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Question 1
Incorrect
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For what scenarios is an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) appropriate?
Your Answer: A patient with history of endocarditis following prosthetic valve insertion
Correct Answer: A patient with a history of ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:Ectopic Pregnancy and Contraception
According to the FSRH, a previous ectopic pregnancy is not an absolute contraindication to the use of intrauterine methods of contraception. In fact, the overall risk of ectopic pregnancy is reduced with the use of IUC when compared to using no contraception. However, if pregnancy does occur with an intrauterine method in situ, the risk of an ectopic pregnancy occurring is increased. In some studies, half of the pregnancies that occurred were ectopic.
It is important to note that older editions of an Australian primary care textbook list an ectopic pregnancy as a contraindication. However, the latest FSRH advice is the reference on which the RCGP is likely to base their answers. Therefore, healthcare professionals should follow the most up-to-date guidelines when considering contraception options for patients with a history of ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at term without any complications. She is worried about his frequent feeding, especially in the evenings when he can nurse for hours and seems a bit more fussy than during the day. However, he has no vomiting and is producing an adequate amount of wet and dirty diapers. The mother wants to continue breastfeeding and reports that she feels comfortable during feedings with no pain. Upon examination, the baby appears well-hydrated and is not jaundiced. His temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all within normal range for his age. There are no concerns about his weight.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Advise to reduce feeds to every 3 hours and offer advice on other ways to settle during the evening
Correct Answer: Offer reassurance, encourage continuing to breastfeed and offer signposting to local breastfeeding team for further support
Explanation:Frequent feeding in a breastfed baby doesn’t necessarily indicate low milk supply in the mother. It is uncommon for a mother to have low milk supply, and if the baby is growing well and producing enough urine, it is a good sign that the milk supply is sufficient. In fact, frequent feeding or cluster feeding is normal in the early weeks and helps to establish a good milk supply. Breastfeeding mothers should be encouraged to seek support from local and national breastfeeding groups and consult with a trained professional to ensure proper infant positioning and latch.
There is no need to refer the baby to a pediatrician at this stage. It is not recommended to supplement breastfeeding with formula, especially in the early weeks, as this can decrease milk supply. It is important to feed the baby on demand to stimulate milk production. If milk is not removed from the breast, milk production will decrease.
While maternal prolactin deficiency is a rare cause of low milk supply, testing for it is not necessary in this scenario. If there are signs of low milk supply, such as a baby failing to thrive or becoming dehydrated, and after addressing positioning and latch issues, maternal prolactin deficiency may be considered. Factors that increase the likelihood of this condition include a history of maternal thyroid disorder, eating disorder, hypoplastic breasts, or breast surgery.
For more information on breastfeeding problems, refer to the NICE clinical knowledge summary.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion. She is interested in getting an intra-uterine device inserted. What is the recommended waiting period after a surgical termination of pregnancy before getting an IUD fitted?
Your Answer: It is contra-indicated to fit an intra-uterine device at any stage following a surgical termination of pregnancy
Correct Answer: An intra-uterine device can be fitted immediately after evacuation of the uterine cavity
Explanation:The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare recommends that an intrauterine contraceptive can be inserted right after the evacuation of the uterine cavity following a surgical abortion, provided that it is the woman’s preferred method of contraception.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a significant family history of diabetes is currently 30 weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy.
Upon completing the oral glucose tolerance test, she has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes, with a fasting glucose level of 7.3mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 9.2mmol/L.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Glibenclamide
Correct Answer: Insulin
Explanation:Immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis. Glibenclamide may be considered for women who cannot tolerate metformin or do not achieve glucose targets with metformin but decline insulin therapy. If the fasting plasma glucose level is less than 7 mmol/L, lifestyle interventions such as a low glycemic index diet and exercise should be attempted first. If glucose targets are not achieved within 1-2 weeks of lifestyle measures, metformin may be initiated.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Correct
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Linda, a 26-year-old woman, visits you a week after giving birth to her first child because she feels exhausted. She had gestational diabetes during her pregnancy and stopped taking metformin and insulin after delivery. However, she is concerned that her fatigue may be due to persistent diabetes. She has not experienced any symptoms of polydipsia or polyuria. You suggest performing a capillary glucose test, which yields a result of 5 mmol/L. She feels relieved but asks if there is any additional follow-up required.
When would you recommend that Linda have a fasting plasma glucose test to rule out ongoing diabetes after giving birth?Your Answer: 6 weeks
Explanation:For women who have had gestational diabetes, it is recommended to offer a fasting plasma glucose test at 6 weeks after giving birth to rule out diabetes. This is in line with NICE guidelines, which suggest testing between 6-13 weeks postpartum. Testing at 10 days or 2 weeks is not sufficient to accurately assess the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. After 13 weeks, HbA1c testing can be used instead of fasting plasma glucose, but testing at 20 weeks or later is not recommended.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is in the third week of her cycle (day 18) and calls the surgery on the Monday morning after a weekend away with her boyfriend to say that she has missed three of her combined oral contraceptive pills.
Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for her?Your Answer: Take pills to the end of her third week and then start a new pack, missing the pill-free week
Correct Answer: Take pills to the end of her third week, start a new pack and use barrier contraception for a week
Explanation:Missed Birth Control Pills
When a woman misses three or more birth control pills in the third week of her cycle, she should complete the third week but skip the pill-free period and start a new pack immediately. This advice is according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH). It is also recommended to use barrier contraception for seven days. On the other hand, if only one pill is missed, the woman can maintain the pill-free week. It is not usually necessary to extend the pill-free period beyond seven days. However, emergency contraception may be necessary depending on when the pills were missed. It is important to review the latest FSRH guidance before taking any exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is expecting her third child. She has a history of three uncomplicated vaginal deliveries but is currently dealing with gestational diabetes, varicose veins, and renal impairment. She is worried that her medical conditions and previous pregnancies could lead to complications in her current pregnancy. She visits her GP to discuss the potential risks and how they can be managed.
What are the potential complications that this patient may face?Your Answer: Neonatal hyperglycaemia
Correct Answer: Preterm labour
Explanation:Preterm labour is a well-known complication for mothers with diabetes during pregnancy.
Complications of Diabetes during Pregnancy
Diabetes during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal complications may include polyhydramnios, which occurs in 25% of cases and may be due to fetal polyuria. Preterm labor is also a common complication, affecting 15% of cases and often associated with polyhydramnios.
Neonatal complications may include macrosomia, although diabetes can also cause small for gestational age babies. Hypoglycemia is another common complication, which occurs due to beta cell hyperplasia. Respiratory distress syndrome may also occur, as surfactant production is delayed. Polycythemia can lead to neonatal jaundice, and malformation rates increase 3-4 fold, including sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Stillbirth, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and shoulder dystocia (which may cause Erb’s palsy) are also possible complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You see a 29-year-old woman who has recently become pregnant. She has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health.
At 12 weeks gestational age what should be initiated?Your Answer: Ascorbic acid
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the accuracy of using the combined oral contraceptive pill in women?
Your Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill may help to maintain bone mineral density
Explanation:The use of the combined oral contraceptive pill could potentially alleviate certain symptoms experienced during perimenopause and help preserve bone mineral density.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents to you with concerns about her fertility. She has a history of oligomenorrhea and discontinued her use of combined oral contraceptive pills six months ago, but is still experiencing irregular periods. Her BMI is 28 kg/m^2. In addition to recommending weight loss, what is the most effective intervention to improve her chances of becoming pregnant?
Your Answer: Bromocriptine
Correct Answer: Clomifene
Explanation:When it comes to treating infertility in PCOS, clomifene is usually the first choice. Metformin can also be used, but only after anti-oestrogens like clomifene have been tried.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.
Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 38-year-old woman with a body mass index of 35 kg/m2 who has recently discovered she is expecting. She has a medical history of epilepsy, familial hypercholesterolaemia, type 2 diabetes, and sciatica.
During her pregnancy, which medications should Sarah discontinue taking?Your Answer: Insulin
Correct Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Statin therapy should not be used during pregnancy due to potential risks. However, paracetamol is considered safe for use during pregnancy. Lamotrigine is preferred over other anti-epileptics due to a lower risk of neurodevelopmental effects on the foetus, but all pregnant women on anti-epileptics should take 5mg folic acid before conception and during the first trimester. Metformin and insulin are commonly used to treat diabetes during pregnancy. It is important to note that all statins should be avoided during pregnancy as they have been associated with congenital anomalies.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 32-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 35 weeks gestation and started on insulin therapy. She has not experienced any hypoglycaemic episodes since starting treatment. As her delivery is expected at around 40 weeks, she has been advised to consult her GP regarding driving. Currently, she holds a group 1 driving licence. What advice should be given to the patient regarding driving?
Your Answer: Doesn't need to inform the DVLA. However, should check blood glucose two hours before driving and every two hours during the journey
Explanation:Patients on insulin are not always required to inform the DVLA, except for those on temporary treatment for less than three months or those with gestational diabetes who are taking insulin for less than three months after delivery. If a patient falls under these exceptions, they can continue driving but must follow the guidelines for insulin-taking patients, which include checking their blood glucose two hours before driving and every two hours during the journey. It is incorrect to assume that a patient can continue driving as normal without any stipulations, even if they do not need to inform the DVLA.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a one-week history of morning sickness. She is 10 weeks pregnant. She can keep down oral fluid but has vomited twice in the previous 24 hours. There are no acid reflux symptoms, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding or urinary symptoms.
She takes folic acid and is not on any other medications.
On examination, her temperature is 36.8ºC. Blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg and heart rate is 80/min. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urine B-HCG is positive and urine dipstick shows 1+ ketone only. There is no weight loss.
What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?Your Answer: Commence on oral cyclizine
Explanation:The first-line management for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy/hyperemesis gravidarum is antihistamines, specifically oral cyclizine. Second-line options include ondansetron and domperidone. Hospital admission may be necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral antiemetics or fluids, symptoms are not controlled with primary care management, or hyperemesis gravidarum is suspected. There is no indication for oral omeprazole in this case as the patient has not reported any dyspeptic symptoms.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant complains of a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Apart from this, she has been in good health. Despite washing twice a day, the discharge has persisted and is causing her considerable embarrassment. Her partner is asymptomatic. What course of treatment would you suggest?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis can still use oral metronidazole as it has been found to be safe during pregnancy. Bacterial vaginosis can increase the risk of premature birth and miscarriage. There is no evidence of any harmful effects on the fetus during the first trimester of pregnancy. The guidelines suggest treating symptomatic patients at any stage of pregnancy. While both metronidazole and oral clindamycin can enter breast milk, breastfeeding women are advised to use clindamycin intravaginal gel.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 29 year old woman with no pre-existing medical conditions has discovered that she is expecting her first child. She has been purchasing pricey pregnancy supplements from the pharmacy and wonders if they are truly essential. What are the daily supplements recommended by the NHS for all pregnant women (without any additional risk factors)?
Your Answer: Folic acid 5mg for first 12 weeks
Correct Answer: Folic acid 400mcg for first 12 weeks and vitamin D 10mcg throughout pregnancy
Explanation:To reduce the risk of neural tube defects, women who are trying to conceive and up to 12 weeks into their pregnancy are recommended to take 400 mcg of folic acid. If there are additional risk factors, such as diabetes or a personal or family history of neural tube defects, a higher dose of 5mg is recommended. For bone health, a daily supplement of 10mcg of vitamin D is advised throughout pregnancy and breastfeeding. If a woman chooses to take a multivitamin during pregnancy, she should ensure that it doesn’t contain high doses of vitamin A (retinol) as it can cause birth defects.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You admit a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant to the obstetric ward. She has been monitored for the past few weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension but has now developed proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 160/92 mmHg. What antihypertensive medication is most likely to be prescribed for her?
Your Answer: Methyldopa
Correct Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:Pregnancy-induced hypertension is typically treated with Labetalol as the initial medication.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Start exenatide only
Correct Answer: Start insulin only
Explanation:The most appropriate course of action for gestational diabetes is to commence insulin immediately if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis. While lifestyle changes and co-prescribing metformin should also be discussed, starting insulin is the priority. This is in line with NICE guidelines, which recommend immediate insulin initiation (with or without metformin) and lifestyle advice for glucose levels between 6 and 6.9 mmol/L, especially if there are complications such as macrosomia or hydramnios.
Re-checking the glucose level in two weeks is not appropriate as uncontrolled hyperglycaemia can be dangerous for both the mother and the unborn child.
Starting exenatide is not recommended during pregnancy as there is insufficient data on its safety. Studies in mice have shown adverse effects on fetal and neonatal growth and skeletal development.
Starting metformin alone is not sufficient if the fasting glucose level is greater than 7 mmol/L. However, metformin can be prescribed in combination with insulin.
A trial of lifestyle changes alone is not appropriate if the fasting glucose level is already above 7 mmol/L. If the level is below 7 mmol/L, lifestyle changes can be tried for 1-2 weeks, and if glucose targets are not met, metformin can be offered.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female is prescribed a 7 day course of amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection. She is currently taking Cerazette (desogestrel). What advice should be given regarding contraception?
Your Answer: Use condoms for 7 days, only antibiotic course if overlaps with pill free interval
Correct Answer: There is no need for extra protections
Explanation:Extra precautions are not necessary when taking antibiotics with the progestogen-only pill.
Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).
When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.
Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman in her first pregnancy visits you at 30 weeks gestation complaining of itchiness. Upon examination, there is no rash present. After being referred to an obstetrician, she is diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid. During her visit, the patient mentions that her obstetrician mentioned something about her labor, but she is unsure.
What plans need to be made for this patient's labor?Your Answer: Caesarean section at 40 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: Induction of labour at 37-38 weeks gestation
Explanation:Due to the increased risk of stillbirth associated with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, induction of labour is typically recommended at 37-38 weeks gestation. Therefore, a normal labour is not appropriate for this patient. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used to treat the intense pruritus associated with this condition. While a caesarean section may be necessary on an emergency basis, it is not currently indicated at 37-38 weeks. Similarly, a caesarean section at 40 weeks is not currently necessary. Induction of labour at 40 weeks is later than the recommended timeline and may increase the risk of stillbirth.
Understanding Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, early diagnosis and management of this condition is crucial for the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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The practice nurse seeks your guidance on how to manage 23-year-old Sarah, who is 29 weeks pregnant and has come for routine vaccinations. She reports experiencing ankle swelling and her blood pressure has increased from 117/74 mmHg at booking to 143/91 mmHg today. A urine dipstick test has revealed 1+ protein, - leukocytes, and - nitrites. What would be the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Review the patient in 1 week and repeat blood pressure and urine dip
Correct Answer: Urgent admission to obstetric unit
Explanation:Meera’s condition has progressed to pre-eclampsia, indicated by her blood pressure exceeding 140/90 mmHg and the presence of proteinuria at a level of 1+ or higher. As per NICE guidelines, it is imperative that she is promptly admitted to an obstetric unit for close observation and potential intervention.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.
After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.
Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman presented with a history of 15 kg weight loss in the previous four months. She has been amenorrheic for some months.
On examination she had fine lanugo hair and a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.
Which one of the following laboratory results would support the most likely clinical diagnosis?Your Answer: Low plasma cortisol concentration
Correct Answer: Low plasma testosterone concentration
Explanation:Anorexia Nervosa and its Associated Hormonal Changes
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that affects many individuals. It is characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Patients with anorexia often experience hormonal changes that can have significant effects on their health.
One of the most common hormonal changes associated with anorexia is functional hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. This condition is characterized by low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH). Despite this, plasma testosterone levels are typically normal in females with anorexia.
Cortisol levels may also be affected in patients with anorexia. While they may be within the normal range, they may fail to suppress with dexamethasone. Additionally, basal levels of T3 may be depressed, while thyroxine (T4) and TSH levels may be normal. Finally, ferritin levels are often low in a state of malnutrition.
Overall, anorexia nervosa can have significant effects on a patient’s hormonal balance. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these changes and to monitor patients accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old girl presents at the antenatal clinic.
She is approximately six weeks pregnant and the pregnancy was unplanned. She has a two year history of grand mal epilepsy for which she takes carbamazepine. She has had no fits for approximately six months. She wants to continue with her pregnancy if it is safe to do so.
She is worried about the anticonvulsant therapy and its effects on the baby. She asks how she should be managed.
Which of the following management plans is the most appropriate in this case?Your Answer: Switch therapy to phenytoin
Correct Answer: Stop carbamazepine until the second trimester
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the patient and fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants may fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Prior to delivery, the mother should receive vitamin K. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She is having trouble retaining fluids and a urine dipstick reveals ketones ++. Which of the following is not linked to an elevated risk of this condition?
Your Answer: Nulliparity
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:A lower occurrence of hyperemesis gravidarum is linked to smoking.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 24
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for a repeat prescription of her combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She is satisfied with this method as it has been effectively managing her acne. She reports no changes in her medical history but mentions that her aunt was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She seeks advice on the risks of the combined oral contraceptive pill and its impact on cancer.
What is the appropriate guidance to provide her concerning the combined oral contraceptive pill?Your Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk of bowel cancer
Explanation:Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30 pills during a weekend trip. She usually remembers to take her pill but has missed days 10, 11, and 12 of her packet, and it is now day 13. Despite taking the day 13 pill this morning, she is worried about the possibility of pregnancy as she had unprotected sex while away. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: No action needed
Correct Answer: No action needed but use condoms for next 7 days
Explanation:The patient is protected for the next 7 days as she had taken the pill for 7 days in a row previously. According to the FSRH guidelines, emergency contraception is not required after taking seven consecutive pills. However, the guidelines suggest using condoms for the next 7 days in this scenario. Please refer to the provided link for more information.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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As a healthcare practitioner, it is important to assess pregnancy risk in women. When prescribing certain drugs, it is necessary to determine a woman's risk of pregnancy. What criteria can be used to reasonably determine that a woman is not currently pregnant if there are no signs or symptoms of pregnancy and she is within the first 7 days of a natural menstrual period, less than 4 weeks postpartum (non-breastfeeding), fully breastfeeding and amenorrhoeic AND less than 6 months postpartum, within the first 7 days after an abortion, miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy or uterine evacuation for gestational trophoblastic disease, has not had intercourse for >14 days AND has a negative high-sensitivity urine pregnancy test (able to detect hCG levels around 20 mIU/ml), or has been correctly and consistently using a reliable method of contraception?
Your Answer: She has not had intercourse for >14 days AND has a negative high-sensitivity urine pregnancy test (able to detect hCG levels around 20 mIU/ml)
Correct Answer: She is fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic AND less than 6 months postpartum
Explanation:Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview
Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).
Barrier methods, such as condoms, act as a physical barrier and can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). However, their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people. Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation but increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and certain types of cancer. The progesterone-only pill thickens cervical mucous, but irregular bleeding is a common side effect.
LARCs include implantable contraceptives, injectable contraceptives, and intrauterine devices (IUDs). The implantable contraceptive and injectable contraceptive both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous, with the implant lasting up to three years and the injection lasting 12 weeks. The IUD decreases sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system (IUS) prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous, with irregular bleeding being a common side effect.
In summary, understanding the different types of contraception available and their methods of action can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to your GP clinic seeking advice on infertility. He and his partner have been attempting to conceive for 2 years. He is in good health and doesn't take any regular medications. He is a non-smoker and has a BMI of 24 kg/m2. There is no history of testicular torsion or sexually transmitted infections. His blood pressure and genital examination are normal. His partner has consulted her GP, who is arranging some blood tests for her.
What investigations should be conducted for this man?Your Answer: Blood test for antisperm antibodies
Correct Answer: Semen sample and chlamydia testing
Explanation:For men with infertility, NICE suggests that the first primary care investigations should include semen analysis and chlamydia screening using a first void urine sample. Additionally, a clinical examination should be conducted to check for any indications of hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, or scrotal masses. It is recommended that a semen sample be produced after abstaining for at least 2 days but no more than 7 days. However, NICE doesn’t recommend screening for antisperm antibodies.
Understanding Infertility: Initial Investigations and Key Counselling Points
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. However, it is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sex will conceive within 1 year, and 92% within 2 years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
To determine the cause of infertility, basic investigations are typically conducted. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test, which is done 7 days prior to the expected next period. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if the level is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it consistently remains low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
In addition to these investigations, there are key counselling points that should be addressed. These include advising the patient to take folic acid, aiming for a BMI between 20-25, and having regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Patients should also be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption.
By understanding the initial investigations and key counselling points for infertility, healthcare professionals can provide their patients with the necessary information and support to help them conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her lab results. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has undergone a glucose tolerance test.
The lab findings are as follows:
Fasting glucose 6.9 mmol/L
2-hour glucose 8.5 mmol/L
What would be the best course of action to take next?Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Insulin
Explanation:If a woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and her fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l, immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated.
In this scenario, the patient’s fasting glucose level is above 7 mmol/L, indicating the need for immediate insulin therapy (with or without metformin). The diagnosis of gestational diabetes is based on a fasting plasma glucose level of > 5.6 mmol/L or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of >/= 7.8 mmol/L.
While dietary advice is an essential aspect of diabetes management, it is not sufficient in this case due to the elevated fasting glucose level.
Gliclazide is not a suitable option for gestational diabetes treatment because sulfonylureas are not recommended during pregnancy due to the risk of neonatal hypoglycemia.
Metformin may be used in the management of gestational diabetes, but in cases where the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L, insulin is the preferred treatment option. Insulin and metformin can be used together to manage gestational diabetes.
Since both the fasting glucose and 2-hour glucose levels are elevated, there is no need to repeat the test as the diagnosis of gestational diabetes is conclusive.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with two children visits your clinic seeking contraception. You have ruled out pregnancy or the risk of it. She is in a committed relationship and is going on vacation with her partner tomorrow. Neither of them wants to use condoms, and abstinence will be challenging while on vacation. She had her last period ten days ago and has not had sex since then. If there are no contraindications and she finds the method acceptable, what is the most appropriate contraception for her?
Your Answer: Progesterone-only pill
Correct Answer: Mirena coil
Explanation:Contraceptive Methods and Timing
The timing of contraceptive methods is crucial to their effectiveness. The copper-bearing intrauterine device can be used at any time during the menstrual cycle, as long as pregnancy has been reasonably excluded. It doesn’t require any additional contraception. However, if a woman starts taking the combined oral contraceptive pill on day six or later of her menstrual cycle, she needs to use additional contraception or avoid sexual intercourse for seven days. The same applies to the Mirena coil if it is inserted from day eight onwards of the menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and implant also require additional contraception or avoidance of sexual intercourse if started from day six onwards of the menstrual cycle. It is important to understand the timing requirements of each contraceptive method to ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy with complaints of severe itching all over her body that is causing her sleepless nights. She reports experiencing a mild stomach bug, which has resulted in abdominal pain and loss of appetite. During the examination, you notice excoriation marks due to her constant scratching. What would be the most suitable course of action to manage her condition?
Your Answer: Advise regular emollient use
Correct Answer: Arrange a same-day obstetric referral
Explanation:Obstetric cholestasis is the primary cause of itch during pregnancy that is not accompanied by a rash. To diagnose obstetric cholestasis, doctors should look for symptoms such as itchiness that begins in the third trimester, starts on the palms and soles before spreading upwards, worsens at night, and causes severe scratching that leads to excoriation marks. Additionally, patients may report anorexia, malaise, and abdominal pain, which are also associated with obstetric cholestasis.
If a woman displays any of these symptoms, it is recommended that she be admitted to the hospital or referred to an obstetrician on the same day. In secondary care, liver function tests are conducted to confirm the diagnosis, and treatment may include ursodeoxycholic acid and sedating antihistamines.
Jaundice During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.
Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 31
Correct
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A teenage girl with epilepsy is interested in taking the oral contraceptive pill. She has been informed that some medications for epilepsy may impact the effectiveness of the pill.
Which anti-epileptic medication triggers liver enzymes and can potentially decrease the potency of the oral contraceptive pill?Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:AEDs and their effect on oral contraceptive pill efficacy
The metabolism of oestrogen and progestogen is increased by anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) that induce cytochrome P450. These drugs can be strong inducers, such as carbamazepine, or weaker inducers, such as topiramate. Phenytoin is a strong enzyme inducer. It should be noted that women using lamotrigine should be advised that seizure frequency may increase when initiating the oral contraceptive pill. Additionally, lamotrigine side effects may increase in the pill-free interval or when discontinuing the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is important to consider the potential effects of AEDs on the efficacy of the oral contraceptive pill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 32
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant with her first baby comes to the clinic complaining of a headache. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities are found. Her blood pressure reads 152/93 mmHg. A urine dip test shows proteinuria but no signs of infection.
What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer immediately to hospital
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia is characterized by a new-onset blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or higher after 20 weeks of pregnancy, along with either proteinuria or organ dysfunction. In this case, the patient has both high blood pressure and proteinuria, indicating a need for immediate evaluation by the obstetric team in secondary care. Hospitalization and Antihypertensive treatment may be necessary, and delivery may need to be expedited to resolve the condition and prevent complications such as eclamptic fits, coagulation problems, and liver dysfunction.
Given the potential for rapid deterioration, it is not appropriate for the patient to wait for a routine review with her midwife. While labetalol is commonly used to control blood pressure in women with pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia, it should only be initiated and managed under the direction of a specialist. Bisoprolol is not typically used in the treatment of pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female has been experiencing a throbbing headache on one side for the past day. She is currently 34 weeks pregnant and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy so far. On examination, her reflexes are normal, there is no papilloedema, and her blood pressure is 136/88 mmHg. Prior to becoming pregnant, she would typically use ibuprofen or aspirin to alleviate her headaches, which was effective.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's headache?Your Answer: Sumatriptan
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for migraines during pregnancy is paracetamol, which is likely to be effective for this patient experiencing a pulsating headache on one side. Aspirin and ibuprofen should be avoided in the third trimester due to the risk of fetal ductal arteriosus closure. Sumatriptan is not considered first-line and should only be used if the potential benefits outweigh the risks, according to the manufacturer’s advice.
Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors
Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.
When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.
In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old patient presents requesting emergency contraception after unprotected intercourse the previous evening. She would also like to start a contraceptive pill as she has no regular form of contraception at the moment. She is not sure where she is in her menstrual cycle as her periods are irregular. She smokes 5 cigarettes a day. Her past medical history includes asthma and appendicectomy. Her blood pressure is 102/66 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 28 kg/m.²
What factor in the history above needs to be taken into consideration for the dosage of the latter?Your Answer: Blood pressure
Correct Answer: Body mass index
Explanation:Levonorgestrel dosage should be increased for individuals with a BMI greater than 26 or a weight exceeding 70 kg.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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What are the blood tests that women in the UK receive as part of their routine antenatal screening program?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Strep B
Explanation:Pathogens and Pregnancy: What You Need to Know
Although various pathogens can colonize and infect the vagina during pregnancy, only syphilis is routinely tested for. Adequate treatment of syphilis before 18 weeks of pregnancy can prevent infection of the fetus, while treatment after 18 weeks can cure an infected fetus. Failure to treat syphilis can result in congenital syphilis, which can have long-term consequences.
herpesvirus is not routinely screened for during pregnancy, but if a woman contracts genital herpes for the first time during the first trimester, there is a small risk of miscarriage. If first infection occurs later in the pregnancy, a caesarean section may be offered to prevent the baby from coming into contact with active sores. The risk of passing on a newly caught infection to the baby during vaginal birth is about 4 in 10, but neonatal herpes is very rare in the UK, affecting only 1-2 in every 100,000 babies born.
Strep B is not routinely tested for during pregnancy, but about one in five pregnant women in the UK carry group B Streptococci bacteria. While most pregnant women who carry these bacteria have healthy babies, there is a small risk that infection can pass to the baby during childbirth. Group B Strep infection in newborn babies can cause serious complications that can be life-threatening, and even with the best medical care, one in 10 babies diagnosed with early-onset infection will die.
HPV and gonorrhea are not routinely tested for during pregnancy. It is important for pregnant women to discuss any concerns about sexually transmitted infections with their healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcomes for themselves and their babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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You encounter a 45-year-old woman in your women's health clinic. She is perimenopausal with irregular periods and some vasomotor symptoms that she is managing well. She had been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for birth control, but since her divorce, she no longer needs it. However, she has noticed that it helps with her menopausal symptoms, which worsen during the pill-free week, and is hesitant to discontinue it. She has no significant medical history, and her blood pressure and BMI are within normal limits. She has never smoked.
Which of the following statements regarding the COCP is accurate?Your Answer: The COCP is associated with an increased risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer
Correct Answer: The COCP may help to maintain bone mineral density in the perimenopause
Explanation:Using combined hormonal contraceptive pills (CHC) can be beneficial for women in their 40s and beyond. It can reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviate menopausal symptoms. CHC with levonorgestrel or norethisterone are recommended as they have a lower risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other progestogens. However, it is important to note that there are risks associated with CHC use, and women should be informed of these before deciding to use it. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health advises that CHC can be used until age 50, but after that, women should switch to non-hormonal methods as the risks of CHC generally outweigh the benefits. Women who wish to continue using CHC after age 50 should be assessed on an individual basis. Extended or continuous CHC regimens can also be used for contraception and to manage menstrual or menopausal symptoms. Additionally, CHC is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that can last for several decades after stopping use. Finally, CHC may help maintain bone mineral density during the perimenopause compared to not using hormones.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of severe menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes, night sweats, low mood and anxiety, and difficulties with memory and concentration. She has a history of an inherited thrombophilia and has previously experienced one pulmonary embolism and three deep vein thromboses that required treatment. Despite trying various home remedies suggested by reliable websites, she is still struggling and is interested in starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to alleviate her symptoms.
What would be your approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: Advise her she can not take any hormonal-based treatment and give her advice on lifestyle modifications
Correct Answer: Refer to haematology for review
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, women who are at high risk of VTE and are seeking HRT should be referred to a haematologist before starting any treatment, even if it is transdermal. While the risk of VTE associated with HRT is higher for oral preparations than transdermal ones, the risk for transdermal HRT at standard therapeutic doses is not greater than the baseline risk. However, for women with a significant baseline risk, such as those with a strong family history of VTE or a hereditary thrombophilia, referral to a haematologist for assessment is recommended before considering HRT. Therefore, all options that suggest prescribing HRT are incorrect, with oral prescription being the most problematic. It is not enough to advise this woman to manage her symptoms conservatively, as there is clear guidance to refer her to a specialist for additional help.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.
Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.
In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and antiphospholipid syndrome is expecting a baby. What should she avoid during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Pregnant women should not take warfarin and are typically prescribed low-molecular weight heparin instead throughout their pregnancy.
Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 39
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman seeks guidance regarding her worsening menstrual migraines over the past few months. She is currently experiencing a migraine that has persisted for 24 hours despite taking paracetamol and aspirin. What would be the most suitable course of action to alleviate her headache?
Your Answer: Sumatriptan
Explanation:An appropriate substitute would be mefenamic acid in oral form.
Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors
Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.
When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.
In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 40
Correct
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A 32-year-old female attends surgery requesting a sterilisation because she has completed her family.
You discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the procedure with her fully.
Which of the following pieces of information would you give?Your Answer: Overall failure rates of the procedure are approximately 1 in 200
Explanation:Sterilisation as a Permanent Contraceptive Method
Sterilisation is a permanent contraceptive method with an overall failure rate of approximately 1 per 200. However, the individual failure rate may be lower depending on the method used. It is important to note that sterilisation should be considered permanent, even though reversal is possible. This is because it is an operation performed with the intention of being permanent and reversal cannot be guaranteed.
The proportion of women expressing regret after undergoing sterilisation varies between different studies and different countries but tends to range from 3% to 10% in the United Kingdom. Sterilisation is usually done laparoscopically, although methods involving a vaginal approach are possible.
It is crucial to counsel patients about the effectiveness of other contraceptive methods that are as effective as sterilisation. Patients may not be aware of this, and it may alter their decision. For some, a long-acting form of contraception such as the intrauterine system (Mirena) may be more acceptable and preferable. Therefore, it is essential to discuss all available options with patients to help them make an informed decision about their contraceptive choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Isabella is a 26-year-old woman who is seeking a termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. As a first-time pregnant individual, she is worried about the potential impact of a surgical abortion on her future fertility. What advice should be given to address her concerns?
Your Answer: Increased risk of stillborn
Correct Answer: No evidence of impact on future fertility
Explanation:The patient should be informed that their future fertility is not impacted by the abortion and there is no association with placenta praevia, ectopic pregnancy, stillborn or miscarriage. However, they should also be made aware of the potential complications that may arise from the procedure. These include severe bleeding, uterine perforation (surgical abortion only), and cervical trauma (surgical abortion only). The risks of these complications are lower for early abortions and those performed by experienced clinicians. In the event that one of these complications occurs, further treatment such as blood transfusion, laparoscopy or laparotomy may be required. Additionally, infection may occur after medical or surgical abortion, but this risk can be reduced through prophylactic antibiotic use and bacterial screening for lower genital tract infection.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to you for contraceptive advice. She is 30 days postpartum and has not engaged in sexual activity since giving birth. She had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery following a routine antenatal period. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and has no notable family history. On examination, her blood pressure is 106/80, and her body mass index is 23. She is currently breastfeeding her baby. Which of the following contraceptive options should she not start using right away?
Your Answer: Progestogen-only injectable
Correct Answer: Combined hormonal contraceptive
Explanation:Initiation of Combined Hormonal Contraception Postpartum
Combined hormonal contraception can be safely started by eligible women 21 days after giving birth, provided they have no other risk factors for venous thromboembolism and are not breastfeeding. However, women who breastfeed and want to use combined hormonal contraception should wait until six weeks postpartum, regardless of whether they have additional risk factors for VTE. Studies have shown conflicting effects of combined oral contraception on breastfeeding, with some indicating less weight gain in infants of users compared to non-users when started at or before six weeks postpartum. No study has demonstrated an effect on infant weight gain when initiated after six weeks postpartum. It is important for healthcare providers to consider individual patient factors and preferences when discussing contraceptive options postpartum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A female patient in her 40s is expressing deep concern about her lack of sexual desire over the last half year.
When evaluating diminished libido in women, what is accurate to consider?Your Answer: Lubricants can provide a long term solution
Correct Answer: Tibolone can improve lack of libido in postmenopausal women
Explanation:Managing Low Libido in Menopausal Women
Lubricants can provide temporary relief for menopausal women experiencing low libido, but they require frequent application and may not address the underlying issue. Measuring testosterone levels is not a reliable method for diagnosing low libido in menopausal women. While testosterone patches can benefit naturally menopausal women, they are currently only licensed for use in women who have had their ovaries removed. However, it is important to note that the postmenopausal ovary does produce testosterone. Tibolone is a medication that has been shown to improve low libido in postmenopausal women. It is important for women experiencing low libido to discuss their symptoms with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on how to manage her urge incontinence.
What is the initial management strategy for women with urge or mixed urinary incontinence?Your Answer: Duloxetine
Correct Answer: Bladder training
Explanation:Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence
Bladder training is a highly effective treatment for urge or mixed incontinence. It has fewer adverse effects and lower relapse rates compared to antimuscarinic drugs, which are the next line of treatment. On the other hand, pelvic floor muscle training is recommended as the first line of treatment for stress incontinence symptoms.
Duloxetine is only recommended for stress incontinence and may be offered as a second-line treatment for women who prefer pharmacological treatment over surgery. However, modification of fluid intake is not routinely recommended. It is only recommended if fluid intake is high or low and in cases of urinary incontinence or overactive bladder.
In summary, there are various treatment options available for urinary incontinence, depending on the type and severity of the symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least commonly associated with antiphospholipid syndrome during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Placental abruption
Correct Answer: Placenta praevia
Explanation:Antiphospholipid Syndrome and Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that increases the risk of both venous and arterial blood clots, recurrent miscarriage, and low platelet count. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other illnesses, such as systemic lupus erythematosus. When a woman with antiphospholipid syndrome becomes pregnant, there are several potential complications that may arise, including pre-eclampsia, placental abruption, and preterm delivery.
To manage these risks, low-dose aspirin is typically prescribed as soon as the pregnancy is confirmed through a urine test. Once a fetal heartbeat is detected on ultrasound, low molecular weight heparin is added to the treatment plan. This medication is usually discontinued at 34 weeks gestation. These interventions have been shown to increase the live birth rate by seven-fold. It is important for women with antiphospholipid syndrome to work closely with their healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcome for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Sophie is 25 years old and has come to you seeking contraception. She is currently using condoms and doesn't believe she is at risk of pregnancy. She smokes 4 cigarettes a day, has a body mass index of 22 kg/m², and a blood pressure of 120/65 mmHg. She has no personal or family history of blood clots, heart disease, strokes, or migraines. Sophie has a regular 30-day menstrual cycle and is on day 3 of her cycle. She wants to start contraception immediately and you decide to prescribe Yasmin. Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: She can start the combined oral contraceptive pill today but she needs to use barrier protection for 2 days
Correct Answer: She can start the combined oral contraceptive pill today but she needs to use barrier protection for 7 days
Explanation:Extra precautions should be taken during the first 7 days of starting the combined oral contraceptive pill as it doesn’t provide immediate protection when initiated on day 6 of the menstrual cycle. Women over the age of 35 who smoke should not use this form of contraception.
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.
Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the connection between IUDs and PID?
Your Answer: Decreased risk in first 20 days then returns to normal
Correct Answer: Increased risk in first 20 days then returns to normal
Explanation:New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The coil was implanted 4 years ago to treat dysfunctional uterine bleeding. She has not had any menstrual periods for 3 years and is uncertain if it should be taken out. She is currently on elleste solo 1 mg to alleviate menopausal symptoms and was informed that the Mirena was a component of her hormone replacement therapy. What is the duration of the Mirena coil's license for this purpose?
Your Answer: 5 years
Correct Answer: 4 years
Explanation:The license for using Mirena as endometrial protection for women on oestrogen-only HRT is limited to 4 years. Similarly, intrauterine contraceptives are licensed for a duration of 3 years.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is worried about her contraception. She is currently taking rigevidon but has forgotten to take the last two pills due to misplacing her medication. She is concerned about the possibility of pregnancy. Her pill-free break started 16 days ago, and she had unprotected sex 2 days ago.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Continue as normal with 2 days of additional precautions
Correct Answer: Continue as normal with 7 days of additional precautions
Explanation:If a person misses two pills between days 8-14 of their cycle while taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) correctly for the previous seven days, emergency contraception is not necessary. This is the case for a patient who is currently in the second week of taking the pill and has had unprotected sex during this time. However, they should use additional precautions for the next seven days. Emergency contraception would only be necessary if the patient had unprotected sex during the first week of taking the pill or during the pill-free week, or if they had not taken at least seven consecutive pills prior to the episode of unprotected sex. It is important to use additional precautions for seven days, rather than restarting the pill as normal or with only two days of additional precautions. The pill-free interval doesn’t need to be omitted if the patient misses pills only during the second week of taking the pill.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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You assess a 31-year-old patient who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving despite regular intercourse for 9 months. The patient is in good health and has no history of sexually transmitted infections. Menstrual periods have always been irregular, with months between menses. The patient's BMI is 20 kg/m² and physical examination is unremarkable.
Semen analysis shows normal results. The patient's blood test results are as follows:
Reference Range (female)
Day 21 progesterone (nmol/L) 16 >30
LH (mUI/mL) 22 3.3-100
FSH (mUI/mL) 8 <30
Total testosterone (nmol/L) 3.6 <2.7
Prolactin (mIU/L) 325 <700
SHBG (nmol/L) 20 19-145
What is the most appropriate initial step to enhance the couple's chances of conceiving?Your Answer: Weight loss
Correct Answer: Clomifene
Explanation:Couples, including those with fertility issues, have a 15-20% chance of conceiving naturally within a year through regular unprotected sexual intercourse. However, this patient’s PCOS condition, which causes ovulation insufficiency, may prolong the process. Hence, a referral is necessary for assistance, and treatment with clomifene to stimulate ovulation would be suitable.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.
Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 51
Correct
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A 55-year-old female attends the GP surgery to discuss treatment for the menopause.
Her last period was 14 months ago. She has been experiencing low mood, which has been attributed to the menopause, but there are no symptoms of overt depression. She has a past history of breast cancer, treated three years ago. She is currently taking Tamoxifen. She has no allergies. She would like treatment for her symptoms.
What is the most suitable course of action for her symptoms?Your Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Hormone Therapy Contraindicated in Breast Cancer Patient
Hormone therapies are not an option for a woman with a history of breast cancer due to contraindications. This rules out all hormone therapy options. Additionally, fluoxetine, which inhibits the enzyme that converts tamoxifen to its active metabolite, should not be used in this case. This is because it reduces the amount of active drug that is released.
The most appropriate treatment option for low mood in the absence of depression is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). While it may not help with menopausal flashes, it is recommended by NICE and is the best choice from the list of options provided.
Overall, it is important to consider a patient’s medical history and any contraindications before prescribing any treatment options. In this case, hormone therapy and fluoxetine are not suitable, and CBT is the recommended course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to your morning clinic seeking guidance. She delivered a baby four months ago and is considering having another pregnancy. Current research indicates that a brief interval between pregnancies is linked to a higher chance of preterm labor, low birth weight, and a baby that is small for gestational age.
What is the minimum duration you should suggest to your patient to wait after giving birth before attempting to conceive again?Your Answer: 36 months
Correct Answer: 12 months
Explanation:Having a short inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again can lead to a higher likelihood of preterm birth, low birthweight, and small for gestational age babies. Women should be informed of this risk, and it is currently recommended by the World Health Organisation to wait at least 24 months after childbirth before getting pregnant again. It is important to note that the risk associated with a short inter-pregnancy interval is still relatively low.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.
The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents to you after experiencing a condom break during intercourse with her partner last night. She is currently on day 14 of her 28-day menstrual cycle and reports that she was previously taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but has not had time to obtain a refill since it ran out 2 months ago. She is seeking emergency contraception today and plans to resume taking the combined oral contraceptive pill as soon as possible.
What recommendation would you make in this situation?Your Answer: Take EllaOne today, start combined pill in 5 days time and use condoms for the next 5 days
Correct Answer: Take EllaOne today, start combined pill in 5 days time and use condoms for the next 12 days
Explanation:The effectiveness of hormonal contraception may be reduced by EllaOne. To ensure proper contraception, individuals using the pill, patch, or ring should wait 5 days after taking Ulipristal before starting or restarting their contraception. During this period, it is recommended to use barrier methods.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about her mental health after struggling to adjust to the birth of her first child a week ago. She reports feeling disorganised, experiencing auditory hallucinations, and having a low mood. She also mentions a previous miscarriage two years ago that was a difficult time for her. Is there an increased risk for this patient to develop this mental health condition again in a future pregnancy?
Your Answer: 30-70%
Correct Answer: 25-50%
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 55
Correct
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A 45-year-old lady comes to see you regarding her copper intrauterine device (Cu-IUD). The device contains >300 mm² of copper. She had it inserted 2 years ago and would like to know how long it can be used for before it needs removing.
What sentence below is correct regarding removing the Cu-IUD and this patient?Your Answer: The Cu-IUD can remain in situ until 1 year after the last menstrual period (LMP) if it occurs when the woman is 50 or older
Explanation:The copper IUD can be used until menopause if inserted at age 40 or over, according to the FSRH. It can remain in place for 1 year after the last menstrual period if the woman is over 50, or 2 years if she is under 50. It should not be left in place indefinitely due to the risk of infection.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 56
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of vulval itch and irritation. Upon examination, an area of inflammation and excoriation is found. She has no other dermatological conditions and is in a stable relationship.
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: She can be managed with a topical steroid and antifungal preparation
Explanation:Understanding Vulvovaginitis
Vulvovaginitis is a common condition that can have various causes, including lichen sclerosus, VIN, and other dermatological conditions. However, in young women, an inflammatory vulval dermatitis is often the culprit, triggered by factors such as soaps, frequent washing, perfumes, sanitary towels, douching, or candidiasis.
The initial treatment for this condition typically involves a combination of topical steroid and antifungal preparations. While STI screening and specialist referrals are not usually necessary, it’s important to offer a chaperone during same-sex examinations and consider them mandatory for opposite-sex examinations.
It’s worth noting that lack of estrogen is not typically a cause of vulvovaginitis, and vulval biopsy is not usually indicated based on the information available. By understanding the causes and appropriate treatments for vulvovaginitis, healthcare providers can help their patients manage this common condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 57
Correct
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A 27-year-old female has been experiencing headaches for a while. She reports having 2-3 headaches per month over the past few months, each lasting for 2-3 days. The headaches are usually pulsating and on one side. She is generally healthy, active, and takes the mini-pill for birth control. She lives with her partner and works as a teacher in a primary school.
Which of the following treatment options is not recommended for this patient?Your Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:The patient is experiencing recurrent migraines with classic symptoms such as unilateral and pulsating headache. However, topiramate is not the best option as it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception, including both the combined oral contraceptive pill and the progestogen-only pill (UKMEC 3 (disadvantages outweigh advantages)). Instead, alternative options such as triptans and NSAIDs can be used as monotherapy or in combination for acute treatment. Propranolol is also a suitable preventative treatment for women who are of childbearing age or those who are on hormonal contraceptives.
Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations
Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.
Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.
Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old primigravida reports experiencing constipation and arthralgia during her 28th week of pregnancy. Several biochemical tests are conducted, but which one holds clinical significance?
Your Answer: Detectable urinary human chorionic gonadotrophin
Correct Answer: Serum corrected calcium 2.89 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
Explanation:Interpretation of Patient’s Symptoms
This patient is exhibiting symptoms that suggest hypercalcaemia, which is a clinically significant condition. It is important to note that the free T4 level is at the lower end of the normal range, which is common during pregnancy. Therefore, TSH is a better indicator of thyroid function. Additionally, hyperprolactinaemia and detectable urinary human chorionic gonadotrophin are normal findings during pregnancy. It is also typical for serum alkaline phosphatase levels to increase up to four times the normal range due to increased placental production.
Overall, it is essential to consider the patient’s pregnancy status when interpreting their symptoms and laboratory results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient comes to you with a query about the Mirena® coil she had inserted during her travels in Australia. She wants to know the duration for which it is licensed.
How long is the IUS licensed for in this case?Your Answer: 10 years
Correct Answer: 3 years
Explanation:The Jaydess IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena coil. The Mirena coil is licensed for 5 years, while the Kyleena IUS has 19.5mg LNG and is also licensed for 5 years. The copper IUD is licensed for 5 years.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 60
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman contacts you seeking advice. She has been taking Microgynon 30 for contraception for the past two years. However, she recently went on a weekend trip with her partner and forgot to take her pills, missing two in a row. She had regular intercourse with her partner during the weekend. Today, she is supposed to take the 19th pill of the packet and claims not to have missed any other pills. You advise her to take two pills as soon as possible. What further advice should you give her?
Your Answer: Use condoms for the next 7 days + skip the 7 day break
Explanation:The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her worried partner. She has been exhibiting erratic behavior and mood swings since giving birth to their daughter 10 days ago. During the appointment, she seems restless and agitated.
According to her partner, she has been avoiding sleep due to her fear that something terrible might happen to their baby. The woman has a history of depression but has not taken her fluoxetine medication for the past 6 months due to concerns about potential complications.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Restart fluoxetine at a low dose, titrating to control symptoms
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for urgent assessment
Explanation:The appropriate course of action for a woman exhibiting symptoms of agitation and paranoid delusions after giving birth is to admit her to the hospital for urgent assessment. This is likely a case of postpartum psychosis, which is different from postnatal depression. Prescribing medication to aid in sleep or reassuring the patient that her low mood will improve with time are not appropriate options in this case. Gradual titration of medication would also not manage her acute symptoms and ensure the safety of herself and her baby. Ideally, she should be admitted to a Mother & Baby Unit for proper care.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 62
Incorrect
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During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any troublesome vaginal discharge or any unscheduled bleeding. She says that she has no unscheduled bleeding and that she has always had a very slight, clear, intermittent vaginal discharge. She has no other symptoms and is in a stable relationship.
What is the most probable reason for this?Your Answer: The most likely cause is bacterial vaginosis
Correct Answer: The most likely cause is a physiological discharge
Explanation:Causes of Vaginal Discharge in Women
This woman is experiencing occasional vaginal discharge. There are several potential causes of vaginal discharge, including candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, and physiological discharge. Candidiasis is typically associated with itch and a thick discharge, while bacterial vaginosis is often intermittent and accompanied by a profuse and smelly discharge. However, given the patient’s age and stable relationship, physiological discharge is the most likely cause.
In this case, it may not be necessary to conduct a speculum exam unless the patient specifically requests it. Initially, the patient can be reassured without further investigation. However, if investigation is deemed necessary, a self-taken lower vaginal swab would be a reasonable option.
It is important to note that normality is a common theme in the MRCGP exam, and understanding the various causes of vaginal discharge is an important aspect of primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 5 year-old daughter to clinic with a widespread rash. You diagnose Chickenpox. You know her mother, who is also a patient at the practice, is currently 25 weeks pregnant with her second child. Should you take any action regarding her exposure to Chickenpox?
Your Answer: Offer her varicella vaccination
Correct Answer: Enquire as to her Chickenpox history
Explanation:When pregnant women are exposed to Chickenpox, it is important to inquire about their prior history of the infection. If they are uncertain or have not had it before, it is recommended to test for varicella antibodies. In cases where they are found to be non-immune, varicella immunoglobulin should be considered. This treatment can be administered at any stage of pregnancy and is effective for up to 10 days following exposure.
Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment. She has recently become sexually active and wants to start using long term contraception as she and her partner do not plan on having children anytime soon. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer a decade ago, and the patient, along with her family, underwent testing at that time, revealing that she has a BRCA1 mutation.
As per the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH), what is the safest contraception method?Your Answer: Progesterone only oral contraceptive
Correct Answer: Copper coil
Explanation:If a woman has a suspected or personal history of breast cancer or a confirmed BRCA mutation, the safest form of contraception for her is the copper coil. The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use (UKMEC) provides guidelines for the choice of contraception, grading non-barrier contraceptives on a scale of 1-4 based on a woman’s personal circumstances. Contraceptive methods that fall under category 1 or 2 are generally considered safe for use in primary care. In this case, all forms of contraception except the combined pill (category 3) can be offered, with the copper coil being the safest option as it falls under category 1.
Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview
Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).
Barrier methods, such as condoms, act as a physical barrier and can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). However, their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people. Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation but increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and certain types of cancer. The progesterone-only pill thickens cervical mucous, but irregular bleeding is a common side effect.
LARCs include implantable contraceptives, injectable contraceptives, and intrauterine devices (IUDs). The implantable contraceptive and injectable contraceptive both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous, with the implant lasting up to three years and the injection lasting 12 weeks. The IUD decreases sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system (IUS) prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous, with irregular bleeding being a common side effect.
In summary, understanding the different types of contraception available and their methods of action can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered that she is pregnant, around 10 weeks. She has come to seek advice on what to do about her cervical screening, which is due at this time. Sophie had a normal smear test 2 years ago and has not experienced any unusual bleeding or discharge since then.
What is the best course of action regarding her cervical screening?Your Answer: Delay screening until the 3rd trimester of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Delay screening until she is 3 months postpartum
Explanation:Typically, cervical screening is postponed until 3 months after giving birth, unless there was a missed screening or previous abnormal results. Smear tests are not conducted while pregnant, and there is no reason to refer for colposcopy based on the patient’s history. It is standard practice to delay smear tests until 3 months after delivery.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Bangladeshi woman who is 22-weeks pregnant presents to your clinic. She is currently carrying a twin pregnancy without any complications and her pregnancy is progressing smoothly. She has no other medical issues. The patient is planning to travel to Bangladesh to visit her family and seeks advice on the matter.
What would be the most suitable recommendation to provide to the patient?Your Answer: Most airlines will not allow travel after 36 weeks for multiple pregnancies, and she will require a note from her doctor or midwife when she is over 28 weeks
Correct Answer: Most airlines will not allow travel after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies, and she will require a note from her doctor or midwife when she is over 28 weeks
Explanation:Pregnant women can generally fly safely if their pregnancy is progressing well, but it is important to check with the airline and insurance company before traveling. However, most airlines have restrictions on travel after 37 weeks of pregnancy or after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies. Additionally, women over 28 weeks pregnant may need a letter from their doctor or midwife confirming their due date and good health. It is also recommended to bring along pregnancy notes when traveling.
The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to you seeking advice. She had the Mirena coil inserted for contraception 3 years ago and has been amenorrhoeic since then. She wants to know how long she can leave the Mirena in place and when it will need to be replaced.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Mirena coil?Your Answer: It needs to be changed after 3 years
Correct Answer: It should be reviewed every 2 years
Explanation:Annual Assessments for Women on Contraceptives
Women who use the combined contraceptive pill or the progesterone only pill should undergo an annual medical assessment to check for any new health issues. For those using the Depo-Provera injection, a review should be conducted every two years to evaluate the risks and benefits of the treatment.
The Mirena, an intrauterine device, can be used for up to seven years (off licence) if inserted when a woman is 45 years or older and if the patient is comfortable with their bleeding patterns. If a woman remains amenorrhoeic after seven years of use, the device can remain in place until menopause. Similarly, a copper coil inserted at the age of 40 years or over can be kept until menopause.
Regular assessments and reviews are crucial to ensure that women are receiving the most appropriate and effective contraceptive treatment for their individual needs. By staying up-to-date with their health status and treatment options, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health and overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female primip comes in during the 12th week of pregnancy with complaints of ongoing nausea. Her urine dipstick shows no ketones present. She asks for medication to alleviate her symptoms. What is the best drug to recommend?
Your Answer: Ondansetron
Correct Answer: Promethazine
Explanation:Antihistamines are the preferred initial treatment for vomiting during pregnancy.
Specific Points for Antenatal Care
Antenatal care is an essential aspect of pregnancy, and NICE has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. Some specific points to consider during antenatal care include nausea and vomiting, vitamin D, and alcohol consumption.
For nausea and vomiting, natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point are recommended by NICE. However, antihistamines such as promethazine are suggested as first-line treatment in the BNF.
Vitamin D is crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby. NICE recommends that all women should be informed about the importance of maintaining adequate vitamin D stores during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Women may choose to take 10 micrograms of vitamin D per day, as found in the Healthy Start multivitamin supplement. Women at risk, such as those who are Asian, obese, or have a poor diet, should take particular care.
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to long-term harm to the baby. In 2016, the Chief Medical Officer proposed new guidelines recommending that pregnant women should not drink alcohol at all. The official advice is to keep risks to the baby to a minimum, and the more alcohol consumed, the greater the risk.
In summary, antenatal care should include specific points such as managing nausea and vomiting, maintaining adequate vitamin D levels, and avoiding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. These guidelines aim to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sex 24 hours ago but missed taking her desogestrel pill for the past 24 hours by mistake. She has never used emergency contraception before. Her last menstrual period was 5 days ago, and she has a regular 30-day cycle. She is in good health with no other medical conditions. She declines an intrauterine device and requests ulipristal acetate after discussing her options.
Her blood pressure measures 120/80 mmHg, and her body mass index is 23 kg/m2.
You prescribe ulipristal acetate for her. What advice would you give her regarding restarting her regular contraception?Your Answer: Start desogestrel immediately. Use additional precautions for an further 48 hours
Correct Answer: Start desogestrel after 5 days. Use additional precautions till desogestrel commenced and for a further 48 hours
Explanation:Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for at least 5 days before starting regular hormonal contraception, according to current guidelines. This is because ulipristal acetate may decrease the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Additionally, taking desogestrel hormonal contraception within 5 days of ulipristal acetate can also reduce the efficacy of emergency contraception. It is recommended to use additional precautions until contraceptive cover is re-established, and if desogestrel is being used, this should be after 48 hours. It would be helpful to discuss long-acting reversible contraception options with the patient in this case.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 70
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old patient who had a baby 10 weeks ago. She is feeling tearful and anxious most days and has been struggling with low mood for 6 weeks. She is extremely tired and is finding it difficult to leave the house to do anything, doesn't find pleasure in anything at the moment. The baby is growing well but she says she is struggling to bond with the baby. She is able to take care of the baby and doesn't feel she would ever harm him. She has never experienced low mood before and is otherwise healthy.
Discuss postnatal depression with the patient and develop a treatment plan.
Which statement below regarding postnatal depression is accurate?Your Answer: Postnatal depression is entirely due to hormonal changes
Correct Answer: Around 10% of women experience postnatal depression
Explanation:Postnatal depression affects approximately 1 in 7 women and its symptoms and effects are just as severe as depression at other times. While hormonal changes may contribute to postnatal depression, it is not the sole cause. Women who are breastfeeding can safely take most tricyclic antidepressants, except for doxepin, as long as their infant is healthy and being monitored. However, the use of St John’s wort is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers with depression.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 71
Incorrect
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You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old female who wants to start trying to conceive. She has a history of epilepsy and takes levetiracetam 250 mg twice daily.
Which of the following would be most important to advise?Your Answer: Take folic acid 5mg once daily from a positive pregnancy test until 12 weeks of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Take folic acid 5 mg once daily from before conception until 12 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:Women who are taking antiepileptic medication and are planning to conceive should be prescribed folic acid 5mg instead of the standard 400 mcg once daily. This high dose of folic acid should be taken from before conception until 12 weeks into the pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. It is important to refer these women to a specialist for assessment, but they should continue to use effective contraception until then. It is important to reassure these women that they are likely to have a normal pregnancy and healthy baby. Folic acid should be started as soon as possible, even if the pregnancy is unplanned.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 72
Correct
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A 23-year-old female contacts you seeking guidance. She missed taking her Microgynon 30 pill yesterday. For the past 14 days, she has been sexually active with her partner. She is currently on her fifth day of a new pill packet and has not missed any other pills.
What advice would you provide?Your Answer: Take the missed pill as soon as possible, no additional measures needed
Explanation:If one COCP pill is missed, the patient should take the last pill as soon as possible, but no additional action is required.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her healthcare provider seeking advice on contraceptive options postpartum. She expresses interest in the contraceptive implant after a thorough discussion. The patient has no medical issues and doesn't intend to breastfeed.
At what point after delivery could she begin using the contraceptive implant?Your Answer: 4 weeks postpartum
Correct Answer: Immediately following childbirth
Explanation:It is safe to insert a contraceptive implant after childbirth, even immediately. However, the manufacturer of the most commonly used implant in the UK recommends waiting at least 4 weeks after childbirth for breastfeeding women. While there is no evidence of harm to the mother or baby, it is not recommended to insert an implant during pregnancy due to potential complications. It is important to note that fertility may not return until after the implant is removed.
Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient presents to you for pre-pregnancy counseling and inquires about folic acid supplementation. The patient has a medical history of sickle cell disease and reports taking folic acid once a week. What recommendations would you make regarding the dose and duration of folic acid supplementation?
Your Answer: 5 mg daily, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy
Correct Answer: 5 mg daily, to be taken before conception and continued throughout pregnancy
Explanation:Folic Acid Requirements for Women During Pregnancy
Most women are advised to take 400 mcg of folic acid daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy. However, there are exceptions to this rule. Women who are at a higher risk of neural tube defects, such as those with a history of bearing children with NTDs, or women with diabetes or taking anticonvulsants, should take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy.
Another group of women who require a higher dose of folic acid are those with sickle cell disease. They need to take 5 mg of folic acid daily throughout pregnancy, and even when not pregnant, they’ll usually be taking folic acid 5 mg every 1 to 7 days, depending on the severity of their disease. It’s important for women to consult with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dose of folic acid for their individual needs during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Olivia is 36 years old and visits you to discuss contraception options. She is currently using condoms and doesn't want to risk pregnancy. She smokes 8 cigarettes a day, has a body mass index of 27 kg/m², and her blood pressure is 115/62 mmHg. She has no personal or family history of blood clots, ischaemic heart disease, strokes or migraines. Olivia has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle and is on day 4 of her cycle. She wants to start contraception immediately and you decide to prescribe a progesterone only pill. Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: She can start the progesterone only pill today but must use extra protection for 7 days
Correct Answer: She can start the progesterone only pill today and she doesn't need to use extra protection
Explanation:Rachel began taking the progesterone only pill during the fourth day of her menstrual cycle, which means she will have instant protection since it was before the fifth day of her cycle.
Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).
When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.
Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 76
Correct
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You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 28-year-old female about the contraceptive patch.
What are the proper steps to ensure the effective use of the contraceptive patch?Your Answer: Change patch weekly with a 1 week break after 3 patches
Explanation:The contraceptive patch regime involves wearing one patch per week for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week. This method is gaining popularity due to its flexibility, as the patch can be changed up to 48 hours late without the need for extra contraception. Additionally, the patch’s transdermal absorption means that it is not affected by vomiting or diarrhea, eliminating the need for additional precautions. Similar to the pill, this method involves three weeks of contraception followed by a one-week break, during which the woman will experience a withdrawal bleed.
How to Use the Combined Contraceptive Patch
The Evra patch is the only combined contraceptive patch approved for use in the UK. It is worn for 3 weeks straight and then removed for a week, during which a withdrawal bleed occurs. If the patch is not changed on time, different rules apply depending on the week of the patch cycle.
If the patch change is delayed at the end of week 1 or week 2, it should be changed immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are needed. However, if the delay is greater than 48 hours, a barrier method of contraception should be used for the next 7 days. If unprotected sexual intercourse has occurred during this extended patch-free interval or in the last 5 days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week 3, it should be removed as soon as possible and a new patch applied on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed. If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for 7 days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle.
For more information on combined hormonal methods of contraception, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 77
Incorrect
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During a routine postnatal check, a 27-year-old woman who is breastfeeding her baby and follows a vegan diet asks for advice on ensuring her milk provides the necessary nutrients for her child. As she has no underlying medical conditions, what daily supplement does the NHS recommend for women who follow a vegan diet while breastfeeding?
Your Answer: Vitamin A
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:Breastfeeding women who follow a vegan diet may require a B12 supplement as this vitamin is primarily present in meat and dairy products. Vegans can obtain vitamin B12 from fortified breakfast cereals and yeast extracts like Marmite. Additionally, the NHS recommends that all breastfeeding women, regardless of their dietary preferences, should take a daily vitamin D supplement of 10 mcg to promote bone health for themselves and their baby. Women who are eligible for Healthy Start vouchers may receive free supplements, and their Health Visitor can provide guidance on this matter.
Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a cofactor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.
However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 78
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman, who recently gave birth, visits her GP for a routine check-up. She expresses her worries about the medications she is taking for her different health conditions and their potential impact on her breastfeeding baby. Which medications are safe for her to continue taking?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Breastfeeding is generally safe with most anti-epileptic drugs, including the commonly prescribed Lamotrigine. This drug is often preferred for women as it doesn’t affect their ability to bear children. However, Carbimazole and Diazepam’s active metabolite can be passed on to the baby through breast milk and should be avoided. Isotretinoin’s effect on breastfed infants is not well studied, but oral retinoids should generally be avoided while breastfeeding.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important to aim for monotherapy and to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, with sodium valproate being associated with neural tube defects, carbamazepine being considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics, and phenytoin being associated with cleft palate. Lamotrigine may be a safer option, but the dose may need to be adjusted during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn. It is important to seek specialist neurological or psychiatric advice before starting or continuing antiepileptic medication during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age. Recent evidence has shown a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of sodium valproate, leading to recommendations that it should not be used during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age unless absolutely necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon implanted six months ago but has been experiencing light spotting on approximately 50% of days. Her medical history includes a first trimester abortion two years ago, but otherwise, she has no significant medical issues. A vaginal examination reveals no abnormalities, and she recently tested negative for sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a progesterone-only pill
Correct Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:A cervical smear is not a diagnostic test and should only be conducted as a part of a screening program. An 18-year-old’s risk of cervical cancer is already low, and a normal vaginal examination can further reduce it.
If controlling bleeding is the goal, the combined oral contraceptive pill is more effective than the progesterone-only pill.
Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes in for a routine antenatal check-up at 15 weeks of pregnancy. During the clinic visit, her blood pressure is measured at 154/94 mmHg, which is confirmed by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Reviewing her medical records, it is noted that her blood pressure was 146/88 mmHg four weeks ago. A urine dipstick test shows normal results, and there is no significant medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: White-coat hypertension
Correct Answer: Pre-existing hypertension
Explanation:It should be noted that the woman already had hypertension before becoming pregnant. Blood pressure issues related to pregnancy, such as pre-eclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension, typically do not occur until after 20 weeks of gestation. The fact that her ambulatory blood pressure readings were elevated rules out the possibility of her hypertension being caused by anxiety in a medical setting. It is important to consider the possibility of secondary hypertension, as high blood pressure in a woman of this age is not typical.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.
After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.
Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Is there any medication listed on her repeat prescription that could cause interactions and contraindicate the use of this contraceptive method?
Your Answer: Levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Orlistat
Explanation:Orlistat is a medication used to treat obesity by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase and reducing fat absorption from the gut. However, it often causes loose stool or diarrhea unless the patient follows a low-fat diet. It is crucial to assess the suitability of orlistat for patients taking critical medications like antiepileptics and contraceptive pills, as it may decrease their effectiveness by increasing gut transit time. If the patient wants to continue taking orlistat, it is advisable to consider alternative contraception methods that are more reliable.
Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 82
Incorrect
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You are examining a 48-year-old female patient with breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. The patient has been prescribed a daily dose of 20 mg of tamoxifen. What is the most frequent adverse effect of tamoxifen?
Your Answer: Tumour flare
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Tamoxifen Side Effects According to BNF
The British National Formulary (BNF) is often used to set questions for the AKT, and it lists the frequency of side effects for medications. Tamoxifen, for example, has common or very common side effects such as headaches, while all the other options are rare or very rare. Patients taking tamoxifen should be informed about the increased risk of thromboembolism and advised to watch for symptoms of DVT and PE. Additionally, patients should be warned about the increased risk of endometrial cancer and instructed to report any relevant symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these potential side effects and counsel patients accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 83
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman who is taking the 20 microgram ethinyloestrodiol combined pill contacts the clinic to report that she has missed a dose. She is currently on day 10 of her pack and it has been 24 hours since she was supposed to take her previous day's pill. What is the most suitable guidance to give her?
Your Answer: She should take the missed pill with today's and carry on with the pack
Explanation:Missed Birth Control Pills
When it comes to missed birth control pills, most of the advice and evidence is based on studies of the 35 mcg oestrogen combined pill. However, it’s important to note that the risk of pregnancy with a missed 20 mcg pill may be higher than with a larger dose pill. Despite this, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) recommends that women take the missed pill and continue with the pack. Additional contraception is not required in this case.
If two or more pills are missed, it’s recommended to use barrier contraception for around seven days. It’s important to follow the instructions provided with your specific type of birth control pill and to speak with your healthcare provider if you have any concerns or questions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 84
Correct
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A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with a complaint of amenorrhea for the past eight months. She reports weight gain and decreased libido during this time and has noticed milk production from her breasts. Her last sexual encounter was about seven months ago. On examination, vital signs are normal, and there are no abnormalities on abdominal examination. Galactorrhea is confirmed on expression. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Depression
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Hyperprolactinaemia
This patient is presenting with several signs and symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia, including weight gain, loss of libido, menstrual disturbance, and galactorrhoea. While conditions such as PCOS, depression, and Cushing’s can cause weight gain and menstrual changes, galactorrhoea is only associated with pregnancy, prolactinoma, certain medications, and hypothyroidism.
It is important to note that the patient’s normal abdominal examination after ten months of amenorrhea, with her last sexual encounter occurring nine months prior, rules out pregnancy as a potential cause for her symptoms. Further investigation and testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of her hyperprolactinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old patient who began taking desogestrel 50 hours ago reaches out to you to report that she took her second dose of medication 15 hours late yesterday and engaged in unprotected sexual activity on the same day.
What would be the correct course of action to take in this situation?Your Answer: Take two pills instead of one at the normal time of the next dose
Correct Answer: Organise for emergency contraception immediately
Explanation:Emergency contraception is necessary if unprotected sex occurred within 48 hours of restarting the POP after a missed pill. In this case, the patient missed her second pill by over 12 hours and is within the 48-hour window. A pregnancy test cannot provide reassurance the day after intercourse. It is important to take additional precautions and resume taking the medication at the normal time after a missed pill for 48 hours. If the missed pill is forgotten for 24 hours, taking two pills at once may be necessary, but it is not applicable in this scenario as the missed pill has already been taken.
The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to not confuse the two. For traditional POPs such as Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, and Femulen, as well as Cerazette (desogestrel), if a pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required and pill taking can continue as normal. However, if a pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. If a pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required. But if a pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
If action is needed, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed, only one pill should be taken. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day. Pill taking should continue with the rest of the pack. Extra precautions, such as using condoms, should be taken until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl comes in with a magazine clipping and requests a prescription for Cerazette (desogestrel) progesterone-only contraceptive.
With regard to Cerazette, which one of these statements is true?Your Answer: The 'missed pill' window is 12 hours
Correct Answer: With Cerazette, blood pressure should be checked every six months
Explanation:Cerazette: A Controversial Contraceptive Option
Cerazette is a popular contraceptive pill that has been marketed as having a Pearl Index similar to the combined pill. It is known for its ability to suppress ovulation and is suitable for a range of women. However, whether Cerazette is superior to traditional POPs is a topic of debate. Despite its effectiveness, Cerazette is not recommended as a first-line option due to its cost. It is only available on prescription and has a missed pill window of 12 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman contacts the clinic seeking guidance. She has missed taking her Cerazette contraceptive pill yesterday. Based on your calculation, it has been approximately 48 hours since she last took a Cerazette pill. She is typically diligent in taking her pills and has not missed any other pills in the last half-year. Her last sexual activity was eight days ago. What is the best advice to provide her?
Your Answer: Take two pills now + use condoms for 7 days + needs emergency contraception
Correct Answer: Take two pills now + use condoms for 2 days
Explanation:Cerazette has a wider time frame for taking the pill than traditional progestogen only pills, but if a pill is missed, the user should take two pills immediately and use additional contraception for two days.
The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to not confuse the two. For traditional POPs such as Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, and Femulen, as well as Cerazette (desogestrel), if a pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required and pill taking can continue as normal. However, if a pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. If a pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required. But if a pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
If action is needed, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed, only one pill should be taken. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day. Pill taking should continue with the rest of the pack. Extra precautions, such as using condoms, should be taken until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 88
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old woman in surgery.
She has had three miscarriages in the last 18 months and has been told she has antiphospholipid syndrome. She says she was told that she would need treatment early in any future pregnancy and she has now had a positive pregnancy test.
What is the treatment for antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy?Your Answer: Low dose heparin + high dose aspirin
Correct Answer: Low dose heparin + low dose aspirin
Explanation:Medication Protocol for Early Pregnancy
As soon as a pregnancy test comes back positive, it is recommended to prescribe aspirin 75 mg. This medication can help prevent blood clots and other complications during pregnancy. Once foetal heart activity is detected on an ultrasound scan, low dose self-administered subcutaneous heparin should be started. This medication can also help prevent blood clots and is especially important for women who have a history of blood clots or other risk factors. It is important to follow this medication protocol to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the developing foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill presents with breakthrough bleeding between her periods.
She has been on the same pill for almost three years and noticed breakthrough bleeding for the first time two months ago. She denies post-coital bleeding. On further questioning she has not missed any pills and has had no recent illnesses or medical problems.
What is the most probable reason for her breakthrough bleeding?Your Answer: Cervical cancer
Correct Answer: Chlamydia infection
Explanation:Breakthrough Bleeding on Combined Oral Contraceptive
In patients experiencing breakthrough bleeding while on the combined oral contraceptive, it is crucial to check their compliance and potential illness. However, if these factors are not the cause, breakthrough bleeding may indicate an alternative issue and prompt further investigation for gynaecological causes. This is especially true for patients who have been taking the pill for an extended period.
To assess potential gynaecological causes, a pelvic examination and swabs are necessary. It is also important to ensure that the patient’s smear is up-to-date and to take one if overdue. While cervical cancer is rare in this age group, swabs should be taken to check for chlamydial cervicitis, the most common cause of breakthrough bleeding in young sexually active women.
Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of pregnancy and perform a pregnancy test. However, in cases where compliance and regular usage of the combined pill are confirmed, the likelihood of pregnancy is remote. Proper investigation and assessment can help identify the underlying cause of breakthrough bleeding and ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is interested in beginning the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) but is concerned about the potential risk of breast cancer due to her maternal grandmother's diagnosis in her 60s. What UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) should be considered for her?
Your Answer: UKMEC 2
Correct Answer: UKMEC 1
Explanation:A family history doesn’t pose any contraindications for COCP use and is classified as UKMEC 1. However, being a known BRCA1/2 gene carrier is classified as UKMEC 3 for COCP use. If a person has a current breast cancer diagnosis, it is classified as UKMEC 4. If the breast cancer diagnosis was more than 5 years ago, it is classified as UKMEC 3.
Contraindications for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential cautions and contraindications on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 represents a condition for which there is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method, while UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, immobility, and a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension.
In 2016, the UKMEC was updated to reflect that breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum is now classified as UKMEC 2 instead of UKMEC 3. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these contraindications when deciding whether to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 20 hours ago and has not had any other instances of unprotected sex. She is not currently using any form of regular contraception and her last menstrual period was 10 days ago, with a regular 30-day cycle. The patient has a history of asthma. She expresses interest in taking levonorgestrel.
Her weight is 80 kg and her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Offer the patient levonorgestrel 1.5 mg. Advice the patient to perform a pregnancy test within 3 weeks
Correct Answer: Offer the patient levonorgestrel 3 mg. Advice the patient to perform a pregnancy test within 3 weeks
Explanation:If a person has a BMI over 26 kg/m2 or weighs over 70 kg, the recommended dose of levonorgestrel should be doubled from 1.5 mg to 3 mg, not 6 mg. Ulipristal acetate is contraindicated for those with brittle asthma that is controlled with glucocorticoids. It would be incorrect to inform the patient that she is not at risk of pregnancy as she is still at risk.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant attends her routine appointment with the midwife. She reports feeling generally well, but mentions experiencing constipation and has been taking lactulose.
Upon examination, the midwife notes the following:
- Fundal height: 37cm
- Blood pressure: 140/90 mmHg
- Urine dip: protein 2+
What would be the most suitable course of action for the midwife to take in managing this patient?Your Answer: Arrange home blood pressure monitoring
Correct Answer: Urgent obstetrics referral
Explanation:If pre-eclampsia is suspected in a woman, NICE recommends arranging emergency secondary care assessment. This is because pre-eclampsia can be life-threatening and may not present with obvious symptoms. In this case, the patient has high blood pressure and proteinuria, which are signs of pre-eclampsia. While a growth scan may be necessary later, it is not the priority now. Home BP monitoring is also not indicated at this stage. Instead, the patient needs further investigation and management by obstetric specialists. Labetalol may be used to manage her blood pressure, but only after specialist input.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 93
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had sexual intercourse 3 days ago and is currently not using any form of birth control. After discussing her options, you both agree that she will take EllaOne (Ulipristal Acetate) and start a progestin-only pill for ongoing contraception.
What guidance should you provide to this woman regarding the use of these contraceptives?Your Answer: Take EllaOne today and then start combined oral contraceptive pill 5 days later
Explanation:Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before beginning regular hormonal contraception. It is crucial to note that the effectiveness of EllaOne decreases if progestogen is used within 5 days after taking it. Therefore, it is essential to start hormonal contraceptives 5 days after taking EllaOne. Starting the combined oral contraceptive pill at the same time or less than 5 days after taking EllaOne would be incorrect. It is a misconception that EllaOne is only effective if the combined oral contraceptive pill has already been started. Taking EllaOne 14 days after the start of the last menstrual period is also incorrect. The copper coil could be inserted as an effective form of contraception 5 days after the expected date of ovulation, but EllaOne must be taken within 5 days of unprotected sexual intercourse.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is seen for review. She was recently affected by a complete molar pregnancy.
She wants to discuss when she can consider trying to become pregnant again.
Which of the following is the most appropriate advice?Your Answer: She should avoid pregnancy for at least six months
Correct Answer: She should avoid pregnancy for at least one year
Explanation:Monitoring hCG Levels After Molar Pregnancy
After a molar pregnancy, it is important to monitor hCG levels to detect any persistent gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) that may require treatment. During this monitoring period, women should avoid becoming pregnant as it is difficult to differentiate between hCG levels that are increasing due to a new pregnancy or persistent GTD. The first hCG measurement is taken four weeks after uterine evacuation.
For complete hydatidiform mole, hCG monitoring is required for six months from the first normal hCG level or six months from evacuation of the uterus if the hCG level normalizes by eight weeks after evacuation. On the other hand, partial molar pregnancy has a lower risk of persistent GTD, and hCG follow-up is only necessary until two consecutive monthly levels are normal.
If a woman undergoes chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic neoplasia, she should avoid pregnancy for at least one year. It is crucial to monitor hCG levels after molar pregnancy to ensure early detection and treatment of any persistent GTD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 95
Correct
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You are seeing a couple who are trying to conceive. She is 35 years old and he is 38 years old and they have been trying to conceive for 6 months. She has a normal sounding, regular cycle and has never been pregnant. She had chlamydia when she was 20 which was successfully treated (she had a test of cure).
They are both normally fit and well and neither of them has ever conceived before. They both take no regular medications and do not smoke or drink alcohol. Her body mass index (BMI) is 31 kg/m2 and his is 27 kg/m2.
She states that not being able to conceive is having a negative impact on her psychological health.
Why should this patient be referred to secondary care earlier?Your Answer: Because she has had a previous sexually transmitted infection
Explanation:If a woman has a history of STI, it is advisable to refer her to secondary care earlier. For women under 36 years of age, referral for further assessment and management should be considered if they have not conceived after one year, and their history, examination, and investigations are normal. However, if the woman is 36 years or older, has amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea, previous abdominal or pelvic surgery, previous pelvic inflammatory disease, abnormal pelvic examination, or a known reason for infertility, earlier referral should be considered. Similarly, for men, referral should be considered earlier if they have a history of previous genital pathology, urogenital surgery, STI, varicocele, significant systemic illness, abnormal genital examination, or a known reason for infertility.
Understanding Infertility: Initial Investigations and Key Counselling Points
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. However, it is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sex will conceive within 1 year, and 92% within 2 years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
To determine the cause of infertility, basic investigations are typically conducted. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test, which is done 7 days prior to the expected next period. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if the level is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it consistently remains low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
In addition to these investigations, there are key counselling points that should be addressed. These include advising the patient to take folic acid, aiming for a BMI between 20-25, and having regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Patients should also be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption.
By understanding the initial investigations and key counselling points for infertility, healthcare professionals can provide their patients with the necessary information and support to help them conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old nulliparous woman presents to you for advice on when to book her cervical smear test. She reports having a 4-day menstrual cycle every 28 days and using condoms for contraception. Is there a specific time during her cycle that would be best for her to schedule the smear test? What is the optimal timing for a cervical smear?
Your Answer: Day 5
Correct Answer: Any time from day 5 to 21
Explanation:Best Time for Cervical Smear
According to the NHS Cervical Screening Programme, the best time for women to have their cervical smear is mid-cycle, usually 14 days from the start of their last period. This timing allows for a clearer background to the sample, as the mucous plug is at its thinnest and the epithelium is at its thickest, resulting in a full range of cells being obtained. However, this is not a strict rule, and women should not be deterred from having their cervical smear if they cannot get an appointment at this time. It is important to seek advice from a doctor or practice nurse if needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 97
Correct
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Emma is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up visit. You initially saw her 2 months ago for low mood and referred her for counselling. She states she is still feeling low and her feelings of anxiety are worsening. She is keen to try medication to help.
Emma has a 5-month-old baby and is breastfeeding.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for Emma to commence?Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Breastfeeding women can safely take SSRIs such as sertraline or paroxetine as the amount of antidepressant passed on to the infant through breast milk is very low and not considered harmful. Therefore, it is recommended that women with postnatal depression continue to breastfeed while receiving antidepressant treatment.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant with her first child seeks your advice on whether to breastfeed. She is facing pressure to return to work soon but is aware of the benefits of breastfeeding for both her and her baby's health.
Which of the following conditions is known to have a lower incidence in breastfed infants?Your Answer: Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
Correct Answer: Otitis media
Explanation:Benefits of Breastfeeding
Breastfeeding has been shown to have numerous benefits for both the mother and the baby. According to the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) Promotion of breastfeeding initiation and duration (2006), breastfeeding can help reduce the incidence of various conditions.
Studies have demonstrated that breastfeeding can reduce the risk of infantile gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections, atopic disease, juvenile insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, respiratory infections, and otitis media. However, it is important to note that breastfeeding may not necessarily protect against other conditions such as ADHD, intussusception, or rickets.
Overall, breastfeeding is a natural and effective way to promote the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 99
Incorrect
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You encounter a 55-year-old woman who is currently on estrogen-only hormone-replacement therapy (HRT) and has a Mirena® levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) for endometrial protection (not contraception). She has been following this HRT regimen for the past 3 years. She is curious about when she should consider replacing her Mirena®. What guidance should you provide to this patient?
Your Answer: The LNG-IUS can be used until the menopause if inserted at age 45 or over, regardless of whether it is being used for contraception or endometrial protection as part of HRT regime
Correct Answer: She should have it changed every 4 years
Explanation:When women use an IUS for endometrial protection as part of their HRT regimen, they need to replace the device every 4 years according to the BNF or 5 years according to the FSRH. The Mirena® IUS is effective in protecting the endometrium from the effects of exogenous estrogen, and the BNF recommends its use for this purpose. However, if the Mirena® IUS is used for contraception and inserted after the age of 45, it can remain in place until menopause, even if the woman is still having periods.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old lady calls for telephone advice. She is 20 days postpartum and had unprotected sexual intercourse 72 hours ago. She has no significant medical history and doesn't take any regular medication. She is bottle-feeding her baby. She is uncertain if there is a possibility of pregnancy and if emergency contraception is necessary.
Which of the following would be the most suitable recommendation to provide in this situation?Your Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and oral levonorgestrel 1.5 mg and ulipristal acetate 30 mg are both safe to use as treatment options
Correct Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and oral ulipristal acetate 30 mg is the only safe treatment option
Explanation:Emergency Contraception Options After Childbirth
Oral levonorgestrel 1.5 mg and ulipristal acetate 30 mg are safe to use 21 days after childbirth, while the copper intrauterine device can be used for emergency contraception from day 28 postpartum. Among the three options, the copper intrauterine device is the most effective, with a pregnancy rate of approximately 1 in 1000.
It is important to note that the copper intrauterine device carries the same contraindications as when used for standard contraception. It can be retained until the next period then removed or kept in situ for ongoing long-term contraception. With these options available, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health after childbirth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was started on contraception by a colleague six months ago but is now experiencing irregular bleeding and weight gain. She is unsure if the contraceptive is causing her symptoms. The patient has a history of epilepsy and takes carbamazepine. She is a social smoker and has no family history.
During the examination, her body mass index is 28 kg/m², indicating a weight gain of 4 kg. Her blood pressure is 108/78 mmHg. What type of contraceptive is most likely to have been prescribed to her?Your Answer: Intrauterine device (IUD)
Correct Answer: Depo-provera injection
Explanation:Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that Noristerat, another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, is rarely used in clinical practice. It is given every 8 weeks. The BNF gives different advice regarding the interval between injections, stating that a pregnancy test should be done if the interval is greater than 12 weeks and 5 days. However, this is not commonly adhered to in the family planning community.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 102
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding hyperemesis gravidarum is accurate?
Your Answer: Ondansetron is first-line in women after 12 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a recognised complication
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 103
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What is the association between smoking during pregnancy and which outcome?
Your Answer: Greater risk of pre-eclampsia
Correct Answer: Low maternal weight gain
Explanation:Effects of Smoking During Pregnancy
Smoking during pregnancy has various effects on both the mother and the developing fetus. One positive effect is that pre-eclampsia, a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, is less likely to occur in smokers. However, there is an increased rate of spontaneous abortion and intrauterine growth may be retarded. Additionally, smoking increases the risk of prematurity, which can lead to various health complications for the baby. There is also an increase in perinatal mortality over the average, meaning that the risk of the baby dying before or shortly after birth is higher. Furthermore, smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of thromboembolism, a condition where a blood clot forms and blocks a blood vessel, which can be fatal for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, it is highly recommended for pregnant women to quit smoking to ensure the best possible outcomes for both themselves and their babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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