger for this change, and he had plans to visit his family in the coming days.

      Upon examination, he appears withdrawn and quiet, and he reports not knowing why he feels the way he does. He is apyrexial, and there are no physical findings to explain his symptoms.

      What would be the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contact the community palliative care nurse to arrange a domiciliary visit for support and advice

      Explanation:

      Acute Personality Change in Lung Cancer Patients: A Possible Sign of Cerebral Metastases

      When a patient with known lung cancer experiences an acute personality change, it is important to consider the possibility of cerebral metastases. While depression associated with the condition may be a factor, an abrupt shift in behavior without an obvious trigger warrants immediate specialist assessment. This was the case for a real patient with lung cancer who presented with withdrawal and quietness, and was found to have brain metastases on CT imaging.

      According to a review of psychiatric aspects of brain tumors, changes in behavior and personality are common in patients with cerebral metastases. These changes can include depression, anxiety, irritability, and apathy. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential symptoms and to promptly refer patients for further evaluation and treatment. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate care and support to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 28 - A geriatric patient with terminal illness is currently receiving 60mg of modified release...

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    • A geriatric patient with terminal illness is currently receiving 60mg of modified release morphine every 12 hours. Due to difficulty in swallowing, you plan to switch to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine. The morphine ampoules available are of 10 mg/ml strength. What would be the required volume of morphine (in ml) to be added to the syringe driver for a 24 hour period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6

      Explanation:

      Converting Oral Morphine to Subcutaneous Infusion

      In order to convert oral morphine to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine, the total 24 hour oral dose must be calculated. For example, if the patient is taking a 12 hour release preparation of 60mg, the total daily dose of oral morphine is 120mg. To convert this to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine, the figure must be divided by two. For diamorphine, the figure would be divided by three. Therefore, the patient needs 60mg morphine over 24 hours.

      It is important to note that the question asks for the volume of morphine over 24 hours, not the dose. If the ampoules are 10 mg/ml, then to deliver 60mg in 24 hours, 6 x 10 mg/ml = 6 ml is needed. It is crucial to read the question carefully to ensure the correct answer is given.

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  • Question 29 - John is a 85-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer who you have...

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    • John is a 85-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer who you have been managing in the community with palliative care who has died today. You fill out the death certificate. In which of the following circumstances would you be required to refer the case to the coroner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness

      Explanation:

      A death should be referred to the coroner if the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness, if the cause of death is unknown, if the death was violent or unnatural, if the death was sudden and unexplained, if a medical certificate is not available, if the person who died wasn’t seen by the doctor who signed the medical certificate within 28 days before death or after they died, if the death occurred during an operation or before the person came out of anaesthetic, or if the medical certificate suggests the death may have been caused by an industrial disease or industrial poisoning.

      Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner

      When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.

      It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.

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  • Question 30 - A 58-year-old gentleman with known lung cancer is seen as an emergency. He...

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    • A 58-year-old gentleman with known lung cancer is seen as an emergency. He has developed a significant deterioration in his breathlessness over the last few days. He also complains of headache and dizziness.

      On examination he has a soft stridor and you notice some dilated veins on his chest wall.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide orally

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is a blockage of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, with lung cancer and lymphoma being the most frequent culprits. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      Typical features of SVCO include facial and upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Impaired venous return can cause dizziness and even syncopal attacks. Headache due to pressure effect is also seen.

      Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds is crucial, and immediate referral for specialist assessment is necessary. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO becomes a medical emergency.

      Treatment for SVCO typically involves steroids and radiotherapy, with chemotherapy and stent insertion being indicated in some cases. Although dexamethasone may be given as an acute treatment, it is not the best answer for this patient, who needs to be referred immediately for inpatient treatment and monitoring.

      In summary, SVCO is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and referral for specialist assessment. Treatment options include steroids, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and stent insertion, depending on the underlying cause.

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