00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - For what scenarios is an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) appropriate? ...

    Incorrect

    • For what scenarios is an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) appropriate?

      Your Answer: A patient with history of endocarditis following prosthetic valve insertion

      Correct Answer: A patient with a history of ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Ectopic Pregnancy and Contraception

      According to the FSRH, a previous ectopic pregnancy is not an absolute contraindication to the use of intrauterine methods of contraception. In fact, the overall risk of ectopic pregnancy is reduced with the use of IUC when compared to using no contraception. However, if pregnancy does occur with an intrauterine method in situ, the risk of an ectopic pregnancy occurring is increased. In some studies, half of the pregnancies that occurred were ectopic.

      It is important to note that older editions of an Australian primary care textbook list an ectopic pregnancy as a contraindication. However, the latest FSRH advice is the reference on which the RCGP is likely to base their answers. Therefore, healthcare professionals should follow the most up-to-date guidelines when considering contraception options for patients with a history of ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      108.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at term without any complications. She is worried about his frequent feeding, especially in the evenings when he can nurse for hours and seems a bit more fussy than during the day. However, he has no vomiting and is producing an adequate amount of wet and dirty diapers. The mother wants to continue breastfeeding and reports that she feels comfortable during feedings with no pain. Upon examination, the baby appears well-hydrated and is not jaundiced. His temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all within normal range for his age. There are no concerns about his weight.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise to reduce feeds to every 3 hours and offer advice on other ways to settle during the evening

      Correct Answer: Offer reassurance, encourage continuing to breastfeed and offer signposting to local breastfeeding team for further support

      Explanation:

      Frequent feeding in a breastfed baby doesn’t necessarily indicate low milk supply in the mother. It is uncommon for a mother to have low milk supply, and if the baby is growing well and producing enough urine, it is a good sign that the milk supply is sufficient. In fact, frequent feeding or cluster feeding is normal in the early weeks and helps to establish a good milk supply. Breastfeeding mothers should be encouraged to seek support from local and national breastfeeding groups and consult with a trained professional to ensure proper infant positioning and latch.

      There is no need to refer the baby to a pediatrician at this stage. It is not recommended to supplement breastfeeding with formula, especially in the early weeks, as this can decrease milk supply. It is important to feed the baby on demand to stimulate milk production. If milk is not removed from the breast, milk production will decrease.

      While maternal prolactin deficiency is a rare cause of low milk supply, testing for it is not necessary in this scenario. If there are signs of low milk supply, such as a baby failing to thrive or becoming dehydrated, and after addressing positioning and latch issues, maternal prolactin deficiency may be considered. Factors that increase the likelihood of this condition include a history of maternal thyroid disorder, eating disorder, hypoplastic breasts, or breast surgery.

      For more information on breastfeeding problems, refer to the NICE clinical knowledge summary.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception following a planned surgical abortion. She is interested in getting an intra-uterine device inserted. What is the recommended waiting period after a surgical termination of pregnancy before getting an IUD fitted?

      Your Answer: It is contra-indicated to fit an intra-uterine device at any stage following a surgical termination of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: An intra-uterine device can be fitted immediately after evacuation of the uterine cavity

      Explanation:

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare recommends that an intrauterine contraceptive can be inserted right after the evacuation of the uterine cavity following a surgical abortion, provided that it is the woman’s preferred method of contraception.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman with a significant family history of diabetes is currently 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a significant family history of diabetes is currently 30 weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy.

      Upon completing the oral glucose tolerance test, she has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes, with a fasting glucose level of 7.3mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 9.2mmol/L.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Glibenclamide

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      Immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis. Glibenclamide may be considered for women who cannot tolerate metformin or do not achieve glucose targets with metformin but decline insulin therapy. If the fasting plasma glucose level is less than 7 mmol/L, lifestyle interventions such as a low glycemic index diet and exercise should be attempted first. If glucose targets are not achieved within 1-2 weeks of lifestyle measures, metformin may be initiated.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Linda, a 26-year-old woman, visits you a week after giving birth to her...

    Correct

    • Linda, a 26-year-old woman, visits you a week after giving birth to her first child because she feels exhausted. She had gestational diabetes during her pregnancy and stopped taking metformin and insulin after delivery. However, she is concerned that her fatigue may be due to persistent diabetes. She has not experienced any symptoms of polydipsia or polyuria. You suggest performing a capillary glucose test, which yields a result of 5 mmol/L. She feels relieved but asks if there is any additional follow-up required.

      When would you recommend that Linda have a fasting plasma glucose test to rule out ongoing diabetes after giving birth?

      Your Answer: 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      For women who have had gestational diabetes, it is recommended to offer a fasting plasma glucose test at 6 weeks after giving birth to rule out diabetes. This is in line with NICE guidelines, which suggest testing between 6-13 weeks postpartum. Testing at 10 days or 2 weeks is not sufficient to accurately assess the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. After 13 weeks, HbA1c testing can be used instead of fasting plasma glucose, but testing at 20 weeks or later is not recommended.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman is in the third week of her cycle (day 18)...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is in the third week of her cycle (day 18) and calls the surgery on the Monday morning after a weekend away with her boyfriend to say that she has missed three of her combined oral contraceptive pills.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for her?

      Your Answer: Take pills to the end of her third week and then start a new pack, missing the pill-free week

      Correct Answer: Take pills to the end of her third week, start a new pack and use barrier contraception for a week

      Explanation:

      Missed Birth Control Pills

      When a woman misses three or more birth control pills in the third week of her cycle, she should complete the third week but skip the pill-free period and start a new pack immediately. This advice is according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH). It is also recommended to use barrier contraception for seven days. On the other hand, if only one pill is missed, the woman can maintain the pill-free week. It is not usually necessary to extend the pill-free period beyond seven days. However, emergency contraception may be necessary depending on when the pills were missed. It is important to review the latest FSRH guidance before taking any exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman is expecting her third child. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is expecting her third child. She has a history of three uncomplicated vaginal deliveries but is currently dealing with gestational diabetes, varicose veins, and renal impairment. She is worried that her medical conditions and previous pregnancies could lead to complications in her current pregnancy. She visits her GP to discuss the potential risks and how they can be managed.

      What are the potential complications that this patient may face?

      Your Answer: Neonatal hyperglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Preterm labour

      Explanation:

      Preterm labour is a well-known complication for mothers with diabetes during pregnancy.

      Complications of Diabetes during Pregnancy

      Diabetes during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal complications may include polyhydramnios, which occurs in 25% of cases and may be due to fetal polyuria. Preterm labor is also a common complication, affecting 15% of cases and often associated with polyhydramnios.

      Neonatal complications may include macrosomia, although diabetes can also cause small for gestational age babies. Hypoglycemia is another common complication, which occurs due to beta cell hyperplasia. Respiratory distress syndrome may also occur, as surfactant production is delayed. Polycythemia can lead to neonatal jaundice, and malformation rates increase 3-4 fold, including sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Stillbirth, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and shoulder dystocia (which may cause Erb’s palsy) are also possible complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You see a 29-year-old woman who has recently become pregnant. She has well-controlled...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 29-year-old woman who has recently become pregnant. She has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health.

      At 12 weeks gestational age what should be initiated?

      Your Answer: Ascorbic acid

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the accuracy of using the combined oral contraceptive pill in women?...

    Correct

    • What is the accuracy of using the combined oral contraceptive pill in women?

      Your Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill may help to maintain bone mineral density

      Explanation:

      The use of the combined oral contraceptive pill could potentially alleviate certain symptoms experienced during perimenopause and help preserve bone mineral density.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents to you with concerns about...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents to you with concerns about her fertility. She has a history of oligomenorrhea and discontinued her use of combined oral contraceptive pills six months ago, but is still experiencing irregular periods. Her BMI is 28 kg/m^2. In addition to recommending weight loss, what is the most effective intervention to improve her chances of becoming pregnant?

      Your Answer: Bromocriptine

      Correct Answer: Clomifene

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating infertility in PCOS, clomifene is usually the first choice. Metformin can also be used, but only after anti-oestrogens like clomifene have been tried.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.

      Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Sarah is a 38-year-old woman with a body mass index of 35 kg/m2...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 38-year-old woman with a body mass index of 35 kg/m2 who has recently discovered she is expecting. She has a medical history of epilepsy, familial hypercholesterolaemia, type 2 diabetes, and sciatica.

      During her pregnancy, which medications should Sarah discontinue taking?

      Your Answer: Insulin

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Statin therapy should not be used during pregnancy due to potential risks. However, paracetamol is considered safe for use during pregnancy. Lamotrigine is preferred over other anti-epileptics due to a lower risk of neurodevelopmental effects on the foetus, but all pregnant women on anti-epileptics should take 5mg folic acid before conception and during the first trimester. Metformin and insulin are commonly used to treat diabetes during pregnancy. It is important to note that all statins should be avoided during pregnancy as they have been associated with congenital anomalies.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 35 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 35 weeks gestation and started on insulin therapy. She has not experienced any hypoglycaemic episodes since starting treatment. As her delivery is expected at around 40 weeks, she has been advised to consult her GP regarding driving. Currently, she holds a group 1 driving licence. What advice should be given to the patient regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Doesn't need to inform the DVLA. However, should check blood glucose two hours before driving and every two hours during the journey

      Explanation:

      Patients on insulin are not always required to inform the DVLA, except for those on temporary treatment for less than three months or those with gestational diabetes who are taking insulin for less than three months after delivery. If a patient falls under these exceptions, they can continue driving but must follow the guidelines for insulin-taking patients, which include checking their blood glucose two hours before driving and every two hours during the journey. It is incorrect to assume that a patient can continue driving as normal without any stipulations, even if they do not need to inform the DVLA.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a one-week history of morning sickness. She is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a one-week history of morning sickness. She is 10 weeks pregnant. She can keep down oral fluid but has vomited twice in the previous 24 hours. There are no acid reflux symptoms, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding or urinary symptoms.

      She takes folic acid and is not on any other medications.

      On examination, her temperature is 36.8ºC. Blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg and heart rate is 80/min. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urine B-HCG is positive and urine dipstick shows 1+ ketone only. There is no weight loss.

      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence on oral cyclizine

      Explanation:

      The first-line management for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy/hyperemesis gravidarum is antihistamines, specifically oral cyclizine. Second-line options include ondansetron and domperidone. Hospital admission may be necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral antiemetics or fluids, symptoms are not controlled with primary care management, or hyperemesis gravidarum is suspected. There is no indication for oral omeprazole in this case as the patient has not reported any dyspeptic symptoms.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant complains of a foul-smelling vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant complains of a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Apart from this, she has been in good health. Despite washing twice a day, the discharge has persisted and is causing her considerable embarrassment. Her partner is asymptomatic. What course of treatment would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis can still use oral metronidazole as it has been found to be safe during pregnancy. Bacterial vaginosis can increase the risk of premature birth and miscarriage. There is no evidence of any harmful effects on the fetus during the first trimester of pregnancy. The guidelines suggest treating symptomatic patients at any stage of pregnancy. While both metronidazole and oral clindamycin can enter breast milk, breastfeeding women are advised to use clindamycin intravaginal gel.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 29 year old woman with no pre-existing medical conditions has discovered that...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old woman with no pre-existing medical conditions has discovered that she is expecting her first child. She has been purchasing pricey pregnancy supplements from the pharmacy and wonders if they are truly essential. What are the daily supplements recommended by the NHS for all pregnant women (without any additional risk factors)?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 5mg for first 12 weeks

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 400mcg for first 12 weeks and vitamin D 10mcg throughout pregnancy

      Explanation:

      To reduce the risk of neural tube defects, women who are trying to conceive and up to 12 weeks into their pregnancy are recommended to take 400 mcg of folic acid. If there are additional risk factors, such as diabetes or a personal or family history of neural tube defects, a higher dose of 5mg is recommended. For bone health, a daily supplement of 10mcg of vitamin D is advised throughout pregnancy and breastfeeding. If a woman chooses to take a multivitamin during pregnancy, she should ensure that it doesn’t contain high doses of vitamin A (retinol) as it can cause birth defects.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You admit a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant to the obstetric ward....

    Incorrect

    • You admit a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant to the obstetric ward. She has been monitored for the past few weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension but has now developed proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 160/92 mmHg. What antihypertensive medication is most likely to be prescribed for her?

      Your Answer: Methyldopa

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension is typically treated with Labetalol as the initial medication.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Start exenatide only

      Correct Answer: Start insulin only

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate course of action for gestational diabetes is to commence insulin immediately if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis. While lifestyle changes and co-prescribing metformin should also be discussed, starting insulin is the priority. This is in line with NICE guidelines, which recommend immediate insulin initiation (with or without metformin) and lifestyle advice for glucose levels between 6 and 6.9 mmol/L, especially if there are complications such as macrosomia or hydramnios.

      Re-checking the glucose level in two weeks is not appropriate as uncontrolled hyperglycaemia can be dangerous for both the mother and the unborn child.

      Starting exenatide is not recommended during pregnancy as there is insufficient data on its safety. Studies in mice have shown adverse effects on fetal and neonatal growth and skeletal development.

      Starting metformin alone is not sufficient if the fasting glucose level is greater than 7 mmol/L. However, metformin can be prescribed in combination with insulin.

      A trial of lifestyle changes alone is not appropriate if the fasting glucose level is already above 7 mmol/L. If the level is below 7 mmol/L, lifestyle changes can be tried for 1-2 weeks, and if glucose targets are not met, metformin can be offered.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 20-year-old female is prescribed a 7 day course of amoxicillin for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female is prescribed a 7 day course of amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection. She is currently taking Cerazette (desogestrel). What advice should be given regarding contraception?

      Your Answer: Use condoms for 7 days, only antibiotic course if overlaps with pill free interval

      Correct Answer: There is no need for extra protections

      Explanation:

      Extra precautions are not necessary when taking antibiotics with the progestogen-only pill.

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).

      When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

      It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.

      Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman in her first pregnancy visits you at 30 weeks gestation...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman in her first pregnancy visits you at 30 weeks gestation complaining of itchiness. Upon examination, there is no rash present. After being referred to an obstetrician, she is diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid. During her visit, the patient mentions that her obstetrician mentioned something about her labor, but she is unsure.

      What plans need to be made for this patient's labor?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section at 40 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: Induction of labour at 37-38 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Due to the increased risk of stillbirth associated with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, induction of labour is typically recommended at 37-38 weeks gestation. Therefore, a normal labour is not appropriate for this patient. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used to treat the intense pruritus associated with this condition. While a caesarean section may be necessary on an emergency basis, it is not currently indicated at 37-38 weeks. Similarly, a caesarean section at 40 weeks is not currently necessary. Induction of labour at 40 weeks is later than the recommended timeline and may increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Understanding Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, early diagnosis and management of this condition is crucial for the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The practice nurse seeks your guidance on how to manage 23-year-old Sarah, who...

    Incorrect

    • The practice nurse seeks your guidance on how to manage 23-year-old Sarah, who is 29 weeks pregnant and has come for routine vaccinations. She reports experiencing ankle swelling and her blood pressure has increased from 117/74 mmHg at booking to 143/91 mmHg today. A urine dipstick test has revealed 1+ protein, - leukocytes, and - nitrites. What would be the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Review the patient in 1 week and repeat blood pressure and urine dip

      Correct Answer: Urgent admission to obstetric unit

      Explanation:

      Meera’s condition has progressed to pre-eclampsia, indicated by her blood pressure exceeding 140/90 mmHg and the presence of proteinuria at a level of 1+ or higher. As per NICE guidelines, it is imperative that she is promptly admitted to an obstetric unit for close observation and potential intervention.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 22-year-old woman presented with a history of 15 kg weight loss in...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presented with a history of 15 kg weight loss in the previous four months. She has been amenorrheic for some months.

      On examination she had fine lanugo hair and a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.

      Which one of the following laboratory results would support the most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Low plasma cortisol concentration

      Correct Answer: Low plasma testosterone concentration

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa and its Associated Hormonal Changes

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that affects many individuals. It is characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Patients with anorexia often experience hormonal changes that can have significant effects on their health.

      One of the most common hormonal changes associated with anorexia is functional hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. This condition is characterized by low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH). Despite this, plasma testosterone levels are typically normal in females with anorexia.

      Cortisol levels may also be affected in patients with anorexia. While they may be within the normal range, they may fail to suppress with dexamethasone. Additionally, basal levels of T3 may be depressed, while thyroxine (T4) and TSH levels may be normal. Finally, ferritin levels are often low in a state of malnutrition.

      Overall, anorexia nervosa can have significant effects on a patient’s hormonal balance. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these changes and to monitor patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old girl presents at the antenatal clinic.
    She is approximately six weeks pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old girl presents at the antenatal clinic.
      She is approximately six weeks pregnant and the pregnancy was unplanned. She has a two year history of grand mal epilepsy for which she takes carbamazepine. She has had no fits for approximately six months. She wants to continue with her pregnancy if it is safe to do so.
      She is worried about the anticonvulsant therapy and its effects on the baby. She asks how she should be managed.
      Which of the following management plans is the most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: Switch therapy to phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Stop carbamazepine until the second trimester

      Explanation:

      Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the patient and fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants may fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Prior to delivery, the mother should receive vitamin K. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She is having trouble retaining fluids and a urine dipstick reveals ketones ++. Which of the following is not linked to an elevated risk of this condition?

      Your Answer: Nulliparity

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      A lower occurrence of hyperemesis gravidarum is linked to smoking.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a repeat prescription of her combined oral...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a repeat prescription of her combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She is satisfied with this method as it has been effectively managing her acne. She reports no changes in her medical history but mentions that her aunt was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She seeks advice on the risks of the combined oral contraceptive pill and its impact on cancer.

      What is the appropriate guidance to provide her concerning the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk of bowel cancer

      Explanation:

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30 pills during a weekend trip. She usually remembers to take her pill but has missed days 10, 11, and 12 of her packet, and it is now day 13. Despite taking the day 13 pill this morning, she is worried about the possibility of pregnancy as she had unprotected sex while away. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: No action needed

      Correct Answer: No action needed but use condoms for next 7 days

      Explanation:

      The patient is protected for the next 7 days as she had taken the pill for 7 days in a row previously. According to the FSRH guidelines, emergency contraception is not required after taking seven consecutive pills. However, the guidelines suggest using condoms for the next 7 days in this scenario. Please refer to the provided link for more information.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - As a healthcare practitioner, it is important to assess pregnancy risk in women....

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare practitioner, it is important to assess pregnancy risk in women. When prescribing certain drugs, it is necessary to determine a woman's risk of pregnancy. What criteria can be used to reasonably determine that a woman is not currently pregnant if there are no signs or symptoms of pregnancy and she is within the first 7 days of a natural menstrual period, less than 4 weeks postpartum (non-breastfeeding), fully breastfeeding and amenorrhoeic AND less than 6 months postpartum, within the first 7 days after an abortion, miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy or uterine evacuation for gestational trophoblastic disease, has not had intercourse for >14 days AND has a negative high-sensitivity urine pregnancy test (able to detect hCG levels around 20 mIU/ml), or has been correctly and consistently using a reliable method of contraception?

      Your Answer: She has not had intercourse for >14 days AND has a negative high-sensitivity urine pregnancy test (able to detect hCG levels around 20 mIU/ml)

      Correct Answer: She is fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic AND less than 6 months postpartum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview

      Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).

      Barrier methods, such as condoms, act as a physical barrier and can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). However, their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people. Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation but increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and certain types of cancer. The progesterone-only pill thickens cervical mucous, but irregular bleeding is a common side effect.

      LARCs include implantable contraceptives, injectable contraceptives, and intrauterine devices (IUDs). The implantable contraceptive and injectable contraceptive both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous, with the implant lasting up to three years and the injection lasting 12 weeks. The IUD decreases sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system (IUS) prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous, with irregular bleeding being a common side effect.

      In summary, understanding the different types of contraception available and their methods of action can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old man comes to your GP clinic seeking advice on infertility. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to your GP clinic seeking advice on infertility. He and his partner have been attempting to conceive for 2 years. He is in good health and doesn't take any regular medications. He is a non-smoker and has a BMI of 24 kg/m2. There is no history of testicular torsion or sexually transmitted infections. His blood pressure and genital examination are normal. His partner has consulted her GP, who is arranging some blood tests for her.

      What investigations should be conducted for this man?

      Your Answer: Blood test for antisperm antibodies

      Correct Answer: Semen sample and chlamydia testing

      Explanation:

      For men with infertility, NICE suggests that the first primary care investigations should include semen analysis and chlamydia screening using a first void urine sample. Additionally, a clinical examination should be conducted to check for any indications of hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, or scrotal masses. It is recommended that a semen sample be produced after abstaining for at least 2 days but no more than 7 days. However, NICE doesn’t recommend screening for antisperm antibodies.

      Understanding Infertility: Initial Investigations and Key Counselling Points

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. However, it is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sex will conceive within 1 year, and 92% within 2 years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      To determine the cause of infertility, basic investigations are typically conducted. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test, which is done 7 days prior to the expected next period. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if the level is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it consistently remains low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      In addition to these investigations, there are key counselling points that should be addressed. These include advising the patient to take folic acid, aiming for a BMI between 20-25, and having regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Patients should also be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption.

      By understanding the initial investigations and key counselling points for infertility, healthcare professionals can provide their patients with the necessary information and support to help them conceive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her lab results. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her lab results. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has undergone a glucose tolerance test.

      The lab findings are as follows:

      Fasting glucose 6.9 mmol/L
      2-hour glucose 8.5 mmol/L

      What would be the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      If a woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and her fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l, immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated.

      In this scenario, the patient’s fasting glucose level is above 7 mmol/L, indicating the need for immediate insulin therapy (with or without metformin). The diagnosis of gestational diabetes is based on a fasting plasma glucose level of > 5.6 mmol/L or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of >/= 7.8 mmol/L.

      While dietary advice is an essential aspect of diabetes management, it is not sufficient in this case due to the elevated fasting glucose level.

      Gliclazide is not a suitable option for gestational diabetes treatment because sulfonylureas are not recommended during pregnancy due to the risk of neonatal hypoglycemia.

      Metformin may be used in the management of gestational diabetes, but in cases where the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L, insulin is the preferred treatment option. Insulin and metformin can be used together to manage gestational diabetes.

      Since both the fasting glucose and 2-hour glucose levels are elevated, there is no need to repeat the test as the diagnosis of gestational diabetes is conclusive.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman with two children visits your clinic seeking contraception. You have...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with two children visits your clinic seeking contraception. You have ruled out pregnancy or the risk of it. She is in a committed relationship and is going on vacation with her partner tomorrow. Neither of them wants to use condoms, and abstinence will be challenging while on vacation. She had her last period ten days ago and has not had sex since then. If there are no contraindications and she finds the method acceptable, what is the most appropriate contraception for her?

      Your Answer: Progesterone-only pill

      Correct Answer: Mirena coil

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Methods and Timing

      The timing of contraceptive methods is crucial to their effectiveness. The copper-bearing intrauterine device can be used at any time during the menstrual cycle, as long as pregnancy has been reasonably excluded. It doesn’t require any additional contraception. However, if a woman starts taking the combined oral contraceptive pill on day six or later of her menstrual cycle, she needs to use additional contraception or avoid sexual intercourse for seven days. The same applies to the Mirena coil if it is inserted from day eight onwards of the menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and implant also require additional contraception or avoidance of sexual intercourse if started from day six onwards of the menstrual cycle. It is important to understand the timing requirements of each contraceptive method to ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy with complaints of severe itching all over her body that is causing her sleepless nights. She reports experiencing a mild stomach bug, which has resulted in abdominal pain and loss of appetite. During the examination, you notice excoriation marks due to her constant scratching. What would be the most suitable course of action to manage her condition?

      Your Answer: Advise regular emollient use

      Correct Answer: Arrange a same-day obstetric referral

      Explanation:

      Obstetric cholestasis is the primary cause of itch during pregnancy that is not accompanied by a rash. To diagnose obstetric cholestasis, doctors should look for symptoms such as itchiness that begins in the third trimester, starts on the palms and soles before spreading upwards, worsens at night, and causes severe scratching that leads to excoriation marks. Additionally, patients may report anorexia, malaise, and abdominal pain, which are also associated with obstetric cholestasis.

      If a woman displays any of these symptoms, it is recommended that she be admitted to the hospital or referred to an obstetrician on the same day. In secondary care, liver function tests are conducted to confirm the diagnosis, and treatment may include ursodeoxycholic acid and sedating antihistamines.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A teenage girl with epilepsy is interested in taking the oral contraceptive pill....

    Correct

    • A teenage girl with epilepsy is interested in taking the oral contraceptive pill. She has been informed that some medications for epilepsy may impact the effectiveness of the pill.
      Which anti-epileptic medication triggers liver enzymes and can potentially decrease the potency of the oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      AEDs and their effect on oral contraceptive pill efficacy

      The metabolism of oestrogen and progestogen is increased by anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) that induce cytochrome P450. These drugs can be strong inducers, such as carbamazepine, or weaker inducers, such as topiramate. Phenytoin is a strong enzyme inducer. It should be noted that women using lamotrigine should be advised that seizure frequency may increase when initiating the oral contraceptive pill. Additionally, lamotrigine side effects may increase in the pill-free interval or when discontinuing the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is important to consider the potential effects of AEDs on the efficacy of the oral contraceptive pill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant with her first baby comes...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant with her first baby comes to the clinic complaining of a headache. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities are found. Her blood pressure reads 152/93 mmHg. A urine dip test shows proteinuria but no signs of infection.

      What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer immediately to hospital

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia is characterized by a new-onset blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or higher after 20 weeks of pregnancy, along with either proteinuria or organ dysfunction. In this case, the patient has both high blood pressure and proteinuria, indicating a need for immediate evaluation by the obstetric team in secondary care. Hospitalization and Antihypertensive treatment may be necessary, and delivery may need to be expedited to resolve the condition and prevent complications such as eclamptic fits, coagulation problems, and liver dysfunction.

      Given the potential for rapid deterioration, it is not appropriate for the patient to wait for a routine review with her midwife. While labetalol is commonly used to control blood pressure in women with pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia, it should only be initiated and managed under the direction of a specialist. Bisoprolol is not typically used in the treatment of pre-eclampsia.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 28-year-old female has been experiencing a throbbing headache on one side for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female has been experiencing a throbbing headache on one side for the past day. She is currently 34 weeks pregnant and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy so far. On examination, her reflexes are normal, there is no papilloedema, and her blood pressure is 136/88 mmHg. Prior to becoming pregnant, she would typically use ibuprofen or aspirin to alleviate her headaches, which was effective.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's headache?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for migraines during pregnancy is paracetamol, which is likely to be effective for this patient experiencing a pulsating headache on one side. Aspirin and ibuprofen should be avoided in the third trimester due to the risk of fetal ductal arteriosus closure. Sumatriptan is not considered first-line and should only be used if the potential benefits outweigh the risks, according to the manufacturer’s advice.

      Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.

      When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.

      In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 17-year-old patient presents requesting emergency contraception after unprotected intercourse the previous evening....

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old patient presents requesting emergency contraception after unprotected intercourse the previous evening. She would also like to start a contraceptive pill as she has no regular form of contraception at the moment. She is not sure where she is in her menstrual cycle as her periods are irregular. She smokes 5 cigarettes a day. Her past medical history includes asthma and appendicectomy. Her blood pressure is 102/66 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 28 kg/m.²

      What factor in the history above needs to be taken into consideration for the dosage of the latter?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure

      Correct Answer: Body mass index

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel dosage should be increased for individuals with a BMI greater than 26 or a weight exceeding 70 kg.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What are the blood tests that women in the UK receive as part...

    Incorrect

    • What are the blood tests that women in the UK receive as part of their routine antenatal screening program?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Correct Answer: Strep B

      Explanation:

      Pathogens and Pregnancy: What You Need to Know

      Although various pathogens can colonize and infect the vagina during pregnancy, only syphilis is routinely tested for. Adequate treatment of syphilis before 18 weeks of pregnancy can prevent infection of the fetus, while treatment after 18 weeks can cure an infected fetus. Failure to treat syphilis can result in congenital syphilis, which can have long-term consequences.

      herpesvirus is not routinely screened for during pregnancy, but if a woman contracts genital herpes for the first time during the first trimester, there is a small risk of miscarriage. If first infection occurs later in the pregnancy, a caesarean section may be offered to prevent the baby from coming into contact with active sores. The risk of passing on a newly caught infection to the baby during vaginal birth is about 4 in 10, but neonatal herpes is very rare in the UK, affecting only 1-2 in every 100,000 babies born.

      Strep B is not routinely tested for during pregnancy, but about one in five pregnant women in the UK carry group B Streptococci bacteria. While most pregnant women who carry these bacteria have healthy babies, there is a small risk that infection can pass to the baby during childbirth. Group B Strep infection in newborn babies can cause serious complications that can be life-threatening, and even with the best medical care, one in 10 babies diagnosed with early-onset infection will die.

      HPV and gonorrhea are not routinely tested for during pregnancy. It is important for pregnant women to discuss any concerns about sexually transmitted infections with their healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcomes for themselves and their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - You encounter a 45-year-old woman in your women's health clinic. She is perimenopausal...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 45-year-old woman in your women's health clinic. She is perimenopausal with irregular periods and some vasomotor symptoms that she is managing well. She had been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for birth control, but since her divorce, she no longer needs it. However, she has noticed that it helps with her menopausal symptoms, which worsen during the pill-free week, and is hesitant to discontinue it. She has no significant medical history, and her blood pressure and BMI are within normal limits. She has never smoked.

      Which of the following statements regarding the COCP is accurate?

      Your Answer: The COCP is associated with an increased risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: The COCP may help to maintain bone mineral density in the perimenopause

      Explanation:

      Using combined hormonal contraceptive pills (CHC) can be beneficial for women in their 40s and beyond. It can reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviate menopausal symptoms. CHC with levonorgestrel or norethisterone are recommended as they have a lower risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other progestogens. However, it is important to note that there are risks associated with CHC use, and women should be informed of these before deciding to use it. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health advises that CHC can be used until age 50, but after that, women should switch to non-hormonal methods as the risks of CHC generally outweigh the benefits. Women who wish to continue using CHC after age 50 should be assessed on an individual basis. Extended or continuous CHC regimens can also be used for contraception and to manage menstrual or menopausal symptoms. Additionally, CHC is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that can last for several decades after stopping use. Finally, CHC may help maintain bone mineral density during the perimenopause compared to not using hormones.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 50-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of severe menopausal symptoms such...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of severe menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes, night sweats, low mood and anxiety, and difficulties with memory and concentration. She has a history of an inherited thrombophilia and has previously experienced one pulmonary embolism and three deep vein thromboses that required treatment. Despite trying various home remedies suggested by reliable websites, she is still struggling and is interested in starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to alleviate her symptoms.

      What would be your approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Advise her she can not take any hormonal-based treatment and give her advice on lifestyle modifications

      Correct Answer: Refer to haematology for review

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women who are at high risk of VTE and are seeking HRT should be referred to a haematologist before starting any treatment, even if it is transdermal. While the risk of VTE associated with HRT is higher for oral preparations than transdermal ones, the risk for transdermal HRT at standard therapeutic doses is not greater than the baseline risk. However, for women with a significant baseline risk, such as those with a strong family history of VTE or a hereditary thrombophilia, referral to a haematologist for assessment is recommended before considering HRT. Therefore, all options that suggest prescribing HRT are incorrect, with oral prescription being the most problematic. It is not enough to advise this woman to manage her symptoms conservatively, as there is clear guidance to refer her to a specialist for additional help.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.

      Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.

      In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and antiphospholipid syndrome is expecting...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and antiphospholipid syndrome is expecting a baby. What should she avoid during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Levothyroxine

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should not take warfarin and are typically prescribed low-molecular weight heparin instead throughout their pregnancy.

      Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients

      When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.

      In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 26-year-old woman seeks guidance regarding her worsening menstrual migraines over the past...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman seeks guidance regarding her worsening menstrual migraines over the past few months. She is currently experiencing a migraine that has persisted for 24 hours despite taking paracetamol and aspirin. What would be the most suitable course of action to alleviate her headache?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan

      Explanation:

      An appropriate substitute would be mefenamic acid in oral form.

      Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.

      When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.

      In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old female attends surgery requesting a sterilisation because she has completed her...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female attends surgery requesting a sterilisation because she has completed her family.

      You discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the procedure with her fully.

      Which of the following pieces of information would you give?

      Your Answer: Overall failure rates of the procedure are approximately 1 in 200

      Explanation:

      Sterilisation as a Permanent Contraceptive Method

      Sterilisation is a permanent contraceptive method with an overall failure rate of approximately 1 per 200. However, the individual failure rate may be lower depending on the method used. It is important to note that sterilisation should be considered permanent, even though reversal is possible. This is because it is an operation performed with the intention of being permanent and reversal cannot be guaranteed.

      The proportion of women expressing regret after undergoing sterilisation varies between different studies and different countries but tends to range from 3% to 10% in the United Kingdom. Sterilisation is usually done laparoscopically, although methods involving a vaginal approach are possible.

      It is crucial to counsel patients about the effectiveness of other contraceptive methods that are as effective as sterilisation. Patients may not be aware of this, and it may alter their decision. For some, a long-acting form of contraception such as the intrauterine system (Mirena) may be more acceptable and preferable. Therefore, it is essential to discuss all available options with patients to help them make an informed decision about their contraceptive choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Isabella is a 26-year-old woman who is seeking a termination of pregnancy at...

    Incorrect

    • Isabella is a 26-year-old woman who is seeking a termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. As a first-time pregnant individual, she is worried about the potential impact of a surgical abortion on her future fertility. What advice should be given to address her concerns?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of stillborn

      Correct Answer: No evidence of impact on future fertility

      Explanation:

      The patient should be informed that their future fertility is not impacted by the abortion and there is no association with placenta praevia, ectopic pregnancy, stillborn or miscarriage. However, they should also be made aware of the potential complications that may arise from the procedure. These include severe bleeding, uterine perforation (surgical abortion only), and cervical trauma (surgical abortion only). The risks of these complications are lower for early abortions and those performed by experienced clinicians. In the event that one of these complications occurs, further treatment such as blood transfusion, laparoscopy or laparotomy may be required. Additionally, infection may occur after medical or surgical abortion, but this risk can be reduced through prophylactic antibiotic use and bacterial screening for lower genital tract infection.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you for contraceptive advice. She is 30 days...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you for contraceptive advice. She is 30 days postpartum and has not engaged in sexual activity since giving birth. She had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery following a routine antenatal period. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and has no notable family history. On examination, her blood pressure is 106/80, and her body mass index is 23. She is currently breastfeeding her baby. Which of the following contraceptive options should she not start using right away?

      Your Answer: Progestogen-only injectable

      Correct Answer: Combined hormonal contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Initiation of Combined Hormonal Contraception Postpartum

      Combined hormonal contraception can be safely started by eligible women 21 days after giving birth, provided they have no other risk factors for venous thromboembolism and are not breastfeeding. However, women who breastfeed and want to use combined hormonal contraception should wait until six weeks postpartum, regardless of whether they have additional risk factors for VTE. Studies have shown conflicting effects of combined oral contraception on breastfeeding, with some indicating less weight gain in infants of users compared to non-users when started at or before six weeks postpartum. No study has demonstrated an effect on infant weight gain when initiated after six weeks postpartum. It is important for healthcare providers to consider individual patient factors and preferences when discussing contraceptive options postpartum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A female patient in her 40s is expressing deep concern about her lack...

    Incorrect

    • A female patient in her 40s is expressing deep concern about her lack of sexual desire over the last half year.

      When evaluating diminished libido in women, what is accurate to consider?

      Your Answer: Lubricants can provide a long term solution

      Correct Answer: Tibolone can improve lack of libido in postmenopausal women

      Explanation:

      Managing Low Libido in Menopausal Women

      Lubricants can provide temporary relief for menopausal women experiencing low libido, but they require frequent application and may not address the underlying issue. Measuring testosterone levels is not a reliable method for diagnosing low libido in menopausal women. While testosterone patches can benefit naturally menopausal women, they are currently only licensed for use in women who have had their ovaries removed. However, it is important to note that the postmenopausal ovary does produce testosterone. Tibolone is a medication that has been shown to improve low libido in postmenopausal women. It is important for women experiencing low libido to discuss their symptoms with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on how to manage...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on how to manage her urge incontinence.

      What is the initial management strategy for women with urge or mixed urinary incontinence?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Correct Answer: Bladder training

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence

      Bladder training is a highly effective treatment for urge or mixed incontinence. It has fewer adverse effects and lower relapse rates compared to antimuscarinic drugs, which are the next line of treatment. On the other hand, pelvic floor muscle training is recommended as the first line of treatment for stress incontinence symptoms.

      Duloxetine is only recommended for stress incontinence and may be offered as a second-line treatment for women who prefer pharmacological treatment over surgery. However, modification of fluid intake is not routinely recommended. It is only recommended if fluid intake is high or low and in cases of urinary incontinence or overactive bladder.

      In summary, there are various treatment options available for urinary incontinence, depending on the type and severity of the symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following is the least commonly associated with antiphospholipid syndrome during...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least commonly associated with antiphospholipid syndrome during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Correct Answer: Placenta praevia

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid Syndrome and Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that increases the risk of both venous and arterial blood clots, recurrent miscarriage, and low platelet count. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other illnesses, such as systemic lupus erythematosus. When a woman with antiphospholipid syndrome becomes pregnant, there are several potential complications that may arise, including pre-eclampsia, placental abruption, and preterm delivery.

      To manage these risks, low-dose aspirin is typically prescribed as soon as the pregnancy is confirmed through a urine test. Once a fetal heartbeat is detected on ultrasound, low molecular weight heparin is added to the treatment plan. This medication is usually discontinued at 34 weeks gestation. These interventions have been shown to increase the live birth rate by seven-fold. It is important for women with antiphospholipid syndrome to work closely with their healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcome for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Sophie is 25 years old and has come to you seeking contraception. She...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is 25 years old and has come to you seeking contraception. She is currently using condoms and doesn't believe she is at risk of pregnancy. She smokes 4 cigarettes a day, has a body mass index of 22 kg/m², and a blood pressure of 120/65 mmHg. She has no personal or family history of blood clots, heart disease, strokes, or migraines. Sophie has a regular 30-day menstrual cycle and is on day 3 of her cycle. She wants to start contraception immediately and you decide to prescribe Yasmin. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: She can start the combined oral contraceptive pill today but she needs to use barrier protection for 2 days

      Correct Answer: She can start the combined oral contraceptive pill today but she needs to use barrier protection for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Extra precautions should be taken during the first 7 days of starting the combined oral contraceptive pill as it doesn’t provide immediate protection when initiated on day 6 of the menstrual cycle. Women over the age of 35 who smoke should not use this form of contraception.

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.

      Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is the accurate statement about the connection between IUDs and PID? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the connection between IUDs and PID?

      Your Answer: Decreased risk in first 20 days then returns to normal

      Correct Answer: Increased risk in first 20 days then returns to normal

      Explanation:

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The coil was implanted 4 years ago to treat dysfunctional uterine bleeding. She has not had any menstrual periods for 3 years and is uncertain if it should be taken out. She is currently on elleste solo 1 mg to alleviate menopausal symptoms and was informed that the Mirena was a component of her hormone replacement therapy. What is the duration of the Mirena coil's license for this purpose?

      Your Answer: 5 years

      Correct Answer: 4 years

      Explanation:

      The license for using Mirena as endometrial protection for women on oestrogen-only HRT is limited to 4 years. Similarly, intrauterine contraceptives are licensed for a duration of 3 years.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 27-year-old woman is worried about her contraception. She is currently taking rigevidon...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is worried about her contraception. She is currently taking rigevidon but has forgotten to take the last two pills due to misplacing her medication. She is concerned about the possibility of pregnancy. Her pill-free break started 16 days ago, and she had unprotected sex 2 days ago.

      What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Continue as normal with 2 days of additional precautions

      Correct Answer: Continue as normal with 7 days of additional precautions

      Explanation:

      If a person misses two pills between days 8-14 of their cycle while taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) correctly for the previous seven days, emergency contraception is not necessary. This is the case for a patient who is currently in the second week of taking the pill and has had unprotected sex during this time. However, they should use additional precautions for the next seven days. Emergency contraception would only be necessary if the patient had unprotected sex during the first week of taking the pill or during the pill-free week, or if they had not taken at least seven consecutive pills prior to the episode of unprotected sex. It is important to use additional precautions for seven days, rather than restarting the pill as normal or with only two days of additional precautions. The pill-free interval doesn’t need to be omitted if the patient misses pills only during the second week of taking the pill.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - You assess a 31-year-old patient who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving despite...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 31-year-old patient who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving despite regular intercourse for 9 months. The patient is in good health and has no history of sexually transmitted infections. Menstrual periods have always been irregular, with months between menses. The patient's BMI is 20 kg/m² and physical examination is unremarkable.

      Semen analysis shows normal results. The patient's blood test results are as follows:

      Reference Range (female)
      Day 21 progesterone (nmol/L) 16 >30
      LH (mUI/mL) 22 3.3-100
      FSH (mUI/mL) 8 <30
      Total testosterone (nmol/L) 3.6 <2.7
      Prolactin (mIU/L) 325 <700
      SHBG (nmol/L) 20 19-145

      What is the most appropriate initial step to enhance the couple's chances of conceiving?

      Your Answer: Weight loss

      Correct Answer: Clomifene

      Explanation:

      Couples, including those with fertility issues, have a 15-20% chance of conceiving naturally within a year through regular unprotected sexual intercourse. However, this patient’s PCOS condition, which causes ovulation insufficiency, may prolong the process. Hence, a referral is necessary for assistance, and treatment with clomifene to stimulate ovulation would be suitable.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.

      Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 55-year-old female attends the GP surgery to discuss treatment for the menopause....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female attends the GP surgery to discuss treatment for the menopause.

      Her last period was 14 months ago. She has been experiencing low mood, which has been attributed to the menopause, but there are no symptoms of overt depression. She has a past history of breast cancer, treated three years ago. She is currently taking Tamoxifen. She has no allergies. She would like treatment for her symptoms.

      What is the most suitable course of action for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Hormone Therapy Contraindicated in Breast Cancer Patient

      Hormone therapies are not an option for a woman with a history of breast cancer due to contraindications. This rules out all hormone therapy options. Additionally, fluoxetine, which inhibits the enzyme that converts tamoxifen to its active metabolite, should not be used in this case. This is because it reduces the amount of active drug that is released.

      The most appropriate treatment option for low mood in the absence of depression is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). While it may not help with menopausal flashes, it is recommended by NICE and is the best choice from the list of options provided.

      Overall, it is important to consider a patient’s medical history and any contraindications before prescribing any treatment options. In this case, hormone therapy and fluoxetine are not suitable, and CBT is the recommended course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 35-year-old woman comes to your morning clinic seeking guidance. She delivered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to your morning clinic seeking guidance. She delivered a baby four months ago and is considering having another pregnancy. Current research indicates that a brief interval between pregnancies is linked to a higher chance of preterm labor, low birth weight, and a baby that is small for gestational age.

      What is the minimum duration you should suggest to your patient to wait after giving birth before attempting to conceive again?

      Your Answer: 36 months

      Correct Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Having a short inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again can lead to a higher likelihood of preterm birth, low birthweight, and small for gestational age babies. Women should be informed of this risk, and it is currently recommended by the World Health Organisation to wait at least 24 months after childbirth before getting pregnant again. It is important to note that the risk associated with a short inter-pregnancy interval is still relatively low.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 27-year-old woman presents to you after experiencing a condom break during intercourse...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to you after experiencing a condom break during intercourse with her partner last night. She is currently on day 14 of her 28-day menstrual cycle and reports that she was previously taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but has not had time to obtain a refill since it ran out 2 months ago. She is seeking emergency contraception today and plans to resume taking the combined oral contraceptive pill as soon as possible.

      What recommendation would you make in this situation?

      Your Answer: Take EllaOne today, start combined pill in 5 days time and use condoms for the next 5 days

      Correct Answer: Take EllaOne today, start combined pill in 5 days time and use condoms for the next 12 days

      Explanation:

      The effectiveness of hormonal contraception may be reduced by EllaOne. To ensure proper contraception, individuals using the pill, patch, or ring should wait 5 days after taking Ulipristal before starting or restarting their contraception. During this period, it is recommended to use barrier methods.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about her mental health...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about her mental health after struggling to adjust to the birth of her first child a week ago. She reports feeling disorganised, experiencing auditory hallucinations, and having a low mood. She also mentions a previous miscarriage two years ago that was a difficult time for her. Is there an increased risk for this patient to develop this mental health condition again in a future pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 30-70%

      Correct Answer: 25-50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 45-year-old lady comes to see you regarding her copper intrauterine device (Cu-IUD)....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old lady comes to see you regarding her copper intrauterine device (Cu-IUD). The device contains >300 mm² of copper. She had it inserted 2 years ago and would like to know how long it can be used for before it needs removing.

      What sentence below is correct regarding removing the Cu-IUD and this patient?

      Your Answer: The Cu-IUD can remain in situ until 1 year after the last menstrual period (LMP) if it occurs when the woman is 50 or older

      Explanation:

      The copper IUD can be used until menopause if inserted at age 40 or over, according to the FSRH. It can remain in place for 1 year after the last menstrual period if the woman is over 50, or 2 years if she is under 50. It should not be left in place indefinitely due to the risk of infection.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of vulval itch and irritation....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of vulval itch and irritation. Upon examination, an area of inflammation and excoriation is found. She has no other dermatological conditions and is in a stable relationship.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: She can be managed with a topical steroid and antifungal preparation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vulvovaginitis

      Vulvovaginitis is a common condition that can have various causes, including lichen sclerosus, VIN, and other dermatological conditions. However, in young women, an inflammatory vulval dermatitis is often the culprit, triggered by factors such as soaps, frequent washing, perfumes, sanitary towels, douching, or candidiasis.

      The initial treatment for this condition typically involves a combination of topical steroid and antifungal preparations. While STI screening and specialist referrals are not usually necessary, it’s important to offer a chaperone during same-sex examinations and consider them mandatory for opposite-sex examinations.

      It’s worth noting that lack of estrogen is not typically a cause of vulvovaginitis, and vulval biopsy is not usually indicated based on the information available. By understanding the causes and appropriate treatments for vulvovaginitis, healthcare providers can help their patients manage this common condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 27-year-old female has been experiencing headaches for a while. She reports having...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female has been experiencing headaches for a while. She reports having 2-3 headaches per month over the past few months, each lasting for 2-3 days. The headaches are usually pulsating and on one side. She is generally healthy, active, and takes the mini-pill for birth control. She lives with her partner and works as a teacher in a primary school.

      Which of the following treatment options is not recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing recurrent migraines with classic symptoms such as unilateral and pulsating headache. However, topiramate is not the best option as it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception, including both the combined oral contraceptive pill and the progestogen-only pill (UKMEC 3 (disadvantages outweigh advantages)). Instead, alternative options such as triptans and NSAIDs can be used as monotherapy or in combination for acute treatment. Propranolol is also a suitable preventative treatment for women who are of childbearing age or those who are on hormonal contraceptives.

      Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations

      Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.

      Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.

      Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 16-year-old primigravida reports experiencing constipation and arthralgia during her 28th week of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old primigravida reports experiencing constipation and arthralgia during her 28th week of pregnancy. Several biochemical tests are conducted, but which one holds clinical significance?

      Your Answer: Detectable urinary human chorionic gonadotrophin

      Correct Answer: Serum corrected calcium 2.89 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of Patient’s Symptoms

      This patient is exhibiting symptoms that suggest hypercalcaemia, which is a clinically significant condition. It is important to note that the free T4 level is at the lower end of the normal range, which is common during pregnancy. Therefore, TSH is a better indicator of thyroid function. Additionally, hyperprolactinaemia and detectable urinary human chorionic gonadotrophin are normal findings during pregnancy. It is also typical for serum alkaline phosphatase levels to increase up to four times the normal range due to increased placental production.

      Overall, it is essential to consider the patient’s pregnancy status when interpreting their symptoms and laboratory results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 27-year-old female patient comes to you with a query about the Mirena®...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient comes to you with a query about the Mirena® coil she had inserted during her travels in Australia. She wants to know the duration for which it is licensed.

      How long is the IUS licensed for in this case?

      Your Answer: 10 years

      Correct Answer: 3 years

      Explanation:

      The Jaydess IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena coil. The Mirena coil is licensed for 5 years, while the Kyleena IUS has 19.5mg LNG and is also licensed for 5 years. The copper IUD is licensed for 5 years.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 27-year-old woman contacts you seeking advice. She has been taking Microgynon 30...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman contacts you seeking advice. She has been taking Microgynon 30 for contraception for the past two years. However, she recently went on a weekend trip with her partner and forgot to take her pills, missing two in a row. She had regular intercourse with her partner during the weekend. Today, she is supposed to take the 19th pill of the packet and claims not to have missed any other pills. You advise her to take two pills as soon as possible. What further advice should you give her?

      Your Answer: Use condoms for the next 7 days + skip the 7 day break

      Explanation:

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her worried partner. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her worried partner. She has been exhibiting erratic behavior and mood swings since giving birth to their daughter 10 days ago. During the appointment, she seems restless and agitated.

      According to her partner, she has been avoiding sleep due to her fear that something terrible might happen to their baby. The woman has a history of depression but has not taken her fluoxetine medication for the past 6 months due to concerns about potential complications.

      What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Restart fluoxetine at a low dose, titrating to control symptoms

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for urgent assessment

      Explanation:

      The appropriate course of action for a woman exhibiting symptoms of agitation and paranoid delusions after giving birth is to admit her to the hospital for urgent assessment. This is likely a case of postpartum psychosis, which is different from postnatal depression. Prescribing medication to aid in sleep or reassuring the patient that her low mood will improve with time are not appropriate options in this case. Gradual titration of medication would also not manage her acute symptoms and ensure the safety of herself and her baby. Ideally, she should be admitted to a Mother & Baby Unit for proper care.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any troublesome vaginal discharge or any unscheduled bleeding. She says that she has no unscheduled bleeding and that she has always had a very slight, clear, intermittent vaginal discharge. She has no other symptoms and is in a stable relationship.

      What is the most probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: The most likely cause is bacterial vaginosis

      Correct Answer: The most likely cause is a physiological discharge

      Explanation:

      Causes of Vaginal Discharge in Women

      This woman is experiencing occasional vaginal discharge. There are several potential causes of vaginal discharge, including candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, and physiological discharge. Candidiasis is typically associated with itch and a thick discharge, while bacterial vaginosis is often intermittent and accompanied by a profuse and smelly discharge. However, given the patient’s age and stable relationship, physiological discharge is the most likely cause.

      In this case, it may not be necessary to conduct a speculum exam unless the patient specifically requests it. Initially, the patient can be reassured without further investigation. However, if investigation is deemed necessary, a self-taken lower vaginal swab would be a reasonable option.

      It is important to note that normality is a common theme in the MRCGP exam, and understanding the various causes of vaginal discharge is an important aspect of primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A mother brings her 5 year-old daughter to clinic with a widespread rash....

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 5 year-old daughter to clinic with a widespread rash. You diagnose Chickenpox. You know her mother, who is also a patient at the practice, is currently 25 weeks pregnant with her second child. Should you take any action regarding her exposure to Chickenpox?

      Your Answer: Offer her varicella vaccination

      Correct Answer: Enquire as to her Chickenpox history

      Explanation:

      When pregnant women are exposed to Chickenpox, it is important to inquire about their prior history of the infection. If they are uncertain or have not had it before, it is recommended to test for varicella antibodies. In cases where they are found to be non-immune, varicella immunoglobulin should be considered. This treatment can be administered at any stage of pregnancy and is effective for up to 10 days following exposure.

      Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

      To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.

      If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 23-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment. She has recently become sexually active...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment. She has recently become sexually active and wants to start using long term contraception as she and her partner do not plan on having children anytime soon. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer a decade ago, and the patient, along with her family, underwent testing at that time, revealing that she has a BRCA1 mutation.

      As per the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH), what is the safest contraception method?

      Your Answer: Progesterone only oral contraceptive

      Correct Answer: Copper coil

      Explanation:

      If a woman has a suspected or personal history of breast cancer or a confirmed BRCA mutation, the safest form of contraception for her is the copper coil. The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use (UKMEC) provides guidelines for the choice of contraception, grading non-barrier contraceptives on a scale of 1-4 based on a woman’s personal circumstances. Contraceptive methods that fall under category 1 or 2 are generally considered safe for use in primary care. In this case, all forms of contraception except the combined pill (category 3) can be offered, with the copper coil being the safest option as it falls under category 1.

      Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview

      Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).

      Barrier methods, such as condoms, act as a physical barrier and can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). However, their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people. Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation but increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and certain types of cancer. The progesterone-only pill thickens cervical mucous, but irregular bleeding is a common side effect.

      LARCs include implantable contraceptives, injectable contraceptives, and intrauterine devices (IUDs). The implantable contraceptive and injectable contraceptive both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous, with the implant lasting up to three years and the injection lasting 12 weeks. The IUD decreases sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system (IUS) prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous, with irregular bleeding being a common side effect.

      In summary, understanding the different types of contraception available and their methods of action can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Sophie is a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered that she is pregnant,...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered that she is pregnant, around 10 weeks. She has come to seek advice on what to do about her cervical screening, which is due at this time. Sophie had a normal smear test 2 years ago and has not experienced any unusual bleeding or discharge since then.

      What is the best course of action regarding her cervical screening?

      Your Answer: Delay screening until the 3rd trimester of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Delay screening until she is 3 months postpartum

      Explanation:

      Typically, cervical screening is postponed until 3 months after giving birth, unless there was a missed screening or previous abnormal results. Smear tests are not conducted while pregnant, and there is no reason to refer for colposcopy based on the patient’s history. It is standard practice to delay smear tests until 3 months after delivery.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 30-year-old Bangladeshi woman who is 22-weeks pregnant presents to your clinic. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old Bangladeshi woman who is 22-weeks pregnant presents to your clinic. She is currently carrying a twin pregnancy without any complications and her pregnancy is progressing smoothly. She has no other medical issues. The patient is planning to travel to Bangladesh to visit her family and seeks advice on the matter.

      What would be the most suitable recommendation to provide to the patient?

      Your Answer: Most airlines will not allow travel after 36 weeks for multiple pregnancies, and she will require a note from her doctor or midwife when she is over 28 weeks

      Correct Answer: Most airlines will not allow travel after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies, and she will require a note from her doctor or midwife when she is over 28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women can generally fly safely if their pregnancy is progressing well, but it is important to check with the airline and insurance company before traveling. However, most airlines have restrictions on travel after 37 weeks of pregnancy or after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies. Additionally, women over 28 weeks pregnant may need a letter from their doctor or midwife confirming their due date and good health. It is also recommended to bring along pregnancy notes when traveling.

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 42-year-old woman presents to you seeking advice. She had the Mirena coil...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to you seeking advice. She had the Mirena coil inserted for contraception 3 years ago and has been amenorrhoeic since then. She wants to know how long she can leave the Mirena in place and when it will need to be replaced.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding the Mirena coil?

      Your Answer: It needs to be changed after 3 years

      Correct Answer: It should be reviewed every 2 years

      Explanation:

      Annual Assessments for Women on Contraceptives

      Women who use the combined contraceptive pill or the progesterone only pill should undergo an annual medical assessment to check for any new health issues. For those using the Depo-Provera injection, a review should be conducted every two years to evaluate the risks and benefits of the treatment.

      The Mirena, an intrauterine device, can be used for up to seven years (off licence) if inserted when a woman is 45 years or older and if the patient is comfortable with their bleeding patterns. If a woman remains amenorrhoeic after seven years of use, the device can remain in place until menopause. Similarly, a copper coil inserted at the age of 40 years or over can be kept until menopause.

      Regular assessments and reviews are crucial to ensure that women are receiving the most appropriate and effective contraceptive treatment for their individual needs. By staying up-to-date with their health status and treatment options, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health and overall well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 25-year-old female primip comes in during the 12th week of pregnancy with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female primip comes in during the 12th week of pregnancy with complaints of ongoing nausea. Her urine dipstick shows no ketones present. She asks for medication to alleviate her symptoms. What is the best drug to recommend?

      Your Answer: Ondansetron

      Correct Answer: Promethazine

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines are the preferred initial treatment for vomiting during pregnancy.

      Specific Points for Antenatal Care

      Antenatal care is an essential aspect of pregnancy, and NICE has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. Some specific points to consider during antenatal care include nausea and vomiting, vitamin D, and alcohol consumption.

      For nausea and vomiting, natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point are recommended by NICE. However, antihistamines such as promethazine are suggested as first-line treatment in the BNF.

      Vitamin D is crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby. NICE recommends that all women should be informed about the importance of maintaining adequate vitamin D stores during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Women may choose to take 10 micrograms of vitamin D per day, as found in the Healthy Start multivitamin supplement. Women at risk, such as those who are Asian, obese, or have a poor diet, should take particular care.

      Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to long-term harm to the baby. In 2016, the Chief Medical Officer proposed new guidelines recommending that pregnant women should not drink alcohol at all. The official advice is to keep risks to the baby to a minimum, and the more alcohol consumed, the greater the risk.

      In summary, antenatal care should include specific points such as managing nausea and vomiting, maintaining adequate vitamin D levels, and avoiding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. These guidelines aim to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sex 24 hours ago but missed taking her desogestrel pill for the past 24 hours by mistake. She has never used emergency contraception before. Her last menstrual period was 5 days ago, and she has a regular 30-day cycle. She is in good health with no other medical conditions. She declines an intrauterine device and requests ulipristal acetate after discussing her options.

      Her blood pressure measures 120/80 mmHg, and her body mass index is 23 kg/m2.

      You prescribe ulipristal acetate for her. What advice would you give her regarding restarting her regular contraception?

      Your Answer: Start desogestrel immediately. Use additional precautions for an further 48 hours

      Correct Answer: Start desogestrel after 5 days. Use additional precautions till desogestrel commenced and for a further 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for at least 5 days before starting regular hormonal contraception, according to current guidelines. This is because ulipristal acetate may decrease the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Additionally, taking desogestrel hormonal contraception within 5 days of ulipristal acetate can also reduce the efficacy of emergency contraception. It is recommended to use additional precautions until contraceptive cover is re-established, and if desogestrel is being used, this should be after 48 hours. It would be helpful to discuss long-acting reversible contraception options with the patient in this case.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - You see a 35-year-old patient who had a baby 10 weeks ago. She...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old patient who had a baby 10 weeks ago. She is feeling tearful and anxious most days and has been struggling with low mood for 6 weeks. She is extremely tired and is finding it difficult to leave the house to do anything, doesn't find pleasure in anything at the moment. The baby is growing well but she says she is struggling to bond with the baby. She is able to take care of the baby and doesn't feel she would ever harm him. She has never experienced low mood before and is otherwise healthy.

      Discuss postnatal depression with the patient and develop a treatment plan.

      Which statement below regarding postnatal depression is accurate?

      Your Answer: Postnatal depression is entirely due to hormonal changes

      Correct Answer: Around 10% of women experience postnatal depression

      Explanation:

      Postnatal depression affects approximately 1 in 7 women and its symptoms and effects are just as severe as depression at other times. While hormonal changes may contribute to postnatal depression, it is not the sole cause. Women who are breastfeeding can safely take most tricyclic antidepressants, except for doxepin, as long as their infant is healthy and being monitored. However, the use of St John’s wort is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers with depression.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old female who wants to start...

    Incorrect

    • You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old female who wants to start trying to conceive. She has a history of epilepsy and takes levetiracetam 250 mg twice daily.

      Which of the following would be most important to advise?

      Your Answer: Take folic acid 5mg once daily from a positive pregnancy test until 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Take folic acid 5 mg once daily from before conception until 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Women who are taking antiepileptic medication and are planning to conceive should be prescribed folic acid 5mg instead of the standard 400 mcg once daily. This high dose of folic acid should be taken from before conception until 12 weeks into the pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. It is important to refer these women to a specialist for assessment, but they should continue to use effective contraception until then. It is important to reassure these women that they are likely to have a normal pregnancy and healthy baby. Folic acid should be started as soon as possible, even if the pregnancy is unplanned.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 23-year-old female contacts you seeking guidance. She missed taking her Microgynon 30...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female contacts you seeking guidance. She missed taking her Microgynon 30 pill yesterday. For the past 14 days, she has been sexually active with her partner. She is currently on her fifth day of a new pill packet and has not missed any other pills.

      What advice would you provide?

      Your Answer: Take the missed pill as soon as possible, no additional measures needed

      Explanation:

      If one COCP pill is missed, the patient should take the last pill as soon as possible, but no additional action is required.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her healthcare provider seeking advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation contacts her healthcare provider seeking advice on contraceptive options postpartum. She expresses interest in the contraceptive implant after a thorough discussion. The patient has no medical issues and doesn't intend to breastfeed.

      At what point after delivery could she begin using the contraceptive implant?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks postpartum

      Correct Answer: Immediately following childbirth

      Explanation:

      It is safe to insert a contraceptive implant after childbirth, even immediately. However, the manufacturer of the most commonly used implant in the UK recommends waiting at least 4 weeks after childbirth for breastfeeding women. While there is no evidence of harm to the mother or baby, it is not recommended to insert an implant during pregnancy due to potential complications. It is important to note that fertility may not return until after the implant is removed.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 35-year-old patient presents to you for pre-pregnancy counseling and inquires about folic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient presents to you for pre-pregnancy counseling and inquires about folic acid supplementation. The patient has a medical history of sickle cell disease and reports taking folic acid once a week. What recommendations would you make regarding the dose and duration of folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer: 5 mg daily, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: 5 mg daily, to be taken before conception and continued throughout pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Requirements for Women During Pregnancy

      Most women are advised to take 400 mcg of folic acid daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy. However, there are exceptions to this rule. Women who are at a higher risk of neural tube defects, such as those with a history of bearing children with NTDs, or women with diabetes or taking anticonvulsants, should take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy.

      Another group of women who require a higher dose of folic acid are those with sickle cell disease. They need to take 5 mg of folic acid daily throughout pregnancy, and even when not pregnant, they’ll usually be taking folic acid 5 mg every 1 to 7 days, depending on the severity of their disease. It’s important for women to consult with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dose of folic acid for their individual needs during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Olivia is 36 years old and visits you to discuss contraception options. She...

    Incorrect

    • Olivia is 36 years old and visits you to discuss contraception options. She is currently using condoms and doesn't want to risk pregnancy. She smokes 8 cigarettes a day, has a body mass index of 27 kg/m², and her blood pressure is 115/62 mmHg. She has no personal or family history of blood clots, ischaemic heart disease, strokes or migraines. Olivia has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle and is on day 4 of her cycle. She wants to start contraception immediately and you decide to prescribe a progesterone only pill. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: She can start the progesterone only pill today but must use extra protection for 7 days

      Correct Answer: She can start the progesterone only pill today and she doesn't need to use extra protection

      Explanation:

      Rachel began taking the progesterone only pill during the fourth day of her menstrual cycle, which means she will have instant protection since it was before the fifth day of her cycle.

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).

      When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

      It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.

      Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 28-year-old female about...

    Correct

    • You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 28-year-old female about the contraceptive patch.

      What are the proper steps to ensure the effective use of the contraceptive patch?

      Your Answer: Change patch weekly with a 1 week break after 3 patches

      Explanation:

      The contraceptive patch regime involves wearing one patch per week for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week. This method is gaining popularity due to its flexibility, as the patch can be changed up to 48 hours late without the need for extra contraception. Additionally, the patch’s transdermal absorption means that it is not affected by vomiting or diarrhea, eliminating the need for additional precautions. Similar to the pill, this method involves three weeks of contraception followed by a one-week break, during which the woman will experience a withdrawal bleed.

      How to Use the Combined Contraceptive Patch

      The Evra patch is the only combined contraceptive patch approved for use in the UK. It is worn for 3 weeks straight and then removed for a week, during which a withdrawal bleed occurs. If the patch is not changed on time, different rules apply depending on the week of the patch cycle.

      If the patch change is delayed at the end of week 1 or week 2, it should be changed immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are needed. However, if the delay is greater than 48 hours, a barrier method of contraception should be used for the next 7 days. If unprotected sexual intercourse has occurred during this extended patch-free interval or in the last 5 days, emergency contraception should be considered.

      If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week 3, it should be removed as soon as possible and a new patch applied on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed. If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for 7 days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle.

      For more information on combined hormonal methods of contraception, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - During a routine postnatal check, a 27-year-old woman who is breastfeeding her baby...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine postnatal check, a 27-year-old woman who is breastfeeding her baby and follows a vegan diet asks for advice on ensuring her milk provides the necessary nutrients for her child. As she has no underlying medical conditions, what daily supplement does the NHS recommend for women who follow a vegan diet while breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding women who follow a vegan diet may require a B12 supplement as this vitamin is primarily present in meat and dairy products. Vegans can obtain vitamin B12 from fortified breakfast cereals and yeast extracts like Marmite. Additionally, the NHS recommends that all breastfeeding women, regardless of their dietary preferences, should take a daily vitamin D supplement of 10 mcg to promote bone health for themselves and their baby. Women who are eligible for Healthy Start vouchers may receive free supplements, and their Health Visitor can provide guidance on this matter.

      Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a cofactor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.

      However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 30-year-old woman, who recently gave birth, visits her GP for a routine...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman, who recently gave birth, visits her GP for a routine check-up. She expresses her worries about the medications she is taking for her different health conditions and their potential impact on her breastfeeding baby. Which medications are safe for her to continue taking?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding is generally safe with most anti-epileptic drugs, including the commonly prescribed Lamotrigine. This drug is often preferred for women as it doesn’t affect their ability to bear children. However, Carbimazole and Diazepam’s active metabolite can be passed on to the baby through breast milk and should be avoided. Isotretinoin’s effect on breastfed infants is not well studied, but oral retinoids should generally be avoided while breastfeeding.

      Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important to aim for monotherapy and to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, with sodium valproate being associated with neural tube defects, carbamazepine being considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics, and phenytoin being associated with cleft palate. Lamotrigine may be a safer option, but the dose may need to be adjusted during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn. It is important to seek specialist neurological or psychiatric advice before starting or continuing antiepileptic medication during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age. Recent evidence has shown a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of sodium valproate, leading to recommendations that it should not be used during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age unless absolutely necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon implanted six months ago but has been experiencing light spotting on approximately 50% of days. Her medical history includes a first trimester abortion two years ago, but otherwise, she has no significant medical issues. A vaginal examination reveals no abnormalities, and she recently tested negative for sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a progesterone-only pill

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      A cervical smear is not a diagnostic test and should only be conducted as a part of a screening program. An 18-year-old’s risk of cervical cancer is already low, and a normal vaginal examination can further reduce it.

      If controlling bleeding is the goal, the combined oral contraceptive pill is more effective than the progesterone-only pill.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 32-year-old woman comes in for a routine antenatal check-up at 15 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in for a routine antenatal check-up at 15 weeks of pregnancy. During the clinic visit, her blood pressure is measured at 154/94 mmHg, which is confirmed by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Reviewing her medical records, it is noted that her blood pressure was 146/88 mmHg four weeks ago. A urine dipstick test shows normal results, and there is no significant medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: White-coat hypertension

      Correct Answer: Pre-existing hypertension

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that the woman already had hypertension before becoming pregnant. Blood pressure issues related to pregnancy, such as pre-eclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension, typically do not occur until after 20 weeks of gestation. The fact that her ambulatory blood pressure readings were elevated rules out the possibility of her hypertension being caused by anxiety in a medical setting. It is important to consider the possibility of secondary hypertension, as high blood pressure in a woman of this age is not typical.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to start taking the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Is there any medication listed on her repeat prescription that could cause interactions and contraindicate the use of this contraceptive method?

      Your Answer: Levothyroxine

      Correct Answer: Orlistat

      Explanation:

      Orlistat is a medication used to treat obesity by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase and reducing fat absorption from the gut. However, it often causes loose stool or diarrhea unless the patient follows a low-fat diet. It is crucial to assess the suitability of orlistat for patients taking critical medications like antiepileptics and contraceptive pills, as it may decrease their effectiveness by increasing gut transit time. If the patient wants to continue taking orlistat, it is advisable to consider alternative contraception methods that are more reliable.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - You are examining a 48-year-old female patient with breast cancer that is positive...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a 48-year-old female patient with breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. The patient has been prescribed a daily dose of 20 mg of tamoxifen. What is the most frequent adverse effect of tamoxifen?

      Your Answer: Tumour flare

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen Side Effects According to BNF

      The British National Formulary (BNF) is often used to set questions for the AKT, and it lists the frequency of side effects for medications. Tamoxifen, for example, has common or very common side effects such as headaches, while all the other options are rare or very rare. Patients taking tamoxifen should be informed about the increased risk of thromboembolism and advised to watch for symptoms of DVT and PE. Additionally, patients should be warned about the increased risk of endometrial cancer and instructed to report any relevant symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these potential side effects and counsel patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 28-year-old woman who is taking the 20 microgram ethinyloestrodiol combined pill contacts...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who is taking the 20 microgram ethinyloestrodiol combined pill contacts the clinic to report that she has missed a dose. She is currently on day 10 of her pack and it has been 24 hours since she was supposed to take her previous day's pill. What is the most suitable guidance to give her?

      Your Answer: She should take the missed pill with today's and carry on with the pack

      Explanation:

      Missed Birth Control Pills

      When it comes to missed birth control pills, most of the advice and evidence is based on studies of the 35 mcg oestrogen combined pill. However, it’s important to note that the risk of pregnancy with a missed 20 mcg pill may be higher than with a larger dose pill. Despite this, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) recommends that women take the missed pill and continue with the pack. Additional contraception is not required in this case.

      If two or more pills are missed, it’s recommended to use barrier contraception for around seven days. It’s important to follow the instructions provided with your specific type of birth control pill and to speak with your healthcare provider if you have any concerns or questions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with a complaint of amenorrhea for...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with a complaint of amenorrhea for the past eight months. She reports weight gain and decreased libido during this time and has noticed milk production from her breasts. Her last sexual encounter was about seven months ago. On examination, vital signs are normal, and there are no abnormalities on abdominal examination. Galactorrhea is confirmed on expression. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Signs and Symptoms of Hyperprolactinaemia

      This patient is presenting with several signs and symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia, including weight gain, loss of libido, menstrual disturbance, and galactorrhoea. While conditions such as PCOS, depression, and Cushing’s can cause weight gain and menstrual changes, galactorrhoea is only associated with pregnancy, prolactinoma, certain medications, and hypothyroidism.

      It is important to note that the patient’s normal abdominal examination after ten months of amenorrhea, with her last sexual encounter occurring nine months prior, rules out pregnancy as a potential cause for her symptoms. Further investigation and testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of her hyperprolactinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 21-year-old patient who began taking desogestrel 50 hours ago reaches out to...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old patient who began taking desogestrel 50 hours ago reaches out to you to report that she took her second dose of medication 15 hours late yesterday and engaged in unprotected sexual activity on the same day.

      What would be the correct course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Take two pills instead of one at the normal time of the next dose

      Correct Answer: Organise for emergency contraception immediately

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is necessary if unprotected sex occurred within 48 hours of restarting the POP after a missed pill. In this case, the patient missed her second pill by over 12 hours and is within the 48-hour window. A pregnancy test cannot provide reassurance the day after intercourse. It is important to take additional precautions and resume taking the medication at the normal time after a missed pill for 48 hours. If the missed pill is forgotten for 24 hours, taking two pills at once may be necessary, but it is not applicable in this scenario as the missed pill has already been taken.

      The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to not confuse the two. For traditional POPs such as Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, and Femulen, as well as Cerazette (desogestrel), if a pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required and pill taking can continue as normal. However, if a pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. If a pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required. But if a pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

      If action is needed, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed, only one pill should be taken. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day. Pill taking should continue with the rest of the pack. Extra precautions, such as using condoms, should be taken until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 17-year-old girl comes in with a magazine clipping and requests a prescription...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl comes in with a magazine clipping and requests a prescription for Cerazette (desogestrel) progesterone-only contraceptive.

      With regard to Cerazette, which one of these statements is true?

      Your Answer: The 'missed pill' window is 12 hours

      Correct Answer: With Cerazette, blood pressure should be checked every six months

      Explanation:

      Cerazette: A Controversial Contraceptive Option

      Cerazette is a popular contraceptive pill that has been marketed as having a Pearl Index similar to the combined pill. It is known for its ability to suppress ovulation and is suitable for a range of women. However, whether Cerazette is superior to traditional POPs is a topic of debate. Despite its effectiveness, Cerazette is not recommended as a first-line option due to its cost. It is only available on prescription and has a missed pill window of 12 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 28-year-old woman contacts the clinic seeking guidance. She has missed taking her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman contacts the clinic seeking guidance. She has missed taking her Cerazette contraceptive pill yesterday. Based on your calculation, it has been approximately 48 hours since she last took a Cerazette pill. She is typically diligent in taking her pills and has not missed any other pills in the last half-year. Her last sexual activity was eight days ago. What is the best advice to provide her?

      Your Answer: Take two pills now + use condoms for 7 days + needs emergency contraception

      Correct Answer: Take two pills now + use condoms for 2 days

      Explanation:

      Cerazette has a wider time frame for taking the pill than traditional progestogen only pills, but if a pill is missed, the user should take two pills immediately and use additional contraception for two days.

      The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to not confuse the two. For traditional POPs such as Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, and Femulen, as well as Cerazette (desogestrel), if a pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required and pill taking can continue as normal. However, if a pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. If a pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required. But if a pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

      If action is needed, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed, only one pill should be taken. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day. Pill taking should continue with the rest of the pack. Extra precautions, such as using condoms, should be taken until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - You see a 30-year-old woman in surgery.
    She has had three miscarriages in the...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 30-year-old woman in surgery.
      She has had three miscarriages in the last 18 months and has been told she has antiphospholipid syndrome. She says she was told that she would need treatment early in any future pregnancy and she has now had a positive pregnancy test.
      What is the treatment for antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Low dose heparin + high dose aspirin

      Correct Answer: Low dose heparin + low dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Medication Protocol for Early Pregnancy

      As soon as a pregnancy test comes back positive, it is recommended to prescribe aspirin 75 mg. This medication can help prevent blood clots and other complications during pregnancy. Once foetal heart activity is detected on an ultrasound scan, low dose self-administered subcutaneous heparin should be started. This medication can also help prevent blood clots and is especially important for women who have a history of blood clots or other risk factors. It is important to follow this medication protocol to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the developing foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill presents with breakthrough bleeding between her periods.

      She has been on the same pill for almost three years and noticed breakthrough bleeding for the first time two months ago. She denies post-coital bleeding. On further questioning she has not missed any pills and has had no recent illnesses or medical problems.

      What is the most probable reason for her breakthrough bleeding?

      Your Answer: Cervical cancer

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia infection

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough Bleeding on Combined Oral Contraceptive

      In patients experiencing breakthrough bleeding while on the combined oral contraceptive, it is crucial to check their compliance and potential illness. However, if these factors are not the cause, breakthrough bleeding may indicate an alternative issue and prompt further investigation for gynaecological causes. This is especially true for patients who have been taking the pill for an extended period.

      To assess potential gynaecological causes, a pelvic examination and swabs are necessary. It is also important to ensure that the patient’s smear is up-to-date and to take one if overdue. While cervical cancer is rare in this age group, swabs should be taken to check for chlamydial cervicitis, the most common cause of breakthrough bleeding in young sexually active women.

      Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of pregnancy and perform a pregnancy test. However, in cases where compliance and regular usage of the combined pill are confirmed, the likelihood of pregnancy is remote. Proper investigation and assessment can help identify the underlying cause of breakthrough bleeding and ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 25-year-old woman is interested in beginning the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is interested in beginning the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) but is concerned about the potential risk of breast cancer due to her maternal grandmother's diagnosis in her 60s. What UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) should be considered for her?

      Your Answer: UKMEC 2

      Correct Answer: UKMEC 1

      Explanation:

      A family history doesn’t pose any contraindications for COCP use and is classified as UKMEC 1. However, being a known BRCA1/2 gene carrier is classified as UKMEC 3 for COCP use. If a person has a current breast cancer diagnosis, it is classified as UKMEC 4. If the breast cancer diagnosis was more than 5 years ago, it is classified as UKMEC 3.

      Contraindications for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential cautions and contraindications on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 represents a condition for which there is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method, while UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, immobility, and a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension.

      In 2016, the UKMEC was updated to reflect that breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum is now classified as UKMEC 2 instead of UKMEC 3. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these contraindications when deciding whether to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 20 hours ago and has not had any other instances of unprotected sex. She is not currently using any form of regular contraception and her last menstrual period was 10 days ago, with a regular 30-day cycle. The patient has a history of asthma. She expresses interest in taking levonorgestrel.

      Her weight is 80 kg and her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Offer the patient levonorgestrel 1.5 mg. Advice the patient to perform a pregnancy test within 3 weeks

      Correct Answer: Offer the patient levonorgestrel 3 mg. Advice the patient to perform a pregnancy test within 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      If a person has a BMI over 26 kg/m2 or weighs over 70 kg, the recommended dose of levonorgestrel should be doubled from 1.5 mg to 3 mg, not 6 mg. Ulipristal acetate is contraindicated for those with brittle asthma that is controlled with glucocorticoids. It would be incorrect to inform the patient that she is not at risk of pregnancy as she is still at risk.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 32-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant attends her routine appointment with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant attends her routine appointment with the midwife. She reports feeling generally well, but mentions experiencing constipation and has been taking lactulose.

      Upon examination, the midwife notes the following:

      - Fundal height: 37cm
      - Blood pressure: 140/90 mmHg
      - Urine dip: protein 2+

      What would be the most suitable course of action for the midwife to take in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange home blood pressure monitoring

      Correct Answer: Urgent obstetrics referral

      Explanation:

      If pre-eclampsia is suspected in a woman, NICE recommends arranging emergency secondary care assessment. This is because pre-eclampsia can be life-threatening and may not present with obvious symptoms. In this case, the patient has high blood pressure and proteinuria, which are signs of pre-eclampsia. While a growth scan may be necessary later, it is not the priority now. Home BP monitoring is also not indicated at this stage. Instead, the patient needs further investigation and management by obstetric specialists. Labetalol may be used to manage her blood pressure, but only after specialist input.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had sexual...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had sexual intercourse 3 days ago and is currently not using any form of birth control. After discussing her options, you both agree that she will take EllaOne (Ulipristal Acetate) and start a progestin-only pill for ongoing contraception.

      What guidance should you provide to this woman regarding the use of these contraceptives?

      Your Answer: Take EllaOne today and then start combined oral contraceptive pill 5 days later

      Explanation:

      Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before beginning regular hormonal contraception. It is crucial to note that the effectiveness of EllaOne decreases if progestogen is used within 5 days after taking it. Therefore, it is essential to start hormonal contraceptives 5 days after taking EllaOne. Starting the combined oral contraceptive pill at the same time or less than 5 days after taking EllaOne would be incorrect. It is a misconception that EllaOne is only effective if the combined oral contraceptive pill has already been started. Taking EllaOne 14 days after the start of the last menstrual period is also incorrect. The copper coil could be inserted as an effective form of contraception 5 days after the expected date of ovulation, but EllaOne must be taken within 5 days of unprotected sexual intercourse.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 35-year-old woman is seen for review. She was recently affected by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is seen for review. She was recently affected by a complete molar pregnancy.
      She wants to discuss when she can consider trying to become pregnant again.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer: She should avoid pregnancy for at least six months

      Correct Answer: She should avoid pregnancy for at least one year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring hCG Levels After Molar Pregnancy

      After a molar pregnancy, it is important to monitor hCG levels to detect any persistent gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) that may require treatment. During this monitoring period, women should avoid becoming pregnant as it is difficult to differentiate between hCG levels that are increasing due to a new pregnancy or persistent GTD. The first hCG measurement is taken four weeks after uterine evacuation.

      For complete hydatidiform mole, hCG monitoring is required for six months from the first normal hCG level or six months from evacuation of the uterus if the hCG level normalizes by eight weeks after evacuation. On the other hand, partial molar pregnancy has a lower risk of persistent GTD, and hCG follow-up is only necessary until two consecutive monthly levels are normal.

      If a woman undergoes chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic neoplasia, she should avoid pregnancy for at least one year. It is crucial to monitor hCG levels after molar pregnancy to ensure early detection and treatment of any persistent GTD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - You are seeing a couple who are trying to conceive. She is 35...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a couple who are trying to conceive. She is 35 years old and he is 38 years old and they have been trying to conceive for 6 months. She has a normal sounding, regular cycle and has never been pregnant. She had chlamydia when she was 20 which was successfully treated (she had a test of cure).

      They are both normally fit and well and neither of them has ever conceived before. They both take no regular medications and do not smoke or drink alcohol. Her body mass index (BMI) is 31 kg/m2 and his is 27 kg/m2.

      She states that not being able to conceive is having a negative impact on her psychological health.

      Why should this patient be referred to secondary care earlier?

      Your Answer: Because she has had a previous sexually transmitted infection

      Explanation:

      If a woman has a history of STI, it is advisable to refer her to secondary care earlier. For women under 36 years of age, referral for further assessment and management should be considered if they have not conceived after one year, and their history, examination, and investigations are normal. However, if the woman is 36 years or older, has amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea, previous abdominal or pelvic surgery, previous pelvic inflammatory disease, abnormal pelvic examination, or a known reason for infertility, earlier referral should be considered. Similarly, for men, referral should be considered earlier if they have a history of previous genital pathology, urogenital surgery, STI, varicocele, significant systemic illness, abnormal genital examination, or a known reason for infertility.

      Understanding Infertility: Initial Investigations and Key Counselling Points

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. However, it is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sex will conceive within 1 year, and 92% within 2 years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      To determine the cause of infertility, basic investigations are typically conducted. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test, which is done 7 days prior to the expected next period. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if the level is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it consistently remains low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      In addition to these investigations, there are key counselling points that should be addressed. These include advising the patient to take folic acid, aiming for a BMI between 20-25, and having regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Patients should also be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption.

      By understanding the initial investigations and key counselling points for infertility, healthcare professionals can provide their patients with the necessary information and support to help them conceive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 28-year-old nulliparous woman presents to you for advice on when to book...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old nulliparous woman presents to you for advice on when to book her cervical smear test. She reports having a 4-day menstrual cycle every 28 days and using condoms for contraception. Is there a specific time during her cycle that would be best for her to schedule the smear test? What is the optimal timing for a cervical smear?

      Your Answer: Day 5

      Correct Answer: Any time from day 5 to 21

      Explanation:

      Best Time for Cervical Smear

      According to the NHS Cervical Screening Programme, the best time for women to have their cervical smear is mid-cycle, usually 14 days from the start of their last period. This timing allows for a clearer background to the sample, as the mucous plug is at its thinnest and the epithelium is at its thickest, resulting in a full range of cells being obtained. However, this is not a strict rule, and women should not be deterred from having their cervical smear if they cannot get an appointment at this time. It is important to seek advice from a doctor or practice nurse if needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Emma is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up...

    Correct

    • Emma is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up visit. You initially saw her 2 months ago for low mood and referred her for counselling. She states she is still feeling low and her feelings of anxiety are worsening. She is keen to try medication to help.

      Emma has a 5-month-old baby and is breastfeeding.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for Emma to commence?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding women can safely take SSRIs such as sertraline or paroxetine as the amount of antidepressant passed on to the infant through breast milk is very low and not considered harmful. Therefore, it is recommended that women with postnatal depression continue to breastfeed while receiving antidepressant treatment.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant with her first child seeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant with her first child seeks your advice on whether to breastfeed. She is facing pressure to return to work soon but is aware of the benefits of breastfeeding for both her and her baby's health.

      Which of the following conditions is known to have a lower incidence in breastfed infants?

      Your Answer: Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

      Correct Answer: Otitis media

      Explanation:

      Benefits of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has been shown to have numerous benefits for both the mother and the baby. According to the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) Promotion of breastfeeding initiation and duration (2006), breastfeeding can help reduce the incidence of various conditions.

      Studies have demonstrated that breastfeeding can reduce the risk of infantile gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections, atopic disease, juvenile insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, respiratory infections, and otitis media. However, it is important to note that breastfeeding may not necessarily protect against other conditions such as ADHD, intussusception, or rickets.

      Overall, breastfeeding is a natural and effective way to promote the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - You encounter a 55-year-old woman who is currently on estrogen-only hormone-replacement therapy (HRT)...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 55-year-old woman who is currently on estrogen-only hormone-replacement therapy (HRT) and has a Mirena® levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) for endometrial protection (not contraception). She has been following this HRT regimen for the past 3 years. She is curious about when she should consider replacing her Mirena®. What guidance should you provide to this patient?

      Your Answer: The LNG-IUS can be used until the menopause if inserted at age 45 or over, regardless of whether it is being used for contraception or endometrial protection as part of HRT regime

      Correct Answer: She should have it changed every 4 years

      Explanation:

      When women use an IUS for endometrial protection as part of their HRT regimen, they need to replace the device every 4 years according to the BNF or 5 years according to the FSRH. The Mirena® IUS is effective in protecting the endometrium from the effects of exogenous estrogen, and the BNF recommends its use for this purpose. However, if the Mirena® IUS is used for contraception and inserted after the age of 45, it can remain in place until menopause, even if the woman is still having periods.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 27-year-old lady calls for telephone advice. She is 20 days postpartum and...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old lady calls for telephone advice. She is 20 days postpartum and had unprotected sexual intercourse 72 hours ago. She has no significant medical history and doesn't take any regular medication. She is bottle-feeding her baby. She is uncertain if there is a possibility of pregnancy and if emergency contraception is necessary.

      Which of the following would be the most suitable recommendation to provide in this situation?

      Your Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and oral levonorgestrel 1.5 mg and ulipristal acetate 30 mg are both safe to use as treatment options

      Correct Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and oral ulipristal acetate 30 mg is the only safe treatment option

      Explanation:

      Emergency Contraception Options After Childbirth

      Oral levonorgestrel 1.5 mg and ulipristal acetate 30 mg are safe to use 21 days after childbirth, while the copper intrauterine device can be used for emergency contraception from day 28 postpartum. Among the three options, the copper intrauterine device is the most effective, with a pregnancy rate of approximately 1 in 1000.

      It is important to note that the copper intrauterine device carries the same contraindications as when used for standard contraception. It can be retained until the next period then removed or kept in situ for ongoing long-term contraception. With these options available, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health after childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 26-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was started on contraception by a colleague six months ago but is now experiencing irregular bleeding and weight gain. She is unsure if the contraceptive is causing her symptoms. The patient has a history of epilepsy and takes carbamazepine. She is a social smoker and has no family history.

      During the examination, her body mass index is 28 kg/m², indicating a weight gain of 4 kg. Her blood pressure is 108/78 mmHg. What type of contraceptive is most likely to have been prescribed to her?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine device (IUD)

      Correct Answer: Depo-provera injection

      Explanation:

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that Noristerat, another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, is rarely used in clinical practice. It is given every 8 weeks. The BNF gives different advice regarding the interval between injections, stating that a pregnancy test should be done if the interval is greater than 12 weeks and 5 days. However, this is not commonly adhered to in the family planning community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Which one of the following statements regarding hyperemesis gravidarum is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hyperemesis gravidarum is accurate?

      Your Answer: Ondansetron is first-line in women after 12 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a recognised complication

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - What is the association between smoking during pregnancy and which outcome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the association between smoking during pregnancy and which outcome?

      Your Answer: Greater risk of pre-eclampsia

      Correct Answer: Low maternal weight gain

      Explanation:

      Effects of Smoking During Pregnancy

      Smoking during pregnancy has various effects on both the mother and the developing fetus. One positive effect is that pre-eclampsia, a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, is less likely to occur in smokers. However, there is an increased rate of spontaneous abortion and intrauterine growth may be retarded. Additionally, smoking increases the risk of prematurity, which can lead to various health complications for the baby. There is also an increase in perinatal mortality over the average, meaning that the risk of the baby dying before or shortly after birth is higher. Furthermore, smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of thromboembolism, a condition where a blood clot forms and blocks a blood vessel, which can be fatal for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, it is highly recommended for pregnant women to quit smoking to ensure the best possible outcomes for both themselves and their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A patient in her 60s requests a copy of her medical records. Which...

    Correct

    • A patient in her 60s requests a copy of her medical records. Which of the following documents is most relevant to fulfill this request?

      Your Answer: Data Protection Act 1998

      Explanation:

      Requests for personal data are not typically covered by the Freedom of Information Act 2000. The Patient Records Act 2007 is not a real law.

      Understanding the Data Protection Act

      The Data Protection Act is a crucial piece of legislation that governs the protection of personal data in the UK. It applies to both manual and computerised records and outlines eight main principles that entities must follow. These principles include using data for its intended purpose, obtaining consent before disclosing data to other parties, allowing individuals access to their personal information, keeping data up-to-date and secure, and correcting any factual errors.

      In 2018, the Data Protection Act was updated to include new provisions such as the right to erasure, exemptions, and regulation in conjunction with the GDPR. It is important for all entities that process personal information to register with the Information Commissioner’s Office and implement adequate security measures to protect sensitive data. By following the principles outlined in the Data Protection Act, entities can ensure that they are handling personal information in a responsible and ethical manner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - A 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents having suffered her fourth miscarriage. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents having suffered her fourth miscarriage. She has a history of venous thrombosis.
      She is positive for the lupus anticoagulant.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Uterine abnormality

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid Syndrome: A Cause of Recurrent Miscarriage

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a medical condition that can lead to recurrent miscarriage. It can also present as arterial or venous thrombosis, livedo reticularis rash, stroke, adrenal hemorrhage, migraine, myelitis, myocardial infarction, or multi-infarct dementia. Anticardiolipin antibodies may be found in patients with this syndrome. Venous thrombi occur more often if lupus anticoagulant is positive, while arterial thrombi occur if IgG or IgM antiphospholipid antibody are positive. Long-term warfarin is indicated for treatment.

      Initially, it was believed that up to 30% of SLE sufferers had antiphospholipid syndrome. However, it is now thought that primary antiphospholipid syndrome is a separate entity consisting of a tendency to thrombosis, positive antiphospholipid antibodies, but the absence of clinical features of SLE. It is important to recognize and diagnose this syndrome early to prevent complications such as recurrent miscarriage and thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - An 80-year-old woman is referred by a GP colleague to the hospital with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is referred by a GP colleague to the hospital with a breast lump.

      She is asymptomatic but her investigations reveal:

      Corrected calcium 2.75 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Phosphate 0.81 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Alkaline phosphatase 115 U/L (45-105)

      PTH concentration 5.7 pmol/L (0.9-5.4)

      Whilst your colleague is away, you are shown these results by one of the receptionists.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic PTH related peptide (PTHrp) secretion

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Hyperparathyroidism is a common disorder among elderly females that can cause hypercalcaemia with a borderline low phosphate concentration and a minimally elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) concentration. However, it is important to note that PTH may be elevated or inappropriately normal in primary hyperparathyroidism, which can make diagnosis tricky.

      Other conditions that can cause hypercalcaemia include bony metastases, multiple myeloma, and PTH related peptide in malignancy. However, these conditions should result in a suppressed PTH or a low PTH that is not detected by normal lab tests.

      If the hypercalcaemia is caused by multiple myeloma, a physiological decrease in PTH would be expected as a response. In the case of primary hyperparathyroidism, the inappropriately normal PTH should lead to a diagnosis. It is important to consider all possible causes and understand the nuances of PTH levels in order to accurately diagnose and treat hyperparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A 52-year-old woman complains of bothersome hot flashes and night sweats. She had...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman complains of bothersome hot flashes and night sweats. She had her last menstrual period 10 months ago and has no significant medical history. Which of the following treatment options is not recommended for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Tibolone (oral)

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen (oral)

      Explanation:

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.

      HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.

      Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - A new mother delivered a baby with ambiguous genitalia. She mentioned that she...

    Incorrect

    • A new mother delivered a baby with ambiguous genitalia. She mentioned that she and her spouse have a family history of sex hormone disorders, but neither of them have been impacted. What is the probable cause of hormone disorder in this case, considering the diagnosis of 5 alpha-reductase syndrome?

      Your Answer: Insensitivity to testosterone

      Correct Answer: Inability to convert testosterone to 5α-dihydrotestosterone

      Explanation:

      Disorders of Sex Development: Common Conditions and Characteristics

      Disorders of sex development refer to a group of conditions that affect the development of an individual’s reproductive system. The most common disorders are androgen insensitivity syndrome, 5-α reductase deficiency, male and female pseudohermaphroditism, and true hermaphroditism. Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that results in end-organ resistance to testosterone, causing genotypically male children to have a female phenotype. 5-α reductase deficiency, on the other hand, is an autosomal recessive condition that results in the inability of males to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, leading to ambiguous genitalia in the newborn period. Male and female pseudohermaphroditism are conditions where individuals have testes or ovaries but external genitalia are female or male, respectively. Finally, true hermaphroditism is a very rare condition where both ovarian and testicular tissue are present. Understanding the characteristics of these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate medical care and support for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the GP complaining of urge incontinence. She frequently...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the GP complaining of urge incontinence. She frequently feels the need to use the restroom but often doesn't make it in time and has started wearing incontinence pads during the day. She has a medical history of hypertension and takes ramipril 5 mg daily. She doesn't drink much water but consumes around 10 cups of tea and coffee per day. What is the best treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Electrical bladder stimulation

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for urge incontinence

      Caffeine reduction is the first recommended therapy for patients with significant urge incontinence and a history of excessive caffeine use. If symptoms persist, bladder training is the next step. For those who do not respond to bladder training, oxybutynin may be effective. In postmenopausal women with significant vaginal atrophy, oestrogen cream may also be tried. However, electrical stimulation is not routinely recommended. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for individual cases of urge incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - Sophie is a 23-year-old female who recently began taking the combined contraceptive pill...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 23-year-old female who recently began taking the combined contraceptive pill due to irregular periods and starting a new relationship with her partner. However, Sophie forgot to take her pill for the past 3 days during week 2 of her cycle.

      What would be the recommended course of action for management, considering Sophie's desire to avoid pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Consider the emergency copper coil

      Correct Answer: Finish the pills in the current pack and start new pack immediately, omitting pill-free interval

      Explanation:

      If two pills are missed during week 3 of taking the COCP, it is important to finish the current pack of pills and immediately start a new pack without taking the pill-free interval. This is necessary to prevent ovulation and the risk of pregnancy. It is not recommended to finish the current pack and start a new pack after the pill-free interval as this could lead to ovulation and pregnancy. Emergency contraception is not necessary in this situation as long as ovulation has not yet occurred. The copper coil, ulipristal, and levonorgestrel are all forms of emergency contraception and are not appropriate in this scenario.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who recently gave birth to a baby girl...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who recently gave birth to a baby girl and wants to discuss contraception options. She used to take the combined pill but prefers not to use any form of contraception if possible. She is not currently breastfeeding. What is the duration after childbirth when she no longer needs contraception?

      Your Answer: Up to 21 days

      Explanation:

      Nancy can be advised that she doesn’t need contraception for up to 21 days after giving birth. According to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare Guideline on Postnatal Sexual and Reproductive Health, contraceptive protection is not necessary before Day 21 postpartum. However, if Nancy wants to avoid pregnancy after Day 21, she should use a contraceptive method as ovulation may occur as early as Day 28 in non-breastfeeding women. Breastfeeding women who want to prevent pregnancy should also use a contraceptive method, although any method will be more effective due to reduced fertility. Fully breastfeeding women may rely on the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) alone until breastfeeding decreases or other LAM criteria are no longer met.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - An infant is born with an open spina bifida despite adequate folate intake...

    Incorrect

    • An infant is born with an open spina bifida despite adequate folate intake by the mother during her concealed pregnancy. The mother was a psychiatric inpatient for several months with an episode of acute mania.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be associated with this teratogenic effect?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Correct Answer: Valproic acid

      Explanation:

      Medication Use During Pregnancy: Risks and Considerations

      Valproic Acid, Mirtazapine, Haloperidol, Lithium, and Olanzapine are all medications used to treat various mental health conditions. However, when it comes to using these medications during pregnancy, there are important considerations and potential risks to be aware of.

      Valproic Acid, for example, is highly teratogenic and should not be used to treat bipolar disorder during pregnancy. The risk to the fetus outweighs the benefit to the mother, and there are safer alternative mood stabilizers available. Mirtazapine, on the other hand, should be used with caution during pregnancy, and the neonate must be monitored for any withdrawal effects. Haloperidol use during the third trimester has been associated with neonatal extrapyramidal side effects and withdrawal. Lithium is associated with an increased risk of cardiac abnormalities in the fetus, especially if taken during the first trimester. Finally, while there is not a known increased risk of neural tube defects with Olanzapine use during pregnancy, there is a risk of the neonate developing extrapyramidal side effects or withdrawal symptoms.

      It is important for pregnant individuals to discuss any medication use with their healthcare provider to weigh the potential risks and benefits and make informed decisions about their treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with...

    Correct

    • You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with twins. Last week she had severe nausea and vomiting despite a combination of oral cyclizine and promethazine. She continued to vomit and was admitted to the hospital briefly where she was started on metoclopramide and ondansetron which helped control her symptoms.

      Today she tells you she read a pregnancy forum article warning about ondansetron use in pregnancy. She is worried and wants advice if she should continue taking it.

      How would you counsel this woman on the risks of ondansetron use during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: There is a small increased risk of cleft lip/palate in the newborn if used in the first trimester

      Explanation:

      The use of ondansetron during pregnancy has been associated with an increased risk of 3 oral clefts per 10,000 births, according to a study. However, this risk is not included in the RCOG guideline on nausea and vomiting of pregnancy, and there is no official NICE guidance on the matter. A draft of NICE’s antenatal care guidance suggests that ondansetron may increase the chance of a baby being born with a cleft lip or palate, but there are no recognised risks for the mother or newborn. Claims of a risk of spontaneous miscarriage in twin pregnancies or severe congenital heart defects in newborns are not supported by current evidence.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - At what stage of the menstrual cycle do levels of progesterone reach their...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of the menstrual cycle do levels of progesterone reach their highest point?

      Your Answer: Menstruation

      Correct Answer: Luteal phase

      Explanation:

      A fundamental comprehension of physiology is necessary to comprehend contraception, gynaecological disorders, and fertility issues, as progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation, despite the AKT having limited inquiries about it.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.

      During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization doesn’t occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucous thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucous becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - A 28-year-old lady seeks your advice on contraception. She has recently entered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old lady seeks your advice on contraception. She has recently entered a new relationship and wants to protect herself against pregnancy. She is in good health, doesn't experience migraines, and is a non-smoker. Her mother had breast cancer a decade ago, but has since been declared cancer-free. The patient has a confirmed BRCA1 gene mutation. Her BMI is 23 and her blood pressure is 124/82. Based on this information, what form of contraception would you recommend for her?

      Your Answer: Nexplanon

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine copper coil

      Explanation:

      UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraception

      The UK medical eligibility criteria for contraception categorizes contraceptive methods into four categories. Category 1 indicates that there are no restrictions for use, while Category 4 indicates that use poses an unacceptable health risk. For patients with a BRCA gene mutation, the combined contraceptive pill has a UK Category rating of 3 and should definitely not be used. All of the other options are rated a UK Category 2, so will still need careful follow-up. The intrauterine copper coil is the only method that is rated a UK Category 1, making it the safest option to use here. There is no restriction on the use of this method for this condition. It is important to consider the UK medical eligibility criteria when choosing a contraceptive method to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the chosen method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - A 27-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and was in close proximity to her nephew who has been diagnosed with Chickenpox. The patient spent a few hours with her nephew and had physical contact such as hugging. The patient reports feeling fine and has no noticeable symptoms. She is unsure if she has had Chickenpox before.

      What is the best course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Check antibody levels

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman is exposed to Chickenpox, it can lead to serious complications for both her and the developing fetus. To prevent this, the first step is to check the woman’s immune status by testing for varicella antibodies. If she is found to be non-immune, she should receive varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) as soon as possible for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).

      It is important to note that the management and organization of the blood test can be arranged by the GP, although the midwife should also be informed. If the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant and non-immune, VZIG should be given immediately, but it may still be effective up to 10 days after exposure.

      For pregnant women who develop Chickenpox after 20 weeks of gestation, oral aciclovir or an equivalent antiviral should be started within 24 hours of rash onset. However, if the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant, it is recommended to seek specialist advice.

      It is crucial to take action and not simply provide reassurance in cases where the woman is found to be non-immune to varicella, as both she and the fetus are at risk.

      Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

      To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.

      If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A 7-month-old infant has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old infant has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother gives a history of medication for acne, which was stopped when she realised she was pregnant.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause these defects?

      Your Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Correct Answer: Isotretinoin

      Explanation:

      Acne Medications and Pregnancy: Risks and Precautions

      Acne is a common skin condition that affects many people, including pregnant women. However, not all acne medications are safe to use during pregnancy. Here are some important things to know about the risks and precautions of using acne medications during pregnancy.

      Isotretinoin is a highly effective medication for reducing sebum secretion, but it is also highly teratogenic. Women who take isotretinoin must have a negative pregnancy test before treatment and use effective contraception during and after the course. Congenital deafness and central nervous system and heart defects may occur in children exposed to isotretinoin in utero.

      Topical retinoids, such as topical isotretinoin and topical retinoin, have a very low absorption rate through the skin. However, there are some reports of birth defects associated with their use, so women should avoid using them during pregnancy until more data is collected.

      Clindamycin, a topical and systemic antibiotic, has no reported adverse effects in pregnancy. Minocycline and oxytetracycline are less effective for acne treatment but are also less teratogenic. However, tetracyclines can stain bones and teeth, so they should be stopped if pregnancy occurs. Erythromycin is a more suitable antibiotic for pregnant women with acne.

      In summary, pregnant women with acne should consult with their healthcare provider before using any acne medication. It is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits of each medication and take appropriate precautions to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - A 28-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant comes in with vaginal bleeding....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant comes in with vaginal bleeding. What is the least indicative feature of a hydatidiform mole diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperemesis

      Correct Answer: Crampy lower abdominal pains

      Explanation:

      A hydatidiform mole is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding. High levels of hCG may cause symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, which can mimic thyroid stimulating hormone.

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a large uterus for dates, and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months. About 2-3% of cases may progress to choriocarcinoma. In partial mole, a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms or one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes, resulting in DNA that is both maternal and paternal in origin. Fetal parts may be visible, and the condition is usually triploid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A 27-year-old Caucasian woman who is 10 weeks pregnant visits her GP. This...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Caucasian woman who is 10 weeks pregnant visits her GP. This is her first pregnancy. Her BMI is 29 kg/m² and she has no significant medical history or family history. The birthweight of her siblings is unknown. As per the current NICE guidelines, what investigation should be arranged in primary care?

      Your Answer: Arrange an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) at booking only

      Correct Answer: Arrange an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks only

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that all women with a BMI greater than 30 undergo screening for gestational diabetes using an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) between 24-28 weeks of pregnancy. Additionally, women who have risk factors for gestational diabetes, such as a family history of diabetes, a previous large baby weighing 4.5 kg or more, or belonging to an ethnic group with a high prevalence of diabetes, should also be offered an OGTT during this time. If a woman has previously had gestational diabetes, she should be offered an OGTT as soon as possible after booking and again at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal. Alternatively, early self-monitoring of blood glucose may be offered as an option.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - A 21 year old vegan patient presents at 10 weeks gestation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old vegan patient presents at 10 weeks gestation. She has a history of febrile seizures and anxiety but is not on any regular medications. She is seeking advice on whether she should take any vitamin supplements during her pregnancy. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

      Your Answer: No vitamin supplements needed

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D 10mcg and Folic acid 400mcg

      Explanation:

      All pregnant women are now advised to take 10mcg of vitamin D throughout their pregnancy. Additionally, low dose folic acid is recommended for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy for all women. However, those with pregnancies at a higher risk of neural tube defects should take 5mg of folic acid during the first 12 weeks. This includes couples where either partner has a neural tube defect or a family history of such defects, those who have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or women with coeliac disease, diabetes mellitus, sickle-cell anaemia, or who are taking antiepileptic medication.

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic after discovering she is pregnant. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic after discovering she is pregnant. She requests a referral to the hospital for her booking appointment. During the consultation, you inquire about her obstetric history. She reports having one child who is now 5 years old. Additionally, she has experienced two miscarriages, one at 8 weeks and another at 14 weeks. At the age of 18, she underwent a termination of pregnancy at 10 weeks.

      How would you document her gravidity and parity in the antenatal referral?

      Your Answer: G3 P1+2

      Correct Answer: G5 P1+3

      Explanation:

      Understanding Parity and Its Relationship with Gravity

      Parity refers to the number of pregnancies a woman has had that have been carried to a viable age, which is typically 24 weeks in the UK. This number is represented by a digit followed by a plus sign and another digit, which indicates the number of pregnancies that did not reach viability. Essentially, parity reflects the number of babies a woman has given birth to, while gravida refers to the number of times a woman’s uterus has contained a fetus, regardless of whether the pregnancy resulted in a live birth.

      It’s worth noting that parity only increases once a baby is born, whereas gravida increases from conception. For instance, if a woman has given birth to twins, her parity would be 2, while her gravida would be 1. Understanding the difference between parity and gravida is important for healthcare providers to accurately assess a woman’s obstetric history and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - Which one of the following statements regarding uterine fibroids is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding uterine fibroids is incorrect?

      Your Answer: May cause urinary symptoms

      Correct Answer: Undergo malignant change in 1 in 200 cases

      Explanation:

      Most pathologists hold the view that uterine leiomyosarcomas, which may appear as ‘fibroids’ at first, are most likely new growths rather than a conversion of pre-existing fibroids.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are believed to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility, but this is rare.

      Diagnosis is usually done through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is necessary. For menorrhagia, treatment options include the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, oral progestogen, and injectable progestogen. Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids includes GnRH agonists and ulipristal acetate, while surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, and complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia have been mentioned previously. Another complication is red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour and commonly occurs during pregnancy. Understanding uterine fibroids is important for women’s health, and seeking medical attention is necessary if symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - A 35-year-old woman presents to you requesting to start taking the pill. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to you requesting to start taking the pill. Her BMI is 36 kg/m² and she smokes 20 cigarettes daily. Her blood pressure reading is 126/88 mmHg. She is currently on day 13 of her menstrual cycle and you inform her that the combined oral contraceptive pill is not suitable for her. You suggest starting her on the progesterone only pill and she agrees, expressing her desire to begin as soon as possible.

      What advice would you give her to ensure protection against pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Start pill today and use condoms until next period

      Correct Answer: Start pill today use condoms for the next 48 hours

      Explanation:

      The effectiveness of the progesterone only pill can be achieved within 48 hours of starting it, regardless of the time in the menstrual cycle it is initiated.

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).

      When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

      It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.

      Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - A 32-year-old woman of Chinese Han ethnicity contacts her GP to discuss her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman of Chinese Han ethnicity contacts her GP to discuss her planned pregnancy, estimated to be at 6 weeks gestation. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Her mild asthma is well-controlled with inhaled beclomethasone. The GP recommends taking folic acid 5mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.

      What would be a reason for prescribing high-dose folic acid for this patient?

      Your Answer: History of asthma

      Correct Answer: Patient's body mass index (BMI)

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with a BMI of ≥30 kg/m² should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid to help prevent neural tube defects (NTD) in the first trimester of pregnancy. This is in addition to patients with diabetes, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD. Folic acid should ideally be started before conception to further reduce the risk of NTD.

      However, a history of asthma, smoking, patient age, and Asian ethnicity are not indications for high-dose folic acid prescribing in pregnancy. Smoking during pregnancy can increase the risk of prematurity, low birth weight, and cleft lip/palate, but there is currently no recommendation for high-dose folic acid prescribing for pregnant smokers. While asthma and extreme maternal age may carry some NTD risk, there is no current recommendation for high-dose folic acid prescribing for these patient groups.

      In addition to folic acid, all pregnant patients should take vitamin D 10mcg (400 units) daily throughout their entire pregnancy, according to NICE guidelines.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - A 35-year-old woman is experiencing constant fatigue, sadness, and tearfulness. She is also...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is experiencing constant fatigue, sadness, and tearfulness. She is also having trouble sleeping. These symptoms have been present for the past six months. The woman gave birth to her second child eight months ago and recently lost her mother, which has made things worse. Her older child is two years old. Despite having two healthy children, she has no interest in socializing, returning to work, or engaging in sexual activity. She feels guilty about not being able to snap out of it. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: postpartum psychosis

      Correct Answer: Baby blues

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Depression

      Postpartum depression is a common condition that affects many new mothers. It typically occurs within a year of childbirth and is characterized by a range of symptoms, including feelings of sadness, anxiety, and hopelessness. While some women may experience a short-lived reaction known as the baby blues, postnatal depression typically begins within two to three months of giving birth and can last for several months or even longer.

      If you are experiencing symptoms of postpartum depression, it is important to seek help from a healthcare professional. Treatment options may include therapy, medication, or a combination of both. With the right support and treatment, it is possible to overcome postpartum depression and enjoy a healthy, happy life with your new baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - A 28-year-old nanny at 17 weeks gestation contacts her doctor for guidance. She...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old nanny at 17 weeks gestation contacts her doctor for guidance. She recently cared for a child with Chickenpox and has been feeling slightly unwell for the past few days. However, she still feels well enough to continue working. Today, she woke up with small red dots on her face, scalp, torso, upper arms, and legs. Some of the dots are beginning to form blisters. The patient is of Indian descent and reports never having had Chickenpox before.

      What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Contact obstetrics/gynaecology for advice

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman who is not immune to Chickenpox is exposed to the virus, it is recommended to seek specialist advice. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) can be effective in preventing Chickenpox if given within 10 days of exposure. However, in this scenario, the woman is already 16 weeks pregnant and aciclovir should only be given to women over 20 weeks gestation within 24 hours of rash onset. As the patient has already developed Chickenpox, VZIG would not be appropriate.

      Chickenpox during pregnancy can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the fetus, including pneumonitis and fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if contracted before 28 weeks gestation. Therefore, offering reassurance alone is not sufficient in this case. While there is no indication that the patient is unwell enough to require emergency care, appropriate safety-netting should be provided due to the risk of severe complications.

      Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

      To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.

      If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - What is the accurate statement about the connection between IUDs and ectopic pregnancies?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the connection between IUDs and ectopic pregnancies?

      Your Answer: The proportion of pregnancies that are ectopic is decreased but the absolute number is increased

      Correct Answer: The proportion of pregnancies that are ectopic is increased but the absolute number is decreased

      Explanation:

      While the absolute number of ectopic pregnancies is decreased, the proportion of pregnancies that are ectopic is increased with the use of IUCD.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - A 28-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is evaluated for pre-eclampsia. Her...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is evaluated for pre-eclampsia. Her current blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and the urine dipstick shows:

      Protein +
      Leucocytes negative
      Blood negative

      There is no swelling and the patient is asymptomatic. Among the listed medications, which one is the least appropriate to administer?

      Your Answer: Losartan

      Explanation:

      To prevent birth defects, it is recommended to steer clear of ACE inhibitors and angiotensin-2 receptor blockers. Instead, many healthcare providers opt to prescribe methyldopa or labetalol as the initial treatment for this condition.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - A 27-year-old female patient presents to the GP seeking emergency contraception. She engaged...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient presents to the GP seeking emergency contraception. She engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a new partner 4 days ago and is not currently using any form of regular contraception. The patient has a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days and is currently on day 12. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.

      What would be the most suitable advice or course of action to provide?

      Your Answer: Offer emergency contraception with the copper intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      The copper intrauterine device can be used as emergency contraception within 5 days after the first unprotected sexual intercourse in a cycle or within 5 days of the estimated date of ovulation, whichever is later. It’s important to note that pregnancy can occur at any time during the menstrual cycle after unprotected sex. Levonorgestrel is approved for emergency contraception up to 72 hours after intercourse, while ulipristal acetate is approved for up to 120 hours after intercourse. Since the patient is still within 5 days of ovulation on day 16 of her regular cycle, the copper intrauterine device can be used as emergency contraception. There is no indication that the patient is pregnant and requires termination.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - A female patient who is 36 weeks pregnant is seen feeling generally unwell....

    Incorrect

    • A female patient who is 36 weeks pregnant is seen feeling generally unwell. She has been vomiting and is complaining of right upper quadrant pain. Her blood pressure is 144/94 and urinalysis shows 2+ protein. Urgent blood tests are as follows.

      Full blood count (FBC):
      Haemoglobin 103 g/L (115-160)
      White cell count 10.9 ×109L (4-11)
      Platelets 78 ×109L (150-400)

      Renal function:
      Serum sodium +140 mmol/L (135-146)
      Serum potassium +4.4 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      Urea 6.4 mmol/L (3-7)
      Creatinine 86 µmol/L (79-118)

      Liver function:
      Bilirubin 38 µmol/L (0-18)
      Alanine aminotransferase 158 U/L (5-40)
      Serum alkaline phosphatase 280 U/L (35-100)
      Serum amylase 60 U/L (<160)
      Serum lactate dehydrogenase 620 U/L (95-195)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal colic

      Correct Answer: Acute cholecystitis

      Explanation:

      HELLP Syndrome: A Dangerous Condition in Pregnant Women

      HELLP syndrome is a serious condition that can occur in pregnant women who have pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. It is characterized by liver damage and abnormalities in blood clotting, which can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby.

      The symptoms of HELLP syndrome include hypertension, right upper quadrant/epigastric pain, sickness/vomiting, and oedema. Haemolysis can cause anaemia and increase bilirubin levels, while elevated liver enzymes and low platelet counts are also common.

      It’s important to note that even mild elevations in blood pressure can lead to HELLP syndrome in some cases. Pregnant women with a diastolic BP of 90 or more should be evaluated for a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. Additionally, changes in blood pressure should be monitored closely, as a significant rise in diastolic or systolic BP can be a warning sign of HELLP syndrome.

      Overall, early detection and treatment of HELLP syndrome is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the baby. If you are pregnant and experiencing any of the symptoms associated with HELLP syndrome, it’s important to seek medical attention right away.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - A 50-year-old woman is interested in getting an intrauterine device (IUD). What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is interested in getting an intrauterine device (IUD). What is the correct statement about the expulsion rate?

      Your Answer: Occurs in around 1 in 200 women, and is more likely in the first 3 months

      Correct Answer: Occurs in around 1 in 20 women, and is more likely in the first 3 months

      Explanation:

      The risk of expulsion for intrauterine contraceptive devices is 1 in 20 during the first 3 months, making it the most common reason for IUD failure. Therefore, it is crucial to check the threads after every menstrual cycle.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - A child is born to a mother who has a history of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A child is born to a mother who has a history of chronic hepatitis B. The mother's recent test results indicate:

      HBsAg Positive
      HBeAg Positive

      What is the best approach to decrease the rate of vertical transmission?

      Your Answer: Give the mother intravenous zidovudine during labour

      Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B and Pregnancy: Screening and Prevention

      During pregnancy, all women are offered screening for hepatitis B. If a woman is found to be chronically infected with hepatitis B or has had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy, her baby should receive a complete course of vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. Studies are currently being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of oral antiviral treatment, such as Lamivudine, in the latter part of pregnancy.

      There is little evidence to suggest that a caesarean section reduces the transmission rates of hepatitis B from mother to baby. It is important to note that hepatitis B cannot be transmitted through breastfeeding, unlike HIV. Therefore, mothers with hepatitis B can safely breastfeed their babies without fear of transmission.

      Overall, screening for hepatitis B during pregnancy and taking appropriate preventative measures can greatly reduce the risk of transmission from mother to baby. It is important for healthcare providers to educate pregnant women about the importance of screening and prevention to ensure the health and safety of both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - Which one of the following about managing thyroid issues during pregnancy is inaccurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following about managing thyroid issues during pregnancy is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: Increased levels of thyroxine-binding globulin are seen in pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Block-and-replace is preferable in pregnancy compared to antithyroid drug titration

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which causes an increase in the levels of total thyroxine. However, this doesn’t affect the free thyroxine level. If left untreated, thyrotoxicosis can increase the risk of fetal loss, maternal heart failure, and premature labor. Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, but transient gestational hyperthyroidism can also occur due to the activation of the TSH receptor by HCG. Propylthiouracil has traditionally been the antithyroid drug of choice, but it is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatic injury. Therefore, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using propylthiouracil in the first trimester and switching to carbimazole in the second trimester. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism. Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked at 30-36 weeks gestation to determine the risk of neonatal thyroid problems. Block-and-replace regimens should not be used in pregnancy, and radioiodine therapy is contraindicated.

      On the other hand, thyroxine is safe during pregnancy, and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone should be measured in each trimester and 6-8 weeks postpartum. Women require an increased dose of thyroxine during pregnancy, up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy. Breastfeeding is safe while on thyroxine. It is important to manage thyroid problems during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - A 27-year-old female who is approximately 5 weeks pregnant presents to her GP....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female who is approximately 5 weeks pregnant presents to her GP. She reports a two-day history of scanty brownish discharge that resembled old blood; the bleeding has since stopped. She describes no associated abdominal or pelvic pain, has had no syncopal symptoms and no shoulder tip pain. She otherwise feels well.

      On examination, she is haemodynamically stable, there is no abdominal or pelvic tenderness. Urine βHCG is positive.

      As per NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: No further action required

      Correct Answer: Arrange immediate referral to hospital

      Explanation:

      Management of Bleeding in Early Pregnancy

      When a woman experiences bleeding in early pregnancy, it is important to follow the appropriate management guidelines. According to NICE advice, if bleeding settles before 6 weeks of gestation and the woman is haemodynamically stable and pain-free, a repeat pregnancy test should be done after 7-10 days to determine if a miscarriage has occurred. Follow-up should also be arranged to manage any changes in the clinical situation, with safety netting advice provided.

      Immediate referral to hospital is not necessary in this scenario, unless the patient becomes haemodynamically unstable. A serum βHCG test is also not required as a urinary pregnancy test has already been conducted and is positive. It is important to provide follow-up to ensure that the patient’s symptoms do not worsen and to check for a possible miscarriage.

      If a woman is less than 6 weeks pregnant and experiences bleeding but no pain, referral to an EPU is only necessary if bleeding continues after 6 weeks gestation or if symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy develop. In this case, the patient’s bleeding has settled, she is haemodynamically stable, and there are no symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - A soon-to-be mother is curious about medications during pregnancy, particularly folic acid supplements....

    Incorrect

    • A soon-to-be mother is curious about medications during pregnancy, particularly folic acid supplements. What factors increase the likelihood of a couple having a baby with a neural tube defect (NTD)?

      Your Answer: Afro-Caribbean ethnicity

      Correct Answer: Maternal coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      If a couple has a history of neural tube defects (NTDs), either partner has a NTD, or they have a family history of NTDs, they are at high risk of conceiving a child with this condition. Additionally, if the woman has coeliac disease, diabetes, thalassaemia trait, or is taking antiepileptic drugs, the risk is also increased. However, being obese (with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) is not a risk factor for NTDs and may actually be protective. On the other hand, advancing maternal age is a known risk factor for Down’s syndrome, while maternal rubella can lead to multiple congenital malformations and mental retardation in the child.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A 29-year-old woman who is known to be HIV positive presents following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is known to be HIV positive presents following a positive pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. The last CD4 count was 420 * 106/l and she doesn't take any antiretroviral therapy. What is the most appropriate management with regards to antiretroviral therapy?

      Your Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy at 10-12 weeks

      Correct Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy immediately

      Explanation:

      The 2015 BHIVA guidelines suggest that patients should commence HAART immediately upon HIV diagnosis, irrespective of pregnancy status, rather than delaying until a specific CD4 count, as was previously advised.

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In London, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Guidelines on this subject are regularly updated, and the most recent guidelines can be found using the links provided. Factors that can reduce vertical transmission from 25-30% to 2% include maternal antiretroviral therapy, mode of delivery (caesarean section), neonatal antiretroviral therapy, and infant feeding (bottle feeding).

      To ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy, NICE guidelines recommend offering HIV screening to all pregnant women. Additionally, all pregnant women should be offered antiretroviral therapy, regardless of whether they were taking it previously.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. Otherwise, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the procedure.

      Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also crucial in minimizing vertical transmission. Zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. Otherwise, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is another important factor to consider. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed to minimize the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - A 28-year-old woman has self-diagnosed an early pregnancy by self-testing. She immediately tells...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has self-diagnosed an early pregnancy by self-testing. She immediately tells her General Practitioner (GP) she wants a termination of pregnancy. The GP has religious beliefs that lead to a moral objection to abortion.
      What should the GP do in this situation?

      Your Answer: Express disapproval of the patient’s choice

      Correct Answer: Explain that their beliefs prevent them, personally, from facilitating onward care for this specific issue

      Explanation:

      Navigating Personal Beliefs in Medical Practice: Handling Conflicts with Duty of Care in Termination of Pregnancy

      As healthcare professionals, doctors are bound by their duty of care to provide appropriate medical treatment to their patients. However, personal beliefs can sometimes come into conflict with this duty, particularly in cases of termination of pregnancy. The General Medical Council’s Good Medical Practice (2013) allows doctors to practice medicine in accordance with their beliefs, as long as they do not treat patients unfairly, deny them access to appropriate medical treatment or services, or cause them distress.

      If a doctor’s personal beliefs prevent them from facilitating onward care for a patient seeking termination of pregnancy, there are several options available. The doctor can gently explain their conscientious objection to the procedure, but must not delay appropriate treatment or cause the patient distress. They can decline to continue with the consultation, but must still fully assess the patient’s needs and signpost them to another clinician for review if necessary. Alternatively, they can complete the consultation and refer the patient for termination of pregnancy, ensuring that the patient is treated fairly and respectfully and signposted to another clinician who can help.

      Regardless of the chosen course of action, the doctor must not express disapproval of the patient’s choice or imply judgment of their lifestyle, choices, or beliefs. It is important to navigate personal beliefs in medical practice with sensitivity and respect for the patient’s autonomy and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of coarse hair on her lip, chin,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of coarse hair on her lip, chin, chest and abdomen. She reports moderate menstrual irregularity and long periods of amenorrhoea. Upon examination, her body mass index is 40 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Benign ovarian tumour

      Correct Answer: Familial hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hirsutism and its Common Causes

      Hirsutism is a condition characterized by excessive hair growth in women, often in areas where hair is typically absent or minimal. The most common cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which accounts for 95% of cases. This condition is often accompanied by obesity and amenorrhea, which are indicative of insulin resistance.

      Biochemically, patients with PCOS have a reversed luteinising hormone:follicle-stimulating hormone (LH:FSH) ratio and elevated androstenedione with a low sex-hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). It is important to rule out other potential causes of hirsutism, such as androgen-producing tumors of the adrenal gland or ovary, Cushing’s syndrome, or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

      In summary, hirsutism is a common condition in women, with PCOS being the most common cause. Proper evaluation and diagnosis are crucial to ensure appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - What is the most probable cause of menorrhagia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable cause of menorrhagia?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)

      Correct Answer: Anovulatory cycles

      Explanation:

      Understanding Menorrhagia: Its Causes and Definition

      Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of this condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Menorrhagia can be caused by various factors, including dysfunctional uterine bleeding, anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease.

      Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. It refers to heavy menstrual bleeding in the absence of any underlying pathology. Anovulatory cycles, on the other hand, are more common in women at the extremes of their reproductive life. Uterine fibroids, which are noncancerous growths in the uterus, can also cause menorrhagia. Hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough hormones, can lead to heavy menstrual bleeding as well. Pelvic inflammatory disease, an infection of the female reproductive organs, can also cause menorrhagia. Finally, bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease, which affects the blood’s ability to clot, can also lead to heavy menstrual bleeding.

      It is important to note that the intrauterine device (IUD) is not a cause of menorrhagia. In fact, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is used to treat menorrhagia. Understanding the causes of menorrhagia is crucial in its management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Which of the following accurately defines the responsibilities of Caldicott guardians? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following accurately defines the responsibilities of Caldicott guardians?

      Your Answer: Designated senior doctor who takes responsibility for child protection

      Correct Answer: Protect access to confidential patient data

      Explanation:

      The Caldicott guardian is responsible for safeguarding patient information.

      The Role of Caldicott Guardians in Ensuring Patient Data Security

      The Caldicott Report of 1997 highlighted the inadequacies in the management of confidential patient data in some parts of the NHS. To address this issue, the report recommended the appointment of Caldicott Guardians, who are responsible for ensuring the security of patient data.

      Caldicott Guardians are members of staff who are tasked with overseeing the handling of confidential patient information within their respective NHS organizations. They are responsible for ensuring that patient data is kept secure and that access to it is restricted only to those who have a legitimate need to know.

      Today, it is mandatory for every NHS organization to have a Caldicott Guardian. This requirement is in place to ensure that patient data is protected from unauthorized access, theft, or misuse. By appointing Caldicott Guardians, the NHS is taking proactive steps to safeguard the privacy and confidentiality of patient information, which is essential for maintaining trust and confidence in the healthcare system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - Which one of the following drugs is safe for lactating mothers to use?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following drugs is safe for lactating mothers to use?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      The use of Warfarin during breastfeeding is deemed to be safe.

      Breastfeeding Contraindications: Drugs and Other Factors to Consider

      Breastfeeding is generally recommended for infants as it provides numerous benefits for both the baby and the mother. However, there are certain situations where breastfeeding may not be advisable. One of the major contraindications is the use of certain drugs by the mother, which can be harmful to the baby. Antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins, as well as endocrine medications like levothyroxine, can be given to breastfeeding mothers. On the other hand, drugs like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, and benzodiazepines should be avoided.

      Aside from drugs, other factors like galactosaemia and viral infections can also make breastfeeding inadvisable. In the case of HIV, some doctors believe that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of transmission, especially in areas where infant mortality and morbidity rates are high.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these contraindications and to provide appropriate guidance to mothers who are considering breastfeeding. By doing so, they can help ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - Which of the following statements about managing a pregnancy in a woman who...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about managing a pregnancy in a woman who is Rh-negative is accurate?

      Your Answer: Anti-D is still required following delivery of rhesus positive baby, even if the mother received routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Pregnancies that occur after the first childbirth are at the highest risk of complications if the mother was sensitized during the initial delivery. To mitigate this risk, the BCSH recommends that cord blood be tested for ABO and Rh D typing after birth. If the baby is confirmed to be D positive, all previously non-sensitized women who are D negative should be offered a minimum of 500 IU of anti-D Ig within 72 hours of delivery. Maternal samples should also be tested for FMH, and additional doses of anti-D Ig should be administered as indicated by the FMH test results.

      Rhesus negative mothers can develop anti-D IgG antibodies if they deliver a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D should also be given in various situations, such as delivery of a Rh +ve infant or amniocentesis. Tests include cord blood FBC, blood group, direct Coombs test, and Kleihauer test. Affected fetuses may experience oedema, jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and kernicterus, and may require transfusions and UV phototherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - A young female patient in her early twenties comes to see you in...

    Incorrect

    • A young female patient in her early twenties comes to see you in surgery and you notice that she is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      For which one of the following conditions, occurring in isolation, would you consider stopping her pill immediately?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure 155 systolic

      Correct Answer: Migraine without focal aura

      Explanation:

      Contraception and the BNF

      Contraception questions are frequently asked in exams, and the British National Formulary (BNF) is a valuable resource for examiners. Many previous exam questions have focused on knowledge of contraindications and important adverse reactions.

      According to the BNF, jaundice is a reason to immediately stop taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other reasons to stop taking the pill immediately include sudden severe chest pain, sudden breathlessness, and blood pressure above 160/100.

      The other conditions listed are all cautions and would not warrant stopping the pill in isolation. However, if two or more cautions are present, there may be a need to stop taking the pill. It is important to be aware of these guidelines when prescribing or taking contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum follow-up. She is exclusively...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum follow-up. She is exclusively breastfeeding and has not had a menstrual period yet. She has heard about using lactational amenorrhoea as a form of contraception and wants to know more about its effectiveness. Assuming she is fully breastfeeding, under 6 months postpartum, and has not yet had a period, what is the approximate efficacy of the lactational amenorrhoea method of contraception?

      Your Answer: 85%

      Correct Answer: 98%

      Explanation:

      If a woman is fully or almost fully breastfeeding, under 6 months postpartum, and not experiencing periods yet, lactational amenorrhoea can be a highly effective form of contraception. The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use (UKMEC) recommends that if these conditions are met, there may be no need for an alternative contraceptive method at this time.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - A 28-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents for her 12-week prenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents for her 12-week prenatal check-up. She reports being a moderate smoker and her carbon monoxide level is measured at 15 ppm. What is the most effective intervention that can be suggested for pregnant women in this situation?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Before providing nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), it is recommended to conduct cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or motivational interviewing with pregnant women who smoke. Additionally, it is important to screen all pregnant women for smoking using a carbon monoxide monitor.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - A 19-year-old female visits her doctor after missing one of her Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female visits her doctor after missing one of her Microgynon 30 pills yesterday morning. She has been taking Microgynon for the last 2 years and is currently on day 4 of her pill packet. She had sexual intercourse the previous night and is uncertain about the next steps. She took yesterday's pill and today's pill this morning. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Emergency contraception should be offered

      Correct Answer: No action needed

      Explanation:

      No action is required as she has missed only one pill. For more details, please refer to the FSRH guidelines.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A woman who is 32-weeks pregnant comes for antenatal check-up. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 32-weeks pregnant comes for antenatal check-up. She has been healthy and has not experienced any pregnancy-related issues so far. What is not required as part of her regular evaluation?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure

      Correct Answer: Auscultation of the fetal heart

      Explanation:

      NICE doesn’t recommend routine auscultation for the fetal heart, but if the mother requests it, it may provide reassurance.

      Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.

      The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.

      At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.

      At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - A 29-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing fatigue and has not had a regular period for the past 5 months. She previously had a consistent 28-day cycle. A pregnancy test is negative, her pelvic exam is normal, and routine blood work is ordered:

      Complete blood count - normal
      Electrolyte panel - normal
      Thyroid function test - normal
      Follicle-stimulating hormone - 40 iu/l ( < 35 iu/l)
      Luteinizing hormone - 30 mIU/l (< 20 mIU/l)
      Oestradiol - 75 pmol/l ( > 100 pmol/l)

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gonadotropin-producing pituitary adenoma

      Correct Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flashes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, and elevated FSH and LH levels. Hormone replacement therapy or a combined oral contraceptive pill is recommended until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT doesn’t provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A 35-year-old female presents for preconception counseling. She was recently released from the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female presents for preconception counseling. She was recently released from the Gynaecology department after receiving one dose of methotrexate for the medical management of an ectopic pregnancy. She presents you with a discharge letter indicating that her ßHCG level is now undetectable. She is interested in conceiving again and wants to know when it is safe to do so.

      Your Answer: 2 months

      Explanation:

      Systemic Methotrexate for Tubal Ectopic Pregnancy

      According to RCOG Green top guideline No. 21, systemic methotrexate is a viable option for treating tubal ectopic pregnancy. This drug has been found to be equally successful as laparoscopic surgery in certain cases. However, it is crucial to first rule out an intrauterine pregnancy before administering methotrexate.

      One advantage of using methotrexate is that it doesn’t affect ovarian reserve. However, women undergoing treatment should avoid alcohol and folate-containing vitamins. Additionally, it is recommended that women avoid pregnancy for at least three months after receiving methotrexate due to its teratogenic potential. This is because the drug may remain present in some organs for an extended period of time, which could potentially harm fetal development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - A 35-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. During her booking appointment, her blood pressure was 112/78 mmHg, but today it has increased to 146/94 mmHg. Upon testing her urine, the results are as follows:

      Protein negative
      Leukocytes negative
      Blood negative

      What is the most suitable diagnosis for her current state?

      Your Answer: Pre-existing hypertension

      Correct Answer: Gestational hypertension

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a consultation regarding contraception after giving birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a consultation regarding contraception after giving birth to her son via emergency caesarean section 3 weeks ago. She is eager to start contraception as soon as possible.

      She is currently breastfeeding and supplementing with formula at night. She has previously used the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) without any issues and is willing to resume it.

      What is the most suitable initial contraception option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Restart combined oral contraceptive pill immediately

      Correct Answer: Offer the progestogen-only implant

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate management option for this patient is to offer the progestogen-only implant, as it can be safely inserted immediately after delivery and provides a long-term contraception option. Advising her that she doesn’t require contraception is not appropriate, as she is using a top-up formula and not exclusively breastfeeding. Offering the Mirena coil or restarting the combined oral contraceptive pill immediately are also not appropriate options, as they have specific timing requirements and potential risks for postpartum women.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - A 25-year-old patient with complex partial seizures controlled with carbamazepine is 32 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient with complex partial seizures controlled with carbamazepine is 32 weeks pregnant.

      She has not had a seizure throughout pregnancy. She expresses a wish to breastfeed, but is concerned that the carbamazepine may affect her child.

      What advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer: Serum carbamazepine levels should be monitored whilst Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Epilepsy and Pregnancy: Considerations for Medication and Breastfeeding

      Carbamazepine (CBZ) is present in breast milk, but only in small amounts. Breastfeeding mothers should be encouraged to continue breastfeeding as the levels of CBZ in breast milk are too low to cause any harm to the baby.

      Prior to conception, it is recommended that women take folic acid at a dose of 5 mg daily to prevent neural tube defects in the fetus. However, it is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers.

      For patients with well-controlled epilepsy, there is no increased risk of seizures during pregnancy or the postpartum period. While there is no routine need to monitor serum anti-epileptic concentrations, the NICE guidelines suggest monitoring levels in certain circumstances such as adjusting phenytoin dose, poor concordance, and suspected toxicity.

      Overall, it is important for women with epilepsy to work closely with their healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - A 21-year-old woman presents requesting a repeat prescription of the combined oral contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents requesting a repeat prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC).

      Which of these statements is true about the COC?

      Your Answer: If a pill is missed 10 days into the pill cycle, emergency contraception is needed

      Correct Answer: A 12 month review is acceptable once the patient is established on the pill

      Explanation:

      Starting and Maintaining the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COC) can be started at any point during the menstrual cycle, as long as the woman is not pregnant. Once established on the COC, it is reasonable to give a 12-month prescription.

      According to the latest guidance from the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), additional precautions are no longer required to maintain contraceptive efficacy when using antibiotics that are not enzyme inducers with the COCP for durations of 3 weeks or less. However, if the antibiotics or illness cause vomiting or diarrhea, the usual additional precautions relating to these conditions should be observed.

      If seven COC pills have been taken, ovulation is suppressed for a further seven days, and emergency contraception is not required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex the day before. She expresses her reluctance to use intrauterine methods and is prescribed Levonelle. Additionally, she is interested in starting a combined contraceptive pill.

      What advice would you give regarding the need for supplementary contraception when initiating a combined contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: 2 days

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Starting Hormonal Contraception After Emergency Contraception

      When starting hormonal contraception after taking progesterone-only emergency contraception, it is important to advise the use of additional contraception until contraceptive efficacy is established. If there is still a risk of pregnancy, the woman should express her preference for contraception immediately and be aware of the theoretical risk of fetal exposure to hormones, although evidence indicates no harm. A pregnancy test should be suggested at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse.

      After taking progesterone-only emergency contraception, it is recommended to use condoms or avoid sex for seven days before starting most hormonal contraception. However, if ulipristal emergency contraception is taken, its effectiveness could be reduced if progestogen is taken in the following five days. Therefore, the quick start of suitable hormonal contraception should be delayed for five days (120 hours) after ulipristal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - A 56-year-old lady presents to your clinic seeking advice on managing her menopausal...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old lady presents to your clinic seeking advice on managing her menopausal symptoms. She reports her last period occurred 12 months ago and is experiencing bothersome hot flashes and vaginal dryness. She has no significant medical or surgical history and is interested in trying hormone replacement therapy (HRT) after a thorough discussion of the risks and benefits.
      After counseling, there are no contraindications to hormonal treatment, and she is eager to start a suitable regimen.
      What is the most appropriate HRT prescription for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen only HRT

      Correct Answer: Continuous combined HRT

      Explanation:

      Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) Options for Women

      Women who have had a hysterectomy can use unopposed oestrogens, but those with a uterus must use regimens with both oestrogen and progestogen to avoid the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and potential malignant transformation. Postmenopausal women can use combined continuous regimens, while those still having periods can use cyclical HRT. Urogenital symptoms can be treated with topical oestrogens or non-hormonal vaginal moisturisers. Low dose combined pills may be an option for under 50s, but careful patient selection is necessary due to contraindications and cautions. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each option with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - A couple is struggling with infertility. The male partner is 32-years-old and the...

    Correct

    • A couple is struggling with infertility. The male partner is 32-years-old and the female partner is 33-years-old. They have no children and she has never been pregnant before. They have been having regular unprotected sexual intercourse.
      The male partner is in good health with no significant medical history or testicular problems. He doesn't smoke or drink alcohol and has a body mass index of 23.5 kg/m2. The female partner has regular periods every four weeks and bleeds for four to five days with each period. She has no significant menstrual issues or vaginal bleeding or discharge. Her periods have always been light and regular. She has no other significant medical history and is a non-smoker, non-alcohol drinker, with a body mass index of 24.1 kg/m2. Neither of them take any regular medications.
      They have returned to seek further advice after initial investigations were conducted.
      It is noted that she had blood tests for FSH, LH, prolactin, TFTs and a day 21 progesterone, all of which were normal. High vaginal swabs were normal. She also underwent an open access hysterosalpingogram which was normal. His semen analysis was normal.
      What is the most appropriate management advice to provide at this stage?

      Your Answer: They should be referred to a secondary care infertility clinic if they have not conceived after a year of trying

      Explanation:

      Infertility Management and Referral Criteria

      Infertility is a common issue that affects many couples. According to the Clinical Knowledge Summaries, if a couple has been having regular unprotected sexual intercourse for one year and are without comorbidities that affect fertility, investigation into the cause of infertility should be initiated. If no cause is found, the couple should be referred for specialist input.

      The referral criteria for infertility may vary between health authorities, so it is important to refer to local guidelines. However, in general, if the woman is younger than 36 years and history, examination, and investigations are normal in both partners, referral should be considered if the couple has not conceived after one year. If the woman is aged 36 years or older, referral should be considered after six months. Earlier referral may be necessary if there is a known cause for infertility, a history of factors that predispose to infertility, or if treatment is planned that may result in infertility.

      It is important to ensure that the couple has been offered counselling before, during, and after investigation and treatment, regardless of the outcome. Infertility and its investigation and treatment can cause psychological stress, and infertility counsellors are provided by all licensed clinics in the UK through the British Infertility Counselling Association.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - The practice nurse has asked you to see a patient who has had...

    Incorrect

    • The practice nurse has asked you to see a patient who has had a routine cervical smear test which shows atypical endometrial cells. She is 55 years old and has only had two periods in the last year.

      She wants to know what course of action needs to be followed.

      What is the correct course of action with a finding of atypical endometrial cells in a woman aged 55?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral - possibility of endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: Non urgent referral to a gynaecologist - likely to be an endometrial polyp.

      Explanation:

      Atypical Endometrial Cells: Significance and Associated Risks

      Diagnosis of atypical endometrial cells is of clinical significance as it may indicate the presence of significant uterine disease. In fact, more than one-third of women with histological follow-up have been found to have such conditions. Atypical endometrial cells may be associated with various conditions such as endometrial polyp, chronic endometritis, intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD), endometrial hyperplasia, and endometrial carcinoma. The risk of carcinoma is particularly concerning, and patients should be referred to a gynaecologist for further investigation. Urgent referral is recommended, and patients should be seen within two weeks of referral to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - What were the primary care lessons highlighted in the Confidential Enquiry into Maternal...

    Correct

    • What were the primary care lessons highlighted in the Confidential Enquiry into Maternal Deaths 2018 report?

      Your Answer: There has been a significant reduction in deaths from mental & medical causes over the last 10 years

      Explanation:

      Key Points from the MBRRACE-UK Report for Primary Care

      The MBRRACE-UK report is an important document that primary care practitioners should be familiar with. It is likely that AKT questions will be set on this report, so understanding the main take-home points is crucial. Here are some key points relating to epidemiology:

      – There was a statistically non-significant increase in the overall maternal death rate in the UK between 2011-13 and 2014-16, indicating the need for implementation of the report’s recommendations to reduce maternal deaths.
      – Maternal mortality rates are significantly higher among women from black and Asian ethnic backgrounds compared to white women, highlighting the need to address these disparities.
      – Thrombosis and thromboembolism remain the leading cause of direct maternal death during or up to six weeks after the end of pregnancy.
      – Maternal suicide is the third largest cause of direct maternal deaths, and eliciting any relevant history of mental health problems is essential for appropriate management of risk.
      – Women with a high BMI should be given information about the symptoms of VTE, and those with a BMI ≥40 kg/m2 require postnatal thromboprophylaxis regardless of mode of delivery.
      – Prescriptions for the entire postnatal course of low molecular weight heparin should be issued in secondary care to ensure women receive the full course without needing to visit their GP for another prescription.

      By understanding these key points, primary care practitioners can provide better care for pregnant and postnatal women, and help reduce maternal mortality rates in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - The mother of a 13-year-old boy comes to your clinic. She received a...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 13-year-old boy comes to your clinic. She received a letter from school informing her that her son will be offered the HPV vaccine soon. However, she is concerned that getting the vaccine may encourage her son to engage in sexual activity at an early age. Despite your attempts to discuss the benefits of the vaccine, she remains hesitant. What advice should you give to the mother?

      Your Answer: Her mother can request a delay until her daughter is 16-years-old

      Correct Answer: The daughter can have the HPV vaccine against her mothers wish

      Explanation:

      Parents are informed and the NHS website states that the daughter can still receive the vaccine even if the parents object.

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.

      The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.

      Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - A 27-year-old woman who is 3 weeks postpartum seeks your advice on contraception....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 3 weeks postpartum seeks your advice on contraception. She wants to know when she can have an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted. She had a caesarean section due to failure to progress during labor. What would be your recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: An IUD can be inserted 12 weeks postpartum

      Correct Answer: An IUD can be inserted 4 weeks postpartum

      Explanation:

      The guidelines indicate that there is no requirement to delay further, even if a caesarean section was performed.

      Contraindications for Insertion of Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices

      When it comes to the insertion of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUDs), there are very few contraindications. However, it is important to note that some conditions may increase the risks associated with the procedure. According to the Faculty of Family Planning and Reproductive Health Care, there are certain conditions that fall under UKMEC Category 3, where the risks outweigh the benefits. These include insertion between 48 hours and 4 weeks postpartum, as well as initiation of the method in women with ovarian cancer.

      On the other hand, UKMEC Category 4 lists conditions that pose an unacceptable risk for IUD insertion. These include pregnancy, current pelvic infection, puerperal sepsis, immediate post-septic abortion, unexplained vaginal bleeding, and uterine fibroids or anatomical abnormalities that distort the uterine cavity.

      In addition, NICE guidelines from 2005 recommend screening for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) before IUD insertion. Women at risk of STIs should be tested for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, especially in areas where the latter is prevalent. Women who request it should also be tested for any STIs. For those at increased risk of STIs, prophylactic antibiotics should be given before IUD insertion if testing has not yet been completed.

      It is important to consider these contraindications and guidelines before undergoing IUD insertion to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - A 30-year-old woman gave birth to her first child by caesarean section 3...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman gave birth to her first child by caesarean section 3 weeks ago. She is currently breastfeeding and wants to begin using contraception. What method of contraception should she avoid due to absolute contraindication?

      Your Answer: Combined contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - You are reviewing the recent results for a 23-year-old patient in your general...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing the recent results for a 23-year-old patient in your general practice. A vaginal swab has come back positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. The patient has a history of asthma and is allergic to penicillin. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant. You have contacted the genitourinary clinic for contact tracing and treatment for her partner. What is the most suitable prescription for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      In the case of treating Chlamydia during pregnancy, erythromycin would be the most appropriate option among the listed antibiotics. Amoxicillin, azithromycin, or erythromycin can be used to treat Chlamydia during pregnancy. However, since the patient is allergic to penicillin, amoxicillin is not suitable. Doxycycline, which is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated Chlamydia in non-pregnant individuals, is not recommended during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. Co-amoxiclav is also not appropriate for treating Chlamydia and is contraindicated in this patient due to their penicillin allergy.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - A 27-year-old female with epilepsy controlled on topiramate is seeking advice on contraception...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female with epilepsy controlled on topiramate is seeking advice on contraception options that will not interfere with her medication. She desires a reliable method due to concerns about teratogenicity. What type of contraception would be suitable to recommend while taking an enzyme-inducing medication?

      Your Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Correct Answer: Injectable progesterone (Depo- provera)

      Explanation:

      According to the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health and the BNF, the recommended contraceptive method in this case is injectable progesterone. This method is not affected by drug interactions. However, as topiramate is an enzyme inducer, it can reduce the effectiveness of oestrogens and progesterone, which are components of combined contraceptive pills. Therefore, if a combined contraceptive pill is to be used, it should contain at least 50 micrograms of ethinyl estradiol. Barrier methods alone are not reliable and should not be used as the sole form of contraception. Progesterone-only pills and implants are not suitable due to the enhanced first pass metabolism of progesterone, which can result in decreased contraceptive efficacy.

      Contraception for Women with Epilepsy

      Women with epilepsy need to consider several factors when choosing a contraceptive method. The effectiveness of anti-epileptic medication can be affected by the contraceptive, and vice versa. Additionally, if a woman becomes pregnant while taking anti-epileptic medication, there is a risk of teratogenic effects on the fetus. To address these concerns, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends the consistent use of condoms in addition to other forms of contraception.

      For women taking certain anti-epileptic medications such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, and oxcarbazepine, the FSRH recommends using the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) or progestogen-only pill (POP) with a UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) rating of 3. The implant has a UKMEC rating of 2, while the Depo-Provera injection, intrauterine device (IUD), and intrauterine system (IUS) have a UKMEC rating of 1.

      For women taking lamotrigine, the FSRH recommends using the COCP with a UKMEC rating of 3 or the POP, implant, Depo-Provera injection, IUD, or IUS with a UKMEC rating of 1. If a COCP is chosen, it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol.

      In summary, women with epilepsy should carefully consider the potential interactions between their anti-epileptic medication and their chosen contraceptive method. Using condoms consistently in addition to other forms of contraception can help reduce the risk of unintended pregnancy and potential teratogenic effects on the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - A 21-year-old woman presents herself for consultation a day after being discharged from...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents herself for consultation a day after being discharged from the hospital following a termination of pregnancy at 16 weeks. Despite discussing long-acting reversible contraceptives, she expresses her eagerness to commence the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill. What is the best course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Start COC after 21 days

      Correct Answer: Start COC immediately

      Explanation:

      Following a miscarriage or abortion, the COC can be initiated without delay and provides immediate protection against pregnancy for women.

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.

      Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - A 29-year-old woman has given birth to her first child.

    The child was breech...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman has given birth to her first child.

      The child was breech and she underwent external cephalic version. She is adamant that she and her partner want one child only and that he will be seeking a vasectomy. The child's blood group is A rhesus positive, the mother's blood group is 0 rhesus negative.

      What is the most suitable recommendation regarding anti-D injection?

      Your Answer: As there is no risk associated with anti-D, it should be given even though she is not planning any more children

      Correct Answer: She should be strongly advised to consider anti-D, but it is not essential as she is not planning any more children

      Explanation:

      Anti-D Injection for Rhesus Antibody Sensitisation

      Rhesus antibody sensitisation is a condition that requires careful consideration when deciding whether or not to administer anti-D injection. According to NICE guidelines, women should be given the option to discuss the need for this injection. If a woman has decided not to have any further children, immunisation with anti-D may not be necessary as long as she is sure her family is complete. However, it is important to note that patients often change their minds, and this needs to be discussed.

      It is also important to consider the benefits and risks of anti-D injection. All preparations of anti-D carry a small risk of allergic reaction, as with the use of all medicines. The risk of D sensitisation is greatest during the first pregnancy and increased in ante-partum haemorrhage, third trimester miscarriage, termination, and with chorionic villus sampling. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the potential benefits and risks of anti-D injection before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - What criteria can a health professional use to be reasonably certain that a...

    Correct

    • What criteria can a health professional use to be reasonably certain that a woman is not pregnant when she wants to start contraception and has no pregnancy symptoms or signs?

      Your Answer: Is fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and 4 months postpartum

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Determining Pregnancy Status in Starting Contraception

      Health professionals can determine with reasonable certainty whether a woman is pregnant or not before starting contraception. This is important to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the chosen contraceptive method. According to CKS NICE, the following criteria can be used to determine pregnancy status:

      – The woman has not had sexual intercourse since the last normal menses.
      – The woman has used a reliable method of contraception correctly and consistently.
      – The woman is within the first 7 days of the onset of a normal menstrual period.
      – The woman is within 4 weeks postpartum for non-breastfeeding women.
      – The woman is within the first 7 days post-termination of pregnancy or miscarriage.
      – The woman is fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum.
      – A pregnancy test is performed no sooner than 3 weeks since the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) and is negative.

      By following these criteria, health professionals can ensure that women are not inadvertently exposed to the risks of contraceptive methods during pregnancy. It is important to note that if there is any doubt about pregnancy status, a pregnancy test should be performed before starting contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - A 38-year-old woman presents to you after discovering she is pregnant. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to you after discovering she is pregnant. She has a medical history of high cholesterol, asthma, constipation, and hay fever. She is currently taking multiple medications, including atorvastatin, a combination beclomethasone-formoterol inhaler, montelukast, nasal steroids, and lactulose. She seeks guidance on how to manage her regular medication during pregnancy.

      What recommendations would you provide to her?

      Your Answer: Stop beclomethasone-formoterol inhaler but continue her regular medication

      Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin but continue her regular medication

      Explanation:

      Statin therapy is not recommended during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital anomalies and potential impact on fetal development. Atorvastatin, in particular, is contraindicated during pregnancy and should be avoided three months prior to attempting pregnancy. However, lactulose and nasal steroids are considered safe for use during pregnancy. It is important for pregnant individuals with asthma to continue taking their medication to maintain good symptom control.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - A 32 year old woman who is 15 days postpartum visits your clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman who is 15 days postpartum visits your clinic complaining of feeling feverish and hot for the past 3 days. She reports having a painful, swollen, and red right breast. During examination, her temperature is 37.8 degrees, and there is firmness and erythema in the upper quadrant of the right breast. Based on the diagnosis of puerperal mastitis, what is the most appropriate advice to provide her?

      Your Answer: Admit for intravenous antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Advise her to continue Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women, typically occurring six weeks after giving birth. It can be difficult to distinguish between an engorged breast, blocked duct, non-infectious mastitis, and infected mastitis. Milk accumulation in breast tissue can cause an inflammatory response, leading to bacterial growth and resulting in a painful breast with fever, malaise, and a tender, red, swollen, and hard area of the breast.

      If symptoms do not improve or worsen after 12-24 hours despite effective milk removal, or if a nipple fissure is infected, infectious mastitis should be suspected. Breast milk culture is not routinely required unless mastitis is severe, there has been no response to antibiotics, or this is recurrent mastitis.

      Management of mastitis involves relieving pain with simple analgesia and warm compresses, and ensuring complete emptying of the breast after feeding. Breastfeeding should be continued as it improves milk removal and prevents nipple damage. If pain prevents breastfeeding, expressing breast milk by hand or pump is recommended until breastfeeding can be resumed.

      Antibiotics are only recommended if necessary, and the first line antibiotic is flucloxacillin for 14 days (erythromycin if penicillin allergic). Intravenous antibiotics are rarely needed, but urgent referral to breast surgeons for drainage may be necessary if a breast abscess is suspected.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - A thirty-two-year-old lady presents for postpartum contraception review. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A thirty-two-year-old lady presents for postpartum contraception review. She has a history of using combined hormonal contraceptives and wishes to continue with this method. She is currently 14 days postpartum.
      What would be a contraindication to prescribing a combined hormonal contraceptive at this time?

      Your Answer: Body max index >25 kg/m2

      Correct Answer: She suffered with pre-eclampsia in the antenatal period

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Options for Postpartum Women

      Postnatally, it is important for women to undergo a risk assessment for venous thromboembolism before considering their contraceptive options. Women with risk factors for venous thromboembolism within 6 weeks of childbirth, such as immobility, postpartum haemorrhage, and pre-eclampsia, should not use combined hormonal contraception. This applies to women who are breastfeeding and not breastfeeding, as the risk of venous thromboembolism is the same for both groups. However, the risk reduces quickly over the first three weeks postpartum, and the UKMEC advises that women who breastfeed should wait until six weeks postpartum before using combined hormonal contraception. Studies have shown that early initiation of combined hormonal contraception may have inconsistent effects on breastfeeding performance and conflicting data on infant outcomes, but overall, there is no negative impact on infant outcomes when initiated from six weeks postpartum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - A 32-year-old woman has come to see you to discuss the results of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has come to see you to discuss the results of her smear test.

      Unfortunately, the sample was inadequate and needs to be repeated.

      How soon after the initial smear should she have the repeat smear taken?

      Your Answer: 28 days

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Importance of Waiting for Cervical Epithelium Regeneration and Antimicrobial Treatment

      It is crucial to wait for at least three months for the regeneration of the cervical epithelium after a screening test. This is because the epithelium needs time to heal and regenerate before another test is conducted. Rushing to re-sample before the regeneration of the epithelium can lead to inaccurate results, which can be detrimental to the patient’s health.

      Moreover, if there is any suspicion of infection, antimicrobial treatment should be administered before re-sampling. This is because an infection can interfere with the accuracy of the test results, leading to false positives or false negatives. Therefore, it is essential to wait for the regeneration of the cervical epithelium and treat any suspected infection before conducting another screening test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking guidance on contraception. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking guidance on contraception. She has entered a new relationship but is uncertain if she needs contraception due to her suspicion of being in menopause. She is currently experiencing hot flashes and has not had a period in 9 months. What is the best course of action to recommend?

      Your Answer: Contraception is needed until 12 months after her last period

      Correct Answer: Contraception is needed until 24 months after her last period

      Explanation:

      Contraception is still necessary after menopause. Women who are over 50 years old should use contraception for at least 12 months after their last period, while those under 50 years old should use it for at least 24 months after their last period.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - A 28-year-old female presents with a six month history of heavy menstrual flow...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents with a six month history of heavy menstrual flow for which she has used at least 12 sanitary towels daily.

      She has had generally heavy periods but has found that her condition has deteriorated in the last six months.

      Which of the following therapies would be your next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Medical Management of Menorrhagia

      Menorrhagia is a condition where menstrual loss exceeds 80 ml. While cyclic progestins have been used to treat menorrhagia, they have not been adequately tested in randomized controlled trials. On the other hand, tranexamic acid is considered the most effective medical intervention for menorrhagia.

      According to NICE guidelines, if pharmaceutical treatment is appropriate for menorrhagia, hormonal or non-hormonal treatments should be considered in a specific order. The first option is the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system, which provides long-term relief for at least 12 months. The second option is tranexamic acid, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or combined oral contraceptives. The third option is norethisterone (15 mg) daily from days 5 to 26 of the menstrual cycle or injected long-acting progestogens.

      If hormonal treatments are not acceptable to the woman, then either tranexamic acid or NSAIDs can be used. It is important to note that a randomized trial of high-dose, longer-term cyclic norethisterone compared with a progestin-releasing IUD showed that flow was reduced by 87%. However, the current consensus of opinion favors tranexamic acid as the most effective medical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. She missed her last menstrual period and had unprotected sexual intercourse 8 weeks ago. She denies any vaginal discharge or bleeding and has no urinary symptoms.

      During the examination, her abdomen is soft, but there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic region. Her heart rate is 72 beats per minute, blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg, and she has no fever. A pregnancy test is performed, and it comes back positive.

      As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what would be the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Measure serum human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) and arrange repeat blood test in 48 hours

      Correct Answer: Arrange immediate referral to the early pregnancy assessment unit

      Explanation:

      Women with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be immediately referred for assessment to exclude ectopic pregnancy, which could be fatal. Referral should be made even if an ultrasound cannot be arranged immediately, as the patient may require monitoring in hospital. Serial hCG measurements should not be done in secondary care, and referral to a sexual health clinic alone is not appropriate.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for women, often leading them to seek medical attention. The main causes of bleeding during this time include miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. Of these causes, ectopic pregnancy is the most important to rule out as it can be life-threatening if missed.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal or pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman experiences bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat.

      For pregnancies under six weeks gestation and no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, expectant management is appropriate. Women should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops, to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test indicates a miscarriage. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage bleeding in the first trimester and ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - Linda is a 35-year-old woman who is 19 weeks pregnant. She presents to...

    Correct

    • Linda is a 35-year-old woman who is 19 weeks pregnant. She presents to the emergency department with a 2 day history of sharp abdominal pain. There is no vaginal bleeding. She also has a low grade fever of 37.8 ºC. Her pregnancy until now has been unremarkable.

      On examination, she is haemodynamically stable, but there is tenderness on palpation of the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. Fetal heart rate was normal. An ultrasound scan was performed which showed a singleton pregnancy, and multiple large fibroids in the uterus. The ovaries appear normal and there was no appendix inflammation.

      What is the most likely cause of Linda's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Fibroid degeneration

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, fibroid degeneration can occur and may cause symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting. If an ultrasound scan shows no signs of inflammation in the appendix, it is unlikely that the patient has appendicitis. Given the presence of fibroids in the uterus, the patient is at risk of experiencing fibroid degeneration, particularly red degeneration, which can cause fever, pain, and vomiting. The absence of vaginal bleeding makes it unlikely that the patient is experiencing a threatened miscarriage. Ovarian torsion typically presents with pain and vomiting, but it is usually associated with risk factors such as ovarian cysts or enlargement.

      Understanding Fibroid Degeneration

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that can develop in the uterus. They are known to be sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy. However, if the growth of the fibroids exceeds their blood supply, they can undergo a type of degeneration known as red or ‘carneous’ degeneration. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.

      Fortunately, fibroid degeneration can be managed conservatively with rest and analgesia. With proper care, the symptoms should resolve within 4-7 days. It is important to note that fibroid degeneration is a common occurrence and doesn’t necessarily indicate a serious underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - A 25-year-old woman who recently immigrated from Malawi comes in for a check-up...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who recently immigrated from Malawi comes in for a check-up suspecting she may be pregnant. After a positive pregnancy test, it is revealed that she is HIV positive. What aspect of her management plan should be excluded to ensure the best possible outcome?

      Your Answer: Encourage Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      The BHIVA guidelines recommend that women on HAART with an undetectable viral load may consider vaginal delivery, but it is uncertain if this will be implemented in real-world situations. As for breastfeeding, the guidelines advise all HIV-positive mothers, regardless of their antiretroviral therapy and infant PEP, to exclusively use formula feeding from the time of birth.

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In London, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Guidelines on this subject are regularly updated, and the most recent guidelines can be found using the links provided. Factors that can reduce vertical transmission from 25-30% to 2% include maternal antiretroviral therapy, mode of delivery (caesarean section), neonatal antiretroviral therapy, and infant feeding (bottle feeding).

      To ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy, NICE guidelines recommend offering HIV screening to all pregnant women. Additionally, all pregnant women should be offered antiretroviral therapy, regardless of whether they were taking it previously.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. Otherwise, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the procedure.

      Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also crucial in minimizing vertical transmission. Zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. Otherwise, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is another important factor to consider. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed to minimize the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - A 32-year-old woman is seen for review with her baby six weeks postpartum....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is seen for review with her baby six weeks postpartum. She is using the lactational amenorrheoic method (LAM) for contraception.
      Which of the following should she be advised may increase her risk of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Amenorrhoea persisting beyond three months

      Correct Answer: Menstruation returning

      Explanation:

      Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) as a Contraceptive

      Breastfeeding can be used as a form of contraception through the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM). This method works by suppressing ovarian activity, which prevents the return of menstrual periods after childbirth. For LAM to be effective, a woman must engage in full breastfeeding, which includes exclusive or almost exclusive breastfeeding with no other liquids or solids given.

      If the frequency or duration of breastfeeding decreases, the risk of menstrual periods and fertility increases. Women who experience bleeding within the first six months after childbirth have a higher risk of pregnancy than those who remain amenorrhoeic. To use LAM as a contraceptive, a woman must meet all three criteria: fully or nearly fully breastfeeding day and night, no long intervals between feeds, and amenorrhoeic and less than six months postpartum.

      When the rules of LAM are strictly followed, failure rates are less than 2%. Therefore, LAM can be an effective and natural form of contraception for women who choose to breastfeed their infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - A 47-year-old woman seeks guidance regarding contraception options while experiencing perimenopausal symptoms. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman seeks guidance regarding contraception options while experiencing perimenopausal symptoms. She and her partner are currently using condoms, which is satisfactory for them. Her last menstrual cycle occurred approximately 10 months ago. What advice should be given?

      Your Answer: She should have an intrauterine system inserted and started on oestrogen-only hormone replacement therapy

      Correct Answer: After 12 further months of amenorrhoea she may stop using condoms

      Explanation:

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - A 28-year-old woman presents with classic signs of a lower urinary tract infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with classic signs of a lower urinary tract infection that developed after having sex with a new partner.

      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Treat empirically with ciprofloxacin for seven days

      Correct Answer: Send MSU and await for result

      Explanation:

      Management of Lower Urinary Tract Infection

      Guidance from SIGN1 recommends that in cases of lower urinary tract infection (UTI), a dipstick test is not necessary if typical symptoms are present. However, if minimal symptoms or signs are present, a dipstick test should be performed. If the test is positive for leukocytes and nitrites, treatment should be commenced. If it is negative, clinical judgement should be used to determine whether to offer empirical treatment and/or send a mid-stream urine (MSU) sample.

      In cases where there are signs or symptoms of upper UTI infection, such as loin pain and systemic symptoms, admission should be considered. Non-pregnant women of any age with symptoms or signs of acute LUTI should be treated with a three-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage lower UTIs and provide appropriate treatment to patients. Proper management can help prevent the spread of infection and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - A woman aged 25 asks your practice nurse for advice on travel immunisations.

    She...

    Correct

    • A woman aged 25 asks your practice nurse for advice on travel immunisations.

      She is 16 weeks pregnant and is travelling to a rural part of Asia to visit her family as her father is very ill. She doesn't know what vaccinations she may have had as a child and the practice doesn't have any old records. The nurse wants to know if she can give the vaccines. Which vaccine should not be given to a pregnant woman?

      Your Answer: Cholera

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations for Pregnant Women

      It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of vaccinations for pregnant women. Live virus vaccines, such as the yellow fever vaccine, should not be given to pregnant women due to the theoretical risk of the fetus contracting the infection. However, if travel to a high-risk area is unavoidable, the individual risk from the disease and vaccine should be assessed. Inactivated viral or bacterial vaccines and toxoids, such as those for hepatitis A and B, cholera, and tetanus, are generally safe for pregnant women and may be given when clinically indicated. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - You are having a conversation about contraception with a 25-year-old patient via phone....

    Incorrect

    • You are having a conversation about contraception with a 25-year-old patient via phone. She had the new Kyleena® intrauterine system (IUS) inserted yesterday at the local family planning clinic. She is not using any other form of contraception. Her menstrual cycle began 5 days ago.

      She is curious to know if she requires additional contraception and for how long?

      Your Answer: She needs to use another form of contraception for 4 more days

      Correct Answer: No further contraception is required

      Explanation:

      No additional contraception is necessary if the Kyleena® IUS is inserted within the first seven days of a patient’s menstrual cycle. This form of intrauterine contraception contains a lower dose of levonorgestrel than the Mirena® IUS and is approved for use for up to five years.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - You are assessing a patient who is 36 weeks pregnant with her fourth...

    Correct

    • You are assessing a patient who is 36 weeks pregnant with her fourth child. Her third child had neonatal sepsis caused by Group B Streptococcus. During her recent visit to the obstetrician, it was recommended that she receive antibiotics via IV during labor to prevent a recurrence.

      What is the appropriate IV antibiotic for this patient?

      Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Group B Streptococcus (GBS) Infection in Neonates

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns during the early stages of life. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, making them potential carriers of the bacteria. Infants can be exposed to GBS during labor and delivery, which can lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of the membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management. The guidelines state that universal screening for GBS should not be offered to all women, and a maternal request is not an indication for screening. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be informed that their risk of maternal GBS carriage in this pregnancy is 50%. They should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and then antibiotics if still positive. If women are to have swabs for GBS, this should be offered at 35-37 weeks or 3-5 weeks prior to the anticipated delivery date. IAP should be offered to women with a previous baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease, women in preterm labor regardless of their GBS status, and women with a pyrexia during labor (>38ºC). Benzylpenicillin is the antibiotic of choice for GBS prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - A woman is seen six months postpartum. She is breastfeeding her baby. She...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is seen six months postpartum. She is breastfeeding her baby. She has had unprotected sexual intercourse and requires emergency contraception. After discussing the options she is prescribed levonorgestrel.
      Which of the following is the correct advice to give with regards the feeding of her baby?

      Your Answer: She should be advised not to breastfeed and to express and discard milk for four weeks after taking ulipristal acetate

      Correct Answer: She should be advised not to breastfeed and to express and discard milk for a week after taking ulipristal acetate

      Explanation:

      Emergency Contraception after Childbirth

      Levonorgestrel and ulipristal acetate are safe options for emergency contraception after childbirth, regardless of whether a woman is breastfeeding or not. Levonorgestrel has been shown to have no adverse effects on breastfeeding or infant outcomes, so women can continue to breastfeed after taking it.

      However, ulipristal acetate is excreted in breast milk, and its effects on infants are not fully understood. Therefore, it is recommended that women do not breastfeed for seven days after taking it. To maintain lactation, women should express and discard breast milk during this time. Overall, emergency contraception is a viable option for women after childbirth, and healthcare providers can help them make informed decisions about which method to use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - A 28-year-old female is six weeks pregnant. She has had some vaginal bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female is six weeks pregnant. She has had some vaginal bleeding and RIF pain.

      On examination she is pyrexial 37.6°C and tender in the RIF, her urine contains blood ++ and protein +. Her past history includes pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a miscarriage and two terminations. Her urine pregnancy test is still positive.

      What is the most suitable next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Arrange an emergency admission

      Explanation:

      Possible Ectopic Pregnancy: A Gynaecological Emergency

      If you have a history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), previous terminations, and a positive pregnancy test, you should be aware of the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. This condition occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate admission to a hospital. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications, such as internal bleeding and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - A 35-year-old primiparous woman is concerned about her risk of developing gestational diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primiparous woman is concerned about her risk of developing gestational diabetes due to a friend's experience. According to NICE, what risk factor would require an oral glucose tolerance test to investigate for gestational diabetes?

      Your Answer: Previous baby birth weight 4.3kg

      Correct Answer: Father has non-insulin dependent diabetes

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, screening for gestational diabetes should be done for women who have a first degree relative with non-insulin dependent diabetes. Additionally, if a second urine dipstick test is positive for glucose, it may also indicate the need for further investigation. However, a birth weight of 4.3kg falls within the normal range of 2.5-4.5kg and would not be a sufficient reason to conduct a glucose tolerance test.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - A 23-year-old woman contacts her doctor to request a referral for antenatal care....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman contacts her doctor to request a referral for antenatal care. She has been attempting to conceive for the past year and has recently received a positive pregnancy test result. Her LMP was 5 weeks ago, which prompted her to take the test. The patient is in good health with no pre-existing medical conditions, doesn't smoke, and abstains from alcohol. Her BMI is 34 kg/m².

      What is the advised folic acid consumption for this patient?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 5mg daily, continue until end of 1st trimester

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have a BMI of 30 kg/m² or higher should be given a daily dose of 5mg folic acid until the 13th week of pregnancy. Folic acid is crucial during the first trimester to prevent neural tube defects (NTD). While most pregnant women require 400mcg of folic acid daily during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, those with a BMI of over 30 kg/m² need a higher dose.

      Apart from women with a BMI of over 30 kg/m², those with diabetes, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD should also be prescribed a daily dose of 5mg folic acid. It is recommended to start taking folic acid while trying to conceive to further reduce the risk of NTD.

      In addition to folic acid, NICE advises all pregnant women to take 10mcg (400 units) of vitamin D daily throughout their pregnancy. This should be continued until the end of their pregnancy.

      Pregnancy and Obesity: Risks and Management

      Obesity during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the unborn child. A woman is considered obese if her body mass index (BMI) is equal to or greater than 30 kg/m² at the first antenatal visit. Maternal risks include miscarriage, venous thromboembolism, gestational diabetes, pre-eclampsia, dysfunctional labour, induced labour, postpartum haemorrhage, wound infections, and a higher rate of caesarean section. Fetal risks include congenital anomaly, prematurity, macrosomia, stillbirth, increased risk of developing obesity and metabolic disorders in childhood, and neonatal death.

      It is important to note that women with a BMI of 30 or more should not try to reduce the risk by dieting while pregnant. Instead, health professionals caring for them during their pregnancy will manage the risk. At the booking appointment, women with a BMI of 30 or more should be informed of the risks to their health and the health of their unborn child.

      Management of obesity during pregnancy includes taking 5mg of folic acid instead of 400mcg, screening for gestational diabetes with an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks, giving birth in a consultant-led obstetric unit if the BMI is equal to or greater than 35 kg/m², and having an antenatal consultation with an obstetric anaesthetist and a plan made if the BMI is equal to or greater than 40 kg/m². By managing the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy, both the mother and the unborn child can have a healthier outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - You see a 29-year-old female patient who has been trying to conceive with...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 29-year-old female patient who has been trying to conceive with her partner for 18 months. They are both typically healthy and have not previously had a successful pregnancy. She has a regular menstrual cycle and is not taking any medications. She expresses interest in being referred to a fertility clinic, but you explain that she must first undergo some blood tests and her partner must have a semen analysis. You also discuss the most common reasons for fertility problems. However, her partner is hesitant about having a semen analysis. What percentage of infertile couples experience male infertility as the cause?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infertility: Initial Investigations and Key Counselling Points

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. However, it is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sex will conceive within 1 year, and 92% within 2 years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      To determine the cause of infertility, basic investigations are typically conducted. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test, which is done 7 days prior to the expected next period. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if the level is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it consistently remains low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      In addition to these investigations, there are key counselling points that should be addressed. These include advising the patient to take folic acid, aiming for a BMI between 20-25, and having regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Patients should also be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption.

      By understanding the initial investigations and key counselling points for infertility, healthcare professionals can provide their patients with the necessary information and support to help them conceive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - As per the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following tests should not...

    Incorrect

    • As per the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following tests should not be routinely offered to women during the initial antenatal care visit?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Blood glucose

      Explanation:

      NICE has made a surprising decision to no longer recommend routine glucose testing during antenatal care. Instead, they suggest that only individuals who are considered at risk, such as those with a history of obesity, previous macrosomic baby, family history, or Asian ethnicity, should have their blood glucose levels checked.

      Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.

      The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.

      At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.

      At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - A 29-year-old woman has recently discovered that she is expecting her first child....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman has recently discovered that she is expecting her first child. She has no significant medical history and is seeking guidance on vitamin D supplementation. What would be the most suitable recommendation to provide?

      Your Answer: Offer vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should steer clear of soft cheese as it may pose a risk of Listeria infection.

      Specific Points for Antenatal Care

      Antenatal care is an essential aspect of pregnancy, and NICE has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. Some specific points to consider during antenatal care include nausea and vomiting, vitamin D, and alcohol consumption.

      For nausea and vomiting, natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point are recommended by NICE. However, antihistamines such as promethazine are suggested as first-line treatment in the BNF.

      Vitamin D is crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby. NICE recommends that all women should be informed about the importance of maintaining adequate vitamin D stores during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Women may choose to take 10 micrograms of vitamin D per day, as found in the Healthy Start multivitamin supplement. Women at risk, such as those who are Asian, obese, or have a poor diet, should take particular care.

      Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to long-term harm to the baby. In 2016, the Chief Medical Officer proposed new guidelines recommending that pregnant women should not drink alcohol at all. The official advice is to keep risks to the baby to a minimum, and the more alcohol consumed, the greater the risk.

      In summary, antenatal care should include specific points such as managing nausea and vomiting, maintaining adequate vitamin D levels, and avoiding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. These guidelines aim to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - You encounter a 24-year-old nulliparous woman who wishes to discuss contraception. She has...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 24-year-old nulliparous woman who wishes to discuss contraception. She has tried various pills over the past few years but has not found one that suits her.

      During your discussion of the available options, she expresses a preference for an intrauterine system (IUS) over a copper intrauterine device (IUD) due to concerns about heavier or more painful periods. You provide information on the Mirena®, Jaydess®, and newer Kyleena® IUS options, but she is uncertain which one to choose.

      What advice should you offer her?

      Your Answer: The Kyleena® IUS contains more LNG than the Jaydess IUS

      Explanation:

      The Kyleena intrauterine system (IUS) has a higher amount of levonorgestrel (LNG) compared to the Jaydess IUS. The Mirena IUS has the highest amount of LNG (52mg) and is approved for use for up to 5 years in this age group. On the other hand, the Jaydess IUS has the lowest amount of LNG (13.5mg) and is approved for use for up to 3 years. The Kyleena IUS contains 19.5mg of LNG and is approved for use for up to 5 years, making it a better option than the Jaydess IUS in terms of LNG content. While the Mirena IUS has the highest amount of circulating LNG, it may have a better bleeding profile than the other options. Additionally, the Jaydess and Kyleena IUS are smaller in size and have smaller insertion tubes, which may make them easier to fit.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - Olive is 12 weeks pregnant. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity...

    Incorrect

    • Olive is 12 weeks pregnant. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity with multiple partners for the past 6 months and is concerned about the potential impact of a sexually transmitted infection on her unborn child. Which of the following STIs is typically included in the antenatal screening program in the UK?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia

      Correct Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      During the booking visit for prenatal care, healthcare providers typically test for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) that can have serious consequences for the mother and/or the developing fetus. These include syphilis, hepatitis B, and HIV. Testing for hepatitis C is usually only done for women who are at high risk, such as those who use intravenous drugs. Other STIs, such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, trichomonas, bacterial vaginosis, genital herpes, and genital warts, are not routinely tested for during pregnancy unless the patient has symptoms or is considered to be at risk. It is important to identify and treat STIs during pregnancy to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

      Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.

      The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.

      At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.

      At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - As the duty doctor at a GP practice, you encounter a 26-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • As the duty doctor at a GP practice, you encounter a 26-year-old woman who is on the desogestrel progesterone only contraceptive pill (POP). She has been suffering from a vomiting bug and has missed taking her pill for four days. However, she is now feeling better and has taken two of her POPs this afternoon. She plans to continue taking them daily from now on. Her last sexual encounter was seven days ago. What guidance should you provide regarding extra contraception?

      Your Answer: Additional contraception is needed for 72 hours

      Correct Answer: Additional contraception is needed for 48 hours

      Explanation:

      If a patient misses a progesterone only pill by over 12 hours or a desogestrel pill by over 36 hours, they should take the missed pill as soon as they remember. Only one pill should be taken, even if multiple pills have been missed. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may result in taking two pills in one day. To ensure effectiveness, additional contraceptive precautions such as condoms or abstaining from sex should be taken for 48 hours after restarting the pill. Emergency contraception may be necessary if unprotected sex occurred after the missed pill and within 48 hours of restarting it. The desogestrel pill has the advantage of a longer window for taking it, reducing the likelihood of missed pills.

      The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to not confuse the two. For traditional POPs such as Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, and Femulen, as well as Cerazette (desogestrel), if a pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required and pill taking can continue as normal. However, if a pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. If a pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required. But if a pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

      If action is needed, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed, only one pill should be taken. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day. Pill taking should continue with the rest of the pack. Extra precautions, such as using condoms, should be taken until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman is seeking advice from you. Her younger sister has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman is seeking advice from you. Her younger sister has recently been diagnosed with Chickenpox and she is concerned about her own health as she is currently 16 weeks pregnant. The patient lives with her sister and spends a significant amount of time with her every day. At present, she is feeling well and has not shown any signs of infection or rashes. What would be the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: As she is past her first trimester she doesn't need any further intervention and there is no risk to the developing baby.

      Correct Answer: If she doesn't think she has had Chickenpox previously blood should be taken to check her immunity and guide management.

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox and Pregnancy

      Chickenpox is a common illness that can affect pregnant women. It has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days and those affected are infectious for two days before the rash appears.

      If the pregnant woman has a definite history of Chickenpox, there is no risk to the developing fetus. However, if there is uncertainty about past exposure, a blood test can be done to check for immunity.

      If the test detects specific IgG, it confirms past exposure and the patient can be reassured. If not, VZ-immunoglobulin may be administered within 10 days from exposure to prevent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - A 50-year-old lady presents to you seeking advice on how to manage her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady presents to you seeking advice on how to manage her possible menopause. Her periods have been light and infrequent for a few years and stopped about three months ago. She has no significant medical or surgical history. Her family history doesn't reveal any significant cardiovascular or thromboembolic disease, and she has never smoked. She has had two pregnancies, both resulting in healthy children. Currently, she feels well, and on further questioning, she reports experiencing mild flashes that are not bothersome. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80, and her BMI is 23. What advice should you give her regarding her possible menopause?

      Your Answer: If she is worried about pregnancy risk then a low dose COCP would be her best option, as it would treat her flashes as well as provide contraception

      Correct Answer: She is probably post menopausal but she should continue to use contraception until 12 months have elapsed since her last period

      Explanation:

      Understanding Menopause and Hormone Replacement Therapy

      The menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is defined as the cessation of normal menstruation, which typically occurs around the age of 51 in the UK. However, the climacteric, a period of gradually declining ovarian function, can begin years before and last years after menopause itself. This perimenopausal period can be characterized by irregular periods and occasional menorrhagia.

      To be considered postmenopausal, a woman must have gone without menstruation for at least 12 months. However, it is important to note that a woman can still potentially become pregnant for up to two years after her last period if she is under 50, and one year if over 50. Therefore, contraception should be discussed with healthcare providers.

      While hormone replacement therapy (HRT) can be used to alleviate symptoms of hypo-oestrogenism, it is not always necessary or appropriate. Routine hormone testing is not recommended unless there is diagnostic doubt. Women who are considering HRT should discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider, as well as any pre-existing medical conditions that may affect their suitability for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - A 28-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum seeks advice. She had unprotected...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum seeks advice. She had unprotected sex with her partner two nights ago. She is currently breastfeeding her baby and her partner gives a formula feed at night. She has not had any periods since giving birth and is concerned about the possibility of becoming pregnant again, which she considers not an option at the moment. The incident of unprotected sex occurred approximately 50 hours ago, and she is not open to considering an intrauterine device. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Reassure her that there is no chance of pregnancy in the first 12 weeks postpartum

      Correct Answer: Prescribe levonorgestrel

      Explanation:

      The lactational amenorrhea method is most effective for women who are less than 6 months postpartum, fully breastfeeding, and not experiencing menstrual periods. However, if the baby is receiving formula at night, this method may not be completely reliable. Additionally, ulipristal, a medication used for emergency contraception, is excreted in breast milk for up to 5 days after use, so it is recommended to avoid breastfeeding for a week after taking it, which could significantly impact a woman’s ability to breastfeed.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. During the consultation, she mentions having experienced migraine with aura in the past. She asks why the combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for her. How should you respond?

      Your Answer: Increased frequency of migraines

      Correct Answer: Significantly increased risk of ischaemic stroke

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.

      When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.

      In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - A 30-year-old woman who is 7 weeks pregnant is taking 25 mg of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 7 weeks pregnant is taking 25 mg of sertraline daily for depression. She wants to know more about the potential risks to her baby. What is the accurate statement regarding the use of sertraline during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: There is no increased risk of congenital malformations or lasting adverse fetal outcomes following prenatal SSRI use

      Correct Answer: The use of selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) in the first trimester is associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations, especially cardiovascular malformations

      Explanation:

      Taking SSRIs during the first trimester of pregnancy has been linked to a higher likelihood of congenital malformations, particularly those affecting the heart. However, it is not recommended for women to suddenly stop taking antidepressants during pregnancy. The potential risks and benefits should be carefully weighed, and if a decision is made to discontinue the medication, it should be done gradually. It is advisable to avoid St. John’s wort during pregnancy if possible. Additionally, using an SSRI in later pregnancy (after 20 weeks) may increase the risk of persistent pulmonary hypertension and withdrawal symptoms in newborns.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - A 56-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of post-coital bleeding. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of post-coital bleeding. She has been in menopause for two years. Upon conducting a full pelvic examination, you find everything to be normal, including the cervix. She has been experiencing these symptoms for the past eight weeks. The patient has a history of breast cancer and is currently taking tamoxifen. What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Start hormone replacement therapy

      Correct Answer: Refer her urgently for a specialist opinion

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for postmenopausal Bleeding and Tamoxifen Use

      You need to urgently refer the patient for a specialist opinion as she is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding and is taking tamoxifen, which increases the risk of endometrial cancer. It is important to note that waiting for the results of a cervical smear test or considering hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is not appropriate in this situation.

      This question is testing your understanding of important alarm symptoms, such as postmenopausal bleeding, and the associated risk factors, such as tamoxifen use. It also assesses your knowledge of referral guidelines and the urgency of seeking specialist opinion in such cases. Remember to always prioritize patient safety and seek appropriate medical advice when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - A 29-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents with concerns about excessive facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents with concerns about excessive facial hair growth. Despite switching to co-cyprindiol, there has been no improvement. Upon examination, hirsutism is noted on her moustache, beard, and temple areas. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Topical salicylic acid

      Correct Answer: Topical eflornithine

      Explanation:

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.

      Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - A 32-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. During her midwife appointment, glucose was detected in her urine and her fasting plasma glucose level was measured, resulting in 7.2mmol/L. What should be the next course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Commence insulin

      Explanation:

      To manage gestational diabetes, insulin should be started if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis. Therefore, commencing insulin is the correct answer. Offering a trial of diet and exercise changes or commencing metformin only would not be appropriate in this case. Referral for an oral glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis is not necessary as a patient can be diagnosed with gestational diabetes based on their fasting plasma glucose level or 2-hour plasma glucose level. However, discussing diet and exercise changes with the patient may be helpful in managing the condition.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic seeking guidance regarding her cervical screening invitation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic seeking guidance regarding her cervical screening invitation, which indicates that her cervical screening test is now due. She has consistently attended screening and has never received an abnormal result. She is presently 28 weeks pregnant, and there is no significant obstetric or gynaecological history. When should she schedule her cervical screening test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months following delivery

      Explanation:

      Cervical Screening During Pregnancy

      According to the latest guidelines from the NHS Cervical Screening Programme, it is not recommended for women to have cervical screening while pregnant. However, if a smear test is due during pregnancy, it is advised to wait approximately three months after delivery before having the test. This recommendation is particularly relevant for women with no history of abnormal smears. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure accurate results and to avoid any potential harm to the developing fetus. Therefore, if you are pregnant and due for a smear test, it is best to wait until after delivery to schedule your appointment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (42/199) 21%
Passmed