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  • Question 1 - You are working at a General Practice surgery, and a 30-year-old office worker...

    Incorrect

    • You are working at a General Practice surgery, and a 30-year-old office worker presents with abdominal discomfort and frequent episodes of diarrhoea with blood and mucous mixed in. He reports feeling as though he needs to empty his bowels, even after he has just done so. Symptoms have worsened over the past 2 months. He has no nausea or vomiting and has not been abroad in the last year. He has not lost weight. His only recent medications are paracetamol and loperamide. On examination, his abdomen is soft, but there is mild tenderness in the left lower quadrant. There is blood on the glove after digital rectal examination.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diverticulitis

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a young patient with bloody diarrhoea and left lower quadrant pain

      Explanation:

      A young patient presents with frequent episodes of bloody diarrhoea, tenesmus, and left lower quadrant tenderness. The differential diagnosis includes several conditions that affect the large bowel, such as inflammatory bowel disease (ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease), Clostridium difficile infection, colorectal cancer, diverticulitis, and irritable bowel syndrome.

      To confirm the diagnosis and distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy with biopsies will be needed. C. difficile infection is unlikely in this case, as the patient does not have risk factors such as recent antibiotic use, older age, recent hospital stay, or proton pump inhibitor use.

      Colorectal cancer is also unlikely given the patient’s age, but inflammatory bowel disease, especially ulcerative colitis, increases the risk for colorectal cancer later in life. Therefore, it is important to ask about a family history of cancer and perform appropriate investigations.

      Diverticulitis is another possible cause of left lower quadrant pain, but it is uncommon in young people, and symptomatic diverticula are rare below the age of 40. Most people have diverticula by the age of 50, but they are often asymptomatic unless they become inflamed, causing fever and tachycardia.

      Finally, irritable bowel syndrome may cause bleeding from trauma to the perianal area, but the bleeding is usually small in volume and not mixed in with the stool. Therefore, this condition is less likely to explain the patient’s symptoms of bloody diarrhoea and left lower quadrant pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 43-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amount...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amount of bright red blood, although the exact volume was not measured. On examination, you discover that there is a palpable spleen tip, and spider naevi over the chest, neck and arms.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Causes and Management of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various conditions, including oesophageal varices, Mallory-Weiss tear, peptic ulcer, gastric ulcer, and oesophagitis. In cases of suspected oesophageal varices, examination findings of splenomegaly and spider naevi suggest chronic liver failure with portal hypertension. Immediate management includes resuscitation, PPI levels, and urgent endoscopy to diagnose and treat the source of bleeding. Peptic ulcer is the most common cause of serious upper GI bleeding, but sudden-onset haematemesis of large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices. OGD can diagnose both oesophageal varices and peptic ulcers. Oesophagitis may cause pain but is unlikely to lead to significant haematemesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old alcoholic with known cirrhotic liver disease is admitted to the Gastroenterology...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old alcoholic with known cirrhotic liver disease is admitted to the Gastroenterology Ward with a distended abdomen, jaundice and confusion. During examination, he is found to be clinically jaundiced and has a massively distended abdomen with evidence of a fluid level on percussion. A sample of fluid is taken from his abdomen and sent for analysis, which reveals that the fluid is an exudate.
      What is an exudative cause of ascites in this case?

      Your Answer: Budd–Chiari syndrome

      Correct Answer: Malignancy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Ascites: Differentiating between Transudative and Exudative Ascites

      Ascites refers to the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified based on the protein content of the fluid. Transudative ascites, which has a protein content of less than 30 g/l, is commonly associated with portal hypertension, cardiac failure, fulminant hepatic failure, and Budd-Chiari syndrome. On the other hand, exudative ascites, which has a protein content of more than 30 g/l, is often caused by infection or malignancy. In the case of the patient scenario described, a malignant cause is more likely. It is important to differentiate between transudative and exudative ascites to determine the underlying cause and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 38-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has troublesome...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has troublesome diarrhoea. She reports that she has had diarrhoea daily and it has a strong, malodorous smell. The unintentional weight loss is 7 kg over the last year and she has had a general decrease in energy.
      Which preparation would be most suitable to decrease her diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Loperamide

      Correct Answer: Pancreatin

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Medications and Their Uses

      Pancreatin is a mixture of digestive enzymes that aid in the digestion of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. It is used in conditions where there is a lack of pancreatic enzyme production, such as cystic fibrosis and chronic pancreatitis. Pancreatin should be taken with meals and may cause side-effects such as nausea and hypersensitivity.

      Co-phenotrope is a combination drug that controls the consistency of faeces following ileostomy or colostomy formation and in acute diarrhoea. It is composed of diphenoxylate and atropine and may cause side-effects such as abdominal pain and lethargy.

      Cholestyramine binds bile in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its reabsorption. It is used in conditions such as hypercholesterolaemia and primary biliary cholangitis. Side-effects may include constipation and nausea.

      Loperamide is an antimotility agent used in acute diarrhoea. It may cause side-effects such as constipation and nausea.

      Psyllium, also known as ispaghula, is a bulk-forming laxative that aids in normal bowel elimination. It is mainly used as a laxative but may also be used to treat mild diarrhoea.

      Understanding Common Gastrointestinal Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of fatigue, weakness, and worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of fatigue, weakness, and worsening itchiness. Upon examination, there are no significant findings. Blood tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
      Test Result
      Full blood count Normal
      Renal profile Normal
      Alkaline phosphatase Elevated
      γ-glutamyl transferase Elevated
      Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase Normal
      Bilirubin Slightly elevated
      Antimitochondrial antibody M­2 (AMA) Positive
      Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA) Negative
      Anti-liver/kidney microsomal antibody (anti-LKM) Negative
      Hepatitis screen Negative
      HIV virus type 1 and type 2 RNA Negative
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Liver Diseases: Differentiating PBC, PSC, and AIH

      Autoimmune liver diseases, including primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), and autoimmune hepatitis (AIH), can present with non-specific symptoms and insidious onset. However, certain demographic and serological markers can help differentiate between them.

      PBC is characterized by chronic granulomatous inflammation of small intrahepatic bile ducts, leading to progressive cholestasis, cirrhosis, and portal hypertension. It is often diagnosed incidentally or presents with lethargy and pruritus. AMA M2 subtype positivity is highly specific for PBC, and treatment involves cholestyramine for itching and ursodeoxycholic acid. Liver transplantation is the only curative treatment.

      PSC is a disorder of unknown etiology characterized by non-malignant, non-bacterial inflammation, fibrosis, and strictures of the intra- and extrahepatic biliary tree. It is more common in men and frequently found in patients with ulcerative colitis. AMA is negative, and diagnosis is based on MRCP or ERCP showing a characteristic beaded appearance of the biliary tree.

      AIH is a disorder of unknown cause characterized by autoantibodies directed against hepatocyte surface antigens. It can present acutely with signs of fulminant autoimmune disease or insidiously. There are three subtypes with slightly different demographic distributions and prognoses, and serological markers such as ASMA, anti-LKM, and anti-soluble liver antigen antibodies can help differentiate them.

      A hepatitis screen is negative in this case, ruling out hepatitis C. A pancreatic head tumor would present with markedly elevated bilirubin and a normal autoimmune screen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man comes to Surgical Outpatients, reporting abdominal pain after eating. He...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man comes to Surgical Outpatients, reporting abdominal pain after eating. He has a medical history of a heart attack and three transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs). The doctor diagnoses him with chronic mesenteric ischaemia. What section of the intestine is typically affected?

      Your Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mesenteric Ischaemia: Common Sites of Affection

      Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that can be likened to angina of the intestine. It is typically seen in patients who have arteriopathy or atrial fibrillation, which predisposes them to arterial embolism. When these patients eat, the increased vascular demand of the bowel cannot be met, leading to ischaemia and abdominal pain. The most common site of mesenteric ischaemia is at the splenic flexure, which is the watershed between the superior and inferior mesenteric arterial supplies.

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia occurs when a blood clot blocks the blood supply to a section of the bowel, causing acute ischaemia and severe abdominal pain. While the sigmoid colon may be affected in mesenteric ischaemia, it is not the most common site. It is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The hepatic flexure, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, and the ileocaecal segment, which is also supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, are not the most common sites of mesenteric ischaemia. The jejunum, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, may also be affected, but it is not the most common site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old stockbroker has been experiencing difficulty swallowing solids for the past few...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old stockbroker has been experiencing difficulty swallowing solids for the past few months, while having no trouble swallowing liquids. He does not smoke and denies any alcohol consumption. His medical history is unremarkable except for the fact that he has been using antacids and H2-receptor blockers for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease for the past 5 years, with little relief from symptoms. Upon examination, there are no notable findings.
      What is the probable reason for this man's dysphagia?

      Your Answer: Benign oesophageal stricture

      Explanation:

      Causes of dysphagia: differential diagnosis based on patient history

      Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can have various causes, including structural abnormalities, functional disorders, and neoplastic conditions. Based on the patient’s history, several possibilities can be considered. For example, a benign oesophageal stricture may develop in patients with acid gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and can be treated with endoscopic dilation and reflux management. Diffuse oesophageal spasm, on the other hand, may cause dysphagia for both solids and liquids and be accompanied by chest pain. A lower oesophageal web can produce episodic dysphagia when food gets stuck in the distal oesophagus. Oesophageal squamous carcinoma is less likely in a young non-smoking patient, but should not be ruled out entirely. Scleroderma, a connective tissue disorder, may also cause dysphagia along with Raynaud’s phenomenon and skin changes. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to determine the underlying cause of dysphagia and guide the treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old Indian woman presents to the Emergency Department with vomiting and central...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old Indian woman presents to the Emergency Department with vomiting and central abdominal pain. She has vomited eight times over the last 24 hours. The vomit is non-bilious and non-bloody. She also reports that she has not moved her bowels for the last four days and is not passing flatus. She reports that she had some form of radiation therapy to her abdomen ten years ago in India for ‘stomach cancer’. There is no urinary urgency or burning on urination. She migrated from India to England two months ago. She reports no other past medical or surgical history.
      Her observations and blood tests results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Temperature 36.9 °C
      Blood pressure 155/59 mmHg
      Heart rate 85 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 19 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 96% (room air)
      White cell count 8.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein 36 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      The patient’s urine dipstick is negative for leukocytes and nitrites. Physical examination reveals a soft but distended abdomen. No abdominal scars are visible. There is mild tenderness throughout the abdomen. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Rectal examination reveals no stool in the rectal vault, and no blood or melaena.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Small bowel obstruction

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Small Bowel Obstruction, Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia, Diverticulitis, Pyelonephritis, and Viral Gastroenteritis

      Abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider different possibilities to provide appropriate management. Here are some differential diagnoses for abdominal pain:

      Small bowel obstruction (SBO) is characterized by vomiting, lack of bowel movements, and hyperactive bowel sounds. Patients who have had radiation therapy to their abdomen are at risk for SBO. Urgent management includes abdominal plain film, intravenous fluids, nasogastric tube placement, analgesia, and surgical review.

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is caused by reduced arterial blood flow to the small intestine. Patients with vascular risk factors such as hypertension, smoking, and diabetes mellitus are at risk. Acute-onset abdominal pain that is out of proportion to examination findings is a common symptom.

      Diverticulitis presents with left iliac fossa pain, pyrexia, and leukocytosis. Vital signs are usually stable.

      Pyelonephritis is characterized by fevers or chills, flank pain, and lower urinary tract symptoms.

      Viral gastroenteritis typically presents with fast-onset diarrhea and vomiting after ingestion of contaminated food. However, the patient in this case has not had bowel movements for four days.

      In summary, abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider the patient’s history, physical examination, and laboratory findings to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with a 6-month history of increasing difficulty with swallowing solid foods. He does not have any problems with swallowing liquids. He has always been overweight but has lost 5 kg in the past few months. He attributes this eating a little less due to his swallowing difficulties. He has a past history of long-term heartburn and indigestion, which he has been self-treating with over-the-counter antacids. The GP is concerned that the patient may have oesophageal cancer.
      Which one of the following statements with regard to oesophageal cancer is correct?

      Your Answer: Dysphagia is a late manifestation

      Correct Answer: Achalasia predisposes to squamous carcinoma of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oesophageal Carcinoma: Risk Factors, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the oesophagus, the muscular tube that connects the throat to the stomach. In this article, we will discuss the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis of oesophageal carcinoma.

      Risk Factors

      Achalasia, a condition that affects the ability of the oesophagus to move food down to the stomach, and alcohol consumption are associated with squamous carcinoma, which most commonly affects the upper and middle oesophagus. Barrett’s oesophagus, a pre-malignant condition that may lead to squamous carcinoma, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) predispose to adenocarcinoma, which occurs in the lower oesophagus.

      Diagnosis

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a recognised pre-malignant condition that requires acid-lowering therapy and frequent follow-up. Ablative and excisional therapies are available. Most cases are amenable to curative surgery at diagnosis. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, is an early manifestation of the disease and is typically experienced with solid foods.

      Prognosis

      Prognosis depends on the stage and grade at diagnosis, but unfortunately, the disease frequently presents once the cancer has spread. Therefore, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes.

      Conclusion

      Oesophageal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who claim that she has vomited up blood. Apparently she had consumed far too much alcohol over the course of the night, had vomited on multiple occasions, and then began to dry-retch. After a period of retching, she vomited a minimal amount of bright red blood. On examination, she is intoxicated and has marked epigastric tenderness; her blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, with a heart rate of 70 bpm, regular.
      Investigations:
      Investigation
      Result
      Normal value
      Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 301 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Repeat Hb in the morning and arrange upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Discharge in the morning if stable

      Explanation:

      Management of Mallory-Weiss Tear: A Case Study

      A Mallory-Weiss tear is a longitudinal mucosal laceration at the gastro-oesophageal junction or cardia caused by repeated retching. In a stable patient with a Hb of 145 g/l, significant blood loss is unlikely. Observation overnight is recommended, and if stable, the patient can be discharged the following morning. Further endoscopic investigation is not necessary in this case. Intravenous pantoprazole is not indicated for a Mallory-Weiss tear, and antacid treatment is unnecessary as the tear will heal spontaneously. Urgent endoscopic investigation is not required if the patient remains clinically stable and improves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after experiencing ‘indigestion’ for...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after experiencing ‘indigestion’ for the past six months. She has been using over-the-counter treatments without relief. She reports a burning-type sensation in her epigastric region which is present most of the time. Over the past four months, she has lost approximately 4 kg in weight. She denies dysphagia, melaena, nausea, or vomiting.
      Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without palpable masses.
      What is the next step in managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Helicobacter faecal antigen stool test and treatment if positive

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently as a suspected gastro-oesophageal cancer to be seen in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management of Suspected Gastro-Oesophageal Malignancy

      Suspected gastro-oesophageal malignancy requires urgent referral, according to NICE guidelines. A patient’s age, weight loss, and dyspepsia symptoms meet the criteria for referral. An ultrasound of the abdomen may be useful to rule out biliary disease, but it would not be helpful in assessing oesophageal or stomach pathology. Treatment with proton pump inhibitors may mask malignancy signs and delay diagnosis. Helicobacter testing can be useful for dyspepsia patients, but red flag symptoms require urgent malignancy ruling out. A barium swallow is not a gold-standard test for gastro-oesophageal malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old widower comes to the Emergency Department following a mechanical fall at...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old widower comes to the Emergency Department following a mechanical fall at a nearby store. His orthopaedic examination is normal, but he is extremely thin and agitated, has halitosis and gingivitis, and perifollicular hemorrhages are visible.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin K deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with muscle pain, fatigue, skin dots, bleeding gums, and weight loss

      Scurvy, a rare condition in the general population, is a relatively common nutritional finding in the elderly and socially disadvantaged groups. It results from a deficiency of vitamin C, which is needed to make collagen. Without vitamin C, collagen cannot be replaced and tissue breaks down, leading to symptoms such as muscle and joint pain, fatigue, red dots on the skin (perifollicular haemorrhages), bleeding and inflammation of the gums (gingivitis), decreased wound healing, and easy bruising. Treatment involves vitamin C supplementation and dietary changes.

      Lead poisoning, although not likely to cause the signs present in this patient, can cause abdominal pain, confusion, and headaches, and in severe cases, seizures, coma, and death. It is usually caused by exposure to lead in the environment, such as from contaminated water, soil, or paint.

      Vitamin K deficiency, although rare, can cause bleeding and easy bruising, but it is much less common than vitamin C deficiency. Vitamin K is needed for blood clotting and bone health, and it is found in green leafy vegetables, liver, and eggs.

      Hypothyroidism, a common endocrine disorder, is more likely to cause weight gain than weight loss, as it slows down the body’s metabolism. It can also cause dry, coarse skin, fatigue, and depression. Treatment involves thyroid hormone replacement therapy.

      Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency of niacin (vitamin B3), can cause diarrhoea, dermatitis, and dementia. It may also cause aggression and red skin lesions, but it is less common than vitamin C deficiency. Treatment involves niacin supplementation and dietary changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old accountant has been recently diagnosed with haemochromatosis following a year-long history...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old accountant has been recently diagnosed with haemochromatosis following a year-long history of fatigue, irritability and bronzing of the skin. She would like to know more about the prognosis of the condition and is concerned about the risks of passing on the condition to any children that she may have in the future.

      Which of the following statements best describes haemochromatosis?

      Your Answer: Coexisting arthritis is usually the result of gout

      Correct Answer: There is an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes the body to absorb too much iron, leading to iron overload and deposition in vital organs such as the liver and pancreas. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with a frequency of homozygotes in the population of 1:500. The disorder is most commonly found in Celtic nations. Symptoms typically present in the third to fourth decade of life in men and post-menopause in women and include weakness, fatigue, skin bronzing, diabetes, cirrhosis, and cardiac disease. Treatment involves venesection, and in severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary. Haemochromatosis increases the risk of developing liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma by up to 200-fold. Iron deposition in the pancreas can also lead to diabetes, and patients with haemochromatosis who develop diabetes usually require insulin treatment. Arthropathy associated with haemochromatosis is the result of pseudogout, as iron deposits impair cartilage nutrition and enhance the formation and deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals. Heterozygotes for the HFE gene typically do not develop cirrhosis and remain asymptomatic due to the disorder’s low penetrance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old man has been admitted after a severe paracetamol overdose. Despite medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has been admitted after a severe paracetamol overdose. Despite medical intervention, he has developed liver failure. What is the most probable outcome of the liver failure?

      Your Answer: It is harmful to give N-acetylcysteine

      Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis is recognised complication

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine reduces morbidity and mortality in fulminant hepatic failure

      Fulminant hepatic failure is a serious condition that can lead to severe hypoglycemia and exacerbate encephalopathy in 40% of patients. This condition can develop rapidly and recur with sepsis. Lactic acidosis is also a common complication due to decreased hepatic lactate clearance, poor peripheral perfusion, and increased lactate production. Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with fulminant hepatic failure is poor if they have a blood pH less than 7.0, prolonged prothrombin time (more than 100s), and serum creatinine more than 300 uM. Mortality is also greater in patients over 40 years of age. However, the use of intravenous N-acetylcysteine has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in these patients.

      Overall, it is important to closely monitor patients with fulminant hepatic failure and address any complications that arise. The use of N-acetylcysteine can be a valuable tool in improving outcomes for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating that has persisted for six months. The GP initially suspected bowel cancer and referred her for a colonoscopy, which came back negative. The gastroenterologist who performed the colonoscopy suggested that the patient may have irritable bowel syndrome. The patient has no prior history of digestive issues. What should the GP do next?

      Your Answer: Measure serum CA125 level

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women over the age of 50 who experience regular symptoms such as abdominal bloating, loss of appetite, pelvic or abdominal pain, and increased urinary urgency and/or frequency should undergo serum CA125 testing. It is important to note that irritable bowel disease rarely presents for the first time in women over 50, so any symptoms suggestive of IBD should prompt appropriate tests for ovarian cancer. If serum CA125 levels are elevated, an ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis should be arranged. If malignancy is suspected, urgent referral must be made. Physical examination may also warrant direct referral to gynaecology if ascites and/or a suspicious abdominal or pelvic mass is identified.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man with a history of intravenous (iv) drug abuse 16 years...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of intravenous (iv) drug abuse 16 years ago is referred by his doctor with abnormal liver function tests. He has significantly raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT). He tests positive for hepatitis C RNA and genotyping reveals genotype 1 hepatitis C. Liver biopsy reveals lymphocytic infiltration with some evidence of early hepatic fibrosis with associated necrosis.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this man?

      Your Answer: Direct acting antivirals (DAAs)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hepatitis C: Direct Acting Antivirals and Combination Therapies

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can lead to serious long-term health complications such as cirrhosis and liver cancer. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended as first-line therapy for hepatitis C, as direct acting antivirals (DAAs) have proven to be more effective. DAAs target different stages of the hepatitis C virus lifecycle and have a success rate of over 90%. Treatment typically involves a once-daily oral tablet regimen for 8-12 weeks and is most effective when given before cirrhosis develops.

      While ribavirin alone is not as effective, combination therapies such as PEG-interferon α and ribavirin have been used in the past. However, for patients with genotype 1 disease (which has a worse prognosis), the addition of a protease inhibitor to the treatment regimen is recommended for better outcomes.

      It is important to note that blood-borne infection rates for hepatitis C are high and can occur after just one or two instances of sharing needles during recreational drug use. Testing for hepatitis C involves antibody testing, followed by RNA and genotyping to guide the appropriate combination and length of treatment.

      Overall, the combination of PEG-interferon, ribavirin, and a protease inhibitor is no longer used in the treatment of hepatitis C, as newer and more effective therapies have been developed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical deterioration. Diagnostic aspiration of the ascites fluid shows a raised neutrophil count in the ascites fluid.
      Which of the following statements best fits this scenario?

      Your Answer: Secondary prevention of this condition with oral quinolones does not prolong survival

      Correct Answer: There is a high mortality and high recurrence rate

      Explanation:

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis: Mortality, Prevention, and Treatment

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a serious complication of ascites, occurring in 8% of cirrhosis cases with ascites. This condition has a high mortality rate of 25% and recurs in 70% of patients within a year. While there is some evidence that secondary prevention with oral quinolones may decrease mortality in certain patient groups, it is not an indication for liver transplantation. The most common infecting organisms are enteric, such as Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Streptococcus, and Enterococcus. While an ascitic tap can decrease discomfort, it cannot prevent recurrence. Understanding the mortality, prevention, and treatment options for SBP is crucial for managing this serious complication.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain and bright red blood in his vomit. He has a long history of heavy alcohol consumption. On examination, he has guarding over the epigastric region and cool extremities. He also has a distended abdomen with ascites and spider naevi on his neck and cheek. The patient is unstable hemodynamically, and fluid resuscitation is initiated. What is the most crucial medication to begin given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Correct Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Oesophageal Variceal Bleeds

      Oesophageal variceal bleeds are a serious medical emergency that require prompt treatment. The most important medication to administer in this situation is terlipressin, which reduces bleeding by constricting the mesenteric arterial circulation and decreasing portal venous inflow. Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet medication, should not be used as it may worsen bleeding. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can be used prophylactically to prevent variceal bleeding but is not the most important medication to start in an acute setting. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is not recommended before endoscopy in the latest guidelines but is often used in hospital protocols. Tranexamic acid can aid in the treatment of acute bleeding but is not indicated for oesophageal variceal bleeds. Following terlipressin administration, band ligation should be performed, and if bleeding persists, TIPS should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year due to recurring episodes of abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. She is concerned about the possibility of bowel cancer, as her father passed away from it at the age of 86. She has no other relevant family history. She also mentions that she needs a refill for her salbutamol inhaler, which she takes for her recently diagnosed asthma. Additionally, she has noticed an increase in hot flashes and wonders if she is experiencing early menopause. She has lost some weight, which she attributes to her healthy diet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Gastrointestinal Neuroendocrine Tumour (NET)

      A patient presenting with symptoms of diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing may have a gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET), also known as carcinoid syndrome. It is important to consider NET in the differential diagnosis, even in relatively young patients, as the average delay in diagnosis is 2-3 years.

      Appropriate investigations include routine blood tests, gut hormone measurement, 24-hour urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) measurement, cross-sectional imaging, and gastrointestinal endoscopy. Management options include somatostatin analogues, peptide receptor radiotargeted therapy (PRRT), and molecularly targeted treatments such as sunitinib or everolimus.

      Health/illness-related anxiety, or hypochondriasis, should be a diagnosis of exclusion, and physical causes should be addressed first. Irritable bowel syndrome may cause similar symptoms, but without hot flashes or asthma. Colorectal or gastric adenocarcinoma may also be considered, but the symptoms are more consistent with a NET.

      Most gastrointestinal NETs are low grade, and even in metastatic disease, the median overall survival is around 10 years. Early diagnosis and appropriate management can improve outcomes for patients with NET.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain for the past 6 hours. The pain is rapidly worsening and is more severe in the right upper quadrant. She has no significant medical history and denies any recent illnesses or similar episodes in the past. She is sexually active and takes an oral contraceptive pill. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse rate 85 bpm, respiratory rate 16/min, and body temperature 37.5 ºC. The sclera is icteric. Tender hepatomegaly and shifting abdominal dullness are noted. Blood tests reveal elevated total and direct bilirubin, alanine aminotransferase, and aspartate aminotransferase. Partial thromboplastin time and prothrombin time are within normal limits. Mild to moderate abdominal ascites is found on an ultrasound study.
      What is the most likely cause of her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Occlusion of the hepatic vein

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites

      Budd-Chiari syndrome and other potential causes

      When a patient presents with abdominal pain, tender hepatomegaly, and ascites, one possible diagnosis is Budd-Chiari syndrome, which can have an acute or chronic course and is more common in pregnant women or those taking oral contraceptives. In the acute form, liver function tests show elevated bilirubin and liver enzymes. However, other conditions should also be considered.

      Ruptured hepatic adenoma can cause intraperitoneal bleeding and shock, but it does not explain the liver function abnormalities. Occlusion of the portal vein may be asymptomatic or cause mild symptoms, and liver function tests are usually normal. Fulminant viral hepatitis typically has a prodromal phase and signs of liver failure, such as coagulopathy. Drug-induced hepatic necrosis, such as from paracetamol overdose or halothane exposure, can also lead to fulminant liver failure, but the patient’s history does not suggest this possibility.

      Therefore, while Budd-Chiari syndrome is a plausible diagnosis, the clinician should also consider other potential causes and obtain more information from the patient, including any medication use or exposure to hepatotoxic agents.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic for a follow-up appointment after...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic for a follow-up appointment after a liver biopsy. She was referred by her General Practitioner two weeks ago due to symptoms of fatigue, myalgia, abdominal bloating and significantly abnormal aminotransferases. The results of her liver biopsy and blood tests confirm a diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis (AIH).
      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine and prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Autoimmune Hepatitis: Azathioprine and Prednisolone

      Autoimmune hepatitis (AIH) is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects young and middle-aged women. The cause of AIH is unknown, but it is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. The condition is characterized by inflammation of the liver, which can progress to cirrhosis if left untreated.

      The first-line treatment for AIH is a combination of azathioprine and prednisolone. Patients with moderate-to-severe inflammation should receive immunosuppressive treatment, while those with mild disease may be closely monitored instead. Cholestyramine, a medication used for hyperlipidemia and other conditions, is not a first-line treatment for AIH.

      Liver transplantation is not typically recommended as a first-line treatment for AIH, but it may be necessary in severe cases. However, AIH can recur following transplantation. Antiviral medications like peginterferon alpha-2a and tenofovir are not effective in treating AIH, as the condition is not caused by a virus.

      In summary, azathioprine and prednisolone are the primary treatment options for AIH, with liver transplantation reserved for severe cases. Other medications like cholestyramine, peginterferon alpha-2a, and tenofovir are not effective in treating AIH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a mass on his tongue....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a mass on his tongue. He has a history of HIV that is not well-controlled, and he does not follow his medication regimen. During the examination, the doctor observes shaggy, poorly-defined, hardened, slightly raised, and rough plaques on the side of the tongue. The plaques cannot be removed with a tongue blade. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral hairy leukoplakia

      Explanation:

      Oral Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristics

      Oral lesions can present in a variety of forms and have different characteristics. In this case, a patient with a history of immunosuppression presents with a white mass on the lateral aspect of the tongue that cannot be scraped off with a tongue blade. This is most consistent with oral hairy leukoplakia, a non-premalignant Epstein-Barr virus-mediated mucocutaneous manifestation that often presents in immunosuppressed patients. Treatment involves antivirals.

      Other possible oral lesions include oral discoid lupus erythematosus, which is the oral manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus and typically presents as punched-out lesions with surrounding erythema. Aphthous ulcers are round or oval-shaped lesions with surrounding erythema that typically occur on the inside of the mouth and can be treated with topical steroids. Oral candidiasis can be scraped off with a tongue blade, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case. Oral lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory condition that can present as white, lacy patches or erosions on the gingival margin.

      In summary, a thorough examination and consideration of the patient’s medical history are necessary to accurately diagnose and treat oral lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 31-year-old man is urgently referred to the Medical Admission Unit by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man is urgently referred to the Medical Admission Unit by his general practitioner due to a 2-week history of worsening diarrhoea that has become bloody over the past few days. He has no recent history of foreign travel and no significant medical history. Over the last 48 hours, he has been experiencing bowel movements approximately 10 times a day. Upon examination, he appears dehydrated, and his abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation with active bowel sounds. There is no rebound tenderness or guarding. Initial investigations have been requested, including FBC, U&Es, liver function tests, and C-reactive protein. Stool has been sent for microscopy, and Clostridium difficile toxin testing has been requested. What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plain abdominal film

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Suspected cases of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) require a thorough assessment to determine the underlying cause. A plain abdominal film is essential in the initial evaluation to exclude colon dilation and assess the extent of disease. Sigmoidoscopy is recommended for all patients presenting with diarrhea, as it allows for the visualization of the sigmoid colon and rectal biopsies for histology. Colonoscopy may be preferred in mild to moderate disease, while CT scans are helpful in evaluating disease activity and complications. An erect chest X-ray is important if a pneumoperitoneum is suspected. However, in the absence of peritonism or upper gastrointestinal pathology, the abdominal film is the most appropriate next investigation to exclude a toxic megacolon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with complaints of vomiting blood....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with complaints of vomiting blood. She states that she had a heavy night of drinking and has vomited multiple times this morning. After the fourth time, she noticed about a tablespoon of fresh blood mixed in with the vomit. What is the probable reason for her haematemesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mallory–Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various conditions. Here are some of the most common causes:

      Mallory-Weiss Tear
      This tear in the mucosa is usually caused by repeated vomiting, resulting in increased abdominal pressure. Young patients with a clear history may not require further investigation, and bleeding usually resolves without treatment.

      Oesophageal Varices
      This condition should be considered in patients with signs of chronic liver disease or a history of heavy alcohol intake. Oesophageal varices can be life-threatening, with mortality rates as high as 30%.

      Peptic Ulceration
      Peptic ulceration is a common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in patients who use non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoke, or have Helicobacter pylori infection. Patients with peptic ulcer disease should be tested for H. pylori and treated accordingly.

      Reflux Oesophagitis
      This condition is characterized by heartburn and can be asymptomatic. It is usually an incidental finding on endoscopy and can be treated with antacid medication.

      Haemophilia
      Haemophilia is a condition that increases the risk of bleeding due to the absence of clotting factors. While spontaneous gastrointestinal bleeding is rare, patients may present with spontaneous bleeding in other parts of the body, such as joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old General Practice manager is referred to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old General Practice manager is referred to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 2-year history of gastroenterological complaints. The patient reports abdominal bloating, especially after meals and in the evenings, and alternating symptoms of diarrhoea and constipation. She also has a history of anxiety and is currently very busy at work – she feels this is also having an impact on her symptoms, as her symptoms tend to settle when she is on leave.
      Which one of the following features in the clinical history would point towards a likely organic cause of abdominal pain (ie non-functional) diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unexplained weight loss

      Explanation:

      Understanding Irritable Bowel Syndrome Symptoms and Red Flags

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a complex condition that can manifest in various ways. Some common symptoms include tenesmus, abdominal bloating, mucous per rectum, relief of symptoms on defecation, lethargy, backache, and generalised symptoms. However, it’s important to note that these symptoms alone do not necessarily indicate an organic cause of abdominal pain.

      On the other hand, there are red flag symptoms that may suggest an underlying condition other than IBS. These include unintentional and unexplained weight loss, rectal bleeding, a family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and a change in bowel habit lasting for more than six weeks, especially in people over 60 years old.

      It’s crucial to understand the difference between IBS symptoms and red flag symptoms to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any of the red flag symptoms, it’s essential to seek medical attention promptly.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption. His serum amylase level is 1020 u/l, and acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. Which of the following factors is NOT included in the modified Glasgow severity scoring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum amylase

      Explanation:

      Markers for Severity and Mortality in Pancreatitis

      Pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Several markers can help assess the severity of the disease and predict mortality. The modified Glasgow severity score is a useful tool for stratifying patients based on their clinical presentation. A score of 3 or above indicates severe pancreatitis and the need for transfer to the Intensive Therapy Unit.

      Serum amylase is a diagnostic marker for pancreatitis, but its levels may be normal even in severe cases. Elevated amylase levels can also occur in other acute conditions, such as acute cholecystitis or intestinal obstruction. Therefore, it should not be used as a serial marker for assessing disease progression. Instead, serial C-reactive protein levels are more useful for this purpose.

      Serum albumin is an important marker of mortality in pancreatitis. A fall in albumin level can contribute to peripheral edema and difficulty in maintaining blood pressure. Age is another predictor of mortality, as it is associated with co-morbidities. Corrected calcium is a useful marker for severe pancreatitis, as it indicates the precipitation of calcium in the abdomen, causing hypocalcemia. Finally, white cell count is a marker of inflammation and can indicate the spread of the disease.

      In conclusion, a combination of these markers can help clinicians assess the severity of pancreatitis and predict mortality. Early recognition and management of severe cases can improve outcomes and reduce morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor has noted a possible palpable gallbladder. Where is the fundus of the gallbladder most likely to be palpable based on these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Landmarks and their Surface Markings in the Abdomen

      The human abdomen is a complex region with various structures and organs that are important for digestion and metabolism. In this article, we will discuss some of the anatomical landmarks and their surface markings in the abdomen.

      Surface Marking: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
      Anatomical Landmark: Fundus of the gallbladder

      The fundus of the gallbladder is located closest to the anterior abdominal wall. Its surface marking is the point where the lateral edge of the right rectus abdominis muscle meets the costal margin, which is also in the transpyloric plane. It is important to note that Courvoisier’s law exists in surgery, which states that a palpable, enlarged gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstone disease.

      Surface Marking: Anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hilum of the spleen

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary line that runs axially approximately at the L1 vertebral body. The hilum of the spleen can be found at the intersection of the anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Linea alba and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery

      The origin of the superior mesenteric artery can be found at the intersection of the linea alba and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hepatic flexure of the colon on the right and splenic flexure of the colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane, the hepatic flexure of the colon can be found on the right and the splenic flexure of the colon on the left.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus
      Anatomical Landmark: Ascending colon on the right and descending colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus, the ascending colon is found on the right and the descending colon on the left. If the liver or spleen are enlarged, their tips can also

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man with a family history of colorectal cancer presents for genetic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a family history of colorectal cancer presents for genetic screening. Genetic testing is performed and he is diagnosed with hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer syndrome (HNPCC, or Lynch syndrome).
      What is his lifetime risk for developing colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50–70%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Lifetime Risk of Colorectal Cancer in Hereditary Syndromes

      Hereditary syndromes such as HNPCC and FAP are associated with an increased risk of developing colorectal cancer. HNPCC syndrome has a lifetime risk of approximately 50-70% for colorectal cancer, as well as an increased risk for endometrial and ovarian cancer. Screening is recommended from age 25 and should include annual colonoscopy and other tests for women. FAP, on the other hand, has a 100% lifetime risk for colorectal cancer. Underestimating the lifetime risk for HNPCC syndrome can be dangerous, as it may lead to delayed or inadequate screening. It is important to understand the risks associated with these hereditary syndromes and to follow recommended screening guidelines.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care doctor, complaining of difficulty swallowing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care doctor, complaining of difficulty swallowing solid foods and liquids for the last two months. He states that food often ‘gets stuck’ in his oesophagus and is associated with retrosternal chest pain. There is no pain on swallowing. He has no other medical problems and takes no medications. He denies recent weight loss or night sweats.
      Physical examination is normal. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes. His blood tests are also normal. A diagnosis of diffuse oesophageal spasm is being considered.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal manometry

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of intermittent dysphagia without odynophagia, abnormal blood tests, or constitutional symptoms suggest a diagnosis of diffuse esophageal spasm. This condition is characterized by increased simultaneous and intermittent contractions of the distal esophagus, often accompanied by retrosternal chest pain, heartburn, and globus sensation. Oesophageal manometry is the first-line investigation for diffuse esophageal spasm, revealing increased simultaneous contractions of the esophageal body with normal lower esophageal sphincter tone. Barium radiography may show a corkscrew esophagus, but it has low sensitivity for diagnosing this condition. Troponin levels would only be indicated if the patient had cardiac-related chest pain, which is unlikely given their age and normal ECG. A chest X-ray would be useful if a cardiac or respiratory condition were suspected, while a lateral cervical spine radiograph is only necessary if cervical osteophytes are thought to be the cause of difficult swallowing, which is unlikely in this young patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain that has been going on for 5 weeks. She also reports unintentional weight loss during this time. A colonoscopy is performed, revealing abnormal, inflamed mucosa in the rectum, sigmoid, and descending colon. The doctor suspects ulcerative colitis and takes multiple biopsies. What finding is most indicative of ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses

      Explanation:

      When it comes to distinguishing between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, one key factor is the presence of crypt abscesses. These are typically seen in ulcerative colitis, which is the more common of the two inflammatory bowel diseases. In ulcerative colitis, inflammation starts in the rectum and spreads continuously up the colon, whereas Crohn’s disease often presents with skip lesions. Patients with ulcerative colitis may experience left-sided abdominal pain, cramping, bloody diarrhea with mucous, and unintentional weight loss. Colonoscopy typically reveals diffuse and contiguous ulceration and inflammatory infiltrates affecting the mucosa and submucosa only, with the presence of crypt abscesses being a hallmark feature. In contrast, Crohn’s disease is characterized by a transmural inflammatory phenotype, with non-caseating granulomas and stricturing of the bowel wall being common complications. Patients with Crohn’s disease may present with right-sided abdominal pain, watery diarrhea, and weight loss, and may have a more systemic inflammatory response than those with ulcerative colitis. Barium enema and colonoscopy can help to differentiate between the two conditions, with the presence of multiple linear ulcers in the bowel wall (rose-thorn appearance) and bowel wall thickening being suggestive of Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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Gastroenterology (6/18) 33%
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