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Question 1
Correct
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A 16-year-old male presents to the emergency department after falling onto outstretched hands. An x-ray confirms a fracture in one of the bones in his forearm. Based on the mechanism of injury, which bone is most likely affected by this fracture?
Your Answer: Distal shaft of the radius
Explanation:The forearm has two weight-bearing bones, the scaphoid at the wrist and the radius within the forearm. If someone falls onto outstretched hands, there is a risk of fracturing both of these bones. The shaft of the radius is particularly vulnerable as it carries the weight and takes the full compression of the fall. The ulna is more likely to fracture from stress applied to the side of the arm rather than down its length. The lunate bone at the wrist is not involved in weight-bearing.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of painful and swollen joints for the past 8 weeks. She denies any prior infections, dry eyes or dry mouth. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. There is no relevant family history. She has been smoking 10 cigarettes per day for the last 15 years.
Upon examination, the 2nd-5th metacarpophalangeal joints and 2nd-5th proximal interphalangeal joints on both hands are tender, erythematous, and swollen. Blood tests are currently pending.
What is the HLA association for the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA DRB1
Explanation:The HLA-DRB1 gene is strongly associated with susceptibility to rheumatoid arthritis, particularly with the DRB1*04:01 and DRB1*04:04 alleles (also known as DR4). This patient meets the classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis as defined by the ACR and EULAR, even without blood tests. A score of 6 or higher using these criteria is considered diagnostic. In this case, the patient scores 5 points for having more than 10 joints involved and 1 point for a duration of symptoms greater than 6 weeks. Smoking is also a known risk factor for developing rheumatoid arthritis.
HLA Associations: Diseases and Antigens
HLA antigens are proteins encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA A, B, and C) and class II (HLA DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens. For example, HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis, HLA-B51 with Behcet’s disease, and HLA-B27 with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. Coeliac disease is associated with HLA-DQ2/DQ8, while narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s are associated with HLA-DR2. Dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis are associated with HLA-DR3. Finally, type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with HLA-DR3 but more strongly associated with HLA-DR4, specifically the DRB1 gene (DRB1*04:01 and DRB1*04:04).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, and sudden-onset shortness of breath. Upon diagnosis, she is found to have a pulmonary embolism and is later discovered to have Factor V Leiden. What is the underlying mechanism that causes this condition to lead to blood clots?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activated protein C resistance
Explanation:The Factor V Leiden mutation causes activated protein C resistance, resulting in excess clotting due to inefficient inactivation of factor V. This is the correct answer.
Antiphospholipid antibodies binding to plasma membranes is not the correct answer as it is a mechanism of blood clot formation in antiphospholipid syndrome (APS).
High levels of platelets in the blood is also not the correct answer as it is not implicated in Factor V Leiden. Thrombocytosis, or high levels of platelets, can lead to clots but is not related to this mutation.
Low levels of factor V in the blood is also not the correct answer as factor V deficiency is a rare inherited bleeding disorder, not a clotting disorder. It is a form of haemophilia.
Understanding Factor V Leiden
Factor V Leiden is a common inherited thrombophilia, affecting around 5% of the UK population. It is caused by a mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein, resulting in activated factor V being inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal. This leads to activated protein C resistance, which increases the risk of venous thrombosis. Heterozygotes have a 4-5 fold risk of venous thrombosis, while homozygotes have a 10 fold risk, although the prevalence of homozygotes is much lower at 0.05%.
Despite its prevalence, screening for Factor V Leiden is not recommended, even after a venous thromboembolism. This is because a previous thromboembolism itself is a risk factor for further events, and specific management should be based on this rather than the particular thrombophilia identified.
Other inherited thrombophilias include Prothrombin gene mutation, Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency. The table below shows the prevalence and relative risk of venous thromboembolism for each of these conditions.
Overall, understanding Factor V Leiden and other inherited thrombophilias can help healthcare professionals identify individuals at higher risk of venous thrombosis and provide appropriate management to prevent future events.
Condition | Prevalence | Relative risk of VTE
— | — | —
Factor V Leiden (heterozygous) | 5% | 4
Factor V Leiden (homozygous) | 0.05% | 10
Prothrombin gene mutation (heterozygous) | 1.5% | 3
Protein C deficiency | 0.3% | 10
Protein S deficiency | 0.1% | 5-10
Antithrombin III deficiency | 0.02% | 10-20 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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In developed nations, what is the most significant modifiable risk factor for infants born with a low birth weight (<2500 g)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal smoking
Explanation:Low Birth Weight and its Causes
Low birth weight is a significant factor in neonatal mortality worldwide, and it can also lead to health problems later in life such as diabetes, heart disease, and poor growth. The causes of low birth weight include maternal smoking during pregnancy, prematurity, multiple pregnancies, ethnicity, and family socio-economic status. Maternal smoking during pregnancy is the most important modifiable contributor to low birth weight, and babies born to women who smoke weigh on average 200 g less than babies born to non-smokers. The incidence of low birth weight is twice as high among smokers as non-smokers. Pregnancy is a crucial time for public health interventions to reduce or prevent maternal smoking. Although many pregnant smokers quit during their pregnancy, many recommence smoking again after delivery.
Overall, reducing the prevalence of maternal smoking during pregnancy is a crucial step in reducing the incidence of low birth weight and improving neonatal health outcomes. Other factors such as prematurity, multiple pregnancies, ethnicity, and socio-economic status are also important contributors to low birth weight, but they are not as easily modifiable. Therefore, public health interventions should focus on reducing maternal smoking during pregnancy to improve neonatal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis is commencing treatment with 6-mercaptopurine following a recurrence of his symptoms.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreases purine synthesis
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis, a type of inflammatory bowel disease characterized by bloody diarrhea, can be treated with various medications such as sulfasalazine, infliximab, 6-mercaptopurine, and in severe cases, a colectomy. 6-mercaptopurine is a purine analogue that is activated by HGPRTase, leading to decreased purine synthesis and reduced DNA synthesis. It is commonly used to treat non-malignant conditions like systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, and inflammatory bowel disease. On the other hand, 5-fluorouracil is a pyrimidine analogue that acts as an antimetabolite, interfering with DNA synthesis, and is used to treat colorectal and pancreatic cancer. Methotrexate, an antimetabolite that acts as a folic acid analogue, is widely used in many malignancies and non-malignant conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and inflammatory bowel disease. Bleomycin, doxorubicin, and daunorubicin cause free radical formation, leading to breaks in the DNA strand, while busulfan is an alkylating agent that causes cross-links in the DNA and is typically used to ablate a patient’s bone marrow before a bone marrow transplant.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, lethargy, and increased thirst for the past 5 days. He reports not having a bowel movement in 3 days. The patient is currently undergoing investigations for multiple myeloma.
The emergency department physician suspects that the patient's symptoms are due to hypercalcemia related to his multiple myeloma. What is the primary mechanism behind this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased osteoclast activity in response to cytokines released by the myeloma cells
Explanation:The primary cause of hypercalcemia in multiple myeloma is increased osteoclast activity in response to cytokines released by the myeloma cells. This neoplasm of bone marrow plasma cells is most commonly seen in males aged 60-70 years old, which fits the demographic of the patient in this scenario. It is important to investigate patients presenting with hypercalcemia for an underlying diagnosis of multiple myeloma. Decreased osteoblast function, elevated PTH-rP levels, and impaired renal function are less contributing factors to hypercalcemia in myeloma compared to increased osteoclastic activity. Although impaired renal function is commonly seen in multiple myeloma, it is not stated whether this patient has decreased renal function.
Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is most commonly found in patients aged 60-70 years. The disease is characterized by a range of symptoms, which can be remembered using the mnemonic CRABBI. These include hypercalcemia, renal damage, anemia, bleeding, bone lesions, and increased susceptibility to infection. Other features of multiple myeloma include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, a range of investigations are required. Blood tests can reveal anemia, renal failure, and hypercalcemia. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised levels of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum, while bone marrow aspiration can confirm the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can be used to detect osteolytic lesions.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include the presence of plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, or elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, or low levels of antibodies in the blood. Understanding the features and investigations of multiple myeloma is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient was recently admitted to hospital with symptoms of diarrhoea, weight loss and abdominal pain. Upon blood tests, a raised C-reactive protein (CRP) and anaemia were observed. A stool test for faecal calprotectin was significantly raised. A colonoscopy was performed, revealing deep ulceration and skip lesions. The patient was diagnosed with Crohn's disease without complications and was promptly started on glucocorticoids to induce remission. Subsequently, the gastroenterologist prescribed a drug called azathioprine to maintain remission of symptoms.
What is the correct mechanism of action for azathioprine?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Its metabolite inhibits purine synthesis
Explanation:Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that is commonly used to maintain remission in Crohn’s disease. It is metabolized into mercaptopurine, which inhibits purine synthesis and helps to control inflammation.
Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that is sometimes used to induce remission in refractory or fistulating Crohn’s disease. It works by binding to and neutralizing tumor necrosis factor, a key mediator of inflammation.
Mesalazine is a second-line drug that is used to induce remission in Crohn’s disease after glucocorticoids. It belongs to the 5-aminosalicylate class of drugs and works by inhibiting prostaglandin secretion. It is also considered for use in maintaining remission in post-surgical Crohn’s patients.
Methotrexate is another immunosuppressant that is used as a second-line treatment for Crohn’s disease. It works by disrupting folic acid metabolism and accumulating the anti-inflammatory molecule adenosine.
Metronidazole is an antibiotic that is used to treat isolated peri-anal Crohn’s disease. It works by forming radicals that disrupt the DNA of anaerobic bacteria.
Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman visits her physician for a regular examination. The physician observes an elevation in pulse pressure, which is attributed to a decline in aortic compliance due to age-related alterations. What is an additional factor that can lead to an increase in pulse pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased stroke volume
Explanation:Stroke volume has a direct impact on pulse pressure, with an increase in stroke volume leading to an increase in pulse pressure. However, conditions such as aortic stenosis and heart failure can decrease stroke volume and therefore lower pulse pressure. Additionally, a decrease in blood volume can also reduce preload and subsequently lower pulse pressure.
Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.
Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.
Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 45-year-old man who was previously healthy but has been stabbed in the back after an attack. A puncture wound measuring 3 cm is observed just to the right of the T5 vertebrae. During the examination, a reduction in fine touch sensation is detected on the right side.
Where would you anticipate detecting a decrease in temperature sensation, if any?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left side, below the lesion
Explanation:The spinothalamic tract crosses over at the same level where the nerve root enters the spinal cord, while the corticospinal tract, dorsal column medial lemniscus, and spinocerebellar tracts cross over at the medulla within the brain. Quick response stimuli such as pain and temperature cross over first.
Brown-Sequard syndrome is a result of the body’s unique anatomy. Understanding which types of nerve fibers cross over at the spinal level versus within the brain is crucial in diagnosing this syndrome.
Pain and temperature are carried in the spinothalamic tract, which crosses over at the spinal level it enters at. Therefore, a hemisection of the cord will result in contralateral loss of these functions. On the other hand, the corticospinal tract, dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway, and spinocerebellar tract all cross over above the spinal cord, resulting in ipsilateral loss of these functions with a hemisection.
In the case of a puncture wound on the right side, the contralateral loss would present on the left side below the lesion, as the fibers run in a caudocranial direction. Bilateral loss would only occur with a complete severing of the cord.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A previously healthy woman of 23 years-old presented with acute epigastric pain. On investigations, a largely elevated lipase was discovered with a normal amylase level, and a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis was made. This patient rarely drinks alcohol, and ultrasonography of the abdomen ruled out gallstones. The results of tests for autoimmune pancreatitis were negative. Twenty days later, imaging tests using magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) revealed the cause of the chronic pancreatitis.
What was the most probable reason behind the chronic pancreatitis in this 23-year-old woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreas divisum
Explanation:Pancreas divisum is a condition where the dorsal and ventral buds of the pancreas fail to fuse in a portion of the population. This can lead to chronic pancreatitis due to insufficient drainage of pancreatic secretions through the minor papilla instead of the major papilla. Other causes of chronic pancreatitis include autoimmune pancreatitis and cystic fibrosis, but these have been ruled out in this case as the patient is a previously healthy individual with negative autoimmune antibodies. Acute pancreatitis can be caused by mumps or a Trinidadian scorpion bite.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following breast tumors is most commonly linked to the risk of spreading to the opposite breast?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Invasive lobular carcinoma
Explanation:A classic characteristic of invasive lobular carcinoma is the possibility of metastasis to the opposite breast.
Understanding Lobular Carcinoma of the Breast
Lobular carcinoma of the breast is a less common type of breast cancer that presents differently from ductal carcinoma. The mass is usually more diffuse and less obvious on imaging tests like ultrasound and mammography, which can result in inadequate treatment if the disease is understaged. For women with invasive lobular carcinoma, an MRI scan of the breast is usually recommended before breast conserving surgery is performed to ensure the safest approach.
Lobular carcinomas are also more likely to be multifocal and metastasize to the opposite breast. In some cases, lobular carcinoma in situ may be diagnosed incidentally on core biopsies. Unlike ductal carcinoma in situ, lobular carcinoma in situ is less strongly associated with foci of invasion and is usually managed through close monitoring. Understanding the differences between lobular and ductal carcinoma can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for patients with breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man visits the urology clinic due to an elevated PSA level. Despite undergoing a biopsy, there are no indications of cancer or benign prostatic hypertrophy.
The patient has a medical history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension, scrotal varicocele, renal calculi, and acute urine retention.
Out of his existing medical conditions, which one is the probable culprit for his increased PSA level?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine retention
Explanation:Urinary retention is a common cause of a raised PSA reading, as it can lead to bladder enlargement. Other conditions such as diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and renal calculi are not direct causes of elevated PSA levels.
Understanding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland that has become an important marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, there is also a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.
PSA levels may be raised by various factors, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract. However, PSA levels are not always a reliable indicator of prostate cancer. For example, around 20% of men with prostate cancer have a normal PSA level, while around 33% of men with a PSA level of 4-10 ng/ml will be found to have prostate cancer. To add greater meaning to a PSA level, age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA level over time (PSA velocity or PSA doubling time) are used. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, with a limit of 3.0 ng/ml for men aged 50-59 years, 4.0 ng/ml for men aged 60-69 years, and 5.0 ng/ml for men over 70 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A teenage boy suddenly collapses outside his home. He is found to be in cardiac arrest and unfortunately passed away in the hospital. Posthumously, he is diagnosed with arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. What alterations would this condition bring about in the heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myocardium replaced by fatty and fibrofatty tissue
Explanation:Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death, is associated with asymmetrical thickening of the septum. Left ventricular hypertrophy can be caused by hypertension, aortic valve stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and athletic training. While arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy can cause ventricular dilation in later stages, it is not transient. Transient ballooning would suggest a diagnosis of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy, which is triggered by acute stress.
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC), also known as arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia or ARVD, is a type of inherited cardiovascular disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death or syncope. It is considered the second most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young individuals, following hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with variable expression, and it is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Approximately 50% of patients with ARVC have a mutation in one of the several genes that encode components of desmosome.
The presentation of ARVC may include palpitations, syncope, or sudden cardiac death. ECG abnormalities in V1-3, such as T wave inversion, are typically observed. An epsilon wave, which is best described as a terminal notch in the QRS complex, is found in about 50% of those with ARVC. Echo changes may show an enlarged, hypokinetic right ventricle with a thin free wall, although these changes may be subtle in the early stages. Magnetic resonance imaging is useful in showing fibrofatty tissue.
Management of ARVC may involve the use of drugs such as sotalol, which is the most widely used antiarrhythmic. Catheter ablation may also be used to prevent ventricular tachycardia, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator may be recommended. Naxos disease is an autosomal recessive variant of ARVC that is characterized by a triad of ARVC, palmoplantar keratosis, and woolly hair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department with facial swelling and difficulty breathing. Stridor and dilated neck veins were observed on examination. A CT scan revealed a mass obstructing the superior vena cava, which was later confirmed to be non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The patient received initial chemotherapy treatment for the lymphoma.
After five weeks, he returned to the emergency department complaining of a tingling and painful sensation in his hands and feet bilaterally. Additionally, he was observed to have a high steppage gait. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms during his second visit to the emergency department?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vincristine
Explanation:The standard chemotherapy regimen for non-Hodgkin lymphoma is R-CHOP, which includes Rituximab (in certain patients), cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, Oncovin (vincristine), and prednisolone. However, one of the significant side effects of vincristine is chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy, which can cause tingling or numbness starting from the extremities. It can also lead to severe neuropathic pain and distal weakness, such as foot drop.
While Rituximab can cause adverse effects such as cardiotoxicity and infections, it is not commonly associated with neurological effects. Cyclophosphamide, on the other hand, can cause chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, bone marrow suppression, and haemorrhagic cystitis due to its toxicity to the bladder epithelium.
Hydroxydaunorubicin is known to cause dilated cardiomyopathy, which can lead to heart failure and has a high mortality rate.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient attends a neurology follow-up consultation. Her medical records indicate impairment to a cranial nerve that arises from the anterior olive of the medulla oblongata.
What is the most probable area of impact in this patient as a result of the nerve damage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deviation of the tongue
Explanation:The hypoglossal nerve arises anterior to the olive of the medulla oblongata and is responsible for innervating the muscles of the tongue. CN IX, X, and XI, on the other hand, emerge posterior to the olive. Hypoglossal nerve palsy can cause ipsilateral tongue deviation towards the side of the lesion.
It is important to note that the lateral rectus muscle is supplied by CN VI, which emerges from the junction of the pons and medulla. The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is responsible for the sensory/afferent pathway of the gag reflex, while the vagus nerve (CN X) regulates the autonomic function of the cardiac muscle. Both CN IX and CN X arise posterior to the olive.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe a drug that binds to the same receptor as an agonist but is unable to produce a comparable effect even with increasing doses?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Partial agonist
Explanation:Agonists, Antagonists, and Partial Agonists
Agonists, antagonists, and partial agonists are terms used to describe drugs that interact with receptors in the body. Competitive antagonists work by binding to the same receptor site as the agonist, preventing it from binding and producing its effect. However, increasing the concentration of the agonist can overcome this effect.
Allosteric drugs, on the other hand, act at a site separate from the receptor site of the agonist. This can either enhance or inhibit the effect of the agonist. Partial agonists, like buprenorphine, produce a weaker effect than a full agonist. When combined with a full agonist, like morphine, the overall effect is decreased, leading to poor pain control.
the differences between agonists, antagonists, and partial agonists is important in the development and use of drugs for various medical conditions. By targeting specific receptors in the body, these drugs can produce a desired effect or block unwanted effects. Proper dosing and combination of these drugs can lead to effective treatment and management of various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to see her GP with persistent tinnitus and hearing loss in both ears. This is her first time experiencing these symptoms, but she mentions that her older sister has had similar issues. During the examination, the doctor notices a pinkish hue to her eardrums. Audiometry tests confirm that she has conductive deafness. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Nausea and vomiting often accompany migraines, which are characterized by severe headaches that can last for hours or even days. Other symptoms may include sensitivity to light and sound, as well as visual disturbances such as flashing lights or blind spots. Migraines can be triggered by a variety of factors, including stress, certain foods, hormonal changes, and changes in sleep patterns. Treatment options may include medication, lifestyle changes, and alternative therapies.
Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male is suspected to have testicular torsion and requires scrotal exploration surgery. After making an incision in the skin and dartos muscle, what is the next layer of tissue that the surgeon will encounter during dissection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External spermatic fascia
Explanation:The layers that will be encountered in the given scenario are as follows, in sequential order:
1. The skin layer
2. The dartos fascia and muscle layer
3. The external spermatic fascia layer
4. The cremasteric muscle and fascia layer
5. (Unknown or unspecified layer)Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes
The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.
The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with aplastic anaemia is due for a blood transfusion. However, the red cell unit available in the refrigerator has exceeded its expiration date.
What is a potential risk associated with administering expired red cell units during a transfusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.
Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.
TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the cell type in the glomerulus that has a role in phagocytosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesangial cells
Explanation:The Structure of the Glomerulus
The glomerulus is composed of glomerular capillaries that are lined by a basement membrane and podocyte processes. Podocytes are connected to the epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule, which are then connected to the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule. Supporting cells called mesangial cells are located between the capillary endothelial cells and podocytes. These cells produce the extracellular matrix that supports the structure of the glomerulus and remove dead cells through phagocytosis. Additionally, mesangial cells may play a role in regulating glomerular blood flow. Overall, the glomerulus is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in the filtration of blood in the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Histology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of persistent constipation. She reports that this began approximately 2 weeks ago after she was prescribed a new medication by her cardiologist. She is visibly upset and holds him responsible. Her medical history includes hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and psoriasis.
Which medication could potentially be causing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil may lead to constipation as an adverse effect. Similarly, beta-blockers can cause sleep disturbances, cold peripheries, and bronchospasm (which is not recommended for individuals with asthma). Calcium channel blockers may result in ankle oedema, dyspepsia, and relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter.
Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A young man presents with loss of fine-touch and vibration sensation on the right side of his body. He also shows a loss of proprioception on the same side. What anatomical structure is likely to have been damaged?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right dorsal column
Explanation:Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedrich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old male presents to the hospital with a chief complaint of central chest pain, accompanied by nausea and sweating that has been ongoing for two hours. After eight hours of the onset of the pain, the following result is obtained:
Troponin T 30.8 ug/L (<10)
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction
Explanation:Elevated Troponin T as a Marker of Cardiac Injury
This patient’s troponin T concentration is significantly elevated, indicating cardiac injury. Troponin T is a component of the cardiac myocyte and is normally undetectable. Elevated levels of troponin T are highly specific to cardiac injury and are more reliable than creatinine kinase, which is less specific. Troponin T levels increase in acute coronary syndromes, myocarditis, and myocardial infarction.
In this patient’s case, the elevated troponin T suggests a myocardial infarction (MI) due to the symptoms presented. Troponin T can be detected within a few hours of an MI and peaks at 14 hours after the onset of pain. It may peak again several days later and remain elevated for up to 10 days. Therefore, it is a good test for acute MI but not as reliable for recurrent MI in the first week. CK-MB may be useful in this case as it starts to rise 10-24 hours after an MI and disappears after three to four days.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include aortic dissection, which causes tearing chest pain that often radiates to the back with hypotension. ECG changes are not always present. Myocarditis causes chest pain that improves with steroids or NSAIDs and a rise in troponin levels, with similar ECG changes to a STEMI. There may also be reciprocal lead ST depression and PR depression. Pulmonary embolism presents with shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, hypoxia, and hemoptysis. Pericardial effusion presents with similar symptoms to pericarditis, with Kussmaul’s sign typically present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is being evaluated by a vascular specialist for poor diabetes control. His HbA1c is 7.8% and he has a medical history of type II diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and hypothyroidism. During the examination, the specialist observes diminished posterior tibial pulses. Which area is likely to experience compromised blood supply due to reduced blood flow through the posterior tibial artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior compartment of the leg and plantar surface of the foot
Explanation:The posterior tibial artery is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the posterior compartment of the leg as well as the plantar surface of the foot.
Anatomy of the Posterior Tibial Artery
The posterior tibial artery is a major branch of the popliteal artery that terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. It is accompanied by two veins throughout its length and its position corresponds to a line drawn from the lower angle of the popliteal fossa to a point midway between the medial malleolus and the most prominent part of the heel.
The artery is located anteriorly to the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles, and posteriorly to the surface of the tibia and ankle joint. The posterior tibial nerve is located 2.5 cm distal to its origin. The proximal part of the artery is covered by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, while the distal part is covered by skin and fascia. The artery is also covered by the fascia overlying the deep muscular layer.
Understanding the anatomy of the posterior tibial artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the foot and ankle. Any damage or blockage to this artery can lead to serious complications, such as peripheral artery disease or even amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a leg that has been getting redder, hotter, and more swollen over the past three days. The doctor suspects cellulitis. As the immune system fights off the infection, it employs various mechanisms to eliminate foreign antigens. During the adaptive phase, which cells present antigens to Helper T cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MHC II
Explanation:Helper T cells identify antigens that are displayed by MHC class II molecules. These molecules are exclusively present on professional antigen presenting cells like B cells. During the humoral response, B cells present antigens to Helper T cells (CD4+).
In the humoral response, B7, a protein found on antigen presenting cells, is a component of the second signal.
MHC I molecules present antigens to cytotoxic T cells during an intracellular response.
CD40 is a receptor that is present on B cells. During the humoral response, CD40 ligand (which is present on T Helper cells) binds to CD40 as part of the second signal.
The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.
B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of amiloride for elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old female is one day postoperative following a total thyroidectomy for thyroid cancer. The surgery was successful with no unexpected blood loss. However, the patient has observed that her voice is hoarse and soft.
During examination, the patient seems comfortable while resting and can maintain her airway without any problem. The surgical site looks normal, and there is no development of haematoma. On auscultation, her breath sounds are clear and equal in all lung fields.
What is the most likely structure to have been injured during the surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The right recurrent laryngeal nerve is at a higher risk of injury during neck surgery due to its diagonal origin under the subclavian artery. In contrast, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve is less vulnerable to injury. It is important to note that injury to the left or right subclavian artery would typically result in shock symptoms rather than hoarseness, and there were no indications of significant blood loss during the surgery.
The Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: Anatomy and Function
The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve that plays a crucial role in the innervation of the larynx. It has a complex path that differs slightly between the left and right sides of the body. On the right side, it arises anterior to the subclavian artery and ascends obliquely next to the trachea, behind the common carotid artery. It may be located either anterior or posterior to the inferior thyroid artery. On the left side, it arises left to the arch of the aorta, winds below the aorta, and ascends along the side of the trachea.
Both branches pass in a groove between the trachea and oesophagus before entering the larynx behind the articulation between the thyroid cartilage and cricoid. Once inside the larynx, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is distributed to the intrinsic larynx muscles (excluding cricothyroid). It also branches to the cardiac plexus and the mucous membrane and muscular coat of the oesophagus and trachea.
Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, such as during thyroid surgery, can result in hoarseness. Therefore, understanding the anatomy and function of this nerve is crucial for medical professionals who perform procedures in the neck and throat area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man with a prolonged history of alcoholism is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a prolonged seizure. Despite a thorough examination, no underlying causes of seizures are found. The attending consultant suspects that the seizure may be due to a deficiency in which vitamin, as a result of the patient's chronic alcohol consumption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B6
Explanation:The Importance of Vitamin B6 in the Body
Vitamin B6 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Once it enters the body, it is converted into pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), which acts as a cofactor for various biochemical reactions such as transamination, deamination, and decarboxylation. These reactions are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
However, a deficiency in vitamin B6 can lead to various health problems such as peripheral neuropathy and sideroblastic anemia. One of the common causes of vitamin B6 deficiency is isoniazid therapy, which is used to treat tuberculosis. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin B6 to maintain optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are designing a research project to study the effects of the hexose monophosphate shunt on oxidative stress in cells.
What is the rate limiting step for the hexose monophosphate shunt if the cells are aged?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
Explanation:The enzyme that limits the rate of the hexose monophosphate shunt is G6PD.
The hexose monophosphate shunt plays a crucial role in generating NADPH, which is necessary for reducing glutathione. The reduced glutathione produced is vital for protecting cells against oxidative stress. G6PD is the enzyme that limits the rate of the pentose phosphate pathway.
Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenolysis.
Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the enzyme that limits the rate of the citric acid cycle.
The rate of glycolysis is limited by phosphofructokinase-1.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient comes in for a routine check-up for his type 2 diabetes. He reports feeling fatigued for the past couple of weeks. During the physical examination, the doctor notes mild conjunctival pallor. The patient has been on metformin for several years. The doctor suspects that the patient may have a vitamin deficiency caused by the metformin.
What vitamin is most likely to be deficient in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)
Explanation:Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is a known side effect of long term metformin use, which can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency. The patient is likely experiencing anaemia as a result of this deficiency. A complete blood count can confirm the presence of megaloblastic anaemia, and treatment with vitamin B12 supplements should be beneficial. Deficiencies in vitamin B1 and B6 are not associated with anaemia or metformin use, while deficiencies in vitamin B9 and C can cause anaemia but are not caused by metformin use.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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