00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 78-year-old male presents to the Orthopaedic clinic with lower back pain for...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the Orthopaedic clinic with lower back pain for the past month. His past medical history reveals a history of cancer. After examination, you diagnose Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC). Which one of the following cancers is this patient most likely to have had?

      Your Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Compression of the thecal sac causes metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC) due to a Metastatic tumour and its components. It can cause symptoms of limb weakness, sensory disturbances and back pain depending on the extent and level of Compression. The most common source of a tumour causing MSCC is a prostate carcinoma that metastasized to the spinal cord via the vertebral venous plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 78-year-old man develops renal impairment and hearing loss after inpatient management for...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man develops renal impairment and hearing loss after inpatient management for sepsis.Which of these antibiotics is most likely to have been used?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, and thus prevents initiation of protein synthesis.Two of its most notable side effects are reversible nephrotoxicity(caused by the inhibition of protein synthesis in renal cells, which causes acute tubular necrosis) and hearing loss (caused by damage to the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear). Both side effects are dose-related and occur commonly in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis due to excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is...

    Correct

    • The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis due to excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is diagnosed in a male patient with a history of recurrent hyponatraemia.Which of the following produces ADH?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), commonly known as vasopressin, is a peptide hormone that controls how much water the body retains.It is produced in the magnocellular and parvocellular neurosecretory cells of the paraventricular nucleus and supraoptic nucleus in the hypothalamus from a prohormone precursor. It is subsequently carried to the posterior pituitary via axons and stored in vesicles.The secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary is regulated by numerous mechanisms:Increased plasma osmolality: Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect an increase in osmolality and trigger ADH release.Stretch receptors in the atrial walls and big veins detect a decrease in atrial pressure as a result of this (cardiopulmonary baroreceptors). ADH release is generally inhibited by atrial receptor firing, but when the atrial receptors are stretched, the firing reduces and ADH release is promoted.Hypotension causes baroreceptor firing to diminish, resulting in increased sympathetic activity and ADH release.An increase in angiotensin II stimulates angiotensin II receptors in the hypothalamus, causing ADH production to increase.The main sites of action for ADH are:The kidney is made up of two parts. ADH’s main job is to keep the extracellular fluid volume under control. It increases permeability to water by acting on the renal collecting ducts via V2 Receptors (via a camp-dependent mechanism). This leads to a decrease in urine production, an increase in blood volume, and an increase in arterial pressure as a result.Vascular system: Vasoconstriction is a secondary function of ADH. ADH causes vasoconstriction via binding to V1 Receptors on vascular smooth muscle (via the IP3 signal transduction pathway). An increase in arterial pressure occurs as a result of this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      58.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A dermatological examination of a patient who has presented with a lump shows...

    Incorrect

    • A dermatological examination of a patient who has presented with a lump shows a collection of boils clustered together.Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?

      Your Answer: Furuncle

      Correct Answer: Carbuncle

      Explanation:

      A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus. A carbuncle is a collection of individual boils clustered together. A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter. A vesicle is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient is referred to the Medicine Department for complaints of unilateral hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is referred to the Medicine Department for complaints of unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus and facial numbness. Upon further investigation, an acoustic neuroma is given as the final diagnosis.Which of the following nerves is least likely to be affected in acoustic neuroma?

      Your Answer: Vestibulocochlear nerve

      Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve

      Explanation:

      Acoustic neuroma is also called vestibular schwannoma (VS), acoustic neuroma, vestibular neuroma or acoustic neurofibroma. These are tumours that evolve from the Schwann cell sheath and can be either intracranial or extra-axial. They usually occur adjacent to the cochlear and vestibular nerves and most often arise from the inferior division of the latter. Anatomically, acoustic neuroma tends to occupy the cerebellopontine angle. About 5-10% of cerebellopontine angle (CPA) tumours are meningiomas and may occur elsewhere in the brain. Bilateral acoustic neuromas tend to be exclusively found in individuals with type 2 neurofibromatosis.The following nerves may be affected due to nerve compression:Facial nerve: usually minimal with late presentation except for very large tumours. Depending on the degree of engagement of the nerve, the symptoms may include twitching, increased lacrimation and facial weakness.Trigeminal Nerve: paraesthesia in the trigeminal distribution, tingling of the tongue, impairment of the corneal reflex, and less commonly pain which may mimic typical trigeminal neuralgia.Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerves: palatal paresis, hoarseness of voice and dysphagia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The juxtacapillary receptors, or J receptors, are sensory cells that play an important...

    Correct

    • The juxtacapillary receptors, or J receptors, are sensory cells that play an important role in the control of respiration.At which of the following anatomical sites are the J receptors located? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: The alveolar walls

      Explanation:

      Juxtacapillary receptors (J receptors) are sensory cells that are located within the alveolar walls in juxtaposition to the pulmonary capillaries of the lung.The J receptors are innervated by the vagus nerve and are activated by physical engorgement of the pulmonary capillaries or increased pulmonary interstitial volume, for example, in the presence of pulmonary oedema, pulmonary embolus, pneumonia and barotraumas. They may also be stimulated by hyperinflation of the lung.Stimulation of the J receptors causes a reflex increase in breathing rate and is also thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea. The reflex response that is produced is apnoea, followed by rapid breathing, bradycardia, and hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Dexamethasone would be most useful for which of the following conditions: ...

    Incorrect

    • Dexamethasone would be most useful for which of the following conditions:

      Your Answer: Topical use in eczema

      Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure secondary to malignancy

      Explanation:

      Dexamethasone has a very high glucocorticoid activity in conjunction with insignificant mineralocorticoid activity. This makes it particularly suitable for high-dose therapy in conditions where fluid retention would be a disadvantage such as in the management of raised intracranial pressure or cerebral oedema secondary to malignancy. Dexamethasone also has a long duration of action and this, coupled with its lack of mineralocorticoid action makes it particularly suitable for suppression of corticotropin secretion in congenital adrenal hyperplasia. In most individuals a single dose of dexamethasone at night, is sufficient to inhibit corticotropin secretion for 24 hours. This is the basis of the ‘overnight dexamethasone suppression test’ for diagnosing Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Herpes simplex encephalitis has a predilection for which of the following sites: ...

    Incorrect

    • Herpes simplex encephalitis has a predilection for which of the following sites:

      Your Answer: Limbic lobe

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex virus is the most common cause of infective encephalitis and has a predilection for the temporal lobes. Herpes simplex is transmitted through direct contact. It invades skin locally producing skin vesicles by its cytolytic activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      95.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 66-year-old female who is a known case of atrial fibrillation comes to...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old female who is a known case of atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with the complaint of fever and vomiting for the past two days. When her medical chart is reviewed, you see that she takes Warfarin for her arrhythmia. Which ONE of the following medications cannot be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Like other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, Ibuprofen cannot be given with Warfarin as it would increase the bleeding risk of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following factors does NOT decrease glucagon secretion: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does NOT decrease glucagon secretion:

      Your Answer: Insulin

      Correct Answer: Catecholamines

      Explanation:

      Factors that increase glucagon secretion:↓ Blood glucose↑ Amino acidsCholecystokininCatecholaminesAcetylcholineFactors that decrease glucagon secretion:↑ Blood glucoseInsulinSomatostatinFatty acids, ketoacids

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency Department after taking 30 of her 200 mcg levothyroxine tablets. She tells you she's 'tired of life' and 'can't take it any longer.' She is currently asymptomatic, and her findings are all within normal limits.What is the minimum amount of levothyroxine that must be taken before thyrotoxicosis symptoms appear?

      Your Answer: >10 mg

      Explanation:

      An overdose of levothyroxine can happen by accident or on purpose. Intentional overdosing is sometimes done to lose weight, but it can also happen in patients who are suicidal. The development of thyrotoxicosis, which can lead to excited sympathetic activity and high metabolism syndrome, is the main source of concern. The time between ingestion and the emergence of clinical features associated with an overdose is often quite long.After a levothyroxine overdose, the majority of patients are asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are usually only seen in patients who have taken more than 10 mg of levothyroxine in total.The following are the most commonly seen clinical features in patients developing clinical features:TremorAgitationSweatingInsomniaHeadacheIncreased body temperatureIncreased blood pressureDiarrhoea and vomitingLess common clinical features associated with levothyroxine overdose include:SeizuresAcute psychosisThyroid stormTachycardiaArrhythmiasComaThe continued absorption of the ingested levothyroxine causes a progressive rise in both total serum T4 and total serum T3 levels in the first 24 hours after an overdose. However, in some cases, the biochemical picture is completely normal. Thyroid function tests are not always recommended after a thyroxine overdose. Although elevated thyroxine levels are common, they have little clinical significance and have no impact on treatment. Following a levothyroxine overdose, the following biochemical features are common:T4 and T3 levels in the blood are elevated.Free T4 and Free T3 levels are higher.TSH levels in the blood are low.If the patient is cooperative and more than 10 mg of levothyroxine has been consumed, activated charcoal can be given (i.e., likely to become symptomatic)Within an hour of ingestion, the patient presents.The treatment is mostly supportive and aimed at managing the sympathomimetic symptoms that come with levothyroxine overdose. If beta blockers aren’t an option, try propranolol 10-40 mg PO 6 hours or diltiazem 60-180 mg 8 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Fat in the diet is principally in the form of cholesterol.

      Correct Answer: Chylomicrons are exocytosed from enterocytes to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.

      Explanation:

      Dietary fat is chiefly composed of triglycerides (esters of free fatty acids and glycerol which may be saturated or unsaturated). The essential fatty acids are linoleic acid and alpha-linoleic acid, which cannot be manufactured in the body. Dietary fat provides 37 kJ (9 kcal) of energy per gram. Fats are digested almost entirely in the small intestine and are only released from the stomach into the duodenum at the rate at which they can be digested.Pancreatic lipase is the most significant enzyme for fat digestion. In the duodenum fat is emulsified by bile acids, a process where larger lipid droplets are broken down into much smaller droplets providing a greater surface area for enzymatic digestion. Micelles are arranged so that hydrophobic lipid molecules lie in the centre, surrounded by bile acids arranged such the outer region is hydrophilic. Dietary and synthesised lipids are incorporated into chylomicrons in the Golgi body, which are exocytosed from the basolateral membrane to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis:

      Your Answer: Bilirubinuria

      Explanation:

      Features of intravascular haemolysis include:haemoglobinaemia, methaemalbuminaemia, haemoglobinuria (dark urine) and haemosiderinuria

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - On which of the following types of receptors does loperamide act? ...

    Incorrect

    • On which of the following types of receptors does loperamide act?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic receptors

      Correct Answer: Opioid receptors

      Explanation:

      Loperamide inhibits acetylcholine release from the myenteric plexus acts by action on opioid mu-receptors, and this then reduces bowel motility. The intestinal transit time is increased, thereby facilitating water reabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Pharmacology
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 60-year-old man with insulin-controlled diabetes mellitus asks you about how his ability...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with insulin-controlled diabetes mellitus asks you about how his ability to drive is affected. He owns a car as well as a motorcycle.Which of the following statements about driving with diabetes under insulin control is correct?

      Your Answer: He must monitor his blood glucose levels every 2 hours whilst driving

      Explanation:

      The DVLA sends a detailed information sheet about their licence and driving to all drivers with diabetes mellitus. The primary danger of driving while diabetic is hypoglycaemia.The DVLA must be notified of the following diabetic patients:All of the drivers are on insulin. (Licenses are being reviewed more frequently.)Those who are at high risk of hypoglycaemia and have had more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia in the previous year. (Severe hypoglycaemia is defined as requiring the assistance of another person to manage.)Those who are unaware of their hypoglycaemiaAnyone who has ever been in a car accident due to hypoglycaemiaAnyone with diabetic retinopathy who needs laser treatment (to both eyes or to a second eye if sight only in one eye)Patients with diabetes complications that impair their ability to drive.To drive, drivers with insulin-treated diabetes must meet the following requirements:They need to be aware of hypoglycaemia.They must not have had more than one episode of hypoglycaemia in the previous 12 months that necessitated the assistance of another person.They must check their blood glucose levels no later than 2 hours before the first journey.While driving, they must check their blood glucose levels every two hours.The visual acuity and visual field standards must be met.Any significant changes in their condition must be reported to the DVLA. Furthermore, on days when they are not driving, group 2 licence holders must test their blood glucose twice daily using a metre that can store three months’ worth of readings.In addition to this advice, the DVLA also offers the following advice to diabetic patients:When taking tablets that have the potential to cause hypoglycaemia (such as sulfonylureas and glinides), monitoring may be necessary if there has been more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia.Drivers must show good control and be able to recognise hypoglycaemia.Verify that your vision meets the required standard.If a patient feels hypoglycaemic or has a blood glucose level of less than 4.0 mmol/L, they should not drive. Driving should not be resumed until blood glucose levels have returned to normal, which should take 45 minutes.If there are any warning signs, patients should carry rapidly absorbed sugar in their vehicle and stop, turn off the ignition, and eat it.If resuscitation is required, a card stating which medications they are taking should be carried.If hypoglycaemia causes an accident, a diabetic driver may be charged with driving under the influence of drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      62.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles: ...

    Incorrect

    • Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles:

      Your Answer: Superior rectus and inferior oblique

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus and superior oblique

      Explanation:

      Depression of the eyeball is produced by the inferior rectus and the superior oblique muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      73.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 38-year-old woman is investigated for Addison's disease. She had low blood pressure,...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman is investigated for Addison's disease. She had low blood pressure, weakness, weight loss, and skin discoloration. An adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test is scheduled as part of her treatment.Which of the following statements about ACTH is correct? 

      Your Answer: It is released in response to the release of CRH

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary gland produces and secretes a peptide hormone called adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (adenohypophysis). It is secreted in response to the hypothalamus’s secretion of the hormone corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).ACTH promotes cortisol secretion via binding to cell surface ACTH receptors in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex.ACTH also promotes the production of beta-endorphin, which is a precursor to melanocyte-releasing hormone (MRH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Coagulative necrosis is typically seen in which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Coagulative necrosis is typically seen in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Coagulative necrosis is the most common form of necrosis characterised by the loss of cell nuclei, but with general preservation of the underlying architecture. Dead tissue is macroscopically pale and firm. This is the classic pattern seen in myocardial infarction.Liquefactive necrosis leads to complete loss of cellular structure and conversion into a soft, semi-solid mass. This is typically seen in the brain following cerebral infarction.Caseous necrosis is most commonly seen in tuberculosis. Histologically, the complete loss of normal tissue architecture is replaced by amorphous, granular and eosinophilic tissue with a variable amount of fat and an appearance reminiscent of cottage cheese.Gangrenous necrosis is necrosis with putrefaction of tissues due to exposure to air (dry gangrene) or infection (wet gangrene).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Identify the type of graph described below:A graph that consists of a vertical...

    Correct

    • Identify the type of graph described below:A graph that consists of a vertical bar graph in which values are plotted in decreasing order of relative frequency from left to right. The independent variables on the chart are shown on the horizontal axis and the dependent variables are portrayed as the heights of bars.

      Your Answer: Pareto diagram

      Explanation:

      A pareto diagram, or pareto chart, consists of a vertical bar graph in which values are plotted in decreasing order of relative frequency from left to right. The independent variables on the chart are shown on the horizontal axis and the dependent variables are portrayed as the heights of bars.A point-to-point graph, which shows the cumulative relative frequency, may be superimposed on the bar.Because the values of the statistical variables are placed in order of relative frequency, the graph clearly reveals which factors have the greatest impact and where attention is likely to yield the greatest benefit. It is extremely useful for analysing what problems need attention first, because the taller bars on the chart clearly illustrate which variable have the greatest cumulative effect on a given system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding gastric motility and emptying, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding gastric motility and emptying, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin enhances gastric motility and gastric emptying.

      Correct Answer: Gastric emptying is inhibited by the presence of the products of fat digestion in the duodenum.

      Explanation:

      Gastric emptying is decreased by the presence of fats in the duodenum (by stimulating release of cholecystokinin). Mixing of the food with gastric secretions takes place in the distal body and antrum of the stomach where the muscularis externa layer is thicker. The stomach has an additional inner oblique smooth muscle layer (in addition to the inner circular layer and outer longitudinal layer). Gastric emptying is increased by a low gastric pH and decreased by a low duodenal pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old man suffers an open fracture of his forearm. The nerve that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man suffers an open fracture of his forearm. The nerve that innervates the pronator quadratus muscle is damaged as a consequence of this injury.Which of the following nerves has been damaged in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: The median nerve

      Correct Answer: The anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Pronator quadratus is a small, square-shaped muscle that lies in the anterior compartment of the forearm. It arises from the distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna and inserts into the distal fourth of the anterior surface of the radius.Pronator quadratus is innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve. It receives its blood supply from the anterior interosseous artery, which is a branch of the common interosseous artery, which in turn is a branch of the ulnar artery.The main action of pronator quadratus is to assist pronator teres with pronation of the forearm. The deep fibres bind the radius and ulna together.The pronator quadratus muscle highlighted in blue (adapted from Gray’s Anatomy)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old man is dehydrated as he presents with severe vomiting and diarrhoea....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is dehydrated as he presents with severe vomiting and diarrhoea. He urgently requires resuscitation with intravenous fluid administration. He is also administered metoclopramide.Which of the following is the true mechanism of action of metoclopramide?

      Your Answer: 5-HT3 receptor agonism

      Correct Answer: Dopamine receptor antagonism

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide is used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by blocking the central and peripheral D2 (dopamine 2) receptors in the medullary chemoreceptor trigger zone in the vomiting centre (area postrema). It decreases the sensitivity of the visceral sensory nerves that transmit from the GI system to the vomiting centre. Blockade of inhibitory dopamine receptors in the GI tract may allow stimulatory actions of ACh at muscarinic synapses to predominate.At high doses, metoclopramide also blocks type-2 serotonin receptors though the effect is much weaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Caseous necrosis is typically seen in which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Caseous necrosis is typically seen in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Caseous necrosis is most commonly seen in tuberculosis. Histologically, the complete loss of normal tissue architecture is replaced by amorphous, granular and eosinophilic tissue with a variable amount of fat and an appearance reminiscent of cottage cheese.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old asthmatic patient on theophylline as part of her asthma management presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old asthmatic patient on theophylline as part of her asthma management presents to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical condition.Which of these drugs should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Macrolide antibiotics (e.g. clarithromycin and erythromycin) are cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitors. They increase blood levels of theophylline leading to hypokalaemia, and potentially increasing the risk of Torsades de pointes when they are prescribed together. Co-prescription with theophylline should be avoided.Factors that enhance theophylline clearance include cigarette smoking, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone, and rifampin. Medications that inhibit clearance include ethanol, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin, verapamil, propranolol, ticlopidine, tacrine, allopurinol, and cimetidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The first line drug for oral candidiasis is: ...

    Correct

    • The first line drug for oral candidiasis is:

      Your Answer: Nystatin

      Explanation:

      Treatment for oral candidiasis is with nystatin mouthwash. In unresponsive cases, oral fluconazole is used

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - As a response to low blood pressure, the baroreceptor reflex will facilitate vasoconstriction...

    Incorrect

    • As a response to low blood pressure, the baroreceptor reflex will facilitate vasoconstriction by activating which receptor?

      Your Answer: Beta2

      Correct Answer: Alpha1

      Explanation:

      The rate of baroreceptor firing slows down when blood pressure falls too low. This causes an increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart, resulting in an increase in cardiac output. It also causes vasoconstriction by activating alpha 1 receptors in smooth muscle, which causes sympathetic stimulation of peripheral vessels. Alpha2 receptors can be found in both the brain and the peripheral nervous system. They control sympathetic outflow in the brain stem. Beta1 receptors, which are found on the cell membrane of cardiac muscle cells, stimulate heart rate and myocardial contractility. The smooth muscle cell membrane contains beta2 receptors, which promote smooth muscle relaxation in the lungs causing bronchodilation, GI tract, and peripheral blood vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A patient with a central line in situ for the past 10 days...

    Correct

    • A patient with a central line in situ for the past 10 days now has erythema surrounding the catheter insertion site and shows signs of sepsis. You suspect line sepsis.Which of these antibacterial agents would be most appropriate to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      The current recommendation by NICE and the BNF is to use vancomycin as first-line in treatment of septicaemia related to vascular catheter. A broad-spectrum antipseudomonal beta-lactam antibiotic should be added to vancomycin if a Gram-negative sepsis is suspected especially in an immunocompromised patient.In any patient that has had a central venous catheter in situ for a period longer than a week, it should be suspected as the source of sepsis.The features suggesting the vascular catheter as the source of infection include:Presence of the catheter before onset of fever.The absence of another identifiable source of infection.Presence of inflammation or purulent material at the insertion site or along the tunnel.An immunocompetent patient without any underlying disease developing bacteraemia (or fungaemia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 62-year-old woman presents with cold sensitivity, tiredness, and weight gain. A series...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with cold sensitivity, tiredness, and weight gain. A series of blood tests done shows a grossly elevated TSH level and a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is made.What is the commonest cause of hypothyroidism worldwide?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune thyroiditis

      Correct Answer: Iodine deficiency

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism occurs when there is a deficiency of circulating thyroid hormones. It is commoner in women and is most frequently seen in the age over 60.Iodine deficiency is the commonest cause of hypothyroidism worldwide.In the UK and other developed countries, iodine deficiency is not a problem and autoimmune thyroiditis is the commonest cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man presents with haemoptysis, night sweats, and weight loss. Further examinations...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with haemoptysis, night sweats, and weight loss. Further examinations were done and a diagnosis of tuberculosis is suspected. Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

      Your Answer: It is impervious to decolourisation with acid

      Explanation:

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis are part of the Mycobacteriaceae family. They are described to have the characteristics of a Gram-positive cell wall but they are not easily stained with Gram stain. This is because their cell wall contains a high lipid content, and this lipid allows the Mycobacteria to bind to alkaline stains with the application and help of heat. Once stained, they are able to resist decolorization even with the use of acid alcohol as the decolourizer, making them very difficult to decolorize, that is why they are known to be acid-fast.The Ghon complex is a non-pathognomonic radiographic finding on a chest x-ray that is significant for pulmonary infection of tuberculosis. The location of the Ghon’s focus is usually subpleural and predominantly in the upper part of the lower lobe and lower part of the middle or upper lobe. Skeletal tuberculosis of the spine is referred to as Pott disease.The risk of reactivation TB is about 3.3% during the first year after a positive PPD skin test and a total of 5% to 15% thereafter in the person’s lifetime. Progression from infection to active disease varies with age and the intensity and duration of exposure. Reactivation TB occurs when there is an alteration or suppression of the cellular immune system in the infected host that favoursreplication of the bacilli and progression to disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old female complains of chest pain characteristic of angina. A dose of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female complains of chest pain characteristic of angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is administered that resolves the chest pain rapidly. Which ONE of the following is released on the initial metabolism of GTN?

      Your Answer: Nitrate ions

      Correct Answer: Nitrite ions

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine. Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are: 1. Glyceryl trinitrate 2. Isosorbide dinitrate The nitrate drugs are metabolized in the following steps: 1. Release Nitrite ions (NO2-), which are then converted to nitric oxide (NO) within cells. 2. NO activates guanylyl cyclase, which causes an increase in the intracellular concentration of cyclic guanosine-monophosphate (cGMP) in vascular smooth muscle cells. 3. Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.Although nitrates are potent coronary vasodilators, their principal benefit in the management of angina results from a predominant mechanism of venous dilation:- Bigger veins hold more blood- Takes blood away from the left ventricle- Lowers LVEDV (preload), LA pressure- Less pulmonary oedema → improved dyspnoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      30.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Pathology (1/2) 50%
Pathology (4/5) 80%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (4/9) 44%
Physiology (3/8) 38%
Renal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (0/3) 0%
Central Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (0/2) 0%
Microbiology (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Endocrine Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal (0/3) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
Endocrine Physiology (1/2) 50%
Inflammatory Responses (2/2) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
CNS Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Passmed