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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual review; he...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual review; he has a diagnosis of schizophrenia and he has been stable on olanzapine for three years. He is otherwise fit and well and doesn't take any other medication. The initial screening investigations performed in secondary care were all normal before his medication was initiated.
      Which of the following investigations should be included in an annual health check in primary care for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prolactin level

      Correct Answer: Lipid profile

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Health in Patients with Schizophrenia: Recommended Tests and Frequency

      Patients with schizophrenia or other psychotic illnesses should undergo an annual health check in primary care to assess their mental and physical health. The following tests are recommended:

      – Weight, pulse, and blood pressure measurements
      – Full blood count, liver function tests, urea & electrolytes, lipid profile, HbA1c, and fasting glucose
      – Prolactin level (annually for patients taking first-generation antipsychotics or risperidone, or if symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia are present)
      – Electrocardiogram (ECG) before initiating olanzapine, and annually for patients taking haloperidol, pimozide, or sertindole, or if the patient had an abnormal ECG at initial screening or risk factors of developing a prolonged QTc interval
      – Creatinine kinase (CK) only if the patient develops symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
      – Thyroid function tests (TFTs) only if there are other indications to do so, such as known thyroid disease or symptoms to suggest co-existing hypo- or hyperthyroidism, except for patients taking lithium who must have their TFTs checked regularly.

      Regular monitoring is important as atypical antipsychotics can increase the risk of developing cardiovascular disease risk factors. However, not all tests need to be performed annually for all patients, and the frequency of testing may vary depending on the medication and individual patient factors.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 2 - A woman in her 50s comes to you with symptoms of moderate depression....

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 50s comes to you with symptoms of moderate depression. She has experienced severe side effects from SSRIs and you are considering prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant instead. Before doing so, you review her medical history for any potential contraindications to taking tricyclics.

      Which of the following conditions could be a contraindication to using tricyclic antidepressants?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants and Heart Issues

      Tricyclic antidepressants, specifically amitriptyline, may cause arrhythmias and heart block. These issues can occur occasionally and should be avoided if there is a high risk of arrhythmia. It is important to be aware of the potential heart-related side effects when considering tricyclic antidepressants as a treatment option. If there is a history of heart problems or a high risk of arrhythmia, alternative medications should be considered. It is always important to discuss any concerns or questions with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 3 - A 13-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner over concerns about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner over concerns about his behaviour at school. There is concern that he is being bullied.
      Which of the following behaviours is most likely to have prompted this enquiry?

      Your Answer: Aggressive behaviour

      Correct Answer: Self-harm

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bullying: Signs and Symptoms

      Bullying can have serious effects on a child’s mental health, and it should always be viewed as unacceptable. It can take various forms, such as physical or psychological, and can include teasing, name-calling, hitting, kicking, and social exclusion. Signs that a child may be experiencing bullying include unexplained scratches and bruises, crying themselves to sleep, nightmares, depression, self-harm, headaches, abdominal pain, fear of walking to or from school, school refusal or truancy, poor school performance, and changes in behavior such as social isolation. On the other hand, signs that a child may be a bully include aggressive behavior, physical strength, having a high opinion of oneself, expecting people to behave according to one’s wishes, being popular or unpopular with other children, little concern for the feelings of others, and disregard for rules. Children who bully are at risk of failing in school, dropping out of school, getting involved with crime and fights later in life, and using drugs. It is important to recognize these signs and symptoms and take action to prevent and address bullying.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old female presents with a 3-week history of low mood. On further...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female presents with a 3-week history of low mood. On further questioning, she reveals that she witnessed a violent altercation outside her apartment complex when returning from work 4 weeks ago. She now has nightmares related to the incident and is avoiding leaving her apartment, which is causing her to miss work. She has no past medical history and is not on any medications. What would be your first-line management recommendation for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR)

      Correct Answer: Trauma focussed cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Acute Stress Disorder (ASD): Symptoms appear within 3 days to 4 weeks after the traumatic event. The condition lasts for a minimum of 3 days and a maximum of 4 weeks. If symptoms persist beyond 4 weeks, the diagnosis may be revised to PTSD.

      For this patient with acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended first-line management. This therapy involves a combination of exposure therapy and trauma-focused cognitive therapy, tailored to the patient’s age and development, and may involve parents or carers for children.

      While eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) can be used as a management option for PTSD, it is not required in this case as the patient doesn’t have PTSD.

      Risperidone, an antipsychotic, may be used in PTSD under mental health team supervision, but is not necessary for this patient with acute stress disorder.

      If the patient prefers drug treatment, has significant comorbid depression, or cannot engage in psychological treatments, sertraline or venlafaxine, both antidepressants, may be started in primary care for PTSD. They can also be used as an adjunct to psychological treatments or when there has been a poor response to psychological treatments.

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.

      The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman is seen at home 12 weeks after a successful first...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is seen at home 12 weeks after a successful first pregnancy. She is tearful, has lost her appetite and is very anxious about her infant’s health. There are no features of delirium. She has a history of illicit drug use but denies current use. Her older brother has depression. There are no features to suggest infection and there are no focal neurological signs.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: postpartum depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health: Depression, Psychosis, and Maternity Blues

      Postpartum mental health can be a challenging experience for new mothers. Within the first year of pregnancy, postpartum depression can occur, which is similar to major depression at other times of life. However, postpartum psychosis is a severe mental illness that usually occurs suddenly within the first two weeks after delivery and is often associated with confusion and disorientation. While delusions of something being wrong with the baby are relatively common in postpartum psychosis, depression is also associated with anxiety about the baby.

      On the other hand, maternity blues is relatively common and occurs within a few days of delivery. It consists of irritability and tearfulness without features of a major depressive episode. It is essential to understand the differences between these conditions to provide appropriate support and treatment for new mothers.

      It is worth noting that there is no mention of schizophrenia in this woman’s history or any suggestion of current illicit drug use. By understanding the different types of postpartum mental health conditions, we can better support new mothers and ensure they receive the care they need.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 6 - A 36-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behavior....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behavior. Her husband reports that the changes have occurred mostly in the past week and he has never seen this behavior before. He often wakes up to find her walking around the house and talking to people who are not there. During the consultation, the patient appears distracted and occasionally smiles and waves at the wall behind the doctor. There is no history of psychiatric illness in the patient or her family. The patient doesn't seem distressed and politely asks if she can leave as she believes the appointment is a waste of time.

      The patient takes loratadine 10 mg once daily for hay-fever, salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma, and has recently started a combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She is also taking a course of prednisolone tablets following a recent exacerbation of her asthma.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Loratadine

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When a person experiences sudden onset psychosis after taking corticosteroids, it is important to consider the possibility of steroid-induced psychosis. Although both the beclomethasone inhaler and prednisolone are corticosteroids, the higher dose of prednisolone makes it the more likely culprit for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 7 - A 39-year-old man complains of ongoing fatigue over the last 10 months. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man complains of ongoing fatigue over the last 10 months. What is the least indicative feature for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dizziness

      Correct Answer: Having a busy day improves the symptoms

      Explanation:

      The symptoms typically worsen with physical or mental exertion.

      Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. Fatigue is the central feature of this condition, and other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and/or joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.

      To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin*, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, which is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is also recommended, which is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. ‘Pacing’ is another management technique, which involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Low-dose amitriptyline may be useful for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic is recommended if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 8 - For which condition has St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) been proven to be...

    Incorrect

    • For which condition has St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) been proven to be beneficial?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Dysthymia

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort for Depression: Clinical Evidence and Considerations

      There is clinical evidence to support the use of St John’s wort in treating mild to moderate depression and dysthymia. However, the active ingredient and mechanism of action are still unclear from the latest psychiatry evidence. Hyperforin is responsible for St John’s wort’s enzyme induction effect, but it is not yet shown to be directly active in lifting mood.

      A Cochrane review of 29 clinical trials found that St John’s wort was superior to placebo for treating mild to moderate depression but not severe depression. However, most of the studies were from German-speaking countries, and some were small. There is also evidence for efficacy in Gram-negative infection and improving symptoms in Parkinson’s disease. However, there is no reference for its use in multiple sclerosis (MS).

      It is important to note that the latest NICE guidance on depression advises against prescribing or advising St John’s wort due to the differing potencies of different formulations and potentially serious interactions with other medicines, such as anticonvulsants and the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is crucial to ask patients if they are taking any herbal or natural remedies and dispel the myth that natural and safe are synonymous.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a fight with her partner. She has a history of relationship problems and frequently argues with loved ones. She denies experiencing any paranoid thoughts or unusual beliefs but reports hearing a voice in her head that describes her negative thoughts. Upon examination, you observe several superficial scars on her forearms. There is no evidence of delusions or abnormal speech.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by recurrent self-harm and intense interpersonal relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation. Symptoms also include fluctuating mood and the possibility of paranoid thoughts and hallucinations.

      Paranoid personality disorder is not the correct answer, as it primarily involves difficulty trusting others and interpreting situations as threatening. While some degree of paranoia is described in the patient, the other symptoms are more indicative of borderline personality disorder.

      Schizoid personality disorder is also not the correct answer, as it involves difficulty forming close relationships and a preference for being alone. The patient in this scenario describes relationships with partners, friends, and family.

      Schizophrenia is not the correct answer either, as it primarily involves delusions, auditory hallucinations, and disorders of thought perception.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 10 - A 69-year-old man comes to see you. He is tearful and clearly upset....

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old man comes to see you. He is tearful and clearly upset. On review of his notes you see has a history of recurrent depression and he has been taking citalopram 20 mg once daily for the last 12 months. You can also see that he was referred for psychological therapies.

      His grown up son has a severe learning disability and lives with him. He lacks social support and cites money problems and needs to work as a part time job as a cleaner. He is finding it difficult to function at work and he thinks that his employer wants to sack him, so he needs a 'sick note'. His son attends a day centre twice a week.

      He tells you that he has had suicidal thoughts on and off for years and at the moment he feels like just ending it all. He says that he is not sure how he would do this but could take some tablets or something I suppose. He tells you that last year when he was feeling very low he drank a bottle of whiskey and took pain killers as he felt suicidal.

      Which of the following suggests the greatest risk of suicidal intent?

      Your Answer: Request for a sick note

      Correct Answer: Duration of suicidal thoughts

      Explanation:

      Assessing Suicide Risk in Patients: Importance of Therapeutic Alliance and Individualized Assessment

      Assessing suicide risk in patients can be challenging, but establishing a therapeutic alliance and trusting relationship between the professional and patient is crucial. Patients need to feel comfortable enough to disclose suicidal thoughts, and having such discussions can be protective against suicide. A sensitive but thorough enquiry into the details can help identify and compassionately respond to identified risk. It is essential to ask all patients presenting with low mood/anxiety about suicidal thoughts.

      Taking any suicidal ideas seriously and conducting a risk assessment is vital. Exploring protective factors, such as responsibilities for loved ones, can also help in assessing risk. While established risk factors and risk groups for suicide at a population level are useful, clinicians should not rely solely on this knowledge when assessing risk in specific individuals. Suicidal thoughts and risk can vary over a short time, and the assessment of suicide risk needs to be individually focused and conducted regularly.

      A patient’s acute presentation can be a significant factor in considering an impulsive act that may not necessarily translate into significant suicide risk. The duration of suicidal thoughts is not as strong a risk factor as a previous suicide attempt. If suicidal thoughts are uncovered, the clinician needs to decide whether the patient needs to be referred to the Crisis team or is safe to review in 1 or 2 days (‘active monitoring’). The request for a sick note and agreement to plan future care shows that the patient is thinking about the future and wants help.

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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old female presents after her partner encouraged her to see the GP....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female presents after her partner encouraged her to see the GP. She has had hyperarousal to loud noises and difficulty concentrating at work following a car accident 4 weeks ago. Her partner did some reading online and feels she is suffering from an acute stress disorder. You advise her that she has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and discuss treatment options. She asks what the difference is, so that she can explain it to her partner. You advise there are similarities in the presentation and the main difference is temporal.

      At what point after the event can you confirm a diagnosis of PTSD?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is characterized by an acute stress reaction that occurs within 4 weeks of a traumatic event, while PTSD is diagnosed after 4 weeks have passed. Symptoms presented at 2 weeks would indicate acute stress disorder. PTSD and acute stress disorder share similar symptoms, including re-experiencing, avoidance, hyperarousal, and emotional numbing. Re-experiencing symptoms may include flashbacks, nightmares, and intrusive images, while avoidance symptoms may involve avoiding people, situations, or circumstances associated with the traumatic event. Hyperarousal symptoms may include hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response, sleep disturbances, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. Emotional numbing may manifest as a lack of ability to experience feelings or feeling detached.

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.

      The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.

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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old factory worker is brought in by her boyfriend. He says that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old factory worker is brought in by her boyfriend. He says that she was suicidal when they argued after she accidentally scratched his car while parking.

      There have been no recent major life events and there is no mention of any suicide attempt in her past medical history. She drinks six cans of beer over the weekend and is a former smoker.

      In her free time, she enjoys singing karaoke at the local bar with her friends. She still lives with her parents, but she and her boyfriend are considering moving in together.

      Which of the following is a risk factor for suicide?

      Your Answer: Minor life events

      Correct Answer: Employed

      Explanation:

      Enquiring about Suicide Risk Factors in Depressed Patients

      When speaking with patients who are experiencing depression, it is important to always ask about suicide. Even if depression is not explicitly mentioned, it is helpful to identify any potential risk factors for suicide in the patient’s history. One example of a risk factor listed in this case is the patient’s low socio-economic status. Other risk factors include advancing age, male gender, recent major life events, unemployment, living alone, previous suicide attempts, and concurrent mental disorders.

      To identify high-risk patients, clinicians may use formal assessments such as the PATHOS self-harm assessment. This tool is used after an overdose attempt to identify patients who are at a higher risk for suicide. By enquiring about suicide risk factors and using appropriate assessments, clinicians can better identify and support patients who may be at risk for self-harm.

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  • Question 13 - What is a true statement about obsessive compulsive disorder (obsessional neurosis)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about obsessive compulsive disorder (obsessional neurosis)?

      Your Answer: Patients often act on their aggressive impulses

      Correct Answer: The onset is usually after the age of 50 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obsessional Neurosis and Obsessional Compulsive Disorder

      Obsessional neurosis is a mental health condition characterized by repetitive rituals, persistent fears, and disturbing thoughts. Patients with this disorder maintain insight and often find the illness distressing, which can lead to depression. On the other hand, obsessional compulsive disorder typically starts in early adulthood and has equal sex incidence. Patients with this disorder have above-average intelligence.

      It is important to note that Sigmund Freud’s theory that obsessive-compulsive symptoms were caused by rigid toilet-training practices is no longer widely accepted. Despite this, understanding these disorders and their symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of these disorders, individuals can work towards managing their symptoms and improving their overall quality of life.

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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. Upon evaluation, you diagnose...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. Upon evaluation, you diagnose him with moderate depression and decide to initiate fluoxetine treatment. According to the latest NICE recommendations, when should you schedule a follow-up appointment with the patient?

      Your Answer: After 3-4 weeks

      Correct Answer: After 1 week

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests that patients who are under 30 years old should be reviewed within one week.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 15 - According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), what would indicate that a person...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), what would indicate that a person doesn't have capacity?

      Your Answer: Refusal of necessary medical treatment

      Correct Answer: Inability to weigh up information and make a decision

      Explanation:

      Understanding Capacity to Make Decisions: The Test and Criteria

      The Mental Capacity Act provides a clear and concise test to determine whether a person lacks capacity to make a decision at a particular time. The test involves assessing whether the person has an impairment or disturbance of mental function that prevents them from making the decision in question.

      To have capacity, a person must be able to understand the relevant information, retain it, use it to make a decision, and indicate that decision through communication. Age, appearance, and behavior are not factors in determining capacity.

      Overall, understanding the criteria for capacity is crucial in ensuring that individuals are able to make informed decisions and have their rights protected.

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  • Question 16 - A 50 year-old obese man with type 2 diabetes and schizophrenia is seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year-old obese man with type 2 diabetes and schizophrenia is seeking advice regarding a personal issue. He reports difficulty ejaculating during sexual intercourse. Which medication could potentially be causing this side effect?

      Your Answer: sitagliptin

      Correct Answer: zuclopenthixol

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic medication can lead to sexual dysfunction due to their ability to block dopamine and increase prolactin levels. This can result in a decrease in libido. Additionally, some antipsychotics can block alpha1-adrenoreceptors, leading to erectile dysfunction and difficulty with ejaculation.

      Commonly prescribed antipsychotics such as risperidone and haloperidol are known to cause sexual dysfunction. Treatment options include reducing the dosage or switching to a different antipsychotic medication. (Source: BNF)

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

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  • Question 17 - A 17-year-old female comes to see you with her mother. Her mother is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female comes to see you with her mother. Her mother is concerned about her daughter's lack of self-confidence and lack of friends.

      You talk with the daughter who tells you that she is worried about her weight and feels that she needs to lose weight to be more attractive. She feels that she needs to lose at least another 2 stones for her 'ideal' body weight. Her mother tells you that she is pre-occupied with her eating habits and this has been a persistent problem for a 'long time'. You weigh her and her body mass index is 23.

      On clinical examination you note skin abrasions and some callous formation on the dorsum of her hands overlying the metacarpophalangeal joints and the presence of some dental erosion affecting the teeth.

      What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Correct Answer: Substance misuse

      Explanation:

      Bulimia Nervosa: Characteristics and Physical Signs

      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by persistent preoccupation with eating, cravings for food that cannot be resisted, episodes of binge eating, and compensatory methods to counter the effects of food on body weight and shape. Unlike anorexia nervosa, body weight may be normal with bulimia. Physical signs of bulimia include arrhythmias, electrolyte abnormalities, upper GI erosions, ulcers, and dental erosions. Russell’s sign, skin abrasions, lacerations, and calluses overlying the dorsal aspect of the small joints of the hands, is a clinical sign caused by repetitive friction between the teeth and skin when sufferers use their fingers/hand to self-induce vomiting. Bulimia is often associated with other psychiatric comorbidities such as depression and alcohol/substance misuse. This behavior is not normal adolescent behavior as it is persistent and causing significant psychological symptoms and demonstrable physical signs.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 18 - A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father has become disinterested and withdrawn.

      Which of the following would favour a diagnosis of dementia rather than depression?

      Your Answer: Agitation

      Correct Answer: Self-reported concern of poor memory

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Alzheimer’s and Depression

      Urinary incontinence is an uncommon symptom associated with depression, but it is more typical of dementia or normal pressure hydrocephalus. On the other hand, impaired memory and concern over memory deficits can be found in both depression and dementia. Therefore, it can be challenging to differentiate between Alzheimer’s and depression based on these symptoms alone. Mayo Clinic suggests that a combination of symptoms and medical tests can help differentiate between the two conditions. Proper diagnosis and treatment can improve the quality of life for individuals and their families.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 19 - The mother of a 27-year-old male who has been diagnosed with a personality...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 27-year-old male who has been diagnosed with a personality disorder seeks your advice. She shares that her son has a history of getting into fights and has been arrested multiple times. During his teenage years, he would lie to obtain money, skip school, and say hurtful things to her without remorse. He has never been able to hold down a job and relies on his parents for financial support.

      The mother is aware of her son's diagnosis but understands that you cannot discuss his case specifically. She asks if you can provide general information about the condition to help her understand better. She has always blamed herself for her son's behavior and hopes to gain some insight into his condition.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Antisocial personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Patients with this condition often exhibit nonconformity to social norms, lack of remorse, deceitfulness, and irresponsibility. They may engage in unlawful behavior resulting in multiple arrests, get into fights due to aggressiveness, and be deceitful for personal gain. They may also disregard the safety of themselves and others and fail to support themselves financially. Despite their hurtful actions, they are unable to show remorse. Childhood problems such as truancy may be present, and their behavior can negatively impact family life. It is important to maintain confidentiality during the consultation.

      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a fear of social contact and relationships due to a fear of criticism, rejection, or embarrassment. Patients view themselves as inferior to others and are hesitant to engage unless they are certain of being liked.

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and unstable relationships with others. Patients may experience feelings of emptiness, have a poor self-image, and engage in self-harm.

      Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and a sense of entitlement.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman who is six weeks postpartum visits her General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is six weeks postpartum visits her General Practitioner with complaints of feeling emotionally unstable and lacking energy. What factor in her medical history would suggest the presence of postnatal depression?

      Your Answer: A low score on the Edinburgh postnatal Depression Scale

      Correct Answer: Presence of guilty thoughts

      Explanation:

      Identifying Postnatal Depression: Symptoms and Screening

      Postpartum depressive illness affects around 10-15% of women and typically begins within the first three months after childbirth. Symptoms of major depression, including depressed mood, anhedonia, and thoughts of worthlessness, are present. Anxiety about the baby’s health is common, but anxiety alone doesn’t indicate postnatal depression. Guilty thoughts are a specific symptom of depression and may be the most indicative of postnatal depression. Midwives commonly use the Edinburgh postnatal Depression Scale to screen for depression, with a score of 10 or more indicating possible depression. Inability to sleep post-delivery may be due to various factors, but if it persists alongside other symptoms, it may be an important part of screening for postnatal depression. The onset of symptoms at four days post-delivery may be indicative of baby blues, which is a common and temporary condition that doesn’t necessarily lead to postnatal depression.

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  • Question 21 - What could be the probable reason for visual hallucinations in an 85-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • What could be the probable reason for visual hallucinations in an 85-year-old woman named Edith who sees frightening faces on the walls and insects on the floor, despite being aware that they are not real? She has a medical history of hypertension, depression, hearing loss, and macular degeneration.

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Correct Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet syndrome can lead to distressing visual hallucinations in approximately one-third of those affected. While Lewy body dementia may also cause visual hallucinations and cognitive impairment, it is less likely in the absence of other neuropsychiatric symptoms. Acute psychosis typically involves auditory hallucinations and delusions, while psychotic depression is characterized by severe depression and the emergence of psychotic symptoms.

      Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.

      Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.

      In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.

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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner at the suggestion of his...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner at the suggestion of his solicitor. He has recently been charged with assault and criminal damage and is facing a custodial sentence. His solicitor thinks he may have mental health problems and hopes that this may result in a lenient sentence. He admits he has always been impulsive, irritable and had a short temper, which frequently results in fights. He has no close friends and admits to being lonely. Reviewing his notes there are several episodes of deliberate self-harm usually provoked by arguments. There is no evidence of thought disorder.
      What the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms

      Borderline Personality Disorder, Schizophrenia, Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, Bipolar Disorder, and Depression are some of the most common mental health disorders that affect individuals worldwide. Each disorder has its own set of characteristics and symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s daily life.

      Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by extreme fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, an inability to maintain friendships, an unstable sense of self, powerful emotions that change quickly and often, feelings of emptiness, frequent dangerous behavior, and self-harm. Men with this disorder may also exhibit aggressive behavior, seek to control others by criticism, demonstrate extreme jealousy, and be reluctant to share emotional experiences.

      Schizophrenia is a psychotic illness that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, thought disorder, and lack of insight.

      Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is a developmental condition of inattention and distractibility, with or without accompanying hyperactivity. The hyperactivity decreases in adulthood, but impulsivity, poor concentration, and risk-taking can get worse. These can interfere with work, learning, and relationships with other people. Depressions, anxiety, feelings of low self-esteem, and drug misuse are more common in adults with the condition.

      Bipolar Affective Disorder is characterized by periods of deep, prolonged, and profound depression that alternate with periods of an excessively elevated or irritable mood known as mania.

      Depression involves both low mood and/or absence loss of interest and pleasure in most activities, accompanied by an assortment of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.

      In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these common mental health disorders is crucial in identifying and seeking appropriate treatment for individuals who may be struggling with them.

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  • Question 23 - A 24-year-old male visits his GP 3 weeks after a car accident, worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male visits his GP 3 weeks after a car accident, worried about experiencing heightened anxiety, fatigue, and headaches. He had undergone a CT scan of his brain immediately after the incident, which showed no anomalies. After 6 months, his symptoms have disappeared. What was the probable cause of his initial symptoms?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: Post-concussion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder typically has a delayed onset of symptoms and a protracted course.

      Understanding Post-Concussion Syndrome

      Post-concussion syndrome is a condition that can occur after a person experiences even a minor head injury. It is characterized by a range of symptoms that can persist for weeks or even months after the initial injury. The most common symptoms of post-concussion syndrome include headaches, fatigue, anxiety or depression, and dizziness.

      Individuals who experience post-concussion syndrome may find that their symptoms interfere with their daily activities and quality of life. They may struggle to concentrate or remember things, and they may feel irritable or moody. In some cases, post-concussion syndrome can also cause sleep disturbances or sensitivity to light and noise.

      While the exact cause of post-concussion syndrome is not fully understood, it is believed to be related to changes in brain function that occur after a head injury. Treatment for post-concussion syndrome may involve a combination of medications, therapy, and lifestyle changes to manage symptoms and promote healing. With proper care, many people with post-concussion syndrome are able to recover fully and return to their normal activities.

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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television. You suspect he may have schizophrenia.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the treatment of schizophrenia.

      Your Answer: Compliance is usually problematic upon switching to intramuscular depot antipsychotics

      Correct Answer: Clozapine is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medication for Schizophrenia: Types, Side-Effects, and Treatment Options

      Antipsychotic medication is commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly positive symptoms. However, they may not be as effective for negative symptoms. Newer or atypical antipsychotics, such as amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and sertindole, are often preferred as they have a better balance between efficacy and side-effects.

      First-generation antipsychotic drugs, also known as typical antipsychotics, primarily block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, which can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs, or atypical antipsychotics, act on a wider range of receptors and have more distinct clinical profiles. Both types of antipsychotics are effective in treating schizophrenia.

      Early treatment is recommended to prevent further deterioration of brain functioning. In some cases, long-acting antipsychotic injections may be used to improve compliance. Benzodiazepines may also be used as a short-term adjunct therapy for behavior disturbances, insomnia, aggression, and agitation, although the evidence supporting this is limited.

      Clozapine is indicated for patients with schizophrenia who are unresponsive to or intolerant of conventional antipsychotic drugs. It can only be prescribed by a specialist and requires at least two previous trials of antipsychotics, including one newer/atypical antipsychotic, at adequate dosages and treatment periods. However, it carries a risk of life-threatening neutropenia as a potential side-effect.

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  • Question 25 - A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose...

    Incorrect

    • A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose following a recent break-up. He has entered into a new relationship but is struggling with frequent outbursts of anger. The patient has a history of childhood abuse and struggles with maintaining healthy relationships. He reports experiencing frequent mood swings between low and elevated states. The overdose was not premeditated and the patient has a history of similar incidents. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bipolar affective disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The young woman who overdosed on paracetamol after breaking up with her boyfriend is now in a new relationship that is plagued by her frequent angry outbursts, indicating borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by rapidly changing intense emotions, difficulties in maintaining relationships, feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, impulsive behavior, and self-harm. Bipolar affective disorder is not the correct diagnosis as it involves periods of depression and mania, which are not reported in this case. Dependent personality disorder and histrionic personality disorder are also not applicable as they have different symptoms such as low confidence, difficulty making decisions without support, and a need for attention.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with symptoms indicative of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with symptoms indicative of a first episode of psychosis. He is hesitant about being referred but acknowledges the need for treatment. What is the correct statement regarding prescribing for this condition?

      Your Answer: General practitioners are not permitted to initiate prescribing in schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Start with a low oral dose and titrate upwards

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Prescribing Guidelines for GPs: Consultation with Psychiatrists Recommended

      Antipsychotic medication can be prescribed by GPs, but it is recommended that they consult with a psychiatrist before doing so. The drug of choice is an oral atypical antipsychotic, but prescribing doesn’t replace the need for a comprehensive multidisciplinary assessment in secondary care. A study among Irish GPs found that just over half reported prescribing antipsychotics for suspected schizophrenia, with positive symptoms being the most common reason. However, the majority always referred patients to psychiatric services. A low dose should be initiated and titrated up slowly to achieve optimum symptom control without side effects. If treatment fails, alternative atypical or low-potency first-generation antipsychotics can be considered. Recovery rates of 80% have been reported after a first episode of psychosis.

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  • Question 27 - A 22-year-old woman, who has a history of panic attacks, visits her General...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman, who has a history of panic attacks, visits her General Practitioner as she has been experiencing a feeling of detachment from her surroundings during her attacks. She describes it as as if there is a veil between me and the outside world. What is the most appropriate term for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Depersonalisation

      Correct Answer: Derealisation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between psychological experiences: Derealisation, Delusion, Depersonalisation, Flight of Ideas, and Hallucination

      Psychological experiences can be complex and difficult to differentiate. Here are some explanations of five different experiences: derealisation, delusion, depersonalisation, flight of ideas, and hallucination.

      Derealisation is the feeling that the external world is unreal, distant, or distorted. Patients may describe it as a veil between themselves and their surroundings.

      Delusion is a fixed false belief that doesn’t change despite conflicting evidence. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings. Delusions are commonly associated with schizophrenia, not anxiety.

      Depersonalisation is the feeling of being a detached observer of oneself. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings.

      Flight of ideas is a rapid flow of thoughts that often connect and is part of the hyperexcitable state of mania. It is not typically seen in anxiety with derealisation.

      Hallucination is a false sensory perception in the absence of a real external stimulus. For example, hearing voices when no one has spoken. This patient has not described any false sensory perception.

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  • Question 28 - During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 2 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused the urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention may be caused by tricyclic antidepressants, particularly Amitriptyline, due to its anticholinergic effects. This can result in symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, mydriasis, and urinary retention. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are not typically associated with these side effects, with dry mouth and urinary retention being rare occurrences. Unlike Amitriptyline, Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, doesn’t have anticholinergic effects.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.

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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic after four weeks of starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic after four weeks of starting fluoxetine treatment for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior history of taking antidepressants and has no other medical conditions. During the assessment, she denies any suicidal thoughts and has good support from her partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She reports no adverse effects from fluoxetine but has heard positive feedback about St John's Wort from a friend. What would be the most appropriate action to take for this patient?

      Your Answer: Increase the dose of Fluoxetine and arrange weekly telephone contact to increase support

      Correct Answer: Change to a tricyclic antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs

      When a patient has been taking a Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.

      There are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, it is important to note that switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics requires great caution as it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.

      Although there is some evidence of the benefit of St John’s Wort, it is not recommended that doctors prescribe or advocate its use due to the lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and antiepileptics.

      For moderate depression, Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication. It is important to monitor the patient’s response to treatment and adjust accordingly to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a potassium reading of 2.9 mmol/L. As there...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a potassium reading of 2.9 mmol/L. As there is no obvious cause, you schedule an in-depth assessment. During the history-taking, you discover that she experiences strong urges to consume large amounts of food and frequently engages in binge eating. She also admits to using laxatives but denies inducing vomiting. These episodes occur approximately three times per week, and her body mass index is 19.5 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Explanation of Bulimia Nervosa

      The case history presented suggests that the patient is suffering from bulimia nervosa. This disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging or the use of laxatives. While anorexia is more common in teenagers, bulimia is often seen in older patients, typically in their 20s or beyond.

      The patient’s urges to eat large amounts of food, frequent use of laxatives, and low potassium levels are all indicative of bulimia nervosa. It is important to note that this behavior is not a normal variant and requires medical attention. While the patient is only marginally underweight, a BMI of 20 kg/m2 is considered the lower limit of normal.

      It is unlikely that the patient is experiencing refeeding syndrome, which is a rare condition typically associated with parenteral nutrition in a hospital setting. Enteral nutrition may also lead to refeeding syndrome after a prolonged period of starvation. However, this is not the case for the patient in question. Overall, a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa is the most appropriate for this case.

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  • Question 31 - A 28-year-old woman presented with palpitations, breathlessness and chest pain, radiating to the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presented with palpitations, breathlessness and chest pain, radiating to the left arm. These symptoms had started seven weeks ago, following the death of her father from a heart attack. Over the last decade, she had undergone investigations for abdominal pain, headaches, joint pains, and dyspareunia, but no significant cause was identified for these symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation Disorder: A Likely Diagnosis

      Somatisation disorder is a condition characterized by recurrent physical complaints such as pains, gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudo-neurologic symptoms that persist over a period of years. Although the brief scenario doesn’t provide enough criteria to make a definitive diagnosis, the symptoms described suggest that somatisation disorder is the most likely answer.

      To meet the diagnostic criteria for somatisation disorder, the patient’s physical complaints must not be intentionally induced and must result in medical attention or significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Typically, the first symptoms appear in adolescence, and the full criteria are met by 30 years of age.

      Among the other disorders, factitious disorder is the least likely, while the other three are possible but not as probable as somatisation. Overall, the scenario suggests that somatisation disorder should be considered as a potential diagnosis, and further evaluation is necessary to confirm or rule out this condition.

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  • Question 32 - A 53-year-old unemployed man has been seeing you for the past six months...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old unemployed man has been seeing you for the past six months as a newly registered patient with depression. He lives alone without support.

      He has suffered from depression since he was a young man, taking citalopram 20 mg for the past five months but has frequently defaulted review appointments with you. He last saw a colleague of yours as an emergency appointment eight weeks ago but did not attend follow up with you one week later as advised.

      On this occasion, you have been asked to visit by a neighbour who fears that he may have died, because his curtains have been drawn for seven days and when she last saw him, through his lounge window, he looked 'absolutely awful and has lost a lot of weight'.

      You phone his house, but there is no reply. You decide to visit, fearing the worst, but he finally answers the door when you shout your name through his letterbox.

      On examination he appears to have lost a significant amount of weight and is unshaven. He says that he has not slept or eaten for four days and feels very depressed. He says that he doesn't feel suicidal and that he is still taking the antidepressants, but you notice that there is an unopened box of tablets on his kitchen table. His house is very unkempt.

      What is the best way of managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a short course of hypnotic

      Correct Answer: Tail off citalopram and switch to dosulepin

      Explanation:

      Consider Inpatient Treatment for High-Risk Patients

      You should consider inpatient treatment for individuals who are at a significant risk of suicide, self-harm, or self-neglect. According to the NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90), inpatient treatment should be considered for those who are at high risk.

      In this case, the patient is showing signs of self-neglect and has little social support. He has missed appointments and may not be taking his medication as prescribed. These factors increase the risk of suicide, although this has not been explicitly stated in the patient’s history.

      Changing the patient’s medication may not be appropriate since there is no guarantee that he will comply. Asking a neighbor to check on him may provide some support, but it may not be enough.

      Given the available information, the most appropriate course of action would be to consider emergency admission by contacting the mental health team. This will ensure that the patient receives the necessary care and support to manage his risk of self-harm or suicide.

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  • Question 33 - A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of recurrent hallucinations. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of recurrent hallucinations. He reports seeing faces that are smaller than usual or other objects that are out of proportion. Although he acknowledges that these episodes are not real, they still cause him distress. The patient has a history of macular degeneration and experienced depression 15 years ago after his wife passed away. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Charles-Bonnet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.

      Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.

      In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.

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  • Question 34 - Which patient from the list is the most suitable candidate for a benzodiazepine...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient from the list is the most suitable candidate for a benzodiazepine prescription?

      Your Answer: A 77-year-old woman who has longstanding insomnia

      Correct Answer: A 55-year-old woman who is anxious about having to fly to Australia next week

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines for Short-Term Treatment of Anxiety and Sleeping Disorders

      Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed for short-term treatment of anxiety or sleeping disorders. For instance, patients with anxiety related to flying may benefit from a small number of diazepam tablets before and during the flight. However, long-term use of benzodiazepines can lead to tolerance and addiction, which are significant risks for patients with an anxious personality. Elderly patients are also at risk of daytime drowsiness, confusion, and falls, making the use of benzodiazepines discouraged. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of benzodiazepines before prescribing them for any patient.

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  • Question 35 - An 80-year-old man is diagnosed with colon cancer. Unfortunately by the time he...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is diagnosed with colon cancer. Unfortunately by the time he is diagnosed it has spread to the liver.

      The oncologist feels that palliative care is best in this situation and the patient is started on painkillers and other treatments to relieve his symptoms. He has a past history of osteoarthritis and bipolar disorder and takes lithium for this.

      He comes to you a few weeks later with a range of symptoms that he thinks may be side effects of lithium. His lithium levels are within the therapeutic range.

      Which of the following is most likely to be a side effect of lithium?

      Your Answer: Sweating

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Lithium Side Effects

      A common side effect of lithium is a fine tremor, which can occur even when lithium levels are within the therapeutic range. However, a coarse tremor suggests that lithium levels are toxic. It is important to monitor lithium levels regularly to avoid toxicity. While tinnitus is not a side effect of lithium, vertigo can occur. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure the safe and effective use of lithium.

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  • Question 36 - A 48-year-old female patient presents for a follow-up on her sertraline medication, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old female patient presents for a follow-up on her sertraline medication, which was raised to the maximum therapeutic dose 3 months ago for her generalised anxiety disorder. She reports no improvement in her symptoms and affirms that she has been adhering to the prescribed regimen. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start pregabalin

      Correct Answer: Switch to venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      If a patient has been taking the highest possible dose of an SSRI for two months without any improvement, it is recommended to switch to another SSRI or an SNRI such as venlafaxine. In cases where the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

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  • Question 37 - A 29-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her current medication for...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her current medication for depression. She is currently taking reboxetine but is experiencing over-energization and only sleeping for 4.5-5 hours per night. After discussing her options, you both agree that switching to sertraline may be the best course of action.
      What advice would you give her regarding the switch to sertraline?

      Your Answer: A washout period of four weeks between drugs is needed

      Correct Answer: A washout period of two weeks between drugs is needed

      Explanation:

      Switching from Reboxetine to Sertraline

      When switching from reboxetine to sertraline, it is recommended to start sertraline immediately but gradually increase the dose as the reboxetine dose is reduced. It is important to note that reboxetine is metabolized by CYP3A4, which means that taking inhibitors such as macrolides and antifungals like fluconazole may increase its effects by raising plasma concentration. Therefore, caution should be exercised when taking these medications together. Proper management and monitoring of the switch from reboxetine to sertraline can help ensure a smooth transition and minimize potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 38 - A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about her weight, which is 56 kg. Her body mass index (BMI) is 18 kg/m2. She also reports prolonged fasts, sometimes not eating for a few days. She denies using laxatives or diuretics to help her lose weight. She is scared of putting on weight and has missed her last three periods. She has no known medical comorbidities.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Avoidant restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID)

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eating Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Eating disorders are complex mental health conditions that can have serious physical and psychological consequences. When a patient presents with symptoms of an eating disorder, it is important to consider a range of differential diagnoses to ensure appropriate treatment. Here, we explore the key features of several eating disorders and related conditions, including anorexia nervosa, personality disorders, avoidant restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID), bulimia nervosa, and depression. By understanding the unique characteristics of each disorder, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide effective support for patients with eating disorders.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 39 - A 36-year-old woman is under evaluation. She is seeking exemption from job search...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is under evaluation. She is seeking exemption from job search due to weakness in her right leg. During the examination, the clinician instructs her to lift her unaffected leg against pressure while placing a hand under her affected leg. The clinician feels pressure pushing down against the hand under the unaffected leg.

      What is the name of this sign and what does it indicate?

      Your Answer: Hoover's sign suggesting malingering

      Explanation:

      Hoover’s sign is a useful clinical tool for distinguishing between organic and non-organic leg paresis. In cases of non-organic paresis, pressure is felt under the affected leg when lifting the unaffected leg against resistance, due to involuntary contralateral hip extension.

      In this particular case, the patient is exhibiting Hoover’s sign, which suggests that she may be feigning a unilateral lower limb weakness in order to obtain financial gain. However, this sign doesn’t indicate a somatisation disorder, which is characterized by persistent symptoms and a refusal to accept negative test results for serious conditions.

      Lhermitte’s sign, on the other hand, is a sudden electric shock sensation that occurs when the head is bent forward towards the chest in patients with multiple sclerosis. This sign doesn’t suggest malingering or somatisation disorder.

      Similarly, Uhthoff’s sign in multiple sclerosis, where symptoms worsen with heat, doesn’t indicate somatisation disorder.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

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  • Question 40 - A 27-year-old single mother comes to see you complaining of depression. She says...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old single mother comes to see you complaining of depression. She says that she is constantly tired, due to looking after her two young sons aged 4 and 6.

      She feels constantly sad and tearful and has lost interest in watching her favourite television programmes. She is now losing weight and lying awake for most of the night worrying about her debts. She says that she feels like a worthless mother to her children and has recurrent thoughts of death.

      You establish a diagnosis of depression, but what would be the usual minimum length of time that she would have to be experiencing core symptoms in order to reach a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: One week

      Correct Answer: Six weeks

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Depression

      This patient is displaying several symptoms of depression, which include a persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest, weight loss, insomnia, feelings of worthlessness, and recurrent thoughts of death. The absence of family support and the responsibility of caring for two young children would also raise concern for any GP. It is important to note that symptoms must be present for at least two weeks to make a diagnosis of depression. It is essential not to confuse this with screening questions for depression, which may be used for patients with other medical conditions. These screening questions typically ask about symptoms of depression in the preceding four weeks.

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  • Question 41 - You are contemplating recommending a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for a middle-aged patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating recommending a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for a middle-aged patient with depression. What category of medication is most prone to interact with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Statin

      Correct Answer: Triptan

      Explanation:

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 42 - A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic accompanied by her husband, who reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic accompanied by her husband, who reports that she has been exhibiting strange behavior for the past two weeks. She has planned a trip to Europe, bought a new car with a personal loan, and told her husband that she wants a divorce. She has been unable to sleep and is always out of the house. During your conversation with her, she insists that everything is fine and attempts to leave the room. When you prevent her from leaving, she tries to jump out of the window of your fourth-floor clinic room. You lock the door and call for security, and together you manage to calm her down and keep her in the room. You diagnose her with an acute manic episode. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Administer emergency sedation

      Correct Answer: Place her under Section 4 of the Mental Health Act and arrange emergency hospital admission

      Explanation:

      In this emergency situation, Section 4 of the Mental Health Act can be utilized by GPs to issue a 72-hour assessment order for the patient’s detention. The patient’s nearest relative, her husband, can assist in completing the order or an AMHP can be involved.

      Due to the patient’s behavior, waiting for the emergency psychiatry team or a section 2 to be implemented may result in an unacceptable delay. The patient’s attempt to jump out of the window poses a risk to herself. It is unlikely that arranging emergency hospital admission without detaining her under the mental health act would be appropriate as she lacks insight and is unlikely to engage in treatment. Emergency sedation should not be administered as she has calmed down and is not yet under a section.

      Understanding Sectioning under the Mental Health Act

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse to be admitted voluntarily for mental health treatment. This process involves different sections, each with its own set of rules and regulations.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP, along with two doctors who have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is a 72-hour assessment order used in emergencies when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in the hospital for 72 hours, while Section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a, also known as Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order), can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety, while Section 136 allows the police to take someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to a Place of Safety for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

      Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the legal process of sectioning and ensure that they receive the necessary treatment and support for their mental health.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 43 - A 75-year-old nursing home resident, with advanced dementia, has become increasingly verbally disruptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old nursing home resident, with advanced dementia, has become increasingly verbally disruptive at meal times, often shouting out incoherent phrases at staff and other residents. A general examination, urine dipstick and baseline blood tests were normal.

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a broad-spectrum antibiotic to cover infection

      Correct Answer: Restrain the patient at meal times in case of violent behaviour

      Explanation:

      Managing Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia

      With Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia (BPSD), it is crucial to identify and treat any reversible causes. However, in cases where there are no other symptoms and normal examination and investigations, empirical antibiotics should be avoided as they may lead to adverse clinical events such as Clostridium difficile. If conservative measures fail, it is advisable to seek advice from an elderly care physician who may recommend short-term use of medications such as haloperidol or lorazepam. It is important to note that restraining the patient during anticipated bad behaviour is not appropriate. By following these guidelines, we can effectively manage BPSD and improve the quality of life for patients with dementia.

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  • Question 44 - A 60-year-old woman with a 25-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with a 25-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for schizophrenia complains of the onset of writhing tongue and finger movements.
      Select from the list the single most likely cause.

      Your Answer: Parkinsonism

      Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tardive Dyskinesia and Differential Diagnosis

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that can develop in patients who have been on long-term treatment with antipsychotic medications. It is characterized by choreoathetoid movements that typically start in the fingers and tongue before becoming more widespread. While Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease can also present with tremors and choreiform movements, they usually have an earlier onset than tardive dyskinesia. Parkinsonism, on the other hand, is characterized by resting tremors and bradykinesia, while akathisia is characterized by motor restlessness. It is important to note that antipsychotic medications can also cause Parkinson’s symptoms and akathisia. Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat tardive dyskinesia.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 45 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has taken around 30 tablets while alone at home and left a letter for his family. He was intoxicated but managed to call an ambulance after he had taken the tablets.
      Which of the following features would most strongly suggest that there is an ongoing risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: A family history of completed suicide

      Correct Answer: The fact that he took precautions to avoid discovery

      Explanation:

      Factors that Increase the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

      When assessing a patient who has attempted suicide, certain factors can indicate a higher risk of future attempts. These include planning and taking precautions to avoid discovery, not seeking help after the attempt, using a dangerous method, and leaving final acts such as making a will or leaving a note. While a family history of suicide is more common among those who complete suicide, it doesn’t increase the immediate risk of self-harm. Alcohol use can lower inhibitions and increase the risk of deliberate self-harm, but being intoxicated at the time of the attempt doesn’t necessarily mean a higher risk of future attempts. Stressful life events in the preceding months can predispose to depression and increase the likelihood of self-harm, but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of future attempts. Finally, taking a large amount of a dangerous substance may increase the risk of harm, but doesn’t confer a higher ongoing risk of suicide after the initial attempt. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of the patient’s mental state and risk factors is necessary to determine the appropriate level of care and support.

      Factors to Consider When Assessing the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

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  • Question 46 - A 65-year-old woman presents due to a 6-month history of cognitive decline. On...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents due to a 6-month history of cognitive decline. On examination, the General Practitioner notices she has a resting tremor and shuffling gait.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lewy Body Dementia from Other Dementia-Related Disorders

      Lewy body dementia (LBD) is a type of dementia that is often misdiagnosed due to its similarity to other dementia-related disorders. One key feature that sets LBD apart is the presence of Parkinsonian symptoms, such as tremors and rigidity. In fact, LBD is diagnosed when a patient develops symptoms of dementia either before or at the same time as Parkinsonian symptoms. Other characteristic features of LBD include fluctuations in cognition and alertness, visual hallucinations, hypersensitivity to neuroleptic medication, and repeated falls.

      It is important to differentiate LBD from other disorders, such as Alzheimer’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, frontotemporal dementia, and Huntington’s disease. Alzheimer’s disease would not give you Parkinsonian symptoms, while Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rapidly progressing physical and cognitive decline that doesn’t feature Parkinsonian symptoms. Frontotemporal dementia would not give you Parkinsonian symptoms either, and typically presents with prominent changes in personality and social behavior. Huntington’s disease initially presents with chorea, personality changes, and neuropsychiatric symptoms, followed later by dementia, but doesn’t feature Parkinsonian symptoms. By understanding the unique features of LBD and how it differs from other disorders, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment plans for their patients.

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  • Question 47 - An 80-year-old lady presents to your clinic for a check-up after recently joining...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old lady presents to your clinic for a check-up after recently joining the practice. She visited a colleague two weeks ago for a painful right hip and was prescribed Diclofenac for possible osteoarthritis.

      Her repeat prescriptions include Sertraline 50 mg OD, which she has been taking for three months and is very satisfied with the response, Metformin 500 mg BD, Ramipril 5 mg OD, and Simvastatin 40 mg OD. Her HbA1c level is 51 mmol/mol.

      When reviewing her medication, what would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Start a proton pump inhibitor and consider an alternative to Diclofenac

      Correct Answer: Increase her dose of Sertraline to 100mg OD

      Explanation:

      Medication Management for an Elderly Patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      This elderly patient is currently taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and has recently had Diclofenac added as well. However, this combination puts her at a greatly increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidance, gastroprotection should be added if patients are on aspirin or NSAIDs. Therefore, it is recommended that Diclofenac be stopped and alternative analgesia be considered.

      The patient has a satisfactory response at her current dose of SSRI, which is the recommended dose for the elderly. Dose increases in this group should be undertaken with great caution, and there is no indication to do so in this patient.

      Additionally, the patient has tight glycaemic control very close to the target of 48 mmol/mol for people with type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is advisable to monitor her HbA1c in three months and then six monthly thereafter if it remains stable.

      While optimizing her Ramipril dose according to evidence is important, addressing the significant risk of bleeding on her current treatment should be the priority.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 48 - A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a 3-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a 3-week history of mild depression. He has recently been through a breakup and says he feels “lost and unmotivated”, although his friends have been supportive. He denies any thoughts of self-harm and reports that he is able to function throughout the day, but feels sad and that it “takes me longer to get things done than usual”.
      What is the most suitable initial management for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Psychodynamic psychotherapy

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild Depression

      When it comes to treating mild depression, antidepressants are not typically the first choice. Instead, cognitive behavioural therapy has the strongest evidence for effectiveness, although it may not be readily available in all areas. In some cases, psychodynamic therapy may be helpful, particularly if the root cause of distress is related to difficulties in interpersonal relationships. While selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have been shown to be effective for severe depression, their efficacy for mild-to-moderate depression is less clear. St John’s wort is not recommended due to uncertainty around appropriate dosing, variations in preparation, and potential interactions with other medications.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 49 - A 55-year-old woman comes to you with a history of multiple recurrent and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to you with a history of multiple recurrent and frequently changing symptoms that are 'functional' in nature (somatisation disorder).

      Which of the following statements regarding her management is accurate?

      Your Answer: Medical staff need to minimise their contact with her relatives

      Correct Answer: She should be persuaded to understand that her symptoms are psychological

      Explanation:

      Understanding Somatisation Disorder

      Somatisation disorder is a complex condition that has been frequently asked about in previous examinations. It is important to note that knowledge of early childhood experiences is not necessary for diagnosis. However, depression is often found in individuals with somatisation disorder, making antidepressants a useful treatment option. In addition, involving relatives in the management of the disorder can be beneficial. It is important to approach management with empathy rather than persuasion. Understanding the complexities of somatisation disorder is crucial for effective treatment and management.

      Spacing:

      Somatisation disorder is a complex condition that has been frequently asked about in previous examinations. It is important to note that knowledge of early childhood experiences is not necessary for diagnosis. However, depression is often found in individuals with somatisation disorder, making antidepressants a useful treatment option.

      In addition, involving relatives in the management of the disorder can be beneficial. It is important to approach management with empathy rather than persuasion. Understanding the complexities of somatisation disorder is crucial for effective treatment and management.

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  • Question 50 - A professional man aged 55, previously healthy, is constantly consumed by the fear...

    Incorrect

    • A professional man aged 55, previously healthy, is constantly consumed by the fear that he has bowel cancer, despite being reassured that all investigations have come back negative. He acknowledges that the tests have shown no signs of disease, but he cannot shake the worry that he may have cancer. He has lost his appetite and spends most of his time at home since being laid off from work. He drinks 5-6 glasses of wine daily and has confided in his wife that he is contemplating suicide.

      Which statement accurately describes his situation?

      Your Answer: Counselling alone is likely to lead to resolution of his symptoms

      Correct Answer: He is likely to have a rapid improvement on chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mental Health Condition of a Redundant Middle-Aged Man

      This man is likely experiencing depression due to being made redundant in mid-life. His fear of bowel cancer is a manifestation of hypochondriasis, which is a somatoform disorder. However, it is distinct from somatisation, although there can be overlap. Additionally, he is exhibiting heavy alcohol consumption as a symptom of his condition.

      Given his expressed suicidal thoughts, tricyclics should be avoided. Instead, citalopram is recommended due to its more benign toxicity profile. While cognitive therapy may be helpful, it is unlikely to lead to complete resolution of his condition given the nature of his symptoms. It is important to understand the complexity of his mental health condition and provide appropriate support and treatment.

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  • Question 51 - John is a 55-year-old man who is admitted to an inpatient psychiatric hospital...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 55-year-old man who is admitted to an inpatient psychiatric hospital under section 3. He has refused to eat or drink as he believes he is already dead and no longer needs sustenance. What is the name of the syndrome where a person thinks they are non-existent or deceased?

      Your Answer: Couvade syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard syndrome is a condition where individuals believe that they are dead or do not exist, often associated with depression. Capgras syndrome, on the other hand, is a condition where individuals believe that their loved ones have been replaced by identical imposters. Couvade syndrome, also known as sympathetic pregnancy, affects fathers who experience physical symptoms similar to those of their pregnant partners. Finally, De Clerambault’s syndrome is a condition where individuals believe that a celebrity or another person is deeply in love with them, typically affecting females.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental illness that is characterized by the belief that one is either dead or doesn’t exist. This rare disorder is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is not necessary. This delusion can be challenging to treat and can result in significant problems for the patient.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 52 - You see a 20-year-old male patient who is worried about his erections. He...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 20-year-old male patient who is worried about his erections. He has been experiencing problems for the past 8 months. He is generally healthy with no medical history. He doesn't use any illegal drugs and is a non-smoker. He drinks occasionally on weekends. He lives with his parents and has recently started dating a girl from his university.

      Which of the following history findings would indicate a psychogenic cause rather than an organic cause for his erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Normal libido

      Correct Answer: The presence of self stimulated or morning erections

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is the inability to achieve and maintain an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. It can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors, as well as certain medications.

      Symptoms that suggest a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or morning erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems or changes, major life events, and psychological issues.

      Symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), a history of medical risk factors (such as cardiovascular, endocrine, or neurological conditions), pelvic or scrotal trauma, radiotherapy or surgery, current use of medications known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, or use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 53 - A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his daily functioning. Despite completing a self-help program and undergoing CBT, he has not experienced any significant improvement after taking Sertraline for 6 months. What is the recommended next step in treatment?

      Your Answer: Trial of low dose Amitriptyline ON

      Correct Answer: Trial of an alternative SSRI such as Escitalopram or a SNRI such as Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      If non-pharmacological treatments have not effectively managed symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), the first line of medication recommended is an SSRI such as Sertraline or Escitalopram. If this proves to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, an alternative SSRI or SNRI like Venlafaxine should be tried. It is important to allow 12 weeks to see the full effects of the medication. Benzodiazepines, Propranolol, and low dose Amitriptyline are not recommended in this situation. If the patient cannot tolerate or has contraindications to the aforementioned medications, a trial of Pregabalin is recommended. Referral to a mental health team is not necessary at this time as the patient has not yet tried the different management options.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 54 - A 36-year-old man, with a history of alcohol addiction, visits a clinic after...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man, with a history of alcohol addiction, visits a clinic after a motorcycle accident two weeks ago. He experiences flashbacks of the accident and becomes hyper-vigilant to loud noises when he passes by the road. He has not ridden his motorcycle since the accident. His alcohol test at the time of the accident was negative.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.

      The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 55 - A 12-year-old girl has been excluded from school because of her conduct. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has been excluded from school because of her conduct. Her mother wonders if a psychological problem might explain her behaviour. What is conduct disorder and how might it be related to the girl's behaviour?

      Your Answer: Anti-social behaviour may be intermittent

      Correct Answer: It may be associated with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conduct Disorder: Characteristics and Prevalence

      Conduct disorder (CD) is a behavioral disorder that is characterized by aggressive, antisocial, and defiant behavior in children. Children with CD exhibit behaviors such as physical cruelty, destructiveness, lying, stealing, and truancy. To be diagnosed with CD, a child must exhibit at least three of these characteristics over the past year, with at least one in the last six months.

      CD can be classified into two types: early-onset CD, which occurs before the age of 10 and is less common, and adolescent-onset CD, which is more common and may be associated with ADHD. A UK government report found that 5% of children aged 5-15 years had conduct disorder, and 1% had ADHD/hyperkinetic disorder. The male to female ratio is 3:1.

      The severity of CD depends on the number of problems the child has and the effect on others. Children with CD may exhibit persistent antisocial behavior, and temper tantrums are common. Stealing, assault, and destruction of property can lead to legal consequences for the child.

      In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and prevalence of conduct disorder is crucial in identifying and addressing this behavioral disorder in children. Early intervention and treatment can help improve outcomes for children with CD.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 56 - You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who has been experiencing recurrent issues with...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who has been experiencing recurrent issues with hand dermatitis for the past few years. Despite trying various topical treatments, she has not found relief and has been referred to the dermatologists by a colleague. During your conversation, you discover that she has been washing her hands frequently since she was a teenager, and if she doesn't wash them, she feels anxious and uptight. Although washing her hands reduces her anxiety, she finds the need to do so distressing and unpleasant. She can spend up to two hours each day washing her hands. Despite attempting to resist hand-washing in the past, she has been unable to do so. She acknowledges that her behavior is excessive and unnecessary but cannot seem to stop. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Body dysmorphic disorder

      Correct Answer: Phobic disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by obsessions and compulsions. Obsessions are repetitive, intrusive, and distressing thoughts, images, or impulses that the patient knows are their own but cannot resist. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors that the patient recognizes as unnecessary but feels compelled to perform to relieve the anxiety associated with their obsessions. The most common obsession in OCD is contamination, while the most common compulsion is handwashing.

      Body dysmorphic syndrome is another condition that causes preoccupation and distress over minor or imagined physical defects. Depression and anxiety often coexist with OCD, but in some cases, OCD can be the primary diagnosis.

      Phobias, on the other hand, are specific fears that cause anxiety and avoidance of situations where the feared stimulus may be encountered. Phobias related to germs and illness are not uncommon.

      It is important to note that OCD is different from psychotic disorders, as patients with OCD recognize that the drive to perform their compulsions is their own and not due to an external force. Delusions of control and other psychotic phenomena are not typically present in OCD.

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  • Question 57 - A concerned mother brings her hesitant teenage daughter to your clinic, convinced that...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned mother brings her hesitant teenage daughter to your clinic, convinced that she is struggling with an eating disorder. The family has been worried about her eating habits for several months and suspects that she may have either anorexia or bulimia. After taking a thorough medical history and conducting a brief examination, which of the following is a common characteristic of bulimia nervosa that you may observe in this adolescent patient?

      Your Answer: Lanugo hair

      Correct Answer: Shortness of breath

      Explanation:

      Characteristics and Differences between Bulimia Nervosa and Anorexia Nervosa

      Bilateral parotid gland swelling is a common characteristic of bulimia nervosa, while amenorrhoea and lanugo hair are typical of anorexia nervosa. Unlike anorexics who tend to be teenagers, bulimics usually present when they are in their twenties. Bulimics have a fear of gaining weight but tend to maintain a normal weight. On the other hand, anorexics have a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to severe weight loss. Shortness of breath is not a feature of bulimia. Understanding the differences between these two eating disorders is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for those affected.

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  • Question 58 - A 21-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her parents. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her parents. They are concerned about uncharacteristic behaviour since she left home to attend university. They ask whether she could have developed schizophrenia.
      Which of the following symptoms in this patient would be most concerning for schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Perplexity

      Correct Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schneider’s First-Rank Symptoms in Schizophrenia

      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms are a set of symptoms that are highly indicative of schizophrenia. These symptoms are rare in other psychotic illnesses, making them a key diagnostic tool for identifying schizophrenia. The first-rank symptoms include auditory hallucinations, such as hearing one’s own thoughts echoed or hearing voices referring to oneself in the third person. Other symptoms include thought removal, insertion, and interruption, thought broadcasting, somatic hallucinations, delusional perception, and feelings, thoughts, or actions being under external control.

      In addition to the first-rank symptoms, there are also second-rank symptoms that can be present in schizophrenia. These include other disorders of perception, sudden delusional ideas, perplexity, low or euphoric mood changes, and feelings of emotional impoverishment. Schneider believed that even in the absence of first-rank symptoms, a diagnosis of schizophrenia could be made based on second-rank symptoms and a typical clinical appearance.

      One unique symptom of schizophrenia is delusional perception, which occurs in two stages. First, the individual experiences a normal perception, such as seeing traffic lights turn red. Then, they interpret this perception in a delusional way, such as believing that the red traffic lights are a sign that they are the devil and someone is trying to kill them.

      It’s important to note that cognitive impairment is a feature of dementia, not schizophrenia. Additionally, hyperactivity is more commonly associated with mania than schizophrenia. Understanding the specific symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly the first-rank symptoms, can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 59 - A 45-year-old woman is taking fluoxetine 20 mg daily for moderately severe depression....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is taking fluoxetine 20 mg daily for moderately severe depression. She has taken the drug for 2 months and is feeling much better. She now wishes to stop the drug.
      Select from the list the single most correct management option.

      Your Answer: Stop fluoxetine now and refer for cognitive behaviour therapy

      Correct Answer: Advise continuing fluoxetine 20 mg daily for a further 6 months

      Explanation:

      Preventing Relapse of Depression: The Importance of Continued Treatment

      Depression is a serious mental health condition that can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. While antidepressant treatment can be effective in managing symptoms, it’s important to continue treatment even after recovery to prevent relapse.

      Research has shown that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least 6 months after recovery to reduce the risk of relapse. In fact, if antidepressant treatment is stopped immediately on recovery, 50% of patients will experience a relapse of their depressive symptoms.

      To prevent relapse, adults should receive the same dose of medication is used for acute treatment. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dosage and duration of treatment. Once the patient has recovered, the medication should be tapered off over a few weeks to avoid any potential withdrawal symptoms.

      In conclusion, continued treatment is crucial in preventing relapse of depression. By following the recommended guidelines and working closely with a healthcare provider, individuals can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

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  • Question 60 - Which of the following selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors has the highest occurrence of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors has the highest occurrence of withdrawal symptoms in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Discontinuation symptoms are more likely to occur with Paroxetine.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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  • Question 61 - A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.

      The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.

      The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cyclothymia

      Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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  • Question 62 - A 31-year-old new mother is brought to the surgery by her concerned partner....

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old new mother is brought to the surgery by her concerned partner. Their baby daughter is six days old.
      For the last 48 hours the mother has been very tearful, anxious and irritable. The partner has read about postnatal depression and is worried as she seemed so happy in the first days after the birth. The baby is formula-fed and is thriving.
      When asked, she feels exhausted, and is in some discomfort following the delivery. She doesn't feel depressed but says it is very unusual for her to be so emotional and crying all the time.
      What is your diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Postnatal depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders

      Baby blues are a common experience for new mothers, affecting between 50-70% of women. This short-lived disturbance of mood typically begins between the third and sixth day post-delivery and resolves within 10 days. While it can cause anxiety, it doesn’t indicate an anxiety disorder and doesn’t affect a mother’s ability to function. Supportive treatment is all that is required.

      Postnatal depression is a more serious condition, affecting 10-15% of pregnancies with the highest incidence occurring three months postpartum. Symptoms may include persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and a loss of interest in activities. Treatment may involve therapy, medication, or a combination of both.

      Puerperal psychosis is a rare but severe condition affecting 1-2 in 1000 births. Symptoms may include delusions, hallucinations, and clouding of consciousness. Delusions may be centered around the baby, putting the child at risk of harm or neglect. This condition is typically managed in a specialist mother and baby unit.

      It’s important for new mothers to be aware of these postpartum mood disorders and seek help if they experience symptoms. With proper treatment and support, women can recover and enjoy the joys of motherhood.

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  • Question 63 - A 40-year-old female patient presents to you for a follow-up after commencing sertraline...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female patient presents to you for a follow-up after commencing sertraline for depression one week ago. She reports no improvement in her mood and mentions experiencing abdominal pain, nausea, and occasional diarrhoea since starting the medication. Despite this, you determine that she still requires antidepressant treatment. What is the optimal approach to address this issue?

      Your Answer: Continue the sertraline and review in one week

      Explanation:

      Given that the patient has been experiencing GI symptoms for only a week, it may be prudent to maintain the current treatment regimen while conducting a more thorough evaluation.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

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  • Question 64 - A 28-year-old man is diagnosed with schizophrenia.

    Which one of the following predicts a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is diagnosed with schizophrenia.

      Which one of the following predicts a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: Few or no episodes in the past

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Indicators in Early Schizophrenia

      A gradual onset of psychosis is a negative prognostic indicator in the early course of schizophrenia, according to a study published in Medscape. On the other hand, all other factors, such as age at onset and mode of onset, predict a good prognosis. It is important to identify these indicators early on in order to provide appropriate treatment and support for individuals with schizophrenia. By understanding these prognostic factors, healthcare professionals can work towards improving outcomes for those affected by this condition.

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  • Question 65 - An 18-year-old boy takes an overdose of 12 paracetamol tablets after a fight...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old boy takes an overdose of 12 paracetamol tablets after a fight with his best friend. He is found by his roommate and rushed to the hospital.

      What is the most significant factor that suggests a high likelihood of successful suicide?

      Your Answer: An impulsive suicide attempt associated with a difficult life event

      Correct Answer: Making efforts to not be found

      Explanation:

      The risk of completed suicide is heightened when attempts are made to avoid being discovered. Additionally, the presence of certain factors such as writing a note, making plans, sorting out affairs, and using violent methods also increase the risk. However, there is no evidence to suggest that an overdose of paracetamol and alcohol increases the risk of completed suicide. While a history of deliberate self harm does increase the risk of suicide, it doesn’t necessarily increase the risk of completed suicide. Furthermore, an impulsive suicide attempt is considered less concerning than a meticulously planned one.

      The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.

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  • Question 66 - A 44-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment regarding her treatment. She visited...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment regarding her treatment. She visited two weeks ago and was diagnosed with moderate depression and a few symptoms of anxiety. You prescribed Citalopram 20 mg to treat her condition.

      During the review, she reports feeling terrible. She experiences muscle twitches, tremors, and constant stomach gurgling. She used to feel sluggish and lethargic, but now she can't sit still and paces around the room. These symptoms worsened after a recent migraine attack.

      Upon examination, she appears agitated, and her pulse is 90 bpm sinus rhythm with a BP of 160/90. Abdominal examination is unremarkable, and a brief neurological examination of the limbs is normal, except for brisk reflexes all around. Recent thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and full blood count were normal.

      Her medical history includes endometriosis and migraines. She takes co-codamol 8/500 tablets and Sumatriptan tablets as needed. She has also been taking St John's wort for the past three months. She used to drink two units of alcohol per week.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Prescribe pizotifen daily

      Correct Answer: Withdraw the Citalopram completely

      Explanation:

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a condition that is often overlooked in primary care. It occurs when there is an excessive amount of serotonergic activity in the body, which can be caused by the initiation of medication affecting serotonin activity or an interaction between medicines that affect serotonin activity. Patients who take medications such as codeine, triptans, and St. John’s wort are at a higher risk of developing serotonin syndrome when co-prescribed with an SSRI.

      If a patient presents with symptoms of serotonin syndrome, it is important to withdraw the offending medicine, such as Citalopram. However, it is also important to consider other factors that may have contributed to the onset of symptoms, such as the use of a triptan for a migraine. Prescribing pizotifen or referring the patient for counseling may not alleviate their symptoms.

      It is important to note that some authorities caution against the use of propranolol, as it can result in hypotension and mask the response to treatment by slowing the pulse. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms of serotonin syndrome, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat this condition.

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  • Question 67 - A 70-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her carer. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her carer. She lives in sheltered accommodation and has carers twice a day to help with washing, dressing and meal preparation. Typically, she enjoys crosswords and is able to mobilise around the house with the help of a walking stick. Over the past two days, she has become restless and agitated. When the carer arrived that morning, she had been very combative and refused to get dressed.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer: Prescribe diazepam

      Correct Answer: Arrange admission to hospital for assessment, monitoring and treatment

      Explanation:

      Managing Delirium in Hospitalized Patients

      When a patient presents with delirium, it is important to take immediate action to ensure their safety and well-being. Admission to the hospital for assessment, monitoring, and treatment is typically necessary. The decision to admit should take into account the patient’s clinical and social situation, as well as the input of family members or caregivers. If the patient lacks capacity, decisions should be made in their best interests using the Mental Capacity Act 2005.

      Once the patient has recovered from delirium, it is important to review them to ensure there are no underlying memory concerns that would warrant a referral to the Memory Clinic. Physical restraints, such as cot sides, should be avoided in patients with delirium. Instead, strategies to maintain safe mobility should be employed, such as encouraging walking or active range of motion exercises.

      A computed tomography head may be indicated if there has been a recent head injury or a subdural hematoma is suspected, or if the patient may have underlying dementia. However, if an acute cause is suspected, the patient needs admission to the hospital. If dementia is suspected, then referral to the Memory Clinic once the patient has recovered from delirium is recommended.

      Pharmacological measures are a last resort for severe agitation or psychosis that may be recommended by specialists. Short-term, low-dose haloperidol may be suggested, but benzodiazepines are not usually recommended. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage delirium in hospitalized patients.

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  • Question 68 - You are conducting a diabetic annual review on a 63-year-old man with type...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a diabetic annual review on a 63-year-old man with type 2 diabetes. As part of the review, you are checking for any indications of depression. NICE suggests using two questions to screen for depression in at-risk patients, such as those with chronic illnesses. What is one of the questions that should be asked as part of the evaluation?

      Your Answer: During the last month, have you been bothered by feeling tired or having little energy?

      Correct Answer: During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?

      Explanation:

      Managing Chronic Medical Conditions in Primary Care

      More and more patients with complex, chronic medical conditions are being managed in primary care, such as diabetes where some practices are initiating and managing patients on insulin and newer injectable treatments. However, with this greater workload comes the need for structured regular reviews. Part of reviewing a patient with a chronic medical problem is to consider the psychological impact of their disease and to elicit any depression or mood disorder that may be present.

      To approach this scenario, NICE has provided a framework that advises asking two questions. If either question is answered with a ‘yes,’ further inquiry is needed into specific symptoms of depression. The two questions are: During the last month, have you been feeling down, depressed, or hopeless? During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?

      By regularly reviewing patients with chronic medical conditions and considering their psychological well-being, primary care providers can provide comprehensive care and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 69 - What feature is typical of early-stage Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What feature is typical of early-stage Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Correct Answer: Myoclonic jerks

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Alzheimer’s Disease from Other Dementias

      Alzheimer’s disease is typically identified by the early onset of short term memory loss. However, other dementias may present with different symptoms that can help differentiate them from Alzheimer’s. For example, gait ataxia and urinary incontinence may suggest normal pressure hydrocephalus, while myoclonic jerks may indicate Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Visual hallucinations may be a sign of delirium or Lewy body dementia. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these alternative diagnoses when evaluating patients with dementia symptoms. By identifying the specific type of dementia, appropriate treatment and management strategies can be implemented to improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 70 - A 56-year-old man has been attending community services for his hazardous alcohol abuse....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man has been attending community services for his hazardous alcohol abuse. He no longer enjoys activities that he used to and has difficulty concentrating when watching television. His appetite is variable and he struggles to fall asleep most nights. Upon further assessment using the PHQ-9, he has developed symptoms of moderate depression. Despite still drinking 34 units of alcohol a week, it has been decided to treat his depression medically. Which antidepressant is most likely to be effective?

      Your Answer: Nortriptyline

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      When deciding to start an antidepressant for someone with comorbid alcohol abuse and depression, NICE recommends treating the alcohol disorder first. However, if an antidepressant is still chosen, it should be noted that SSRIs may not be effective in this situation. Instead, evidence suggests that mirtazapine can improve depression and also reduce alcohol intake. (Source: Journal of Dual Diagnosis, 2012;8(3):200)

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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  • Question 71 - A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best friend and thinks that people judge her unfairly. She says that the power of crystals will cure leukaemia and sometimes feels that her life story appears in magazine stories.
      Select from the list the single best description of her personality type.

      Your Answer: Paranoid

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Characteristics

      Personality disorders are not easy to diagnose, but they can be seen as extreme versions of normal behavior that affect an individual’s social functioning. Psychotherapy and cognitive behavior therapy can be helpful, and medication may be used in some cases. These disorders can be grouped into three clusters: odd, dramatic, and anxious. The odd PDs include paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid. The dramatic PDs include histrionic, borderline, narcissistic, and antisocial. The anxious PDs include dependent, obsessive-compulsive, and avoidant. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, and dangerous behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior and a need for approval.

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  • Question 72 - A 50-year-old man is being seen in the psychiatric clinic after being referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is being seen in the psychiatric clinic after being referred by his GP who has been struggling to manage his depression. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, high cholesterol, and depression, as well as a previous acute coronary syndrome one year ago. He reports that his mood has deteriorated and he is experiencing persistent suicidal thoughts. He denies any cognitive impairment, difficulty concentrating, or sleep disturbances. What guidance should be provided regarding his ability to drive?

      Your Answer: No restrictions on driving

      Correct Answer: Must not drive and must inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      He is not allowed to drive and must notify the DVLA due to his depression and ongoing suicidal ideation.

      The DVLA has specific rules regarding psychiatric disorders for those who wish to drive group 1 vehicles such as cars and motorcycles. Those with severe anxiety or depression accompanied by memory problems, concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts must not drive and must inform the DVLA. Those with acute psychotic disorder, hypomania or mania, or schizophrenia must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA. Those with pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with mild cognitive impairment, dementia, or mild learning disability may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with severe disability must not drive and must notify the DVLA. Those with personality disorders may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. The rules for group 2 vehicles such as buses and lorries are stricter.

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  • Question 73 - A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't had a doctor's appointment in over four years. Her parents have become increasingly worried about her behavior in the past few weeks. They report her staying up late at night, talking rapidly, and being very irritable. Yesterday she told her parents she was planning to take over the school assembly and give constructive criticism to her teachers in front of the other students. She feels many of her teachers are underperforming and need to be re-taught their subjects by her. She admits to trying cannabis once around eight months ago and has drank alcohol a few times in the past year, the last time being three weeks ago. Prior to her decline a few weeks ago, her parents describe her as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable young woman. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcoholic hallucinosis

      Correct Answer: Mania

      Explanation:

      It is highly improbable for him to experience issues related to cannabis and alcohol as it has been a considerable amount of time since he last consumed these substances.

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they are not the same. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are significant differences between them. Mania is a severe form of mood disorder that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant functional impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to self or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a milder form of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It doesn’t impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. Hypomania doesn’t exhibit any psychotic symptoms. The length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

      Despite their differences, both hypomania and mania share some common symptoms. These include predominantly elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior.

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  • Question 74 - A 52-year-old man is a frequent attendee at his General Practice Surgery with...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man is a frequent attendee at his General Practice Surgery with health worries. He has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease and is worried he may have heart disease although he has no symptoms of this, no risk factors and his QRisk2 score is 2.5%. He has consulted several doctors in the practice with this concern in the past 12 months.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: Illness anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Illness Anxiety Disorder from Other Conditions

      Illness anxiety disorder is a mental health condition characterized by excessive worry about having or acquiring a serious health condition. This preoccupation can lead to excessive health-seeking behavior or maladaptive avoidance techniques. It is important to differentiate illness anxiety disorder from other conditions with similar symptoms.

      Somatic symptom disorder, for example, is a condition where the patient experiences distressing physical symptoms that cause persistent thoughts about the seriousness of the cause. However, the patient described in this case doesn’t have any physical symptoms.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is another condition where excessive worry is present, but it is not specific to health concerns. In this case, the patient’s worries are focused solely on his own health.

      Ischemic heart disease is unlikely as the patient has no symptoms or risk factors.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder is a condition where intrusive, recurrent thoughts and compulsive behaviors are present. However, there are no obsessions or compulsions described in this case.

      Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms and history, illness anxiety disorder is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 75 - A 27-year-old male comes to his GP upon the request of his family....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male comes to his GP upon the request of his family. Upon consultation, he discloses that he thinks everyone can hear his thoughts, as if he is a broadcasting station, and that he hears voices making comments about his actions. The GP observes that he has a blunted affect, alogia, and avolition. Additionally, the patient repeats the final word of any inquiry directed towards him.

      What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Neologism

      Correct Answer: Echolalia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Thought Disorders

      Thought disorders are a group of symptoms that affect a person’s ability to communicate and organize their thoughts. These disorders can be seen in various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Here are some common types of thought disorders:

      Circumstantiality is when a person provides excessive and unnecessary details when answering a question. However, they eventually return to the original point.

      Tangentiality is when a person wanders off-topic and doesn’t return to the original point.

      Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two words.

      Clang associations are when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes.

      Word salad is when a person speaks incoherently, stringing together real words into nonsensical sentences.

      Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, where there are unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another.

      Flight of ideas is a thought disorder seen in mania, where there are leaps from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them.

      Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic.

      Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

      Understanding these thought disorders can help individuals recognize when they or someone they know may be experiencing symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 76 - A 57-year-old plumber has come for a medication review. He has had three...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old plumber has come for a medication review. He has had three separate episodes of depression in the past four years, resulting in several absences from work. He is currently employed by a competitor and finds the reduced stress level beneficial. He has been taking citalopram 20 mg for the past nine months and reports feeling well. He is interested in discontinuing his medication and seeks your guidance. What is the recommended duration of antidepressant withdrawal after achieving remission?

      Your Answer: He can withdraw 24 months into his recovery

      Explanation:

      Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Patients with Recurrent Depression

      Guidance from NICE on Depression (CG23) recommends that patients who have experienced two or more episodes of depression in the recent past or suffered significant functional impairment should continue antidepressants for at least two years into remission. This recommendation was reiterated in the 2009 publication of Depression in adults (CG90). However, for patients who have suffered a single episode of depression without significant functional impairment, the duration of treatment after remission is six months. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these guidelines when treating patients with depression to ensure appropriate and effective management of the condition.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 77 - Olivia is a 27 year old who comes to you with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • Olivia is a 27 year old who comes to you with symptoms of severe obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD). As per NICE guidelines, what is the recommended first line pharmacological treatment for OCD?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      According to the 2005 NICE Guidance on the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder and body dysmorphic disorder, adults with OCD should be prescribed one of the following SSRIs as their first pharmacological treatment: fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline, or citalopram.

      Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.

      Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.

      The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.

      ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 78 - What is the main diagnostic core symptom of depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main diagnostic core symptom of depression?

      Your Answer: Persistent sadness or low mood most of the time

      Correct Answer: Fatigue or loss of energy

      Explanation:

      Core Symptoms of Depression

      Depression is a mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the defining characteristics of depression is the presence of core symptoms that are present for more than two weeks. These core symptoms include persistent feelings of sadness or hopelessness, as well as a marked loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable.

      It’s important to note that while there are other symptoms of depression, such as changes in appetite or sleep patterns, these are classified as other symptoms and are not considered core symptoms. This means that someone may experience these symptoms without necessarily meeting the criteria for a diagnosis of depression.

      If you or someone you know is experiencing persistent feelings of sadness or loss of interest in activities, it’s important to seek help from a mental health professional. Depression is a treatable condition, and with the right support, individuals can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 79 - A 45-year-old mother of three children who is typically healthy has been consulting...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old mother of three children who is typically healthy has been consulting with you for 6 weeks due to feelings of low mood. She denies having any thoughts of self-harm and there are no concerns about the safety of her children.

      She has undergone a low-intensity psychosocial intervention, but her symptoms have not improved, and she now has a PHQ-9 depression questionnaire score of 12, indicating moderate depression. She is interested in trying an antidepressant and has no allergies or medical conditions that would prevent her from taking medication.

      What is the recommended first-line medication for her?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating less severe depression, the recommended first-line antidepressant is an SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) like sertraline. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) such as amitriptyline are no longer considered the first choice due to their increased risk of overdose. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) like isocarboxazid are rarely prescribed due to their potential for serious side effects. Noradrenaline and specific serotonergic antidepressants (NASSAs) like mirtazapine may be an alternative for those who cannot take SSRIs, but they may cause more drowsiness.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

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  • Question 80 - Which antidepressant is most likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant is most likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia?

      Your Answer: Dosulepin

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Cardiotoxicity of Antidepressants

      Both dosulepin and venlafaxine are not recommended for patients with a high risk of arrhythmia due to their potential cardiotoxicity. However, a recent BMJ editorial suggests that venlafaxine may not be less safe than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and that limiting its use based on cardiotoxicity alone may not be appropriate. Therefore, currently, dosulepin and all other tricyclic antidepressants are considered the most concerning in terms of cardiotoxicity. It is important to exercise caution when prescribing any antidepressant to patients with a history of cardiovascular disease or other risk factors. Proper monitoring and individualized treatment plans can help minimize the risk of adverse cardiac events.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 81 - A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being discharged on lithium at a dose of 400 mg daily after a prolonged period of inpatient treatment. You receive a discharge summary requesting that you continue her blood monitoring in primary care as long term lithium treatment is planned.

      What would be the most suitable monitoring regimen?

      Your Answer: Measure renal function and thyroid function every three months

      Correct Answer: Measure renal function or thyroid function only if clinically indicated (for example, if intercurrent infection/dehydration or symptoms of hypothyroidism develop)

      Explanation:

      Lithium Monitoring

      Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic index, which means that it requires close monitoring. The dosage is adjusted to achieve a serum lithium concentration of 0.4-1 mmol/L. Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, ataxia, coarse tremor, nystagmus, dysarthria, and gastrointestinal disturbance (vomiting and diarrhea). Severe toxicity can lead to convulsions, renal failure, and circulatory failure. Therefore, serum lithium levels should be measured every three months on stabilised regimens.

      Renal failure and hypothyroidism are potential side effects of lithium use. As such, renal and thyroid function should be measured six monthly on stabilised regimens. Patients should be informed of the symptoms of hypothyroidism and advised to seek medical review if these symptoms develop. It is also important to note that lithium should be prescribed by brand rather than generically because different lithium preparations vary widely in their bioavailability.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 82 - A 16-year-old female is referred with a six month history of amenorrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female is referred with a six month history of amenorrhoea and weight loss, for which no organic cause can be found.

      Which of the following features would support a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa (AN)?

      Your Answer: Watery diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Hypotrichosis

      Explanation:

      Features of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia Nervosa (AN) is a serious eating disorder that is characterized by a phobic avoidance of normal weight, relentless dieting, self-induced vomiting, laxative use, excessive exercise, amenorrhoea, lanugo hair, hypotension, denial, concealment, over-perception of body image, and enmeshed families. Individuals with AN have an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, which leads to severe weight loss and malnutrition. They often engage in extreme behaviors to control their weight, such as restricting their food intake, purging, and over-exercising. AN can have serious physical and psychological consequences, including organ damage, osteoporosis, depression, and anxiety. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is struggling with AN.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 83 - An 80-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping and asks for medication to aid his insomnia. The doctor prescribes a brief course of zopiclone.

      What is one of the potential risks of administering zopiclone to elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of falls

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients taking zopiclone are at an increased risk of falling.

      Zopiclone works by binding to GABA-containing receptors, which enhances the effects of GABA and produces both the desired and undesired effects of the drug. Its mechanism of action is similar to that of benzodiazepines.

      Some of the side effects of zopiclone include agitation, dry mouth, constipation, dizziness, decreased muscle tone, and a bitter taste in the mouth. Elderly patients are particularly susceptible to falls when taking zopiclone.

      While diarrhoea is not a known side effect of zopiclone, withdrawal from the drug may cause convulsions, tremors, and hyperventilation.

      Understanding Z Drugs

      Z drugs are a class of medications that have comparable effects to benzodiazepines but differ in their chemical structure. They work by targeting the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. Z drugs can be categorized into three groups: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon, respectively.

      Like benzodiazepines, Z drugs can cause similar adverse effects. Additionally, they can increase the risk of falls in older adults. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of these medications before use and to follow the prescribed dosage and instructions carefully.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 84 - A 54-year-old teacher is brought in by her husband after she had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old teacher is brought in by her husband after she had a myocardial infarction (MI) six weeks ago. Despite her husband's encouragement, she continues to smoke and has become withdrawn since her illness. She refuses to take her prescribed statin due to concerns about side effects and a belief that her situation is hopeless. Prior to her MI, she enjoyed hiking and spending time with her grandchildren, but now spends most of her day in bed.
      Her medical history includes a hysterectomy in her 40s and a diagnosis of anxiety in her 30s, for which she was prescribed sertraline. She stopped taking the medication after a few months due to side effects.
      You decide to start treatment with an antidepressant and refer her to a local cardiac rehabilitation support group.
      Which of the following antidepressants would be most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Antidepressant of Choice in Coronary Heart Disease

      When treating a patient with a history of heart disease, it is important to consider the potential risks associated with certain antidepressants. While the patient in question was previously treated with lofepramine, the safest option for them would be sertraline. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), tricyclic antidepressants may pose a greater risk than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) to patients with a history of cardiac disease. Mirtazapine should also be used with caution in these patients. Although some sources suggest that the risks of venlafaxine may be overstated, sertraline remains the best choice for this patient. It is important to prioritize the patient’s safety and well-being when selecting an antidepressant for those with coronary heart disease.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 85 - A 25-year-old woman has been dieting excessively and has become markedly underweight.
    Select from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been dieting excessively and has become markedly underweight.
      Select from the list the single most worrying feature that would suggest a need for urgent referral.

      Your Answer: Core body temperature 36oC

      Correct Answer: Inability to rise from a squatting position without using arms for support

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Medical Risk for Eating Disorders: Indicators for Urgent Referral

      The Institute of Psychiatry has developed a guide for assessing medical risk in patients with eating disorders. General practitioners can evaluate several parameters to determine if urgent referral is necessary. The following circumstances indicate the need for immediate attention:

      Nutrition: A body mass index (BMI) below 14 kg/m2 or weight loss exceeding 0.5 kg per week.

      Circulation: A systolic blood pressure below 90, a diastolic blood pressure below 70, or a postural drop greater than 10 mm Hg.

      Squat test: The patient is unable to stand up without using their arms for balance or leverage due to muscle weakness.

      Core temperature below 35°C.

      Liver function tests (LFTs): Low levels of albumin or glucose.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): A pulse rate below 50 or a prolonged QT interval.

      By recognizing these indicators, healthcare providers can quickly identify patients who require urgent referral for further evaluation and treatment.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 86 - A 29-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue, myalgia, poor concentration and irritability following...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue, myalgia, poor concentration and irritability following a flu like illness 18 months previously.

      A diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is made.

      What is the appropriate initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Psychoanalysis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a debilitating condition that affects many individuals. To receive a diagnosis of CFS, a patient must have severe chronic fatigue lasting four months or longer (three months in children or young people) and have other medical conditions excluded by clinical diagnosis. Additionally, they must have four or more of the following symptoms: impaired memory or concentration, sore throat, tender lymph nodes, muscle pain, joint pain without swelling or redness, headaches, unrefreshing sleep, or post-exertional malaise lasting more than 24 hours.

      For those with mild or moderate CFS, cognitive behavioral therapy and/or graded exercise therapy should be offered and provided to those who choose these approaches. These interventions have the clearest research evidence of benefit. Other treatment options have not been shown to be effective in treating CFS. It is important for individuals with CFS to work with their healthcare provider to find the best treatment plan for their specific needs.

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  • Question 87 - Which statement accurately reflects the epidemiological risk factors for schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately reflects the epidemiological risk factors for schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Women tend to have an earlier age of onset than men

      Correct Answer: The lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia is 1%

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia: Prevalence, Onset, and Demographics

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects 1% of the global population. Although it can occur at any age, it typically starts in late adolescence or early adulthood, with rare cases before puberty. Men tend to develop schizophrenia earlier than women, and they are more likely to experience severe symptoms. Negative symptoms are also more common in men. The condition is more prevalent among migrants, people in lower social classes, and those living in urban areas. Some studies suggest that schizophrenia is more frequently diagnosed in black individuals than in white individuals, but this finding may be due to cultural biases or healthcare disparities.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 88 - A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.

      She claims that she is taking her medications regularly according to prescription. You conclude that her depression has not responded to treatment.

      What will be the most appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: Add lithium

      Correct Answer: Switch to another SSRI

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Non-Responsive Depression

      When a patient fails to respond to fluoxetine, which is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), it is recommended to switch to another SSRI first. If this doesn’t work, the NICE update on depression (2010) suggests trying a newer generation antidepressant that is better tolerated. It is important to find the right medication for each individual patient, as depression can have a significant impact on their quality of life. Therefore, healthcare professionals should closely monitor patients and adjust their treatment plan accordingly.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 89 - A 21-year-old woman presents to your morning clinic as an urgent addition. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents to your morning clinic as an urgent addition. She is in tears and reports feeling very low. She has been experiencing poor sleep and loss of appetite.
      In accordance with the NICE guidelines for depression in adults (CG90), which category of depression is recommended for active monitoring for up to two weeks?

      Your Answer: Chronic depression

      Correct Answer: Mild depression

      Explanation:

      Active Monitoring for Mild Depression

      Active monitoring is a recommended approach for individuals who may recover without formal intervention, those with mild depression who do not want treatment, or those with subthreshold depressive symptoms who request an intervention. Practitioners should discuss the presenting problem(s) and any concerns the person may have about them, provide information about the nature and course of depression, and arrange a further assessment within two weeks. It is important to make contact if the person doesn’t attend follow-up appointments. This approach allows for a watchful waiting period, during which the individual’s symptoms can be monitored and evaluated for any changes or progression. By providing information and support, practitioners can help individuals make informed decisions about their mental health and well-being.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 90 - The brother of a 35-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about his...

    Incorrect

    • The brother of a 35-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about his sister's behavior. He reports that his sister has always had an inflated sense of self-importance and often expresses delusional thoughts about her potential for success as a lawyer, believing she is capable of becoming a partner at a top law firm. She doesn't seem to care about the impact her actions have on others and appears pleased when she talks about others' failures. He recalls that she behaved similarly when they were growing up and was unsympathetic towards him when he struggled with his studies due to a learning disability.

      Which personality disorder is being described in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with narcissistic personalities exhibit a lack of empathy, a sense of entitlement, and exploit others to fulfill their own needs. This behavior is indicative of narcissistic personality disorder. While the individual’s brother may not meet the criteria for a personality disorder, his behavior aligns with many of the features of narcissistic behavior. Narcissistic individuals have an inflated sense of self-importance and believe they possess unlimited abilities to succeed, become powerful, or appear attractive. They lack empathy and are willing to take advantage of others to achieve their own goals. These symptoms often manifest in childhood and persist into adulthood.

      Antisocial personality disorder also involves a lack of empathy and guilt, as well as deceitful behavior to achieve personal goals. However, individuals with this disorder often disregard rules and laws, leading to criminal behavior and a propensity for violence. Therefore, the individual in the scenario is more likely to have narcissistic personality disorder.

      Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a disinterest in sexual relationships, a preference for solitude, and a lack of close friendships. These individuals are indifferent to praise and recognition, making it an unlikely diagnosis for the individual’s brother.

      Schizotypal personality disorder involves eccentric beliefs and behaviors, difficulty forming friendships, and paranoid or suspicious thoughts. This disorder doesn’t typically involve a lack of empathy or a sense of entitlement.

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, feelings of emptiness, and recurrent self-harm attempts.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 91 - A 39-year-old teacher is being evaluated after starting an antidepressant. She initially presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old teacher is being evaluated after starting an antidepressant. She initially presented with various symptoms of depression and a PHQ-9 score of 18. She has experienced several significant life events leading up to her diagnosis.

      She is married with a daughter in college, but has a strong support system from her family. You decided to initiate treatment with sertraline 50 mg, but she reports no improvement in her depression and your assessment agrees.

      Despite the lack of effectiveness in her treatment thus far, she appears to be tolerating the medication without any adverse effects.

      Based on NICE guidelines for depression treatment, at what point in her treatment would you consider increasing the dosage if she has not responded?

      Your Answer: Two to three weeks

      Correct Answer: Six to eight weeks

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Depression: Considerations for Medication Adjustment

      When treating depression, it is important to monitor the patient’s response to medication. If there is no improvement within three to four weeks, it may be necessary to increase the dose or switch to a different antidepressant. However, if there is some improvement at four weeks, it is recommended to continue treatment for an additional two to four weeks before making any further changes.

      In this particular case, the patient is tolerating the medication well and has support from her husband. Therefore, the focus should be on adjusting the medication. This recommendation is based on NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90) and is supported by other publications. By closely monitoring the patient’s response and making appropriate adjustments, healthcare providers can help improve outcomes for those struggling with depression.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 92 - Nine therapists gather to discuss challenging clients in a casual setting. Each takes...

    Incorrect

    • Nine therapists gather to discuss challenging clients in a casual setting. Each takes a turn to share their difficulties in working with the client. Afterwards, the group engages in a discussion about various aspects of the therapist-client relationship.

      Which one of the following does this best describe?

      Your Answer: Neighbour group

      Correct Answer: Balint group

      Explanation:

      Balint Groups: A Patient-Centred Approach to Healthcare

      Michael Balint, a Hungarian psychoanalyst and psychiatrist, played a significant role in shaping modern views on patient-centred healthcare. He believed that many presenting complaints had underlying psychological and emotional problems that needed to be explored to understand patients better. Balint coined the phrase ‘the doctor as a drug’, emphasizing the importance of the doctor-patient relationship in the healing process.

      During the 1950s, Balint established small groups called ‘Balint Groups’ that allowed GPs to discuss their patients on an informal basis. These groups were similar to discussions held amongst GP Registrars during their half-day release. Balint’s ideas were published in the book ‘The doctor, his patient and the illness’.

      Balint Groups provide a safe space for GPs to discuss their patients’ emotional and psychological needs, which can often be overlooked in a busy clinical setting. By exploring these areas, GPs can gain a deeper understanding of their patients and provide more effective care. Balint’s patient-centred approach to healthcare has had a significant impact on modern medicine and continues to be used today.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 93 - A 35-year-old man presents with weakness of his right arm - he cannot...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with weakness of his right arm - he cannot move the arm at all.

      The weakness came on suddenly. He sees a neurologist but no neurological illness can be found. He is a soldier and has just returned from a tour of duty. He has no history of illness and has not missed a day off work for two years. The weakness has been present for nine days.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of a Soldier with Paralysis

      The soldier in this case has a previously good sickness record but is now experiencing muscle paralysis. It is reasonable to assume that he has been exposed to considerable stress in the recent past. After seeing a neurologist, it can be concluded that there is no neurological disease present.

      This situation is indicative of a conversion disorder, which is a psychological condition where physical symptoms cannot be explained by medical examination. Muscle paralysis is a common symptom of this disorder, and the signs do not support the symptoms. In fact, tone may seem to be increased due to simultaneous flexor and extensor contraction.

      Given the soldier’s history and symptoms, it is unlikely that he is malingering. Instead, psychological factors are likely to be important in this case. Overall, the most likely diagnosis for this soldier is a conversion disorder.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 94 - A 32-year-old teacher comes to see you because she feels depressed. She was recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old teacher comes to see you because she feels depressed. She was recently given a new class to teach and feels overwhelmed. She believes that her colleagues think she is not capable of handling the class and that her teaching is not up to par. She has started to wake up in the early hours and then worry about her job. Her reason for coming to the clinic is that she has been feeling irritable and short-tempered with her students, and her partner thinks she should seek help. She doesn't smoke or drink alcohol. How would you evaluate her symptoms of depression?

      Your Answer: An IPSS symptom score

      Correct Answer: A PHQ-9 questionnaire

      Explanation:

      Questionnaires are commonly used in general practice to detect and assess the severity of illnesses. One such questionnaire is the PHQ-9, which is a nine-item depression scale that assists general practitioners in diagnosing depression and monitoring treatment. The PHQ-2, a two-item questionnaire, is also used for screening depression.

      The CAGE questionnaire, on the other hand, is a screening test for alcohol problem drinking and is not used to assess depression. The GPCOG assessment is a screening tool for symptoms of dementia, while the GPPAQ questionnaire is a validated short measure of physical activity commissioned by the Department of Health.

      It is important to note that the IPSS questionnaire, which is an international prostate symptom score questionnaire, is not relevant to the assessment of depression. Overall, these questionnaires serve as powerful tools for general practitioners in diagnosing and monitoring various illnesses.

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  • Question 95 - A 55-year-old male presents with a 12 month history of deteriorating memory.

    He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male presents with a 12 month history of deteriorating memory.

      He has otherwise been well and takes no medication.

      Which one of the following is most typical of frontal lobe dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Inability to perform serial 7s

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Manifestations of Neurodegenerative Conditions

      Frontal lobe dementia is a common neurodegenerative condition that typically affects individuals between the ages of 45 and 65. One way to test for frontal lobe dysfunction is to assess a patient’s ability to generate a list rapidly, such as naming animals in 60 seconds or words beginning with a specific letter.

      Dyscalculia, on the other hand, is a manifestation of the dominant parietal lobe. This condition affects an individual’s ability to perform mathematical calculations and solve problems. Sensory inattention is another manifestation of parietal lobe dysfunction, which can cause an individual to ignore or neglect one side of their body or environment.

      Visual field defects are also common manifestations of neurodegenerative conditions. Homonymous hemianopia, which is a loss of vision in one half of the visual field, is typically associated with occipital lobe dysfunction. Superior quadrantanopia, which is a loss of vision in one quarter of the visual field, is associated with temporal lobe dysfunction. Finally, inferior quadrantanopia, which is also a loss of vision in one quarter of the visual field, is associated with parietal lobe dysfunction. Understanding these different manifestations can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat neurodegenerative conditions more effectively.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 96 - You assess a patient who has been on citalopram for the last three...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient who has been on citalopram for the last three years to manage depression. He has been stable for the past two years, and you both decide to discontinue the antidepressant. What is the appropriate method to taper off citalopram?

      Your Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Gradual Reduction of SSRI Dose

      When discontinuing the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it is recommended to gradually reduce the dose over a period of four weeks. This allows the body to adjust to the decreasing levels of the medication and can help prevent withdrawal symptoms. However, this gradual reduction may not be necessary for fluoxetine, as it has a longer half-life compared to other SSRIs. The longer half-life means that the medication stays in the body for a longer period of time, allowing for a slower decrease in levels even after the medication is stopped. It is still important to consult with a healthcare provider before stopping any medication and to follow their instructions for discontinuation. Proper management of medication discontinuation can help ensure a safe and effective transition off of SSRIs.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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  • Question 97 - A 26-year-old man is prescribed a prolonged course of oral prednisolone for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man is prescribed a prolonged course of oral prednisolone for a flare-up of ulcerative colitis. What is the most commonly associated side effect of extended use of corticosteroids?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Correct Answer: Insomnia

      Explanation:

      Long-term steroid use often leads to psychiatric issues.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

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  • Question 98 - A 32-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his sister. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his sister. He has been convinced that aliens are monitoring his every move for 4 months, without any history of substance abuse. He claims to have heard their voices in his head and believes that they are planning to abduct him. His sister is worried that he might harm himself and reports that he has been talking about ways to escape from the aliens. When asked directly, the patient denies having suicidal thoughts but says he will do whatever it takes to avoid being taken by the aliens. He appears to have a blunted affect but is otherwise calm.

      What is the percentage of patients with this diagnosis who complete suicide?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Correct Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      It is common for individuals with schizophrenia to make statements about doing what it takes to avoid their perceived pursuers, such as taking a cyanide pill. However, these statements may not necessarily indicate overt suicidal plans or thoughts, but rather stem from delusions. Therefore, a comprehensive assessment of their mental state and other risk factors is necessary to accurately evaluate their level of risk for suicide.

      The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.

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  • Question 99 - A 55-year-old man with schizophrenia becomes highly agitated while shopping in a supermarket...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with schizophrenia becomes highly agitated while shopping in a supermarket and begins to yell and hurl canned goods off the shelves. The authorities are promptly notified. Which section of the Mental Health Act can be utilized?

      Your Answer: Section 135

      Correct Answer: Section 136

      Explanation:

      If a person with a mental health condition poses a risk of harm to themselves or others, they can be assessed under the Mental Health Act. Section 136 of the Act permits the police to detain the individual at their current location or take them to a safe place, such as their home or a police station, if they refuse to cooperate.

      During this time, the patient should undergo a formal mental health assessment. The Section 136 detention lasts for 24 hours, but it can be extended for an additional 12 hours. After this period, the patient may either be discharged or transferred to a different section of the Mental Health Act.

      Understanding Sectioning under the Mental Health Act

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse to be admitted voluntarily for mental health treatment. This process involves different sections, each with its own set of rules and regulations.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP, along with two doctors who have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is a 72-hour assessment order used in emergencies when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in the hospital for 72 hours, while Section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a, also known as Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order), can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety, while Section 136 allows the police to take someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to a Place of Safety for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

      Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the legal process of sectioning and ensure that they receive the necessary treatment and support for their mental health.

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  • Question 100 - You encounter a 49-year-old woman displaying signs of depression. She had previously undergone...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 49-year-old woman displaying signs of depression. She had previously undergone effective pharmacological treatment for a major depressive episode using paroxetine, but experienced severe withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuing it. To avoid such symptoms, you decide to initiate fluoxetine therapy. What is the reason for fluoxetine having a lower incidence of withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine has a shorter half life than other SSRIs

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine has a longer half life than other SSRIs

      Explanation:

      Compared to other commonly used SSRIs, fluoxetine has a longer half-life of 6-7 days, which results in fewer withdrawal symptoms. However, when switching from fluoxetine to other antidepressants, a longer transition period is necessary. It should be noted that fluoxetine’s potency as an enzyme inhibitor is not relevant in this context, and the other options are incorrect.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

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  • Question 101 - A 71-year-old man presents with progressive gait disturbance and fluctuating confusion. His symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old man presents with progressive gait disturbance and fluctuating confusion. His symptoms began about six months ago when he noticed a heaviness in his legs on walking to work. Since then, his handwriting has become more untidy. His wife reports that he has become increasingly forgetful at home, although he denies this. Over the last two months, he has become restless at night and has reported seeing unidentified objects moving on the walls and in the room. On examination, his Mini-Mental State Examination score is 24/30. He is symmetrically rigid and slow, with a mild, jerky tremor in the upper limbs. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable. His gait is shuffling, with mildly impaired postural reflexes.
      The accumulation of which protein causes the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Beta-amyloid

      Correct Answer: Alpha-synuclein

      Explanation:

      Neurodegenerative Disorders and Associated Proteins

      Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline, visual hallucinations, and sleep disturbances. It is caused by the accumulation of alpha-synuclein into Lewy bodies in vulnerable neurons.

      Beta-amyloid plaques are insoluble and associated with Alzheimer’s disease. They can be detected in the brain before diagnosis and have subtle effects on cognition.

      Prions are abnormal proteins that induce abnormal folding of other proteins. They are difficult to inactivate and can cause Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, a rapidly progressive neurodegenerative disorder.

      Tau proteins are microtubule-binding proteins associated with local neurodegeneration and cognitive impairment. They are seen in Alzheimer’s disease as flame-shaped neurofibrillary tangles.

      Overall, DLB is a good differential diagnosis for vascular dementia, but the clinical picture is more suggestive of DLB.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 102 - A 38-year-old woman comes to your afternoon clinic. She has been feeling off...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to your afternoon clinic. She has been feeling off since losing her job 3 weeks ago. She is tearful during the consultation and reports having trouble sleeping, with early morning waking, a decreased appetite resulting in some weight loss, a decreased libido, and difficulty concentrating. She feels stuck in her current situation and is unsure if there is a way out. She occasionally has thoughts of how it might be better if I wasn't here and thinks about death, but these are fleeting and not associated with any specific thoughts or plans of suicide. When asked directly, she says she couldn't do that to her family. She tells you that her mother once took pills for nerves, but she can't remember anything else.
      Choose the most appropriate treatment from the list.

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate Depressive Episode

      A woman is experiencing a moderate depressive episode, as evidenced by her low mood lasting for more than two weeks and the presence of a somatic syndrome. The most appropriate treatment option in this case is citalopram, a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor. However, some patients may experience a rise in anxiety and sleep disturbances during the initial titration, which can be managed by adding nocturnal sedation such as zopiclone for a short period.

      Other treatment options include risperidone, an antipsychotic with mood-stabilizing properties, and valproate, which can be used as a mood-stabilizer but should be used with caution in women of childbearing age. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline have more side-effects than SSRIs and are not typically used as first-line treatment. Mirtazapine, another antidepressant, is usually only used when an SSRI has failed.

      In conclusion, citalopram is the most appropriate treatment option for a moderate depressive episode, but it is important to monitor for potential side-effects and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.

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  • Question 103 - A 59-year-old retiree comes to see you after being found crying by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old retiree comes to see you after being found crying by a neighbour. Over the past six months she has lost her husband to cancer and has become increasingly isolated and withdrawn. She has never experienced depression before and her PHQ depression score is 20.

      She enjoys gardening and reading, but has lost interest in these activities recently. She has also been experiencing difficulty sleeping and has lost her appetite. She takes medication for high blood pressure and has a history of smoking, but quit 10 years ago.

      You decide to initiate treatment with sertraline, but which other drug may be helpful in addition to this?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Correct Answer: Disulfiram

      Explanation:

      Considerations for prescribing medication to an older person

      When prescribing medication to an older person, it is important to consider potential interactions and side effects. For example, if the person is already taking a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), gastro protection should be considered when prescribing a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). In this case, omeprazole would be the best option.

      It is also important to consider the person’s lifestyle and habits. If they are drinking regularly, but not excessively, there may be no need to add acamprosate or disulfiram. Similarly, if an SSRI has already been prescribed, there may be no need to add dosulepin.

      While adding ibuprofen or prednisolone may theoretically reduce inflammation related to arthritis, it poses a significant risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, taking two NSAIDs at the same time should be avoided.

      Finally, it is important to be aware of potential interactions with other medications or supplements the person may be taking. St John’s wort, for example, is often used by those who feel depressed, but can interact with other antidepressants and have varying levels of active ingredient depending on the preparation. Overall, careful consideration and monitoring is necessary when prescribing medication to an older person.

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  • Question 104 - As per the latest NICE guidelines on depression, which of the following interventions...

    Incorrect

    • As per the latest NICE guidelines on depression, which of the following interventions is not advised for individuals with subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild depression?

      Your Answer: Offering advice about sleep hygiene

      Correct Answer: Behavioural couples therapy

      Explanation:

      NICE’s recommendation for behavioural couples therapy is limited to patients with moderate or severe depression.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

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  • Question 105 - A 32-year-old man is brought by his wife and appears to be experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought by his wife and appears to be experiencing an elevated mood, along with increased activity and energy, and difficulty sleeping. He is extremely talkative and jumps quickly from one topic to another. He has no hallucinations or delusions. His wife believes he requires medication to help calm him down.

      What medication would be the most appropriate for the mental health team to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Mania/Hypomania

      Mania/hypomania is a condition that requires specialist mental health assessment. The patient may be prescribed atypical antipsychotic drugs such as olanzapine, quetiapine, or risperidone, which have a quicker onset and lower incidence of extrapyramidal side-effects compared to older antipsychotics like chlorpromazine. Alternatively, benzodiazepines like lorazepam may be used to aid sleep.

      Lithium, a mood stabilizer, has a slower onset of action and is only used alone if symptoms are mild. It is usually initiated after a specialist assessment. In this case, the treatment with antipsychotics is to calm the patient down in the immediate short-term. Managing mania or hypomania in adults requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and individual needs.

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  • Question 106 - A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-year history of severe itching and sores...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-year history of severe itching and sores containing 'white fibers' which he claims are living 'bugs'. He is in good health and doesn't take any regular medication. Upon examination, there are well-defined, scooped-out clean ulcerations with occasional white filaments, some hypopigmented patches, and extensive chronic excoriations. There is sparing between the scapula. Despite numerous dermatology and infectious disease outpatient investigations and treatments, no cause has been found, and symptoms have not improved.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tactile hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing delusional parasitosis, which is a fixed false belief that they are infested with ‘bugs’. This is consistent with the symptoms of ‘Morgellons’, which is a form of delusional parasitosis. The reported fibers or materials are often found to be common household or clothing materials, and the skin lesions are likely caused by repetitive picking. The hypopigmented patches are healed lesions, and the area between the scapula is spared, indicating that the patient is unable to reach that area and no lesions were found there. This is not indicative of body dysmorphic disorder, conversion disorder, or somatic symptom disorder.

      Understanding Delusional Parasitosis

      Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly seen, but it can be quite distressing for those who experience it. Essentially, it involves a person having a false belief that they are infested with some kind of bug or parasite, such as worms, mites, or bacteria. This belief is fixed and unshakeable, even in the face of evidence to the contrary.

      It is important to note that delusional parasitosis can occur on its own, but it may also be a symptom of other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, many people with this condition are otherwise functional and able to carry out their daily activities. However, the belief can cause significant anxiety and distress, and may lead to behaviors such as excessive cleaning or avoidance of certain places or activities. Treatment for delusional parasitosis typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to address the underlying psychiatric condition and help the person manage their symptoms.

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  • Question 107 - A 65-year-old patient presents five days after abruptly discontinuing diazepam, which he had...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents five days after abruptly discontinuing diazepam, which he had been taking for more than two years. He reports feeling generally unwell. What symptom would indicate a condition other than benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome?

      Your Answer: Perceptual disturbances

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome doesn’t include hypothermia as a symptom.

      Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has an inhibitory effect on the brain. This makes them useful for a variety of purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and as anticonvulsants. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for short periods of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually, reducing the dose every few weeks. If patients withdraw too quickly, they may experience benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms including insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Other drugs, such as barbiturates, work in a similar way but have different effects on the duration or frequency of chloride channel opening.

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  • Question 108 - You receive a letter from the consultant psychiatrist about one of your elderly...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a letter from the consultant psychiatrist about one of your elderly patients. The psychiatrist advises that the patient has bipolar disorder and should be started on lithium carbonate.

      Assuming the patient is otherwise fit and well, which one of the following is correct in terms of monitoring when on lithium?

      Your Answer: Cardiac function: Assess by 6 monthly ECG and cardiac troponin level
      Renal function: Assess every 6 months
      Thyroid function: Assess every 6 months

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      To ensure safe use of lithium therapy, the BNF recommends regular monitoring of various parameters. This includes checking body-weight or BMI, serum electrolytes, eGFR, and thyroid function every 6 months. In particular, thyroid function should be monitored more frequently if there is any indication of deterioration. Similarly, renal function should be assessed at baseline and then every 6 months, with more frequent monitoring if there are any signs of decline or if the patient is taking medications such as ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, or diuretics that increase the risk of renal impairment.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

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  • Question 109 - Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.

    Samantha has a...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.

      Samantha has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Her current medications include lisinopril 10 mg, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, and atorvastatin 40 mg. She has no known drug allergies.

      During the review, Samantha expresses her concern about her persistent headaches and occasional dizziness. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been experiencing stress at work and difficulty sleeping due to worrying about her job security.

      You diagnose mild anxiety and discuss starting an anxiolytic. Samantha agrees, and you prescribe lorazepam 0.5mg as needed.

      What other step is important in managing Samantha's condition at this point?

      Your Answer: Prescribe co-codamol

      Correct Answer: Prescribe lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      When prescribing medication to a patient who is already taking an NSAID, such as aspirin, it is important to assess their risk for gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidelines, patients with 1-2 risk factors are considered moderate risk and should either be prescribed a COX-2 inhibitor alone or a PPI. One risk factor is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), so in this case, the patient should be prescribed lansoprazole along with citalopram.

      It is important to note that taking both citalopram and amitriptyline can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. While co-codamol may be helpful for the patient’s back pain, it would be best to assess the pain before prescribing pain relief.

      Gabapentin is not necessary in this situation, and Z drugs like zopiclone should not be the first choice for managing sleep difficulties associated with depression.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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  • Question 110 - A 32-year-old male presents to the GP with persistent difficulty in leaving his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to the GP with persistent difficulty in leaving his home without performing a cleaning ritual that takes over 3 hours to finish. He has an intense fear that if he doesn't complete the process, his family will be harmed. The patient is currently undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Persist with CBT

      Correct Answer: Prescribe sertraline

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is the likely diagnosis for this patient, who is exhibiting symptoms of fear of harming her children and compulsive cleaning. The first-line treatment for OCD is cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) or exposure and response prevention. However, since the patient has not responded to CBT and is still experiencing intrusive symptoms, it would be appropriate to prescribe an SSRI, such as sertraline.

      Continuing with CBT alone would not be appropriate for this patient, given her ongoing and intrusive symptoms. Therefore, the most suitable course of action is to add an SSRI to her treatment plan.

      Benzodiazepines are not recommended for this patient, as they have a high potential for addiction and are typically used for acute relief of panic attacks. The patient is not displaying any overt anxiety symptoms that would warrant a prescription of benzodiazepines.

      Zopiclone may be prescribed for severe sleeping difficulties, but it is not indicated for this patient, who is not experiencing any acute issues with sleeping.

      Since the patient has not responded to CBT, it is appropriate to add an SSRI rather than referring her for exposure and response prevention.

      Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.

      Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.

      The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.

      ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.

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  • Question 111 - A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident 3 weeks ago. He reports experiencing flashbacks of the crash while watching car chase scenes on TV and has been avoiding such shows. He also mentions having trouble falling asleep and feeling more irritable than usual. However, his symptoms have not significantly impacted his work or relationships, and he is generally functioning well. What is the recommended next step in primary care management according to current NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to the adult mental health team

      Correct Answer: Arrange a period of watchful waiting, ensuring a follow-up appointment within 1 month

      Explanation:

      If an individual is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of PTSD for less than 4 weeks, it may be appropriate to suggest a period of watchful waiting, as per the current NICE guidelines. It is not recommended to use single session interventions that focus on the traumatic event, despite their common practice. Additionally, drug treatments should not be the first-line management for PTSD, whether used by general practitioners or specialist mental health professionals. There is no need for an urgent referral to the adult mental health team in this situation.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 112 - A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
    Select from the list the single...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding agoraphobia.

      Your Answer: Is an uncommon disorder

      Correct Answer: Commonly involves anticipatory anxiety

      Explanation:

      Understanding Agoraphobia: The Fear of Open Spaces and Leaving Home

      Agoraphobia is an irrational fear that affects up to one third of patients with panic disorders. It is characterized by a fear of open spaces and leaving home, especially those places from which escape may be difficult. Anxiety attacks are often triggered by provoking situations, and the anxiety experienced is disproportionate to the actual threat. Anticipatory anxiety is also common, with sufferers worrying about the anxiety itself and avoiding situations that may provoke it.

      The onset of agoraphobia is bimodal, with peaks in the mid-20s and mid-30s. Prevalence rates of panic disorder suggest that it is a common disorder, affecting 1-5% of the population. Anxiety disorders are twice as common in females and more prevalent in deprived areas. There is also an association with mitral valve prolapse.

      The treatments of choice for agoraphobia are self-help techniques and cognitive behavioural therapy, often in combination with antidepressant medication. Understanding agoraphobia and seeking appropriate treatment can help individuals overcome their fears and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 113 - Among the following groups, which one is most likely to have the highest...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following groups, which one is most likely to have the highest prevalence of depression in your practice population?

      Your Answer: Widowed females

      Correct Answer: Separated females

      Explanation:

      Prevalence of Depression in Different Groups

      The prevalence rate of depression varies among different groups. According to research, separated males have the highest rate of depression, with 111 per 1000. This rate is even higher for those who are unemployed, homeless, or going through separation. Separated females have a lower rate of 56 per 1000.

      Widowed males and females have rates of 70 and 46 respectively, while married men and women have the lowest rates of 17 and 14 respectively. Interestingly, unemployment affects men and women differently, with the rate increasing to 27 for men and 56 per 1000 for women. These findings highlight the importance of considering different demographic factors when assessing the prevalence of depression.

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  • Question 114 - A 64-year-old woman is noted to have poor self-care with symptoms of early...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman is noted to have poor self-care with symptoms of early morning waking and decreased appetite. She has poor concentration and is easily agitated. There is a history of a recent death in the family. She also recently lost her job as a volunteer. She has difficulty answering short-term recall questions. Her family think that her symptoms have been deteriorating over the past 6 months.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pathological grief

      Correct Answer: Depressive pseudodementia

      Explanation:

      Physical Signs and Symptoms of Depression in Elderly Patients

      Depression in elderly patients can manifest in various physical signs and symptoms. Early morning waking and decreased appetite are common symptoms, often accompanied by short-term memory loss. While memory loss is also seen in dementia, it improves with treatment of depression. Other physical signs include weight loss, constipation, loss of libido, impotence in men, fatigue, and body aches and pains. Retardation or agitation of behavior may also occur. These symptoms may be precipitated by life events and should be addressed promptly to improve the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 115 - You are caring for a 35-year-old woman who has been struggling with severe...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a 35-year-old woman who has been struggling with severe depression since a young age. Despite trying various antidepressants, she has not found relief. A consultant psychiatrist has now prescribed phenelzine, an MAOI. The patient has been informed about the dietary restrictions, but has come to you for more information. What foods can she safely consume while taking an MAOI?

      Your Answer: Mature cheese

      Correct Answer: Fermented foods

      Explanation:

      Potential Side Effects of Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are not commonly prescribed, which can lead to overlooking their potential side effects. One such side effect is the dangerous sympathetic pressor effect induced by eating foods containing tyramine. Tyramine is found in various foods, including mature cheese, meat, and alcoholic drinks. MAOIs also inhibit the metabolism of indirect-acting sympathomimetics found in many over-the-counter cough and decongestant medicines. Therefore, patients should consume fresh unfermented foods as a general rule. It is crucial to avoid stale or off foods, including game, and yeast extracts such as Marmite. Pickled herring and broad bean pods are also risky. This explanation highlights the main principles of foods to be avoided while taking MAOIs.

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  • Question 116 - A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had a disagreement with their daughter, causing her to leave the house. Following this incident, she has been unable to speak. Physical examination of her chest and throat reveals no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?

      Your Answer: Akinetic mutism

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic aphonia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Aphonia: The Inability to Speak

      Aphonia is a medical condition that refers to the inability to speak. It can be caused by various factors, including recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which can occur after a thyroidectomy. In this case, the nerve that controls the vocal cords is damaged, leading to difficulty in speaking.

      Another cause of aphonia is psychogenic, which means that it is related to psychological factors. This can include anxiety, depression, or other mental health conditions that affect the ability to communicate verbally.

      It is important to note that aphonia is different from mutism, which is the inability to speak due to a physical or neurological condition. In contrast, aphonia is typically a temporary condition that can be treated with appropriate medical or psychological interventions.

      Overall, understanding aphonia is crucial for identifying and addressing the underlying causes of this condition. Whether it is related to a physical or psychological issue, seeking medical attention can help individuals regain their ability to speak and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 117 - A 50-year-old woman has a history of bipolar disorder. She is brought by...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a history of bipolar disorder. She is brought by her husband who is concerned that she is entering a manic phase.
      Select from the list the single feature that would NOT suggest a diagnosis of mania.

      Your Answer: Frequently changes train of thought

      Correct Answer: Loss of interest in pleasurable activities

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mania and Hypomania in Bipolar Disorder

      Mania and hypomania are two terms used to describe the elevated mood states experienced by individuals with bipolar disorder. Mania is a more severe form of elevated mood, often accompanied by psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania without psychotic symptoms.

      To diagnose mania, at least three of the following symptoms must be present: inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, rapid and emphatic speech, flight of ideas, distractibility, psychomotor agitation, and excessive involvement in pleasurable activities without regard for consequences.

      It’s important to note that nearly all cases of mania will eventually lead to episodes of depression, which is why bipolar disorder is often grouped with mania. Understanding the symptoms of mania and hypomania can help individuals with bipolar disorder and their loved ones recognize when they may need to seek professional help.

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  • Question 118 - A 35-year-old man admits to drinking 40-50 units of alcohol per week, sometimes...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man admits to drinking 40-50 units of alcohol per week, sometimes more.
      Which of the following would suggest a diagnosis of alcohol dependence?

      Your Answer: Relapse after a successful period of abstinence

      Correct Answer: Withdrawal symptoms

      Explanation:

      Signs of Alcohol Dependence

      The patient is consuming alcohol in excess of the recommended safe level and is likely to have at least two positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire, indicating potential alcohol dependence. Abnormal liver function tests may also be present. According to DSMV-IV criteria, at least three of the following must be present over the preceding 12 months to diagnose alcohol dependence: tolerance to alcohol, withdrawal symptoms, increased use, unsuccessful attempts to cut down, spending time obtaining or recovering from alcohol, giving up social/occupational/recreational pursuits, and continued use despite knowledge of potential harm. The need for an Eye-opener (CAGE) suggests dependence and withdrawal symptoms in the morning.

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  • Question 119 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing anxiety over the past 2 years. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing anxiety over the past 2 years. She reports feeling inadequate in social situations and worries about her career. Additionally, she experiences insomnia, difficulty concentrating, tenseness, and irritability. There are no other medical concerns, substance abuse, hallucinations, delusions, or psychomotor retardation. She appears well-groomed, doesn't express frustration, and denies suicidal ideation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adjustment disorder with anxious mood

      Correct Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Generalised Anxiety Disorder and Adjustment Disorder

      Generalised anxiety disorder is characterised by excessive anxiety that is difficult to control, along with restlessness, irritability, and sleep disturbances. Unlike adjustment disorder, the anxiety doesn’t appear to be related to a specific stressor or exclusively to social situations, and there is no evidence of specific obsessions or compulsions. Symptoms of generalised anxiety disorder are better accounted for than major depressive disorder. There is no mention of low mood or loss of enjoyment in this scenario.

      Adjustment disorder, also known as exogenous, reactive, or situational depression, occurs when an individual is unable to adjust to a particular stress or major life event. People with this disorder typically have symptoms similar to those of depressed individuals, such as general loss of interest, feelings of hopelessness, and crying. Anxiety is a common feature of adjustment disorder. Unlike major depression, the disorder usually resolves once the individual is able to adapt to the situation.

      Understanding Generalised Anxiety Disorder and Adjustment Disorder

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  • Question 120 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother and...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother and she complains that she resists going to school because she wants to stay with her mother. She becomes terrified whenever her parents leave the house. During the day she worries that her family may never come back home.
      What is the disorder most closely associated with these symptoms in adulthood?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Panic disorder

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Childhood Separation Anxiety and Mental Disorders

      Separation anxiety disorder is a condition characterized by excessive anxiety related to separation from an attachment figure, such as a mother. Studies have shown that this disorder is a strong risk factor for developing mental disorders, particularly panic disorder and depression, in people aged 19-30 years. However, there is no proven link between childhood separation anxiety and irritable bowel syndrome, obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia, or somatic symptom disorder. While negative childhood experiences may play a role in the development of some mental disorders, separation anxiety in childhood is not directly related to these conditions.

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  • Question 121 - What is the correct statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

      Your Answer: OCD doesn't usually affect children

      Correct Answer: OCD is commonly associated with anxiety and depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding OCD: Symptoms, Comorbidities, and Treatment Options

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by intrusive thoughts and the compulsion to perform certain actions in response. Individuals with OCD may also be diagnosed with other conditions such as depression, anxiety disorders, eating disorders, Tourette syndrome, and personality disorders. OCD can also lead to panic attacks and suicidal tendencies, making it a serious concern. While sufferers recognize their obsessions and compulsions as irrational, they may still experience distress. OCD typically begins in early adulthood, but childhood onset is also common. The most effective treatment involves gradual exposure to environmental cues and response prevention, often combined with antidepressant therapy.

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  • Question 122 - A 25-year-old woman's life has become increasingly difficult due to excessive washing in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman's life has become increasingly difficult due to excessive washing in an attempt to prevent contamination by faeces and urine. She is fortunate to have her own bathroom at home for her exclusive use and showers several times a day and repeatedly washes her hands. She is reluctant to venture far from home for fear of contamination and is especially afraid of using public toilets. She has become quite anxious and her sleep is disturbed.
      Select from the list below the single most suitable initial management option.

      Your Answer: Hypnotherapy

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that requires proper management based on its severity. Cognitive behavioural therapy, including exposure and response prevention (ERP), is beneficial for all patients with OCD. This therapy involves exposure to triggers and preventing compulsive behaviours. The intensity and delivery of the intervention depend on the severity of the condition and can be individual or group-based. Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are recommended as an adjunct for patients who cannot engage in low-intensity psychological treatment or if such treatment has failed. Clomipramine is an alternative drug for patients with more severe symptoms. Although hypnotherapy and social skills therapy have been used in OCD patients, they are not included in the NICE guidelines.

      Managing Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) with Cognitive Behavioural Therapy and Medications

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  • Question 123 - What symptom is most indicative of anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What symptom is most indicative of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Excessive exercise

      Correct Answer: Weighing oneself every few days

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa: Key Features

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, even if the individual is already underweight. The following are key features of anorexia nervosa, as summarized from Clinical Pharmacist:

      – Body weight maintained at least 15% below that expected
      – Weight loss is self-induced through avoidance of fattening foods and one or more of the following: self-induced vomiting, self-induced purging, excessive exercise, use of appetite suppressants and/or diuretics
      – Body image distortion whereby dread of becoming fat persists as an intrusive, overvalued idea, with self-imposed low weight threshold
      – Widespread endocrine disorder involving hypothalamic pituitary gonadal axis
      – If onset before puberty, normal development is delayed or ceased

      It is important to recognize these key features in order to diagnose and treat anorexia nervosa effectively.

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  • Question 124 - A 72-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter for...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter for a consultation. He has recently been diagnosed with Alzheimer disease, so she asks for more information on the condition and on any associated disorders.
      Which of the following disorders is most likely also to be present in this patient because of his recent diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Panic disorder

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Common Co-Morbidities and Symptoms in Alzheimer Disease

      Alzheimer disease is a complex disorder that can present with a variety of co-morbidities and symptoms. One of the most common co-morbidities is depression, which affects 30%-50% of patients. However, depression in Alzheimer patients differs from depression in cognitively intact elderly patients, as it often features motivational disturbances rather than mood symptoms.

      Anxiety is also common in people with dementia, particularly in vascular dementia. Panic attacks can occur, but are not significantly more common. Alcohol abuse is another potential comorbidity, as alcohol is a known cause of dementia.

      Hallucinations can occur in Alzheimer disease, but are more common in specific forms of dementia such as dementia with Lewy bodies and Parkinson’s disease dementia. Finally, obsessive-compulsive behaviours are more common in frontotemporal dementia, Huntington’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy.

      Overall, understanding these co-morbidities and symptoms can aid in the differential diagnosis of Alzheimer disease and improve patient care.

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  • Question 125 - A 76-year-old woman presents for review. Her daughter is very concerned because her...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman presents for review. Her daughter is very concerned because her mother is becoming increasingly apathetic, some days not getting out of bed and wearing the same clothes for a number of days in a row. She appears to be having difficulty with word finding. You understand that her husband died three months earlier. Apart from hypertension, she is otherwise physically well.
      Physical examination is unremarkable. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m2. Her heart rate is 72 bpm and regular.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe dementia

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of dementia and depression

      When assessing a patient with cognitive decline, it is important to consider the various possible diagnoses. In the case of a patient who recently lost their spouse and is experiencing symptoms such as apathy and sleep disturbance, depression is the most likely diagnosis. Cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended intervention in this situation.

      Multi-infarct dementia, on the other hand, is typically seen in patients with vascular risk factors such as diabetes and atrial fibrillation. This type of dementia is characterized by a stepwise decline in functioning, with personality traits remaining relatively intact until late in the disease.

      Alcohol abuse can also lead to cognitive decline, with weight loss and signs of chronic liver disease being common physical manifestations.

      Alzheimer’s dementia is associated with progressive short-term memory loss, difficulties with language and decision-making, and problems with planning. While patients may present with dementia after the death of a partner, the symptoms described here are more consistent with depression.

      Finally, frontal lobe dementia is characterized by early symptoms of inappropriate social behaviour, disinhibition, and loss of empathy and sympathy. Memory loss is a late feature of this disease. By carefully considering the patient’s symptoms and medical history, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 126 - A 55-year-old woman is taking haloperidol and reports experiencing a sensation of restlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is taking haloperidol and reports experiencing a sensation of restlessness and an incapacity to remain seated since commencing her medication.
      What is the appropriate term for this adverse effect of the drug?

      Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Correct Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Akathisia is a condition characterized by a feeling of restlessness and an uncontrollable urge to move, which can lead to difficulty staying still. Symptoms may include foot stamping, leg crossing and uncrossing, and pacing. It is important to distinguish akathisia from psychotic agitation, as increasing the antipsychotic dose can worsen symptoms. Akathisia can occur within the first two weeks of taking a neuroleptic drug or even after several months of treatment. It has been linked to suicidal behavior and aggression towards others.

      Dystonic reaction is a reversible extrapyramidal effect that can occur immediately or after a few hours or days of taking a neuroleptic drug. It causes sustained muscle contractions that lead to abnormal postures or repetitive movements, which may resemble a tremor. Oculogyric crisis is a type of dystonic reaction characterized by prolonged involuntary upward deviation of the eyes.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic medications. It is characterized by fever, muscular rigidity, altered level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. It usually occurs shortly after starting neuroleptic treatment or after a dose increase.

      Drug-induced Parkinsonism (DIP) is a condition that can be mistaken for Parkinson’s disease. It is the second most common cause of Parkinsonism in the elderly. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication. DIP can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotics, gastrointestinal prokinetics, calcium channel blockers, and antiepileptic drugs.

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition characterized by involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. It occurs in patients who have been treated with long-term neuroleptic drugs. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication, but they usually disappear within three years in about 60% of patients.

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  • Question 127 - A 38-year-old teacher has been seeking your help for the past four weeks...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old teacher has been seeking your help for the past four weeks due to symptoms of mild depression. You have prescribed an antidepressant and would like to suggest cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) as an additional treatment. However, access to CBT in your area is limited. During your latest appointment, the patient has mentioned finding some online CBT therapies and would like your advice on the most suitable options. Which computer-based CBT therapies (CCBT) are recommended by NICE for managing mild to moderate depression?

      Your Answer: Beating the Blues

      Explanation:

      CCBT Approved by NICE for Depression and Anxiety Treatment

      In 2002, NICE did not recommend any form of computerized cognitive behavioral therapy (CCBT). However, the current packages have been reviewed and two have been approved. Beating the Blues has been recommended as an option in the treatment of mild to moderate depression and should be made available free to all NHS patients. Although approved by NICE, Fear Fighter is aimed at the treatment of panic and phobia. NICE consider that there is insufficient evidence to recommend the use of COPE and Overcoming Depression as clinically cost-effective options, but this may change should further trials prove successful. OC Fighter (previously known as BTSteps) is used to supplement treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder.

      If you are a healthcare professional, do you use CCBT in the management of your patients? If so, it is important to note that Beating the Blues is now available for free to all NHS patients with mild to moderate depression. Patients can access this treatment through their GP or mental health professional. It is important to stay up-to-date with NICE guidelines and recommendations for the use of CCBT in the treatment of mental health conditions.

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  • Question 128 - As per the guidelines of NICE and National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA), how...

    Incorrect

    • As per the guidelines of NICE and National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA), how frequently should lithium levels be monitored once a stable dose has been attained?

      Your Answer: Every 4 months

      Correct Answer: Every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Once a stable dose has been achieved, lithium levels need to be monitored every 3 months.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

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  • Question 129 - A 72-year-old woman brings her husband to the surgery. She is very concerned...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman brings her husband to the surgery. She is very concerned as his memory has been deteriorating significantly in recent years; so much so that he walked to the local village a week ago to do some shopping and had to be brought home by the police after forgetting where he was and why he had gone there.

      Previously he had controlled the finances in the house, but he recently began neglecting to pay the bills at home, and she has noticed objects in the kitchen being put in completely the wrong place.

      He has a history of hypertension for which he takes ramipril and amlodipine. On examination his BP is 165/89. He has a left carotid bruit.

      Investigations

      Haemoglobin 127 g/L (135-180)

      White cell count 4.5 ×109/L (4-10)

      Platelets 232 ×109/L (150-400)

      Sodium 140 mmol/L (134-143)

      Potassium 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5)

      Creatinine 145 μmol/L (60-120)

      ECG Sinus rhythm

      GPCOG* 4 (>5)

      *GPCOG stands for general practitioner assessment of cognition, and is a formal test of cognitive function recommended by NICE.

      Which one of the following would constitute the most appropriate initial measure in this case?

      Your Answer: Syphilis screen

      Explanation:

      Importance of Diagnosing Dementia

      Of utmost importance in the management of cognitive impairment is the establishment of a diagnosis of dementia. This can be best assessed by a specialist clinic psychologist, who is usually available through the local memory clinic. These clinics are typically run by neurologists or specialist elderly care physicians. While there may be evidence of cerebrovascular disease, which may require additional medications such as aspirin and statin, diagnosing dementia and identifying its underlying cause is crucial at this stage. Early therapeutic intervention can then be initiated to help manage the condition and improve the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 130 - A 35-year-old teacher presents in a routine GP appointment feeling like everything is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher presents in a routine GP appointment feeling like everything is falling apart. Despite never taking a day off work, the patient is struggling to keep it together. The patient's spouse has noticed an increase in cleaning around the house, and the patient becomes easily irritated with others' inability to meet their personal standards. The patient has a history of perfectionism and avoids spending money on unnecessary items.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anal-retentive personality

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality

      Explanation:

      Individuals who exhibit obsessive-compulsive personality traits tend to be inflexible when it comes to their principles, beliefs, and standards, and frequently exhibit hesitancy in delegating tasks to others.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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  • Question 131 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with symptoms of post-traumatic stress...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) that she has been experiencing for several years and can no longer manage. She reveals several life events that she believes may have contributed, including work and relationship stress. She also mentions the recent passing of a dear friend and the fact that her brother died in military service five years ago.
      What is the most probable cause for the onset of PTSD?

      Your Answer: Learning the circumstances of the death of her brother in military service

      Explanation:

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) and Its Triggers

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a type of anxiety disorder that can occur after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Traumatic events can include accidents, natural disasters, terrorist attacks, and violent assaults. PTSD can also occur when someone learns that a close family member or friend has experienced a traumatic event. However, it is important to note that not all stressful life events can lead to PTSD. For example, losing a friend to a long-term illness, being made redundant, experiencing significant work stress, or undergoing an acrimonious divorce are not triggers for PTSD unless they involve traumatic experiences such as domestic violence or sexual abuse. Understanding the triggers of PTSD can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 132 - A 12-year-old girl has not been attending school.
    Select from the list of options...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl has not been attending school.
      Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest school refusal rather than truancy.

      Your Answer: Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting on the way to school

      Explanation:

      Understanding School Refusal: Symptoms, Causes, and Consequences

      School refusal is a common problem affecting 1-5% of school-aged children, with similar rates in both boys and girls. It typically occurs in children aged 5, 6, 10, and 11, and may be triggered by stressful events at home or school, or after a holiday or illness. Symptoms include fear, panic, crying, temper tantrums, threats of self-harm, and somatic complaints such as dizziness, headaches, and nausea.

      Short-term consequences of school refusal include poor academic performance, family difficulties, and problems with peer relationships. Long-term consequences may include academic underachievement, employment difficulties, and increased risk for psychiatric illness. Children with school refusal may suffer from significant emotional distress, particularly anxiety and depression.

      School avoidance may serve different functions depending on the child, such as avoidance of specific fears, escape from aversive social situations, separation anxiety, or attention-seeking behaviors. It is important to address school refusal early on, as the longer the child stays out of school, the more difficult it is to return.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, causes, and consequences of school refusal can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate support and intervention for their child.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 133 - A 25-year-old female employee is brought to you by her worried supervisor. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female employee is brought to you by her worried supervisor. She has been exhibiting strange behavior lately and appears to be isolating herself.

      Which of the following signs is the strongest indication of depression?

      Your Answer: Persecutory delusions

      Correct Answer: Thought withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Schizophrenia and Psychosis from Other Mental Health Conditions

      When it comes to mental health conditions, it’s important to differentiate between different disorders to ensure proper treatment. In the case of schizophrenia and psychosis, there are certain features that distinguish them from other conditions.

      For example, hallucinations and delusions are common symptoms of both schizophrenia and psychosis, but they are not typically present in other disorders such as depression or anxiety. Additionally, disorganized speech and behavior are also more commonly associated with schizophrenia and psychosis.

      By understanding these distinguishing features, mental health professionals can make more accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment plans for their patients. It’s important to seek professional help if you or a loved one is experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia or psychosis, as early intervention can greatly improve outcomes.

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  • Question 134 - At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have...

    Incorrect

    • At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have a serum sodium level of 128 mmol/L. Despite feeling fine, she is found to have hyponatraemia. What medication is the probable culprit for her condition?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia is often associated with the use of SSRIs.

      The production or action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can be increased by many drugs, leading to hyponatraemia. Commonly implicated drugs include thiazide diuretics, SSRIs, haloperidol, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, and carbamazepine.

      SSRIs can cause the release of ADH, resulting in hyponatraemia. This side effect typically occurs within the first few weeks of treatment and resolves within two weeks of discontinuing the drug. The risk of hyponatraemia is higher in older patients and those taking diuretics in conjunction with SSRIs.

      Side-Effects of SSRIs

      SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.

      When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.

      When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

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  • Question 135 - You are taking a history from a 21-year-old man. He reports difficulty sleeping...

    Incorrect

    • You are taking a history from a 21-year-old man. He reports difficulty sleeping at night due to concerns about abusing his special powers. He claims to be able to read other people's thoughts and sometimes feels he can control their hand movements. He believes this to be true because a passage in the Bible can be translated with a special code that dictates his powers. Additionally, he reports hearing voices talking about him.
      What is the SINGLE CORRECT terminology for this type of delusion?

      Your Answer: Paranoid delusion

      Correct Answer: Delusion of reference

      Explanation:

      Understanding Delusions: False Beliefs and Their Types

      Delusions are false beliefs that individuals hold onto despite evidence to the contrary. These beliefs are often maintained by altering other beliefs to keep their entire belief system consistent. There are several types of delusions, including delusions of reference, control, paranoia, replacement, and guilt.

      Delusions of reference involve the belief that something innocent in the public domain holds a special meaning for the individual. Delusions of control consist of the belief that an external force is controlling the patient, often citing electricity or radio waves as the mediator. Paranoid delusions involve the belief that people or organizations are plotting to harm or harass the patient, while delusions of replacement occur when someone in the patient’s life has been replaced by an impostor. Delusions of guilt involve feeling guilty or remorseful for no valid reason.

      Understanding the different types of delusions can help individuals recognize when someone they know may be experiencing them. It is important to seek professional help if someone is experiencing delusions, as they can be a symptom of a larger mental health issue.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 136 - A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric pain for the past three months. He denies any weight loss, haematemesis, or melaena. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastrium, but otherwise, the abdominal examination is unremarkable. The patient is currently taking Citalopram 20 mg, Lisinopril 20 mg OD, Aspirin 75 mg OD, and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg. He recently had a painful knee and has been taking Ibuprofen at least three times a day. He has a history of severe depressive disorder, which has been effectively controlled on Citalopram for the past 9 months. What is the most appropriate initial management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop his Ibuprofen, and discuss weaning him off his Citalopram if he feels ready to do this

      Correct Answer: Reduce his Ibuprofen and change his antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Medication Review for Patient with Multiple Symptoms

      This patient is experiencing symptoms that are likely caused by the combination of aspirin, ibuprofen, and citalopram. Co-prescribing NSAIDs and SSRIs can increase the risk of gastric bleeding, so it is important to alter the medication rather than refer for endoscopy. The patient should be closely monitored and may benefit from a PPI for gastroprotection.

      Although citalopram may be contributing to the symptoms, it has been effective in managing the patient’s recurrent depressive episodes. Patients with a history of depression should remain on antidepressants for at least 2 years into remission.

      To ensure the patient responds well to the altered medication, a review should be scheduled in two weeks. It may also be appropriate to check the patient’s Hb level for anaemia.

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  • Question 137 - A 25-year-old teacher has come to see you because she has been feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old teacher has come to see you because she has been feeling down for the past four weeks. She recently ended a long-term relationship and is struggling with the demands of her job. She shares that she still lives with her parents due to financial constraints and that she frequently argues with them and her younger sister. She expresses interest in taking non-addictive medication to improve her mood and seeing a psychotherapist to work through her issues. You administer a PHQ assessment questionnaire and calculate her score. According to the PHQ assessment, what is the recommended threshold score that indicates the need for active treatment with psychotherapy, medication, or a combination of both?

      Your Answer: Score 5

      Correct Answer: Score 9

      Explanation:

      Recommended Questionnaires for Primary Care

      The use of validated questionnaires in primary care can aid clinicians in assessing the severity of depression and guiding management. Three recommended questionnaires are PHQ-9, HADS, and BDI-II. It is important to familiarize oneself with the basic principles of each questionnaire in case of examination.

      The PHQ-9 assessment is particularly useful in determining the severity of depression and the need for intervention. The maximum score is 27, with a score of 15 being the threshold for considering intervention. The higher the score, the greater the symptoms.

      Based on the limited information provided in the patient’s history, it is unlikely that antidepressant treatment and psychotherapy referral would be necessary. However, the use of these questionnaires can provide a more comprehensive assessment and aid in the management of depression in primary care.

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  • Question 138 - A 39 year-old woman reports trouble sleeping. She discloses that she experienced sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year-old woman reports trouble sleeping. She discloses that she experienced sexual assault 10 months ago. What symptoms are indicative of post traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer: Anhedonia

      Correct Answer: Hypervigilance

      Explanation:

      PTSD symptoms include re-experiencing, avoidance of reminders, hypervigilance, poor concentration, exaggerated startle responses, and sleep problems. People may also have recurrent distressing images, flashbacks, nightmares, and may constantly re-think the event.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 139 - A 28-year-old woman attends with her mother. She has always lived at home...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman attends with her mother. She has always lived at home and never worked. Over the past few weeks she has become increasingly anxious and begs her mother not to leave her on her own at home. Her mother reveals that her daughter has always needed a lot of reassurance and has never liked being left alone.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Dependent personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Common Personality and Mental Health Disorders

      Dependent Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by a person’s inability to make decisions on their own and a constant need for reassurance and support from others.

      Borderline Personality Disorder: Individuals with this disorder experience intense mood swings, unstable relationships, and may engage in self-harm or have suicidal tendencies.

      Conversion Disorder: This disorder involves physical symptoms that mimic a medical condition, but have no underlying medical cause.

      Depression: A mental health disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities.

      Histrionic Personality Disorder: People with this disorder have a strong desire for attention and may engage in dramatic or seductive behavior to gain approval from others.

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  • Question 140 - You see a 26-year-old male patient with erectile dysfunction. He is typically healthy...

    Correct

    • You see a 26-year-old male patient with erectile dysfunction. He is typically healthy and doesn't take any regular medications. He is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol in moderation.

      You proceed to gather a more comprehensive history of his issue and conduct a thorough psychosexual evaluation.

      Which of the following history findings would indicate a psychogenic origin rather than an organic cause for his condition?

      Your Answer: A history of premature ejaculation

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, or mixed, and can also be caused by certain medications.

      Symptoms that indicate a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems or changes, major life events, and psychological issues.

      On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset and normal ejaculation.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 141 - A General Practitioner receives a call from a patient's relative who is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A General Practitioner receives a call from a patient's relative who is worried about the patient's possible manic episode due to bipolar disorder. What symptoms would be commonly observed in this situation?

      Your Answer: Avoidance of pleasurable activities

      Correct Answer: Lack of normal social inhibitions

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Mania in Bipolar Disorder

      Mania is a common symptom of bipolar disorder, characterized by a period of elevated or irritable mood, increased energy, and other changes in behavior. Here are some common symptoms of mania:

      Lack of normal social inhibitions: Manic episodes can lead to sexual indiscretions and loss of other normal social inhibitions, putting patients at risk of unplanned pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections.

      Avoidance of pleasurable activities: Manic patients may engage in excessive spending and other pleasurable activities without considering the consequences.

      Increased sleep: While reduced sleep is a common feature of mania, increased sleep can be a symptom of depression in bipolar disorder.

      Power of concentration increased: Manic patients may experience distractibility and reduced concentration, rather than increased levels of concentration.

      Reduced energy levels: While manic patients may feel elated and full of energy, this often shifts into depression, where they feel sad and hopeless with low energy levels.

      It is important to recognize these symptoms and seek appropriate treatment for bipolar disorder.

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  • Question 142 - A 60-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty concentrating on tasks and remembering recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty concentrating on tasks and remembering recent events. Clinical examination and laboratory tests are normal. Mental status examination shows emotional lability, difficulty in naming common objects and a recall of only one out of three objects after 5 minutes.
      What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Most Common Causes of Dementia in Older Adults

      The symptoms presented by the patient are highly indicative of Alzheimer’s dementia, which is the most prevalent cause of dementia in their age group. This type of dementia is characterized by a gradual onset of memory impairment and the absence of any focal neurological disease. On the other hand, alcohol-related dementia is less likely as there is no history of excessive alcohol intake. Cerebrovascular disease is also an uncommon cause of dementia, and it often has a more sudden onset with evidence of focal neurological or vascular disease. If the deterioration is gradual, it tends to progress in a stepwise manner. Depression may cause difficulty in concentration, but it doesn’t impair short-term memory. It is important to note that aging alone doesn’t cause cognitive function problems.

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  • Question 143 - A 20-year-old patient with panic attacks is evaluated after being on a selective...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old patient with panic attacks is evaluated after being on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for 3 months. The patient reports no significant improvement in the frequency of the episodes. According to NICE, what is the recommended second-line pharmacological treatment for panic disorder?

      Your Answer: Pregabalin

      Correct Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

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  • Question 144 - During a ward round consultation, the Psychiatrist was assessing a 12-year-old patient's current...

    Incorrect

    • During a ward round consultation, the Psychiatrist was assessing a 12-year-old patient's current mental state. The patient's reply to most of the questions consisted of sentences which did not make any sense such as - 'painting pizza prince bus brush'. This is a good example of which of the following thought disorder?

      Your Answer: Neologism

      Correct Answer: Word salad

      Explanation:

      Disordered speech, such as word salad, neologisms, perseveration, and echolalia, is commonly linked to psychosis and mania.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

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  • Question 145 - A 20-year-old nursing student comes to you with a 2-year history of low...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old nursing student comes to you with a 2-year history of low mood, anhedonia, and poor concentration. She has been taking fluoxetine for 6 months and wants to switch to a different antidepressant. What important factors do you need to consider when changing her medication?

      Your Answer: Renally excreted

      Correct Answer: Long half-life

      Explanation:

      Compared to other SSRIs, fluoxetine has a longer half-life. Therefore, it is recommended to wait for about 4-7 days after discontinuing fluoxetine before starting a new antidepressant. Although fluoxetine undergoes first-pass metabolism and is excreted through the kidneys, this doesn’t affect the process of switching to another antidepressant. Instead, it may impact the appropriateness of fluoxetine for a specific patient.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

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  • Question 146 - Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
    She has recently...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
      She has recently been seen by a child and adolescent psychiatrist, who has diagnosed mild to moderate depression. She is being seen again tomorrow and mother wants to talk through the treatment options with you.
      What is the first line treatment for mild to moderate depression in a 14-year-old?

      Your Answer: Watchful waiting for up to three months for spontaneous improvement to occur

      Correct Answer: Treatment with a tricyclic antidepressant alone

      Explanation:

      First Line Treatment for Psychological Disorders

      When it comes to treating psychological disorders, it is important to offer the right therapy as a first line treatment. According to experts, one of the following specific psychological therapies should be offered for at least three months: individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help. However, before starting any therapy, it is recommended to wait for up to four weeks and monitor the symptoms. This is known as watchful waiting. If the symptoms persist, then one of the psychological therapies mentioned above should be offered. By following this approach, patients can receive the most effective treatment for their psychological disorder.

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  • Question 147 - A 25-year-old male presented with a paranoid psychosis accompanied by visual hallucinations which...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presented with a paranoid psychosis accompanied by visual hallucinations which resolved over the next three days.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal

      Correct Answer: Diazepam dependence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal and Hallucinations

      The key points in the history are that the patient is experiencing visual hallucinations that resolve over 72 hours. Based on the given options, alcohol withdrawal is the most likely cause, especially since the patient also has paranoid psychosis. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically appear 6-12 hours after cessation and include insomnia, tremors, anxiety, and nausea, among others. Alcoholic hallucinosis can also occur, which includes visual, auditory, and tactile hallucinations. Withdrawal seizures and delirium tremens can also occur, with the latter having a mortality rate of approximately 35% without treatment. It’s important to note that benzodiazepines can cause a protracted withdrawal syndrome, while fluoxetine overdose, heroin withdrawal, and cannabis use have their own distinct symptoms and effects. Understanding the signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and hallucinations can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 148 - A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an unrelenting itch. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an unrelenting itch. Despite undergoing a thorough examination, blood tests, and a consultation with a dermatologist, no underlying cause has been identified. The patient reveals that she strongly believes in a particular explanation for her symptom.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Capgras delusion

      Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis

      Explanation:

      Delusional parasitosis is the correct term for a patient who has a fixed, false belief that they are infested by bugs. This condition is characterized by persistent itching and the belief that there are insects crawling on or under the skin. Capgras delusion, Cotard’s syndrome, and De Clerambault’s syndrome are all different psychological conditions that are not related to delusional parasitosis.

      Understanding Delusional Parasitosis

      Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly seen, but it can be quite distressing for those who experience it. Essentially, it involves a person having a false belief that they are infested with some kind of bug or parasite, such as worms, mites, or bacteria. This belief is fixed and unshakeable, even in the face of evidence to the contrary.

      It is important to note that delusional parasitosis can occur on its own, but it may also be a symptom of other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, many people with this condition are otherwise functional and able to carry out their daily activities. However, the belief can cause significant anxiety and distress, and may lead to behaviors such as excessive cleaning or avoidance of certain places or activities. Treatment for delusional parasitosis typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to address the underlying psychiatric condition and help the person manage their symptoms.

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  • Question 149 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is concerned about her lack of close friends and her eccentric behavior, speech, and beliefs. The patient believes she has psychic abilities and is fascinated with the paranormal. Her brother reports that she has displayed these behaviors since childhood, but he is only seeking help now as he is moving to another state and worries about leaving her alone with their parents.

      What personality disorder could be present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Antisocial personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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  • Question 150 - A 25-year-old male is admitted to the acute medical unit after a paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male is admitted to the acute medical unit after a paracetamol overdose. He later admits to multiple episodes of impulsive self-harm and overdoses. He reports that his recent overdose was triggered by a fight with his mom and concerns that she will no longer want to see him. He describes long-standing feelings of emptiness and doesn't like the way he looks.

      What is the most probable personality disorder underlying this behavior?

      Your Answer: Dependant personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient described is borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, fear of abandonment, and unstable self-image. Patients often experience feelings of emptiness and engage in self-harm. Childhood trauma or abuse is often associated with the development of this disorder.

      Narcissistic personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis. This disorder is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and entitlement.

      Paranoid personality disorder is also not the correct diagnosis. Patients with this disorder are suspicious of others and may see hidden meanings in things or believe in conspiracy theories.

      Dependent personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis either. Patients with this disorder struggle to make decisions and require reassurance and support from others. They fear being alone and cope best in relationships. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient described.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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  • Question 151 - A 35-year-old former soldier with a past of post-traumatic stress disorder comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old former soldier with a past of post-traumatic stress disorder comes in for a follow-up. Despite undergoing an unsuccessful treatment of eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy, he is hesitant to attempt cognitive behavioural therapy. Which of the following medications could potentially benefit individuals in his situation?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      When CBT or EMDR therapy prove to be ineffective in treating PTSD, the initial pharmacological interventions typically involve prescribing either venlafaxine or an SSRI.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 152 - A 20-year-old woman with a history of anorexia nervosa has a body mass...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman with a history of anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16 kg/m2. She has lost 2 kg steadily over the past four weeks. She is unable to sit up from lying flat without using her hands or to stand from the squatting position without using her hands. Lanugo is present. Her hands feel cold to the touch.
      Which feature of the patient’s physical examination would be most suggestive of impending high risk to life?

      Your Answer: Rate of weight loss

      Correct Answer: Inability to sit up or squat without using the hands

      Explanation:

      Identifying High Risk Factors in Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications. The Royal College of Psychiatrists in the United Kingdom has issued guidance on recognising medical emergencies in eating disorders. Here are some key factors to consider when assessing the risk to life in anorexia nervosa:

      Sit up–Squat–Stand (SUSS) test: This test involves asking a patient to sit up from a lying position and to stand up from a squatting position without using their hands. Inability to do this is associated with impending high risk to life.

      Rate of weight loss: A weight loss of 500-999 g per week presents a moderate risk to life, whereas weight loss of >1 kg per week confers a high risk.

      BMI: A BMI of greater than 15 kg/m2 represents a low impending risk to life, whereas a BMI of <13 kg/m2 is a high risk. Cool peripheries: Although cool peripheries may be seen on examination in anorexia nervosa, they are not associated with a high risk to life. However, a core temperature of less than 35 °C is. Lanugo: Lanugo is a covering of soft downy hair often seen in people with anorexia, but it is not identified as being associated with an increased risk to life in anorexia nervosa. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate interventions to prevent life-threatening complications.

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  • Question 153 - Which one of the following statements regarding anorexia nervosa is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding anorexia nervosa is accurate?

      Your Answer: The BMI should be < 16.5 kg/m^2 before making the diagnosis

      Correct Answer: If amenorrhoea is present a hormonal disorder needs to be excluded

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is a prevalent mental health condition that primarily affects teenage and young-adult females. It is the most common reason for admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards. The disorder is characterized by a restriction of energy intake, leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health. Patients with anorexia nervosa also experience an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though they are underweight. They may also have a distorted perception of their body weight or shape, which can affect their self-evaluation.

      • The BMI should be < 16.5 kg/m² before making the diagnosis:
        • This is not accurate. The DSM-5 criteria for anorexia nervosa include a significantly low body weight relative to the individual’s age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health, but it does not specify a precise BMI threshold like <16.5 kg/m².
      • If amenorrhoea is present a hormonal disorder needs to be excluded:
        • This is accurate. While amenorrhoea is a common feature of anorexia nervosa, it is important to rule out other potential causes of amenorrhoea, such as hormonal disorders, to ensure an accurate diagnosis.
      • It is the most common cause of admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards:
        • This is not accurate. While anorexia nervosa is a significant cause of admissions, other conditions such as depression and anxiety disorders are generally more common causes of psychiatric admissions in this age group.
      • Around 75-80% of the patients are female:
        • This is accurate in general, but the figure is typically closer to 90%, making it less precise. Anorexia nervosa predominantly affects females, but the exact percentage is often reported higher than 75-80%.
      • Has a good prognosis if treated:
        • This is not accurate. Anorexia nervosa has a variable prognosis and can be quite severe with significant mortality and morbidity. While some individuals do recover completely, others may have a chronic course with relapses. Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with anorexia nervosa remains poor, with up to 10% of patients eventually dying because of the disorder.

      The management of anorexia nervosa varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, NICE recommends individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), or specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). In children and young people, NICE recommends ‘anorexia focused family therapy’ as the first-line treatment, followed by cognitive behavioural therapy as the second-line treatment.

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  • Question 154 - A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder and was initially prescribed sertraline, but this was discontinued due to gastrointestinal side effects. He has since been taking venlafaxine for a week but has reported experiencing headaches and blurred vision. What is the most appropriate course of action to manage his condition?

      Your Answer: Switch to amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Switch to pregabalin

      Explanation:

      For generalised anxiety disorder, pregabalin is suggested as a third line treatment option. If the patient is unable to tolerate SSRIs and SNRIs, pregabalin can be considered as an alternative. However, amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition.

      Dealing with anxiety and depression is a common issue, and initial treatments may not always be effective. It is important for healthcare professionals to be knowledgeable about second and third line treatments, which may be initiated by some GPs or prescribed after specialist advice. The GP is responsible for ongoing monitoring and safety, including being aware of potential drug interactions.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

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  • Question 155 - What is the most effective way to distinguish between depression and dementia in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective way to distinguish between depression and dementia in older adults?

      Your Answer: Short term memory test

      Correct Answer: Hospital anxiety and depression (HAD) scale

      Explanation:

      Clinical Tests for Distinguishing Dementia from Depression

      Clinical tests are the most reliable way to distinguish between dementia and depression. One such test involves registering three objects and recalling them after five minutes. Dementia patients typically struggle with this task. Another test involves recalling items in a category, such as a list of plants, animals, or furniture items.

      On the other hand, scales like the HAD scale do not differentiate between dementia and depression. They only assess the likelihood of depression being present. Blood tests can also be useful in ruling out underlying causes of dementia, such as thyroid function tests and B12 tests. However, liver function tests are unlikely to contribute much to the diagnosis. By using these clinical tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and differentiate between dementia and depression.

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  • Question 156 - A client is initiated on clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia. What is a...

    Incorrect

    • A client is initiated on clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia. What is a known adverse effect of clozapine treatment?

      Your Answer: Gingival hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Hypersalivation

      Explanation:

      Clozapine therapy often leads to excessive salivation, which is a commonly observed side effect. However, this issue can be effectively managed with the use of hyoscine hydrobromide.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

      Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

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  • Question 157 - A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment with fluoxetine for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior experience with antidepressant medication and has no other medical conditions.

      During the assessment, she reports no suicidal thoughts and has a supportive partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She has not experienced any adverse effects with fluoxetine but has heard positive things about St John's wort from a friend.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue the current dose of fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Stop the fluoxetine and refer for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs

      When a patient has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.

      After three to four weeks of minimal or absent response, there are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, caution is needed when switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics because it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, after appropriate discontinuation of fluoxetine, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.

      It is not recommended to prescribe or advocate for St John’s wort due to lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and anti-epileptics.

      According to NICE CG90, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication for moderate depression. If response is absent or minimal after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment with a therapeutic dose of an antidepressant, increase the level of support (for example, by weekly face-to-face or telephone contact) and consider increasing the dose in line with the SPC if there are no significant side effects or switching to another antidepressant as described in section 1.8 if there are side effects or if the person prefers.

      In summary, it is important to closely monitor patients who are not responding to SSRIs and consider alternative treatment options in consultation with a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 158 - For which patient would cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) be the most effective? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which patient would cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) be the most effective?

      Your Answer: A 32-year-old schizophrenic female

      Correct Answer: A 12-year-old boy with autism

      Explanation:

      Conditions that Benefit from Cognitive Behavioural Therapy

      Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is an effective treatment for individuals experiencing depression, anxiety, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder. However, it may not be as effective for those with borderline personality disorder, psychosis, bereavement, and schizophrenia.

      It is important to note that CBT is not a one-size-fits-all approach and should be tailored to the individual’s specific needs. Understanding which conditions are most responsive to CBT can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options for their patients.

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  • Question 159 - A 58-year-old woman is brought to see you by her son, who reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman is brought to see you by her son, who reports that the family is at their wit's end. She has always been prone to 'melancholy', but over the last few months has become excitable, spending large amounts of money on a television shopping channel and booking a number of expensive holidays for herself and her family. Although she seems to have boundless energy, her home is very untidy and she is irritable when criticized.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Acute schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder: Types, Prevalence, and Symptoms

      Bipolar disorder, previously known as manic-depressive psychosis, is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating episodes of mania and depression. There are two types of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I and Bipolar II. Bipolar I is characterized by severe manic episodes that result in impaired functioning and frequent hospital admissions, interspersed with major depressive episodes. On the other hand, Bipolar II patients experience hypomanic episodes that are less severe than full mania and do not have psychotic symptoms.

      Studies suggest that bipolar disorder has a lifelong prevalence rate of 2.4%. When hallucinations and delusions are present during the manic phase, it can be difficult to differentiate from schizophrenia. However, this patient’s age suggests that it is unlikely to be schizophrenia. Additionally, periods of melancholy suggest interspersed depressive episodes. There is no indication of cognitive dysfunction, and the recent marked change in behavior doesn’t suggest someone who is normally a bit high.

      In conclusion, understanding the types, prevalence, and symptoms of bipolar disorder is crucial in identifying and treating this mental health condition.

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  • Question 160 - A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled for some time with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.

      She claims to taking her medications regularly according to prescription.

      What will be the most appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: Switch to another group of antidepressant

      Explanation:

      Switching Antidepressants: Consider Mirtazapine

      When a patient stops responding to fluoxetine, switching to another group of antidepressants is a feasible approach. One such option is mirtazapine, a newer antidepressant that exhibits both noradrenergic and serotonergic activity. Studies have shown that mirtazapine is effective in treating a substantial proportion of patients who did not respond well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or found them difficult to tolerate. Therefore, if a patient is no longer responding to fluoxetine, it may be worth considering switching to mirtazapine.

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  • Question 161 - A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. He is shivering and writhing in pain on the trolley. Despite previous investigations for abdominal pain, no cause has been found. The patient insists that he will harm himself unless he is given morphine for the pain. Which of the following best describes this behavior?

      Hypochondrial disorder
      4%

      Conversion disorder
      3%

      Malingering
      73%

      Munchausen's syndrome
      11%

      Somatisation disorder
      10%

      Is it appropriate to label this patient as malingering, considering that he may be an opiate abuser experiencing withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Correct Answer: Malingering

      Explanation:

      Fabricating or inflating symptoms for financial benefit is known as malingering, such as an individual who feigns whiplash following a car accident in order to receive an insurance payout.

      This can be challenging as the individual may be experiencing withdrawal symptoms from opioid abuse. Nevertheless, among the given choices, the most suitable term to describe the situation is malingering since the individual is intentionally reporting symptoms to obtain morphine.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

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  • Question 162 - A 25-year-old woman reports that she regularly needs to check items. She will...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman reports that she regularly needs to check items. She will return repeatedly to check a door is locked or an iron unplugged or an oven switched off etc. She has even occasionally returned to the house after leaving to check things.
      Select from the list the single most correct statement concerning obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) in this patient.

      Your Answer: She should be treated with a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI)

      Correct Answer: Obsessions or compulsions must be a source of distress or interfere with functioning for the diagnosis to be made

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Treating Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. While many people may exhibit some obsessive or compulsive tendencies, the key to diagnosing OCD is whether it causes distress or interferes with daily functioning.

      Cognitive behavioral therapy, specifically exposure and response prevention, is the first-line treatment for OCD. This type of therapy helps individuals confront their fears and learn to resist the urge to engage in compulsive behaviors. If a patient cannot participate in therapy or if it is not effective, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be prescribed. Clomipramine is an alternative medication to SSRIs.

      It is important to note that OCD can affect anyone, regardless of gender, and typically has an onset in adolescence or early adulthood. If you or someone you know is struggling with OCD, seeking professional help can lead to effective treatment and improved quality of life.

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  • Question 163 - A 45-year-old male office worker is on quetiapine for his bipolar disorder and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male office worker is on quetiapine for his bipolar disorder and visits your clinic alone after driving himself. He has had a stable condition for the past year with no manic or depressive episodes. He reports experiencing flight-of-ideas, pressured speech, and difficulty sleeping.

      What advice should you give him regarding his ability to drive?

      Your Answer: Must stop driving for at least 6 months and inform the DVLA

      Correct Answer: Must stop driving for at least 3 months and inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with bipolar disease are required to inform the DVLA if they experience manic episodes, as this will prevent them from driving. The duration of the driving ban depends on whether the patient has stable or unstable disease. If the patient has stable disease, they must stop driving for a minimum of 3 months. However, if they have unstable disease, they must stop driving for at least 6 months. Before being allowed to drive again, patients must adhere to their treatment plan, regain insight, be free from any medication effects that could impair driving, and receive a favorable specialist report. During a manic episode, patients must stop driving, but they can continue to drive if they inform the DVLA. If a patient experiences a manic episode without informing the DVLA, they must stop driving for 6 months.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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  • Question 164 - A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia has recently started taking clozapine after struggling to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia has recently started taking clozapine after struggling to find an effective Antipsychotic treatment. His full blood count results are as follows:
      Hb 152 g/l
      MCV 87 fL
      WBC 2.0 x 109/L
      Neutrophils 0.9 x 109/L
      Lymphocytes 1.0 x 109/L
      Platelets 322 x 109/L
      What is the most suitable action to take in this case?

      Your Answer: Reduce dose of clozapine

      Correct Answer: Stop Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Agranulocytosis and Neutropenia in Clozapine Treatment

      Clozapine is a medication used to treat schizophrenia. However, it carries a risk of agranulocytosis and neutropenia, which are conditions that affect the white blood cells. Agranulocytosis occurs in approximately 1% of patients taking clozapine, while neutropenia occurs in about 3%. The highest risk of developing these conditions is between 6 and 18 weeks after starting clozapine treatment.

      Before starting clozapine treatment, blood counts must be normal. During the first 18 weeks of treatment, a full blood count is required weekly. Afterward, the frequency can be reduced to every 2 or 4 weeks after 12 months. If the leucocyte count falls below 3000/mm or the absolute neutrophil count falls below 1500/mm, the medication should be stopped, and the patient should be referred to a haematologist.

      Patients taking clozapine should report any symptoms of infection immediately. However, an exception is made for patients with benign ethnic neutropenia. If a haematologist approves, they may be started on the medication. It is essential to monitor blood counts regularly to prevent the development of agranulocytosis and neutropenia.

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  • Question 165 - A 21-year-old female attends surgery. She has recently been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female attends surgery. She has recently been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and her BMI is 12.8 kg/m2. She is under the care of the local psychiatrist and has come to see you regarding her physical health.

      Which one of the following is typically associated with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Menorrhagia

      Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Explanation:

      Physical Consequences of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that requires both psychological and physical assessment. The malnutrition associated with anorexia nervosa can have significant physical consequences. One of the physical consequences is the loss of pubic and axillary hair, but sufferers develop lanugo hair which results in an overall increase in body hair.

      Classically, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism ensues, which results in amenorrhoea rather than menorrhagia. Hypokalaemia is normally found, which is a consequence of poor nutrient intake and can be exacerbated by the abuse of diuretics and laxatives. Hypotension (low blood pressure) usually features, rather than hypertension. Prolonged QT interval is typically associated with anorexia, and ECG should always be performed as part of the physical assessment.

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  • Question 166 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Laboratory tests for liver and thyroid functions are normal. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability, but no psychotic symptoms.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Anxiety

      Correct Answer: Hypomania

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypomania and Antisocial Personality Disorder

      Hypomania is a mood disorder characterized by an elevated and euphoric mood, increased activity, decreased need for sleep, and impaired judgement. It is a feature of bipolar disorder 2 and cyclothymia, and can also occur in drug-induced mood disorders. Antisocial personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by a disregard for and violation of others’ rights since age 15, and typically presents in adulthood. It is important to distinguish between these two disorders, as they have different diagnostic criteria and treatment approaches.

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  • Question 167 - A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had a number of health related problems in the recent past and feels that they may be a contributing factor because she has taken a lot of sick leave and now has to meet with the head of human resources.

      She suffers from asthma, thyroid disease and acne. She thinks that one of her medicines may be contributing to her depression.

      Which of the following is most likely to cause depression?

      Your Answer: Levothyroxine tablets

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets

      Explanation:

      Medications and Depression

      Depression caused by medication is not a common occurrence. However, certain medications have been linked to depression. These include isotretinoin, lipid soluble beta blockers like propranolol, methyldopa, and opioid analgesics. Steroids have been associated with mania, but levothyroxine treatment doesn’t cause depression. Antihistamines are rarely linked to depression. Out of the medications listed, isotretinoin is the most likely to cause depression. It is important to discuss any concerns about medication and mental health with a healthcare provider.

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  • Question 168 - A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon approaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon approaches the team doctor with an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling numbness below her knee. Upon examination, the doctor notes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. The doctor suspects a non-organic cause of her symptoms. What type of disorder is this an example of?

      Conversion disorder - typically involves loss of motor or sensory function. May be caused by stress.

      Your Answer: Malingering

      Correct Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      Conversion disorder is a condition that often results in the loss of motor or sensory function and is believed to be triggered by stress.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

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  • Question 169 - How can dissociative non-epileptic attacks (pseudoseizures) be differentiated from generalised tonic clonic seizures...

    Incorrect

    • How can dissociative non-epileptic attacks (pseudoseizures) be differentiated from generalised tonic clonic seizures based on their features?

      Your Answer: Severe tongue biting

      Correct Answer: Post episode sleepiness

      Explanation:

      Pseudoseizures vs. Genuine Seizures

      A gradual onset is indicative of non-epileptic attacks, while other features suggest genuine generalised tonic clonic seizures. However, pseudoseizures have additional characteristics, such as being mainly observed in females (8:1), previous illness behavior, and childhood physical and/or sexual abuse. Diagnosing pseudoseizures can be challenging and is typically not done with certainty in primary care. A neurologist is usually involved in the diagnosis, and video EEG can be helpful.

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  • Question 170 - A 25-year-old woman requests medication from her General Practitioner as she has an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman requests medication from her General Practitioner as she has an overwhelming feeling of dread about her upcoming job interview. She becomes very anxious in situations where she is required to talk to people who are not very well known to her and usually tries to avoid such events. She is happily married and was very happy in her current job until she was made redundant.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder

      Correct Answer: Social phobia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Anxiety Disorders: A Brief Overview

      Anxiety disorders are a group of mental health conditions that can cause significant distress and impairment in daily life. Here are some key differences between the most common anxiety disorders:

      Social Phobia: This disorder is characterized by fear, worry, or embarrassment in social situations, leading to avoidance. Panic attacks are common, and symptoms are limited to social situations.

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is characterized by excessive, uncontrollable worry that is disproportionate to the situation. Physical and psychological symptoms may be present, but the worry is not limited to specific triggers.

      Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder: This disorder is characterized by intrusive thoughts or images (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions) that are performed to alleviate anxiety. These symptoms are not present in the scenario described.

      Panic Disorder: This disorder is characterized by sudden-onset acute anxiety symptoms, such as palpitations or hyperventilation. Panic attacks may occur without a specific trigger, but can also be triggered by specific situations.

      Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: This disorder develops after exposure to a traumatic event and is characterized by hyperarousal, dissociation, flashbacks, and nightmares. There is no history of trauma in the scenario described, ruling out PTSD as a diagnosis.

      Understanding the differences between these anxiety disorders can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 171 - A fax from psychiatry regarding a 35-year-old man has been received, requesting that...

    Incorrect

    • A fax from psychiatry regarding a 35-year-old man has been received, requesting that the patient be initiated on quetiapine. The patient has no significant medical history but has been referred due to experiencing psychotic symptoms. Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, it is noted that a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and fasting blood glucose were conducted in the past two weeks after the patient complained of constant fatigue. What other tests should be performed as a baseline?

      Your Answer: Fasting lipids, blood pressure, prolactin

      Correct Answer: Fasting lipids, weight, blood pressure, prolactin

      Explanation:

      While psychiatrists typically start antipsychotic treatment, it is not unusual for GPs to take over prescribing for stable patients or initiate therapy based on a recommendation from a psychiatrist. As such, it is important for us to have a fundamental understanding of the monitoring necessary for safe prescribing. Additionally, a cardiovascular risk assessment and ECG may be necessary depending on the patient’s medical history.

      Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.

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  • Question 172 - A 60-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his son....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his son. The son complains that his father's personality has changed completely over the past year. Even at his best, he is forgetful and ‘switched off’. At worst, he is drowsy and unresponsive. He is particularly concerned that his father has been claiming to 'see things that aren't really there'. Over the past few weeks, he has also been tripping a lot on the carpet and is no longer safe on the stairs going to his bedroom unaccompanied. The GP gave the patient a small dose of a neuroleptic which 'made things a million times worse'.
      On examination, he has an inexpressive face, with a mild resting tremor and some axial rigidity. There is no other focal neurology. On mini-mental state examination, he scores 20/30.
      What is the most likely primary brain pathology?

      Your Answer: Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lewy Body Dementia: A Comparison with Other Neurological Conditions

      Lewy body dementia is a neurological condition characterized by extrapyramidal signs, visual hallucinations, and a variable symptom profile. Patients with this condition are also highly sensitive to the anticholinergic side-effects of neuroleptics. The presence of eosinophilic inclusions bodies called Lewy bodies in the limbic areas of the brain is a hallmark of this condition.

      It is important to differentiate Lewy body dementia from other neurological conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Normal brain is an unlikely diagnosis given the neurological symptoms seen in patients with Lewy body dementia. Multiple infarcts in the grey matter, on the other hand, typically have a stepwise course with an acute onset and patchy cognitive impairment. Neurofibrillary tangles are characteristic of Alzheimer’s disease, which presents with early impairment of memory that evolves into more general deficits in concentration and attention. Finally, Pick bodies are associated with fronto-temporal dementias and tend to involve disinhibition as an early feature.

      In summary, understanding the unique features of Lewy body dementia and its differences from other neurological conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of patients.

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  • Question 173 - A 24-year-old woman is brought to the practice by her mother who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman is brought to the practice by her mother who is extremely concerned.

      For the past three months, she has been low in mood and over the last three weeks is increasingly withdrawn. She has stopped going to work and her evening fitness classes, has lost weight and has eaten nothing for two days. She is not sleeping and is unable to concentrate for any length of time. She had expressed feelings of guilt and hopelessness to her mother but is now barely speaking at all.

      She is usually bright and cheerful. Her father has a history of severe depression. Her engagement was broken off about four months ago. She doesn't have any children.

      How should this situation be managed?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for assessment by on call psychiatrist

      Correct Answer: Refer to a counsellor for CBT

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Severe Depression

      This patient is experiencing severe depression, with probable psychomotor retardation and an inability to function normally. There is also a family history of severe depression, putting her at risk of harm through self-neglect. Primary care is not equipped to manage this situation adequately, and urgent assessment and probable inpatient treatment are necessary.

      In cases where there is a risk to life, severe self-neglect, severe symptoms, or severe impairment, urgent referral is required. Taking the patient to the Emergency department may cause unnecessary delays, and the best course of action is to refer directly to psychiatry. By doing so, the patient can receive the specialist input needed for treatment and further management. It is crucial to act quickly in situations like this to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.

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  • Question 174 - A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant.

      Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a proton pump inhibitor as a precautionary measure?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      When prescribing an SSRI such as citalopram for depression, it is important to consider the potential risk of GI bleeding, especially if the patient is already taking an NSAID. This is because SSRIs can deplete platelet serotonin, which can reduce clot formation and increase the risk of bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a PPI should also be prescribed.

      Other antidepressants such as TCAs like amitriptyline, typical antipsychotics like haloperidol, and MAOIs like selegiline are not commonly associated with GI bleeds. St John’s Wort, an alternative treatment for depression, has not been linked to an increased risk of GI bleeding but can interact with other medications and increase the risk of serotonin syndrome when used with other antidepressants.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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  • Question 175 - A 68-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner accompanied by his wife, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner accompanied by his wife, she reports that over the last 18 months she has noticed his memory decline and occasional disorientation in previously familiar environments. He has a particularly poor memory of recent events and his wife notices that he sometimes struggles with day-to-day activities such as making a cup of tea or getting dressed. He denies feeling low in mood, and his wife doesn't feel that his mood has changed recently. He scores 21/30 on the mini-mental state examination. His blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg and his heart rate is 80/min and regular. He has no history of heart disease and previous stroke.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mild cognitive impairment

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Dementia: Differential Diagnosis for Memory Impairment

      Memory impairment is a common symptom in older adults, and it can be caused by various conditions, including dementia. Dementia affects approximately 5% of people over 65 and 20% of individuals over 80. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for around 60% of cases. However, other types of dementia should also be considered in the differential diagnosis.

      Depression is an important differential diagnosis in an older person presenting with memory impairment. Apathy and disconnection with activities that the patient previously enjoyed are common symptoms of depression. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is another condition that can cause memory impairment. However, MCI is characterized by memory impairment with preservation of other cognitive domains and intact activities of daily living.

      Lewy-body dementia is a type of dementia that accounts for approximately 20% of cases. It usually presents with parkinsonism, fluctuating cognitive impairment, and visual hallucinations. Vascular dementia (vascular cognitive impairment) is another type of dementia caused by cerebrovascular disease. It is a progressive disease where deteriorations may be sudden or gradual but tend to progress in a stepwise manner.

      In this case, the patient’s mini-mental state examination result supports the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease. The patient (or their relatives) commonly complains of difficulty with common activities of daily living and short-term memory loss. It is important to consider all possible causes of memory impairment to provide appropriate treatment and support for patients and their families.

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  • Question 176 - A patient in their early twenties reports experiencing auditory hallucinations of a simple...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their early twenties reports experiencing auditory hallucinations of a simple and unstructured whistling tune, occurring when they are alone. How would you best describe this hallucination?

      Your Answer: Haptic hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Elementary hallucinations

      Explanation:

      There are various types of hallucinations, including elementary, reflex, autoscopic, first person auditory, and haptic. Elementary hallucinations are basic sounds like buzzing or whistling. Reflex hallucinations occur when a sensory stimulus in one modality triggers a hallucination in another. Autoscopic hallucinations involve seeing oneself in external space. First person auditory hallucinations involve hearing one’s own thoughts aloud. Haptic or tactile hallucinations involve feeling sensations like being touched, pricked, or pinched, and may include formication, which is the sensation of insects crawling on the skin and can be associated with long-term cocaine use or alcohol withdrawal.

      Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.

      Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.

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  • Question 177 - Which statement is indicative of depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is indicative of depression?

      Your Answer: Three out of 10 depressive symptoms on the ICD-10 classification

      Correct Answer: Symptoms present five days of each week

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Depression: ICD-10 and DSM-IV Classifications

      In diagnosing depression, both ICD-10 and DSM-IV classifications can be used alongside questionnaires. The ICD-10 classification requires four out of 10 depressive symptoms for a diagnosis, while the DSM-IV classification requires five out of nine symptoms. Common symptoms include loss of interest and pleasure, loss of energy, and low mood, which must be present most of every day to be counted.

      However, the NICE guidelines on depression acknowledge that many people may fall just below these criteria. This is known as sub-threshold depressive symptoms, which allows for only one of the key features to be present for less time than is necessary for the major depressive classification.

      It is important to note that once depression is diagnosed or suspected, patients should be offered help and support.

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  • Question 178 - A 29-year-old woman presents one week after giving birth to a healthy baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents one week after giving birth to a healthy baby boy. For the last two days, she has been feeling irritable, tearful, and anxious and she has been struggling to get to sleep. She has no medical or psychiatric history. Her husband and mother are at home with her.

      Which is the single most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange review with a health visitor

      Correct Answer: Organise a review in the perinatal psychiatry clinic

      Explanation:

      Baby Blues vs Postnatal Depression

      Mood disturbance in the first ten days after labour is a common and usually self-limiting condition known as ‘baby blues’. While it may not require medical intervention, health visitors can offer practical support and advice to new mothers. However, if the condition persists beyond the first ten days and becomes more severe, a diagnosis of postnatal depression may be considered. In such cases, an antidepressant or psychological therapy may be suitable. Perinatal psychiatry services are generally reserved for more severe mental conditions, and there are no features in this case that suggest a psychiatric emergency. It is important to differentiate between baby blues and postnatal depression, and an awareness of the latter is required under two areas of the RCGP curriculum (3.06 and 3.10).

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  • Question 179 - A 58-year-old woman is brought to the doctors by her son. Three weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman is brought to the doctors by her son. Three weeks ago her husband died from pancreatic cancer. She reports being tearful every day but her son is concerned because she is constantly 'picking fights' with him over minor matters and issues relating to their family past. The son also reports that she has on occasion described hearing her husband talking to her and on one occasion she set a place for him at the dinner table.

      Despite this she has started going to yoga classes again with friends and says that she is determined to get 'back on track'.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Delusional disorder

      Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief Reactions

      Grief is a natural response to the loss of a loved one, but it can be helpful to have an understanding of the potential stages a person may go through while grieving. One popular model divides grief into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. However, not everyone will experience all five stages.

      Abnormal or atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women and when the death is sudden or unexpected. Other risk factors include a problematic relationship before death or a lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving doesn’t begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which can last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.

      It is important to note that grief doesn’t necessarily need to be medicalized, but understanding the potential stages and risk factors can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal grief reaction or if they may need additional support.

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  • Question 180 - A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart attack. He has a history of depression and is currently experiencing low mood. What is the antidepressant with the most safety evidence for patients with recent unstable angina or myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Sertraline as the Treatment of Choice for CHD Patients

      NICE guidance recommends sertraline as the treatment of choice for patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) due to its safety and efficacy. Sertraline has been found to be cost-effective in a study conducted by O’Connor and colleagues in a hospitalised population with acute coronary syndrome. Although limited to one study, this evidence supports the use of sertraline in this population. Additionally, the SPS recommends sertraline as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) of choice for CHD patients due to its lower propensity for interactions and the availability of more data on its use in a population with pre-existing heart disease compared to other SSRIs. Overall, sertraline is a safe and effective treatment option for CHD patients with depression or anxiety.

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  • Question 181 - A 45-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage IV prostate cancer and would...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage IV prostate cancer and would like to explore how his beliefs can influence his decision-making.
      What is the single most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer: Request a blood test, including calcium

      Correct Answer: Discuss referral to a chaplain

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Terminal Breast Cancer

      When treating a patient with terminal breast cancer, it is important to consider their emotional and spiritual needs. Referring them to a chaplain can provide emotional and spiritual support during times of stress, illness, loss, and approaching death. It is important to note that spirituality is unique to each individual and may or may not involve religious beliefs.

      Cognitive behavioural therapy can be an effective treatment for conditions such as anxiety and depression, but it may not be necessary for a patient who doesn’t exhibit symptoms of a mental health condition.

      Prescribing an antidepressant may also not be necessary if the patient doesn’t express symptoms of depression, such as persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest.

      If hypercalcaemia is suspected, a blood test including calcium should be requested. However, if the patient has not described any symptoms relating to hypercalcaemia, exploring their beliefs when facing a terminal diagnosis is a common occurrence and may not require referral to the Community Mental Health Team.

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  • Question 182 - An 81-year-old widow presents to you with complaints of recurrent pains throughout her...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old widow presents to you with complaints of recurrent pains throughout her body every morning, which often leave her bedridden for a few hours. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found, and there is no evidence of arthritis. Blood tests, including a full blood count, renal profile, liver function tests, ESR, and bone profile, have all been unremarkable. She reports having trouble sleeping since her husband passed away 2 years ago. What would be the most suitable treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Physical symptoms are a common manifestation of depression, especially in older patients who may not directly express their mood difficulties. Therefore, it is important to investigate a patient’s mood when they present with unexplained symptoms. Although regular paracetamol may have a placebo effect, it cannot address the underlying issue. Antipsychotics like haloperidol are not suitable in this scenario. Gabapentin is unlikely to be effective unless the patient has neuropathic pain. While zopiclone may improve sleep, it is not a long-term solution and cannot address the root cause of the problem.

      Understanding Depression in Older Adults

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects people of all ages, including older adults. However, older patients are less likely to report feelings of depressed mood, which can make it difficult for healthcare professionals to identify and manage the condition. Instead, older adults may present with physical complaints, such as hypochondriasis, agitation, and insomnia.

      To manage depression in older adults, healthcare professionals typically prescribe selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) as a first-line treatment. This is because the adverse side-effect profile of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) can be more problematic in older adults. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the unique challenges associated with managing depression in older adults and to work closely with patients to develop an individualized treatment plan that addresses their specific needs and concerns. By doing so, healthcare professionals can help older adults manage their depression and improve their overall quality of life.

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  • Question 183 - A patient is brought in for a routine medication review. You notice she...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is brought in for a routine medication review. You notice she is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse has already checked her weight and blood pressure.

      What additional tests would you order to finalize the review for a patient of a different age?

      Your Answer: Annual liver function tests

      Correct Answer: Annual full blood count, renal function, fasting serum lipids and glucose, prolactin

      Explanation:

      When treating schizophrenia with olanzapine, it is important to monitor for potential side-effects such as hypercholesterolaemia, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperprolactinoma, increased appetite, hyperglycaemia, and hypotension. To do so, it is recommended to conduct annual tests for full blood count, renal function, liver function, fasting serum lipids and glucose, prolactin, weight, and blood pressure. This monitoring is not applicable to other drugs such as oral combined contraceptive pills, statins, disease monitoring anti-rheumatic drugs, or lithium.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

      Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

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  • Question 184 - A 56-year-old man presents with a range of physical symptoms that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a range of physical symptoms that have been ongoing for the past 7 years. Despite multiple investigations and consultations with various specialists, no organic cause has been found for his symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Dissociative disorder

      Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Explanation:

      The appropriate diagnosis for a patient who is experiencing persistent, unexplained symptoms is somatisation disorder, as they are primarily concerned with the symptoms rather than a specific underlying diagnosis like cancer (which would be indicative of hypochondria). It is important to note that intentional production of symptoms, such as self-poisoning, would fall under the category of Munchausen’s syndrome.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

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  • Question 185 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with her husband. They are concerned...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with her husband. They are concerned because she has become increasingly fixated on cleaning, which is interfering with her other responsibilities and straining their relationship.

      She has installed a nail brush in the downstairs bathroom to scrub her skin after using the toilet and has prohibited guests from using any of the upstairs bathrooms. She also requires visitors to remove their shoes outside and has banned eating from any area outside the kitchen. Most recently, she has begun waking up at 5:30 am every day to clean.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Counselling

      Explanation:

      Treating OCD with CBT and SSRIs

      CBT and SSRIs are the main treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT involves challenging the ritualistic behavior of OCD through exposure and response prevention, which exposes the patient to stimuli that usually provoke their behavior and challenges their irrational thinking. On the other hand, SSRIs are the main pharmacological therapy for OCD. Counseling alone is not usually focused enough to provide significant impact on symptoms. A comprehensive treatment plan that includes CBT and SSRIs can help individuals with OCD manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 186 - A 75-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of developing dementia. What are...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of developing dementia. What are the typical initial symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Personality change and extrapyramidal signs

      Correct Answer: Progressive memory impairment, apraxia and dysphasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects the brain’s temporoparietal cortex. The most common symptom of AD is progressive memory loss, which is often accompanied by other cognitive deficits such as apraxia, aphasia, acalculia, and visuospatial dysfunction. However, it is important to note that not all cognitive deficits are indicative of AD. For example, the combination of progressive memory impairment and pyramidal signs is an unusual presentation for AD, as pyramidal signs are not typically associated with this condition. Similarly, personality changes and extrapyramidal signs are unlikely to be caused by AD, as these symptoms are more commonly seen in frontotemporal dementia. While some patients with advanced stages of AD may experience seizures or myoclonic jerks, these symptoms are not typically present during the early stages of the disease. Overall, a thorough understanding of the symptoms of AD is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

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  • Question 187 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her interpersonal relationships...

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    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her interpersonal relationships at work and in her personal life. She reports that this has been an ongoing issue since her teenage years. The patient finds it challenging to collaborate with others and describes herself as a perfectionist. Additionally, others have described her as rigid. What personality disorder is indicated by these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for individuals who exhibit rigidity in their morals, ethics, and values and are hesitant to delegate work to others is obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals are often described as perfectionists who adhere to strict rules and have difficulty adapting to different ways of doing things. Avoidant personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, paranoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder are incorrect diagnoses as they present with different symptoms such as low self-esteem, unstable relationships, paranoia, and eccentric behavior.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

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  • Question 188 - The five stages of change for addictive behaviours are Action, Contemplation, Maintenance, precontemplation,...

    Correct

    • The five stages of change for addictive behaviours are Action, Contemplation, Maintenance, precontemplation, and Preparation. What is the correct rank order for these stages?

      Your Answer: 42513

      Explanation:

      The Stages of Change: Understanding Behavioural Transformation

      Behavioural change is a process that involves several stages. The precontemplation stage is characterized by a lack of awareness of the problem and no intention to change. In the contemplation stage, individuals acknowledge the problem and consider overcoming it but have not yet committed to taking action. The preparation stage involves intention and behavioural plans, with individuals intending to take action soon. The action stage is where individuals modify their behaviour, experiences, and environment to overcome their problems. The maintenance stage involves preventing relapse and consolidating gains attained during action. It is common for individuals to recycle through these stages several times before terminating the addiction. Understanding where a person is in relation to the stages of change can be helpful to doctors in promoting and supporting change.

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  • Question 189 - A 27-year-old woman comes to see you. She is 31 weeks pregnant and...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman comes to see you. She is 31 weeks pregnant and lives with her partner. The pregnancy has so far been uneventful.

      She says that over the past few days she has started to feel anxious and tearful, and is finding it hard to concentrate. She is not sure if this is just 'normal' at this stage of pregnancy. She denies any disturbance of sleep or appetite, and her PHQ-9 score is only five. She has had no thoughts of self-harm.

      Her parents, and her older sister have been treated for depression and she suffered a brief depressive episode in her early teens.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: The patient's symptoms do not need active treatment at this point, but you should ensure that the Health Visitors are aware of her history, and follow her up closely

      Correct Answer: Only women at high risk for postnatal depression, like this lady, need active monitoring of their mood in the postnatal period

      Explanation:

      Managing Depression in Pregnancy and Postpartum

      This patient has a history of depressive illness and is at high risk for developing a depressive episode during pregnancy or postpartum. While her current symptoms are common in later pregnancy, close monitoring is necessary to detect any changes that may require treatment. If treatment is necessary, SSRIs such as Sertraline are now considered safe for use during pregnancy.

      Postpartum depression is a common concern, and all patients should be closely monitored by health visiting teams and community midwives. GPs should also have a low threshold for considering depression in mothers of young babies and should inquire about the mother’s mood at the six-week postnatal check. If a mother experiences tearfulness and difficulty sleeping at six weeks postpartum, this should be taken seriously, as the baby blues typically resolve by 10 days postpartum. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 190 - A 28-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of hearing voices narrating his actions...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of hearing voices narrating his actions and strongly believes he has been sent by God as a prophet, despite it not aligning with his religious beliefs. He displays tangentiality and clanging during a mental state examination. After two weeks, his symptoms completely resolve. The patient had a history of depression during his late teenage years and no prior similar episodes. What was the diagnosis for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient was experiencing symptoms of psychosis, including hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorganization. The most likely diagnosis is brief psychotic disorder, which is characterized by a short episode of psychosis followed by a return to baseline functioning. Bipolar affective disorder, drug abuse, and schizoaffective disorder are less likely diagnoses based on the information provided. It is important to take a thorough history to rule out any potential underlying causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

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  • Question 191 - A 42-year-old woman presents after a severe panic attack when she was about...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents after a severe panic attack when she was about to board a plane. She reports general uneasiness about travelling in any form of transport and has started avoiding it if possible. Six months earlier, she sustained minor injuries in a fatal plane crash. She has also become irritable and intolerant to noise, has been awoken by dreams about accidents and admits to being depressed.
      Which of the following is the most suitable management option?

      Your Answer: Prescribe mirtazapine

      Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a condition that requires appropriate treatment. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended first-line treatment for those with severe symptoms or persistent symptoms beyond the first month after the event. This therapy includes exposure therapy, cognitive therapy, and stress management. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing is an alternative therapy for prolonged symptoms. Antidepressants may be used as an adjunct to psychological therapy or if patients decline or fail to respond to psychological therapy.

      Hypnotics such as temazepam may be considered for short-term use, but they are not first-line treatment for PTSD. Mirtazapine is a suitable second-line treatment if cognitive therapy is unsuitable or ineffective. Relaxation and non-directive therapy should not be routinely offered as they do not address traumatic memories.

      For mild symptoms present for less than four weeks after the event, watchful waiting should be considered, with follow-up within one month. It is important to seek appropriate treatment for PTSD to improve symptoms and overall quality of life.

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  • Question 192 - A 35-year-old woman is tense and cannot relax. She lies awake at night...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is tense and cannot relax. She lies awake at night worrying about work. You suspect she may have generalised anxiety disorder (GAD).
      Select from the list the single correct statement about the diagnosis of GAD.

      Your Answer: Concentration is not affected

      Correct Answer: Anxiety must have been present for at least 6 months

      Explanation:

      Understanding Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a mental health condition characterized by excessive and persistent worry about various topics, events, or activities. This worry occurs more often than not for at least six months and is considered to be clearly excessive. In adults, the worry can be related to job responsibilities, health, finances, and other everyday life circumstances. In children, the worry is more likely to be related to their abilities or performance in school.

      Individuals with GAD find it challenging to control their worry, which may shift from one topic to another. They also experience at least three of the following symptoms: edginess or restlessness, fatigue, impaired concentration, irritability, increased muscle aches or soreness, difficulty sleeping, and physical symptoms such as sweating, nausea, or diarrhea.

      These symptoms make it hard for individuals with GAD to carry out day-to-day activities and responsibilities. It is important to note that these symptoms are unrelated to any other medical conditions and cannot be explained by the effect of substances, including prescription medication, alcohol, or recreational drugs. Additionally, these symptoms are not better explained by a different mental disorder.

      Overall, understanding the criteria for diagnosing GAD can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support for this mental health condition.

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  • Question 193 - A 16-year-old boy is accompanied by his father who is concerned that his...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is accompanied by his father who is concerned that his son may have anorexia nervosa.
      Select from the list below the single option that is a feature of this condition.

      Your Answer: A body mass index (BMI) of 19.5kg/m2

      Correct Answer: Amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by a fear of weight gain, relentless dietary habits, and a distorted perception of body weight and shape. To diagnose anorexia nervosa, doctors rely on a patient’s medical history and physical symptoms, such as fatigue, loss of muscle mass, and growth impairment. While secondary amenorrhea (cessation of menstruation) was once considered essential for diagnosis, it is no longer required under the DSM-5 criteria. Instead, a patient’s weight must be below 85% of predicted, or a body mass index below 17.5 kg/m2. Binge eating may also be present, leading to purging behaviors and a cycle of guilt and binging. It is important to recognize the signs of anorexia nervosa and seek professional help for treatment.

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  • Question 194 - You speak to the husband of a patient with depression who was recently...

    Incorrect

    • You speak to the husband of a patient with depression who was recently discharged from a psychiatry ward after a suicide attempt. He was switched from sertraline to venlafaxine. His husband says his mood is okay but over the last 2 weeks, he became erratic and was not sleeping. He spoke fast about a 'handsome inheritance' he got but was gambling away their savings saying he was going to save the world. When confronted he became angry and accused him of trying to 'steal his energy'. You suspect he's developed mania and refer him to the crisis psychiatry team.

      What do you anticipate will be the subsequent step in management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a two-week course of oral clonazepam

      Correct Answer: Stop venlafaxine and start risperidone

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for a patient who develops mania while taking an antidepressant is to stop the antidepressant and start antipsychotic therapy. In this case, the patient should stop taking venlafaxine and start taking risperidone. Antidepressants can trigger mania or hypomania as a side effect, particularly with SSRIs and TCAs, and venlafaxine has a particularly high risk. NICE guidance recommends stopping the antidepressant and offering an antipsychotic regardless of whether the antidepressant is stopped. The choice of antipsychotic should be one of haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, or risperidone. Cross-tapering the patient back to sertraline is not recommended, nor is cross-tapering to mirtazapine and adding sodium valproate modified-release. Prescribing a two-week course of oral clonazepam is also not recommended. Starting lithium is effective in manic and depressive relapse prevention in bipolar disorder, but it is not recommended as first-line for the management of acute mania in patients who are not already on antipsychotics.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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  • Question 195 - Which one of the following is least acknowledged as a possible negative outcome...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is least acknowledged as a possible negative outcome of electroconvulsive therapy?

      Your Answer: Nausea

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      There is no long-term risk of epilepsy associated with electroconvulsive therapy, despite the fact that it induces a controlled seizure.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for individuals who suffer from severe depression that doesn’t respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT may include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events that occurred before the treatment, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and subside after a short period of time.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks and side effects, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

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  • Question 196 - A 29-year-old woman is brought in by her husband. She has been refusing...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is brought in by her husband. She has been refusing to leave her house for the past 4 months, citing her fear of contracting avian flu. Upon further questioning, she reveals that the large number of migratory birds she sees in her backyard is causing her distress. She explains that the sight of her husband's socks hanging on the clothesline in the garden triggered her anxiety. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Formal thought disorder

      Correct Answer: Acute paranoid schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.

      Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.

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  • Question 197 - A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being evaluated by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being evaluated by a surgeon. What are the two most effective questions to ask in order to screen for depression?

      Your Answer: 'having poor concentration or indecisiveness' + 'having little interest or pleasure in doing things'

      Correct Answer: 'feeling down, depressed or hopeless' + 'having little interest or pleasure in doing things'

      Explanation:

      Screening and Assessment of Depression

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.

      Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.

      The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.

      In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 198 - You are discharging a 25-year-old patient from your inpatient psychiatric unit. He was...

    Correct

    • You are discharging a 25-year-old patient from your inpatient psychiatric unit. He was admitted 4 weeks ago following a psychotic episode in which he had persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia since he had had a similar episode in the past. He has been doing very well, remained on his agreed treatment plan and has regained insight into his condition. He is concerned about being able to drive with this diagnosis as he lives in quite an isolated area and needs a car to get around.

      What other advice should you give him regarding driving with schizophrenia, after informing him that he must inform the DVLA of his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: He may drive once he has been stable for 3 months provided he has a specialist's report

      Explanation:

      Individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia are prohibited from driving and are required to inform the DVLA. They may resume driving with a Group 1 license only after being stable and well for three months, as confirmed by a suitable psychiatric report. The DVLA guidelines specify that patients with schizophrenia can drive if they meet certain criteria, including maintaining stability for at least three months, complying with their treatment plan, regaining insight, being free from medication side effects that could impair driving, and receiving a positive specialist report.

      The DVLA has specific rules regarding psychiatric disorders for those who wish to drive group 1 vehicles such as cars and motorcycles. Those with severe anxiety or depression accompanied by memory problems, concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts must not drive and must inform the DVLA. Those with acute psychotic disorder, hypomania or mania, or schizophrenia must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA. Those with pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with mild cognitive impairment, dementia, or mild learning disability may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with severe disability must not drive and must notify the DVLA. Those with personality disorders may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. The rules for group 2 vehicles such as buses and lorries are stricter.

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  • Question 199 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear response.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome

      Explanation:

      SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause symptoms such as dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety when SSRIs are suddenly stopped or reduced. It is possible that the woman in question has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. On the other hand, alcohol withdrawal typically results in anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may cause fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and vomiting.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

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  • Question 200 - A 56-year-old gentleman with a history of depression comes to see you. Last...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old gentleman with a history of depression comes to see you. Last month he was admitted to hospital after having taken a paracetamol overdose as a suicide attempt.

      Which of the following factors suggests the greatest chance of his making another attempt on his life?

      Your Answer: He visited a solicitor and made a will the previous week

      Correct Answer: He consumed the paracetamol whilst inebriated

      Explanation:

      Assessing Suicidal Intent: Factors to Consider

      There are several factors to consider when assessing current and ongoing suicidal intent. Being unemployed and living alone may increase the risk, but they are not the strongest indicators of actual intent. Consuming a large quantity of alcohol at the same time may also complicate the risk assessment. To determine actual suicidal intent, it is important to inquire about the planning of the act, attempts made not to be discovered, the location of the attempt, the presence of a suicide note, and how the patient perceives the potential harm of their actions.

      A suicide note indicates a serious attempt at suicide and suggests that considerable thought has gone into the attempt. However, notes are also common in parasuicides as a cry for help and are often not found in completed suicides. Visiting a solicitor to make a will in advance of the attempt demonstrates the highest likelihood of a subsequent attempt, as it shows considerable planning and forethought. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can better assess the level of suicidal intent and provide appropriate interventions to prevent future attempts.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Mental Health (29/200) 15%
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