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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man with end-stage renal failure due to polycystic kidney disease is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with end-stage renal failure due to polycystic kidney disease is being evaluated for a possible kidney transplant. Donor screening, which involves human leukocyte antigen (HLA) testing, has been conducted on several family members. Which HLA class is the most crucial in minimizing rejection risk for this patient?

      Your Answer: DR

      Explanation:

      The HLA system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and is responsible for human leucocyte antigens. Class 1 antigens include A, B, and C, while class 2 antigens include DP, DQ, and DR. When matching for a renal transplant, the importance of HLA antigens is ranked as DR > B > A.

      Graft survival rates for renal transplants are high, with a 90% survival rate at one year and a 60% survival rate at ten years for cadaveric transplants. Living-donor transplants have even higher survival rates, with a 95% survival rate at one year and a 70% survival rate at ten years. However, postoperative problems can occur, such as acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections.

      Hyperacute rejection can occur within minutes to hours after a transplant and is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens. This type of rejection is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the transplanted organ. Unfortunately, there is no treatment available for hyperacute rejection, and the graft must be removed.

      Acute graft failure, which occurs within six months of a transplant, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is caused by cell-mediated cytotoxic T cells. This type of failure is usually asymptomatic and is detected by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Other causes of acute graft failure include cytomegalovirus infection, but it may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.

      Chronic graft failure, which occurs after six months of a transplant, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms that lead to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, known as chronic allograft nephropathy. The recurrence of the original renal disease, such as MCGN, IgA, or FSGS, can also cause chronic graft failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to complaints of severe abdominal cramps and heavy menstrual bleeding.

      Which term accurately describes an excessive amount of menstrual bleeding?

      Your Answer: Menorrhagia

      Explanation:

      Menstrual Disorders

      Menstrual disorders are common among women and can cause discomfort and inconvenience. Menorrhagia is a condition where women experience prolonged and heavy periods at regular intervals. On the other hand, metrorrhagia, also known as spotting, is characterized by vaginal bleeding that is not in line with a regular menstrual cycle. Cryptomenorrhoea is a condition where menstruation occurs but is concealed, such as in the case of an imperforate hymen. Dysmenorrhoea, which often coexists with menorrhagia, refers to severe uterine pain experienced by some women during and around the time of menstruation.

      Oligomenorrhoea, on the other hand, is a condition where menstrual bleeding occurs infrequently, with periods of non-menstruation for more than 35 days. When menstruation does not occur at all, this is called amenorrhoea. It is important for women to be aware of these conditions and seek medical attention if they experience any abnormal menstrual symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help manage these conditions and improve the quality of life for women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 78-year-old man visits your clinic with a chief complaint of shoulder weakness....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man visits your clinic with a chief complaint of shoulder weakness. He reports that his left shoulder has been weak for the past 5 months and the weakness has been gradually worsening. Upon examination, you observe atrophy of the trapezius muscle. When you ask him to shrug his shoulders, you notice weakness on his left side. You suspect that the patient's presentation is caused by a lesion affecting the accessory nerve. Which other muscle is innervated by the accessory nerve?

      Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle is the correct answer. It originates from two points – the upper part of the sternum’s manubrium and the medial clavicle. It runs diagonally across the neck and attaches to the mastoid process of the temporal bone and the lateral area of the superior nuchal line. The accessory nerve and primary rami of C2-3 provide innervation to this muscle.

      Both the deltoid and teres minor muscles are innervated by the axillary nerve.

      The pectoralis major muscle is innervated by the medial and lateral pectoral nerves, which are both branches of the brachial plexus.

      The Accessory Nerve and Its Functions

      The accessory nerve is the eleventh cranial nerve that provides motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. It is important to examine the function of this nerve by checking for any loss of muscle bulk in the shoulders, asking the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance, and turning their head against resistance.

      Iatrogenic injury, which is caused by medical treatment or procedures, is a common cause of isolated accessory nerve lesions. This is especially true for surgeries in the posterior cervical triangle, such as lymph node biopsy. It is important to be aware of the potential for injury to the accessory nerve during these procedures to prevent any long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old woman with bilateral pitting edema that extends above the knee is...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with bilateral pitting edema that extends above the knee is prescribed furosemide. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibits the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter

      Explanation:

      Furosemide is a type of loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the cotransporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle, which prevents the reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and potassium. This results in significant diuresis.

      Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is commonly used to reduce intracranial pressure after a head injury. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist, while bendroflumethiazide acts on the sodium-chloride transporter in the distal convoluted tubule. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is often prescribed for the treatment of acute angle closure glaucoma.

      Diuretic drugs are classified into three major categories based on the location where they inhibit sodium reabsorption. Loop diuretics act on the thick ascending loop of Henle, thiazide diuretics on the distal tubule and connecting segment, and potassium sparing diuretics on the aldosterone-sensitive principal cells in the cortical collecting tubule. Sodium is reabsorbed in the kidney through Na+/K+ ATPase pumps located on the basolateral membrane, which return reabsorbed sodium to the circulation and maintain low intracellular sodium levels. This ensures a constant concentration gradient.

      The physiological effects of commonly used diuretics vary based on their site of action. furosemide, a loop diuretic, inhibits the Na+/K+/2Cl- carrier in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle and can result in up to 25% of filtered sodium being excreted. Thiazide diuretics, which act on the distal tubule and connecting segment, inhibit the Na+Cl- carrier and typically result in between 3 and 5% of filtered sodium being excreted. Finally, spironolactone, a potassium sparing diuretic, inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump in the cortical collecting tubule and typically results in between 1 and 2% of filtered sodium being excreted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old male is injured by a gunshot to his right chest resulting...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male is injured by a gunshot to his right chest resulting in a right haemothorax that requires a thoracotomy. During the procedure, the surgeons opt to use a vascular clamp to secure the hilum of the right lung. What structure will be positioned most anteriorly at this location?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      At the base of the right lung, the phrenic nerve is located in the anterior position.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 39-year-old woman with a personal history of diabetes visits her General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman with a personal history of diabetes visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of tingling sensations in her thumb, index, and middle fingers of the right hand. She also reports difficulty gripping objects at times. After conducting a nerve conduction test, the GP confirms the diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome (CPS). Which nerve is likely affected by her condition, leading to these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the palmar side of the lateral three and a half digits of the hand. When this nerve is compressed inside the carpal tunnel, it can lead to carpal tunnel syndrome, which is the most common cause of median nerve entrapment. This condition can cause tingling sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers.

      The superficial radial nerve is not affected by carpal tunnel syndrome as it does not pass through the carpal tunnel.

      The ulnar nerve supplies sensation to the palmar side of the medial one and a half digits of the hand and does not explain the symptoms experienced on the lateral side of the hand. Additionally, it travels through the ulnar canal instead of the carpal tunnel, so it is not affected by carpal tunnel syndrome.

      The deep radial nerve is not impacted by carpal tunnel syndrome as it does not travel through the carpal tunnel.

      The musculocutaneous nerve is not involved in hand sensation and has motor and sensory functions in the arm and forearm. Therefore, it cannot be responsible for the patient’s symptoms.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A young intravenous drug user suffers from a false aneurysm and needs immediate...

    Incorrect

    • A young intravenous drug user suffers from a false aneurysm and needs immediate surgery. During the procedure, the femoral nerve is accidentally cut, making the surgery more challenging. Which muscle is the least likely to be impacted by this injury?

      Your Answer: Pectineus

      Correct Answer: Adductor magnus

      Explanation:

      R emember E very W ord I n T his E xercise

      The femoral nerve is a nerve that originates from the spinal roots L2, L3, and L4. It provides innervation to several muscles in the thigh, including the pectineus, sartorius, quadriceps femoris, and vastus lateralis, medialis, and intermedius. Additionally, it branches off into the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, and intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The femoral nerve passes through the psoas major muscle and exits the pelvis by going under the inguinal ligament. It then enters the femoral triangle, which is located lateral to the femoral artery and vein.

      To remember the femoral nerve’s supply, a helpful mnemonic is don’t MISVQ scan for PE. This stands for the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, vastus, quadriceps femoris, and sartorius, with the addition of the pectineus muscle. Overall, the femoral nerve plays an important role in the motor and sensory functions of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 77-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of loose teeth and mucosal ulcers...

    Correct

    • An 77-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of loose teeth and mucosal ulcers that won't heal. She has a medical history of asthma, diabetes, and recurrent falls, as well as having undergone bilateral hip replacement surgery. Upon examination, the doctor notes periodontal disease, while radiology reports reveal sclerotic lesions in the mandible and maxilla that are indicative of osteonecrosis. Which medication could be responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a potential side effect of bisphosphonates, particularly alendronate, and the risk increases with prolonged use. However, the other options listed are not associated with this condition. While denosumab is also linked to osteonecrosis of the jaw, it is less common than with bisphosphonates. It is unlikely that the patient is taking denosumab as there is no mention of any contraindications to bisphosphonates, and alendronate is the first-line drug for bone protection. Additionally, denosumab is significantly more expensive than alendronate.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following methods would be best for identifying and measuring a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following methods would be best for identifying and measuring a viral protein?

      Your Answer: Polymerase chain reaction

      Correct Answer: Western blotting

      Explanation:

      PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
      GEL (Gel Electrophoresis)
      BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool)

      Overview of Molecular Biology Techniques

      Molecular biology techniques are essential tools used in the study of biological molecules such as DNA, RNA, and proteins. These techniques are used to detect and analyze these molecules in various biological samples. The most commonly used techniques include Southern blotting, Northern blotting, Western blotting, and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

      Southern blotting is a technique used to detect DNA, while Northern blotting is used to detect RNA. Western blotting, on the other hand, is used to detect proteins. This technique involves the use of gel electrophoresis to separate native proteins based on their 3-D structure. It is commonly used in the confirmatory HIV test.

      ELISA is a biochemical assay used to detect antigens and antibodies. This technique involves attaching a colour-changing enzyme to the antibody or antigen being detected. If the antigen or antibody is present in the sample, the sample changes colour, indicating a positive result. ELISA is commonly used in the initial HIV test.

      In summary, molecular biology techniques are essential tools used in the study of biological molecules. These techniques include Southern blotting, Northern blotting, Western blotting, and ELISA. Each technique is used to detect specific molecules in biological samples and is commonly used in various diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old male comes to urology for evaluation of pyelonephritis. He complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male comes to urology for evaluation of pyelonephritis. He complains of fatigue, fever, swollen lymph nodes, and a rash with raised bumps. Despite a negative Monospot test, due to his history of engaging in high-risk sexual activities, you are requested to rule out a possible HIV seroconversion illness. What test would be the most suitable for this investigation?

      Your Answer: Antibodies to HIV-1

      Correct Answer: p24 antigen test

      Explanation:

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      20.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal System (2/2) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Neurological System (1/2) 50%
Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (2/2) 100%
General Principles (0/2) 0%
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