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Question 1
Correct
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A 78-year-old man presents to you with complaints of vision problems in his right eye. He has been experiencing crooked edges on his door and occasional blurring of his vision. He has noticed that he tends to turn slightly while driving, but his peripheral vision remains unaffected. He denies any pain in his eye. Upon examination, his visual acuity is normal and his fundi appear unremarkable. However, when asked to look at a lined piece of paper, he reports seeing breaks in the lines. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:Understanding Eye Conditions: A Guide for General Practitioners
Ophthalmology is a crucial aspect of a general practitioner’s work, yet it is often under-taught. It is essential to be aware of diagnoses and to categorize routine and urgent eye conditions. This guide aims to provide a brief overview of some common eye conditions.
Age-related macular degeneration is a condition that can often be asymptomatic, and visual loss is usually mild. Patients may experience visual distortions, blurring of vision, and difficulty reading. There may also be a difference in size and color between both eyes.
Retinal vein occlusion causes sudden, painless unilateral visual loss. Primary closed-angle glaucoma and uveitis usually present with severe and progressive eye pain, along with blurred vision. Amaurosis fugax refers to transient retinal ischemia and symptoms include rapid onset of blindness developing over seconds, as if a curtain was drawn across the eye, and lasts seconds or minutes.
It is important for general practitioners to be familiar with these conditions and to refer patients to ophthalmologists when necessary. By understanding these eye conditions, general practitioners can provide better care for their patients and ensure that they receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of visual difficulties. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, depression, and is on medication for hypertension. She has been experiencing headaches and blurred vision for the past few days, and today she noticed a significant decrease in vision in her right eye. During the examination, her right eye appeared red, her pupil was sluggish, and her corrected visual acuity was 6/30. Her medication was recently altered. Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of this occurrence?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Anticholinergics and tricyclic antidepressants are drugs that can cause acute glaucoma.
Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, halos around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 3
Correct
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An 80-year-old man came in with a complaint of a 'gritty' left eye that has been gradually worsening for the past three months. His vision was unaffected. Upon examination, it was found that he had a left lower eyelid entropion that was not corrected on blinking.
What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer this patient to an ophthalmologist
Explanation:Importance of Ophthalmologist Referral for Entropion
This patient is experiencing symptoms due to entropion, which is the inward turning of the eyelid. If left untreated, this condition can lead to scarring of the cornea and a reduction in vision. Therefore, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for proper management.
While waiting for the ophthalmology review, ocular lubrication can be used to provide symptomatic relief. However, this alone is not sufficient for the appropriate management of entropion. It is crucial to address the underlying cause of the condition to prevent further complications and preserve the patient’s vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents to your clinic. She recently recovered from multiple myeloma and is currently taking diuretics for leg swelling. She reports painless blurring in her right eye that started a few days ago. She denies any redness, itching, or irritation in either eye, and her left eye vision is unchanged.
During the examination, her blood pressure is 150/94 mmHg, and all other physical findings are unremarkable. Her left eye has a corrected acuity of 6/9, while her right eye can only differentiate light and dark. Due to the primary care setting, you are unable to perform a thorough fundoscopy.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:Central retinal vein occlusion is characterized by sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy. The absence of itching or redness suggests that an infective cause such as conjunctivitis or episcleritis is unlikely, especially since episcleritis is typically painful. The fact that the condition is unilateral and has a relatively sudden onset makes diabetic retinopathy or glaucoma less likely. However, it should be noted that not all patients with CRVO present with a clear history of sudden and complete vision loss, and a thorough fundoscopy examination may not always be possible in a primary care setting. If a fundoscopy examination is performed, the retina may exhibit a typical blood and thunder appearance due to extensive haemorrhages across all four quadrants.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a condition that can cause sudden, painless loss of vision. It is often associated with risk factors such as increasing age, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, and polycythemia. When a vein in the central retinal venous system is occluded, it can lead to widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
A key differential diagnosis for CRVO is branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO), which occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked. This type of occlusion is thought to occur due to blockage of retinal veins at arteriovenous crossings and results in a more limited area of the fundus being affected.
While the majority of patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, there are indications for treatment in some cases. For example, patients with macular edema may benefit from intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents, while those with retinal neovascularization may require laser photocoagulation. Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for providing effective care to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42-year-old diabetic man is seen in the Diabetes Clinic with decreased visual acuity. When referred to the Eye Clinic, the Ophthalmologist inquires about the patient's risk factors for macular edema.
What is the most significant risk factor? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Proteinuria
Explanation:Factors Associated with Macular Edema in Diabetes
In diabetes, macular edema is a common cause of visual loss and can result from various factors such as macular capillary non-perfusion, vitreous hemorrhage, and distortion or traction detachment of the retina. The severity of diabetic retinopathy, male gender, higher glycosylated hemoglobin, proteinuria, higher systolic and diastolic blood pressure, and smoking history are all associated with a higher incidence of macular edema, according to The Wisconsin Epidemiologic Study of Diabetic Retinopathy.
Contrary to popular belief, low glycosylated hemoglobin is not associated with macular edema. However, hypercholesterolemia and other cardiovascular risk factors can influence the onset and progression of retinopathy and should be monitored. While peripheral vascular disease is a risk factor for diabetes, it is not directly associated with macular edema. Overall, understanding the factors associated with macular edema in diabetes can help healthcare professionals identify and manage patients at risk for this complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man, known to have been referred to ophthalmology and awaiting the appointment for his right pterygium, attends.
He was referred to the ophthalmologist by his Optician because the pterygium is encroaching on his visual axis. He is complaining of constant irritation, but there is no inflammation of the eye. There is no ocular pain or discharge.
What is the best next step of management?Your Answer: Refer patient to see an ophthalmologist on the same day
Correct Answer: Give the patient a short course of topical ocular lubricants
Explanation:Understanding Pterygium and When to Refer to an Ophthalmologist
Pterygium is a condition that can cause irritation and grittiness in the eye due to its irregular surface, which can lead to dryness in certain areas. If the pterygium encroaches on the visual axis, it can threaten the patient’s vision and requires referral to an ophthalmologist. Other reasons for referral include inducing irregular astigmatism, chronic inflammation, or being cosmetically unacceptable.
While waiting for an ophthalmology appointment, the best management for symptomatic relief is to use ocular lubricants. If there is evidence of acute inflammation, an ophthalmologist may prescribe topical steroids or NSAIDs. In some cases, surgery may be necessary.
It’s important to note that if a patient has not been referred and their pterygium encroaches on the visual axis, they should be referred to an ophthalmologist. Understanding when to refer patients with pterygium can help ensure they receive the appropriate care and management for their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 7
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presents with sudden loss of vision in his left eye, associated with a relative afferent pupillary defect.
He has poorly controlled systemic hypertension and raised cholesterol.
What is the most likely cause of his condition?Your Answer: Retinal vascular occlusion
Explanation:Tips for Answering Tricky Questions in the AKT Exam
When faced with a tricky question in the AKT exam, it can be easy to feel overwhelmed and unsure of how to proceed. However, there are strategies you can use to help narrow down your options and improve your chances of selecting the correct answer.
One approach is to look for key information in the question stem, such as the presence of certain risk factors or the sudden onset of symptoms. By considering which answer option is most likely given this information, you can eliminate some of the less plausible choices.
It’s important to remember that you won’t know the answer to every question in the exam, and that’s okay. By using these strategies and taking a methodical approach, you can increase your hit rate and feel more confident in your overall performance.
To see an example of this approach in action, check out the Endgames scenario on sudden unilateral painless loss of vision in the BMJ article linked above. With practice and preparation, you can tackle even the trickiest questions on the AKT exam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 8
Correct
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A 21-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of visual disturbance. He experienced a temporary loss of vision for approximately one hour, but his vision has since returned to normal. He did not report any headache. Upon evaluation and examination, the doctor suspects a diagnosis of retinal migraine.
What is a characteristic feature of this condition?Your Answer: Visual aura affecting only one eye
Explanation:Understanding Retinal Migraine: Symptoms and Features
Retinal migraine is a type of migraine that primarily affects vision in one eye. Unlike a typical migraine aura, which affects both eyes, retinal migraine causes recurrent attacks of unilateral visual disturbance or blindness lasting from minutes to one hour, often with minimal or no headache. The visual disturbance typically starts as a mosaic pattern of scotomata that gradually enlarges, leading to total unilateral visual loss.
Bilateral aura is not usually considered a feature of retinal migraine, and other diagnoses should be considered if both eyes are affected. Loss of consciousness and facial weakness are also not typical symptoms of retinal migraine and may indicate other underlying conditions.
However, transient aphasia, a feature of classical migraine, may occur in patients who suffer from visual aura. It usually resolves within an hour or two, with complete resolution to normal function.
It is important to rule out eye disease or vascular disease, mainly carotid artery disease, especially when risk factors for arteriosclerosis exist, particularly if there is a weakness of the facial muscles. Understanding the symptoms and features of retinal migraine can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to your clinic with a red left eye. His wife noticed it yesterday and urged him to see a doctor. He recalls experiencing similar symptoms a few times before. He denies any significant pain or discomfort and reports no changes in his vision. He works as a landscaper and takes co-codamol for back pain and laxatives for constipation. He has no other medical history.
During the examination, you observe a well-defined area of redness in his left eye. His pupils and visual acuity are normal. After staining his eye, you find no abnormalities.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Subconjunctival haemorrhage
Explanation:Subconjunctival haemorrhage typically manifests as a localized, well-defined area of bleeding in one eye and may be associated with a history of constipation. This individual is taking co-codamol, which can contribute to constipation. Blepharitis, on the other hand, is characterized by inflammation of the eyelid margin and typically presents with burning, itching, and both eyelids sticking together. Conjunctivitis, whether due to allergy or infection, typically causes itching. Gardeners are at risk of corneal abrasions and foreign bodies, as organic matter can enter the eye during activities such as strimming. However, patients usually report a sensation of a foreign body in the eye and may have a visible abrasion upon staining.
Subconjunctival haemorrhages occur when blood vessels in the subconjunctival space bleed. These vessels typically supply the conjunctiva or episclera. Trauma is the most common cause, followed by spontaneous idiopathic cases, Valsalva manoeuvres, and several systemic diseases. While subconjunctival haemorrhages can look alarming, they are rarely an indicator of anything serious. They are more common in women than men, and the risk increases with age. Newborns are also more susceptible. The incidence of both traumatic and non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 2.6%.
Risk factors for subconjunctival haemorrhages include trauma, contact lens usage, idiopathic causes, Valsalva manoeuvres, hypertension, bleeding disorders, certain drugs, diabetes, arterial disease, and hyperlipidaemia. Symptoms include a red eye, usually unilateral, and mild irritation. Signs include a flat, red patch on the conjunctiva with well-defined edges and normal conjunctiva surrounding it. The patch’s size can vary depending on the size of the bleed and can involve the whole conjunctiva. Traumatic haemorrhages are most common in the temporal region, with the inferior conjunctiva as the next most commonly affected area. Vision should be normal, including acuity, visual fields, and range of eye movements. On examination, the fundus should be normal.
The diagnosis of a subconjunctival haemorrhage is clinical. If there is no obvious traumatic cause, check the patient’s blood pressure. If raised, refer the patient appropriately. If the patient is taking warfarin, check the INR. If raised, refer for appropriate adjustments to the dose to bring the INR back into the target range. If you cannot see the whole border of the haemorrhage, it may be associated with an intracranial bleed or an orbital roof fracture. Further appropriate investigations should then be done, including a full cranial nerve exam looking for neurological signs as well as a CT head, after discussion with a senior. Recurrent or spontaneous, bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages warrant investigations for bleeding disorders or other pathology.
Reassure the patient that subconjunctival haemorrhages are a benign condition that will resolve on their own in 2 to 3 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 10
Incorrect
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During a home visit, a 75-year-old female patient complains of a chesty cough. However, she also mentions experiencing severe and progressive right-sided eye pain since this morning. She has noticed blurry vision in the same eye and has been feeling nauseous, vomiting twice. As she has blue eyes, acute angle-closure glaucoma is suspected. Unfortunately, there will be a delay admitting the patient as the ambulance is at least 45 minutes away. What is the most appropriate method of managing this patient?
Your Answer: Ask the patient to lie face down
Correct Answer: Ask the patient to lie flat, face up with no pillow
Explanation:Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, halos around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension comes to the clinic complaining of experiencing light flashes in his left eye. He has been experiencing these symptoms for the past 2 days and they seem to occur more at the peripheral part of his vision. There is no pain or redness in the affected eye. His corrected visual acuity is measured as 6/9 in both eyes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Change in shape of eye secondary to variations in blood sugar
Correct Answer: Vitreous detachment
Explanation:If a patient experiences flashes and floaters, it may indicate vitreous detachment, which increases the risk of retinal detachment. Therefore, it is crucial to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist immediately.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, but it can be caused by a variety of factors. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, temporary loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues, vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, can be caused by a wide range of factors such as thrombosis, embolism, temporal arteritis, and hypoperfusion. It may also represent a form of transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and should be treated similarly with aspirin 300 mg. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries.
Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, and hypertension. Severe retinal haemorrhages are usually seen on fundoscopy. Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is due to thromboembolism or arteritis and features include afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, and anticoagulants. Features may include sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also symptoms of posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between these conditions can be done by observing the specific symptoms such as a veil or curtain over the field of vision, straight lines appearing curved, and central visual loss. Large bleeds can cause sudden visual loss, while small bleeds may cause floaters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 12
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a brownish discoloration that has appeared medial to the iris. She has noticed it increasing in size over the past three months. She had lived in South Africa for the past 20 years and moved to the UK for her retirement six months earlier.
Her medical history includes hypertension, which is controlled with indapamide, and a cholecystectomy. During routine examination, you notice an irregularly edged brownish lobular lesion a few millimetres across, medial to the iris, within the conjunctiva.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Urgent referral to the ophthalmologist
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Potential Conjunctival Melanoma
This patient may have a conjunctival melanoma, which requires urgent referral for further investigation and intervention. The thickness of the lesion is closely linked to prognosis, with thicker lesions having poorer outcomes. Therefore, prompt action is necessary to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
Observation, arranging non-urgent investigations, and treating with corticosteroids or antibiotics are not appropriate interventions for conjunctival melanoma. These approaches are either ineffective or delay the potential for intervention, which can worsen the prognosis.
The preferred intervention for conjunctival melanoma is wide excision with supplemental cryotherapy. Fortunately, with modern methods of intervention, removal of the eye is only necessary in 20% of patients, usually with large tumors. Early detection and intervention are crucial for the best possible outcome for patients with conjunctival melanoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 13
Correct
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A 76-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a gradual onset of visual disturbance. She reports difficulty in recognizing facial details and increasing difficulty in reading. She also experiences bending of road edges while driving and sees a floating grey patch in her vision. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Age related macular degeneration
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this description is age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). In the initial stages, patients may experience difficulty in reading or identifying details. A common symptom of ARMD is the perception of straight lines appearing bent or distorted, as mentioned in the description. This can be assessed in a clinical setting using an Amsler grid.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has a 3-week history of persistent conjunctivitis in his right eye. He has tried using over-the-counter medication but this has not helped. Of note, he returned from a visit to Amsterdam four weeks ago, following which he was treated for urinary symptoms at the local walk-in centre. On examination, he has some mucopurulent discharge and hyperaemia. The inferior tarsal conjunctival follicles are obvious.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gonococcal conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: Chlamydial conjunctivitis
Explanation:Differentiating Conjunctivitis: Causes and Symptoms
Conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin membrane that covers the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. It can be caused by various factors, including bacteria, viruses, allergens, and sexually transmitted infections. Here are some of the different types of conjunctivitis and their distinguishing features:
Chlamydial Conjunctivitis: This type of conjunctivitis is transmitted through autoinoculation or eye-to-eye spread and is associated with urethritis or cervicitis. It is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and can last for up to 12 months if left untreated. It is usually unilateral and presents with chronic follicular conjunctivitis.
Trachoma: This type of conjunctivitis is caused by poor sanitation and is the third most common cause of blindness in the world. It is caused by serotypes A to C of C. trachomatis and presents with severe conjunctival scarring and secondary corneal ulceration and scarring.
Allergic Conjunctivitis: This type of conjunctivitis occurs in atopic individuals and presents with itchy, watering eyes.
Gonococcal Conjunctivitis: This type of conjunctivitis is caused by gonorrhea and presents with a rapid onset of unilateral/bilateral red eyes with a severe purulent discharge and tender preauricular lymph nodes.
Simple Bacterial Conjunctivitis: This type of conjunctivitis is usually bilateral and should have resolved by three weeks. The discharge is mucopurulent but less copious than in gonococcal conjunctivitis.
Viral Conjunctivitis: This type of conjunctivitis is usually bilateral and should have resolved by three weeks. The discharge is usually watery, and follicles may be seen on eyelid eversion.
In summary, the type of conjunctivitis can be determined by the symptoms and the underlying cause. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old teacher presents to the out-of-hours General Practice with complaints of conjunctivitis. She wears contact lenses. She has been using over-the-counter Brolene® drops for the last two days to try to treat the problem herself, but now finds her vision blurred in the affected eye. On examination, she has florid keratoconjunctivitis and visual acuity of 6/36 in her affected eye. Fluorescein stain is taken up centrally.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Foreign body
Correct Answer: Corneal ulcer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Unilateral Eye Condition
One possible diagnosis for a patient with a unilateral eye condition is a corneal ulcer, which can be caused by contact lens use and may lead to serious complications if left untreated. However, other conditions should also be considered. Viral conjunctivitis, which is typically bilateral and accompanied by copious discharge, may follow a viral upper respiratory tract infection. Chlamydial conjunctivitis, on the other hand, is not usually unilateral and doesn’t involve fluorescein uptake. A dendritic ulcer, caused by herpes simplex virus, is characterized by small branching epithelial dendrites and doesn’t exhibit central fluorescein uptake. Finally, a foreign body may cause similar symptoms, but would typically be visible upon examination and not involve central fluorescein staining. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a patient’s eye condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of irritated gritty eyes and mild photophobia that have been bothering her for the past three months. She has a history of acne rosacea but is generally healthy. Upon examination with a slit lamp, the doctor observes inflammation of the meibomian glands, injected conjunctiva, and fluorescein staining of both corneas.
What is the most likely finding consistent with this condition?Your Answer: Posterior capsular opacification
Correct Answer: Rapid tear film break up time
Explanation:Understanding Eye Conditions
Dry eye syndrome is a common condition that occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears or the tears evaporate too quickly. This can lead to inflammation and discomfort. Posterior capsular opacification is another condition that can occur after cataract surgery, causing clouding of vision. It is often treated with YAG laser capsulotomy. Posterior synechiae is a condition where the iris sticks to the lens of the eye, usually caused by trauma or inflammation. Bacterial conjunctivitis may cause purulent discharge, but this is not a symptom of dry eye syndrome unless there is a secondary infection. Small lacrimal puncta can lead to poor tear drainage and epiphora, but this is not the same as dry eye syndrome. Understanding these different eye conditions can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 17
Correct
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A 55-year-old, seemingly healthy woman presents to your clinic reporting that she was surprised to find her left eye filled with blood when she woke up this morning. She denies any ocular discomfort and states that her vision is unaffected. There is no discharge from the eye and no active bleeding. Upon examination, you note the presence of a subconjunctival hemorrhage.
What is the most appropriate course of action to take next?Your Answer: Reassure the patient and check her blood pressure and blood glucose level
Explanation:Understanding Subconjunctival Haemorrhage
Subconjunctival haemorrhage can be a frightening sight, but it is usually not a cause for concern. This condition occurs when a blood vessel in the eye bursts, causing blood to pool under the conjunctiva. While it can be caused by rubbing the eye or minor trauma, it can also be associated with underlying health conditions such as hypertension and diabetes mellitus.
If you experience subconjunctival haemorrhage, it is important to have your blood pressure and blood glucose levels checked. This will help determine if there are any underlying health issues that need to be addressed. However, in most cases, reassurance and time are all that is needed for the blood to be reabsorbed and the eye to return to normal. So, while it may be alarming to look at, subconjunctival haemorrhage is usually a minor issue that can be easily managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review and is found to have new vessel formation at the optic disc. His visual acuity in both eyes is unaffected (6/9) and his blood pressure is 155/84 mmHg. His HbA1c level is 68 mmol/mol (8.4%). What is the primary intervention that should be taken for this patient?
Your Answer: Tight glycaemic control
Correct Answer: Laser therapy
Explanation:An ophthalmologist should be urgently referred for panretinal photocoagulation as the patient is suffering from proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults aged 35-65 years-old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls, causing damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage leads to increased vascular permeability, which causes exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovasculization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischaemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are typically classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularisation, which may lead to vitreous haemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. For maculopathy, intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors are used if there is a change in visual acuity. Non-proliferative retinopathy is managed through regular observation, while severe/very severe cases may require panretinal laser photocoagulation. Proliferative retinopathy is treated with panretinal laser photocoagulation, intravitreal VEGF inhibitors, and vitreoretinal surgery in severe or vitreous haemorrhage cases. Examples of VEGF inhibitors include ranibizumab, which has a strong evidence base for slowing the progression of proliferative diabetic retinopathy and improving visual acuity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 4-year-old child who comes with her dad with a red left eye, yellow discharge and crusting associated with coryzal symptoms and a mild fever. You inform them that this is probably viral conjunctivitis. The dad inquires about the duration Samantha should stay away from preschool?
Your Answer: Keep at home until 24 hours after symptoms resolve
Correct Answer: No restriction to attending nursery
Explanation:There is no need to exclude children with viral conjunctivitis from school or nursery.
Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old engineer seeks guidance regarding laser correction of myopia.
What is the one accurate statement about this treatment?Your Answer: Is available on the National Health Service for sight improvement
Correct Answer: Is complicated sometimes by reduced night vision
Explanation:Myths and Facts about Laser Eye Surgery
Laser eye surgery is a popular procedure for correcting refractive errors, but there are many misconceptions about it. Here are some myths and facts about laser eye surgery:
Myth: Laser eye surgery can be performed by optometrists without special training.
Fact: Laser eye surgery should only be performed by ophthalmologists who have received special training and certification.Myth: Laser eye surgery is available on the National Health Service for sight improvement.
Fact: Laser eye surgery is not available on the National Health Service for cosmetic purposes.Myth: Laser eye surgery is suitable for anyone over the age of 16 years.
Fact: Laser eye surgery is not recommended for young people whose eyes are still developing and whose prescription may still change.Myth: Laser eye surgery is suitable for patients with keratoconus.
Fact: Laser eye surgery is not recommended for patients with keratoconus, as it can further thin the cornea.Laser eye surgery can be a safe and effective way to correct refractive errors, but it is important to separate fact from fiction before making a decision. Always consult with a qualified ophthalmologist to determine if laser eye surgery is right for you.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 21
Correct
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An 80-year-old lady came to the clinic complaining of a one day history of right temporal headache, jaw claudication, fever and reduced appetite. She stated that her vision had not worsened.
Upon examination, there was tenderness on palpation of the right scalp at the temporal region and the right temporal artery was palpable and hard. The patient's visual acuity was 6/6 on both eyes according to the Snellen chart.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Start the patient on oral prednisolone
Explanation:Giant Cell Temporal Arteritis: Urgent Management Required
This patient’s history strongly suggests giant cell temporal arteritis (GCA), a medical emergency that requires urgent management. While ophthalmologists may be involved in the management of GCA, their involvement is only necessary if the condition is affecting the patient’s vision. In this scenario, the patient’s vision is not affected.
The recommended course of action is to start the patient on 40-60mg of prednisolone per day (for patients without visual symptoms) and refer them urgently to a physician, typically a Rheumatologist. It is important to note that national guidance should be followed, rather than local variations, when assessing patients in an exam setting. Shared care is recommended, and patients may require treatment for several years.
In addition to steroids, aspirin and PPIs are recommended. However, long-term treatment with oral steroids can increase the risk of osteoporosis, which should be assessed. For more information on national guidance and associated information, CKS provides a comprehensive summary of GCA management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 22
Correct
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You come across a 16-year-old girl who complains of a painful and red right eye. She has been experiencing discomfort for the past two days and feels like there is something in her eye. She cannot recall anything entering her eye, and her vision seems to be affected. She has no history of facial herpes and is in good health otherwise.
Upon examination, her visual acuity is reduced in the affected eye as she has removed her contact lenses this morning. The eye is watering and red, but the pupil reaction is normal. The anterior chamber appears normal, but there is a small superficial corneal injury visible upon staining the eye.
Based on the most probable diagnosis, what would be the most appropriate course of treatment?Your Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:If a contact lens wearer experiences a minor injury to their cornea, it is important to refer them urgently to secondary care. This is because contact lens use increases the risk of Pseudomonas infection, which can cause serious damage to the eyes and requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Therefore, it is recommended that the patient be referred for immediate ophthalmology assessment.
Corneal abrasions occur when there is damage to the outer layer of the cornea, often caused by physical trauma such as scratching or rubbing the eye. Symptoms include eye pain, tearing, sensitivity to light, a feeling of something in the eye, and reduced vision in the affected eye. Diagnosis is made through the use of fluorescein staining, which highlights the damaged area. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antibiotics to prevent infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of redness and pain in his left eye for the past two days. He also reports mild sensitivity to light and blurred vision. He wears contact lenses daily and is in good health otherwise.
Upon examination, the left eye appears red with swelling of the eyelid, conjunctival inflammation, and excessive tearing. However, ocular movement is normal.
What are the most frequently implicated organisms in this condition?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:If someone has contact lens associated keratitis, it is important to consider the possibility of a Pseudomonas infection. In the UK, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most frequently encountered bacterial pathogen in cases of contact lens associated keratitis.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea, which is the clear, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye. While there are various causes of keratitis, microbial keratitis is a particularly serious form of the condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Bacterial keratitis is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic keratitis are also possible, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections, environmental factors like photokeratitis, and contact lens-related issues like contact lens acute red eye (CLARE).
Symptoms of keratitis typically include a painful, red eye, photophobia, and a gritty sensation or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. In some cases, hypopyon may be seen. If a person is a contact lens wearer and presents with a painful red eye, an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis.
Management of keratitis typically involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics like quinolones and cycloplegic agents for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. It is important to seek urgent evaluation and treatment for microbial keratitis to prevent these potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 24
Correct
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One morning you go to see a 20-year-old female patient on the ward who has a painful eye. She was admitted yesterday with a broken arm, for which she had a successful surgery and is due to be discharged today, past medical history is unremarkable except for being nearsighted and wearing contact lenses. The patient explains her right eye has been sore since she woke up. She cannot recall if she removed her contact lenses the night before. An examination reveals diffuse redness of her right eye with both contact lenses in place but is otherwise unremarkable. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Refer immediately to ophthalmology
Explanation:If the patient is using contact lenses, there is a possibility that she has a corneal ulcer. This is a serious eye condition that requires urgent attention from an ophthalmologist. Therefore, the other options are not appropriate. Removing the contact lenses could aggravate the situation, and asking her to visit an optician would only delay the diagnosis.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. Some causes of red eye require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some key distinguishing features of different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and a semi-dilated pupil. The patient may also see haloes and have a hazy cornea.
Anterior uveitis has an acute onset and is accompanied by pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may be worse on movement. It may be associated with an underlying autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by purulent discharge, while viral conjunctivitis has a clear discharge.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and is characterized by a red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents with a red left eye. She reports experiencing an itchy, gritty sensation in the left eye for the past 24 hours. She notes some grey-green discharge at the lid margins and mentions using an eye bath she purchased from the pharmacy to clear it this morning. Her visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and both pupils are equal and reactive with no other abnormalities detected. Fluorescein staining shows no focal lesion. She has no history of eye problems and doesn't wear contact lenses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Refer immediately to eye casualty
Correct Answer: Prescribe a regular ocular lubricant
Explanation:Antibiotic Stewardship in the Management of Acute Infective Conjunctivitis
In the management of acute infective conjunctivitis, it is important to consider good antibiotic stewardship and follow national guidance from NICE. While it can be difficult to differentiate between bacterial and viral conjunctivitis, most cases are self-limiting and resolve within 1-2 weeks without the need for antibiotics. Lubricant eye drops can help reduce discomfort, and patients should clean away infected secretions with a cotton wool ball soaked in water. Additionally, up to 10% of patients may experience adverse reactions to topical antibiotics.
According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge summary, treatment with topical antibiotics should be reserved for severe cases where other serious causes have been ruled out, for schools and childcare organizations requiring treatment before allowing a child to return, and for patients who understand the limitations of treatment but still prefer it. If patients prefer early treatment with antibiotics, they should consider delaying treatment to see if the condition resolves spontaneously within 7 days.
If a patient presents with an acute red eye and normal visual acuity without any red flag features, immediate eye casualty referral is not necessary. Management in primary care is the most appropriate approach at this stage. However, if the patient experiences reduced visual acuity, immediate referral for further specialist assessment is warranted. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure appropriate management of acute infective conjunctivitis while promoting antibiotic stewardship.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with flashing lights in his right eye followed by a curtain descending across his vision.
Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is correct?.Your Answer: It can usually be treated with medical therapy and bed rest
Correct Answer: It may be a sign of malignant melanoma
Explanation:Retinal Detachment: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Retinal detachment is a serious condition that can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. It occurs when the retina, the thin layer of tissue at the back of the eye responsible for transmitting visual information to the brain, separates from its underlying support tissue. Here are some important facts about retinal detachment:
Causes: Retinal detachment can result from a variety of factors, including a posterior vitreous detachment, myopia, severe acute hypertension, inflammation, or neoplastic effusions.
Symptoms: Symptoms of retinal detachment include sudden onset of floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain-like shadow over the visual field. However, some patients may not experience any symptoms at all.
Treatment: Retinal tears and holes are treated with cryotherapy or laser photocoagulation. Most actual detachments require surgery to flatten the retina. Patients who do not have immediate surgery may have strict bedrest and to hold the head in a particular position to prevent progression of the detachment. The retina is successfully reattached in around 85% of cases. In cases where the macula is not involved, 90% of patients have 20/40 vision or better after reattachment surgery.
Understanding Retinal Detachment: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing double vision. When looking straight ahead, the patient's right eye is turned upward and outward. When attempting to look to the left, the double vision becomes more severe.
What is the probable underlying issue?Your Answer: Left 6th nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Right 4th nerve palsy
Explanation:Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy
Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with primary open angle glaucoma. He inquires about the potential impact on his vision if the condition is left untreated.
Your Answer: Impairs visual acuity
Correct Answer: Impairs peripheral visual fields
Explanation:The main impact of glaucoma is on the patient’s visual field, as it causes an optic neuropathy. This typically starts with peripheral vision loss and can progress to tunnel vision if left untreated. While visual acuity may also be affected, it is not as commonly impacted as the visual field.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris doesn’t cover the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals, with up to 10% of those over 80 years of age affected. Genetics, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, myopia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and corticosteroid use are all risk factors for POAG. POAG may present with peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping, which can be detected during routine optometry appointments.
Fundoscopy signs of POAG include optic disc cupping, optic disc pallor, bayonetting of vessels, and cup notching. Optic disc cupping occurs when the cup-to-disc ratio is greater than 0.7, indicating a loss of disc substance. Optic disc pallor indicates optic atrophy, while bayonetting of vessels occurs when vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and reappear at the base. Cup notching usually occurs inferiorly where vessels enter the disc, and disc haemorrhages may also be present.
The diagnosis of POAG is made through a series of investigations, including automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy. If POAG is suspected, referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for further evaluation and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of deteriorating vision. He reports seeing flashing lights and experiencing difficulty with near vision. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and a 25-pack-year history of smoking. Upon fundoscopy, yellow pigment deposition is observed around the macula. Amsler grid testing reveals distorted perception of straight lines. The intraocular pressure is 15 mmHg.
What is the most suitable course of action based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Referral to ophthalmology non-urgently
Correct Answer: Referral to ophthalmology urgently
Explanation:An urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary within one week for this patient suspected of having age-related macular degeneration (AMD). The patient is experiencing worsening vision, photopsia, and has drusen on fundoscopy, all of which are consistent with AMD. It is important to rule out wet AMD, which can lead to preventable blindness. Referring to an optometrist or prescribing medication such as latanoprost or vitamins is not appropriate at this stage. The patient requires urgent ophthalmological intervention.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents with an acutely painful red left eye. She denies any history of foreign body injury and has had no coryzal symptoms. There is a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus which is currently controlled with hydroxychloroquine. The patient is afebrile and examination reveals an erythematous injected sclera with a bluish hue. The pupils are equal and reactive and the visual acuity is maintained bilaterally. There is no significant discharge noted.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Episcleritis
Correct Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Based on the patient’s history of autoimmune disease, severe pain and redness in the eye, and bluish hue, it is likely that they are experiencing scleritis. This is a serious condition that requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Episcleritis, which is less severe and typically painless, can be ruled out due to the patient’s symptoms. Acute angle closure glaucoma is also a possibility, but the patient’s clear and reactive pupils suggest otherwise. It is important to check the intraocular pressure to rule out glaucoma. While a foreign body injury is a potential cause of eye pain and redness, the lack of a history of eye injury and absence of discharge make this diagnosis less likely.
Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 31
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Grave's disease and is now seeking a review 3 months after commencing a 'block and replace' regimen with carbimazole and thyroxine. She is worried about the possibility of developing thyroid eye disease. What measures can be taken to minimize her risk of developing this condition?
Your Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Smoking is the primary controllable risk factor for thyroid eye disease.
Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.
Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.
Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 32
Correct
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A 50-year-old labourer comes to you with a complaint of noticing that his conjunctiva has grown onto the cornea at 4 o'clock position in his left eye for the past two weeks. He reports feeling a gritty sensation most of the time, but his vision is unaffected. On examination, you observe that the growth is at the very periphery of the cornea, far away from the pupil visual axis, and the affected eye doesn't appear inflamed.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Start patient on ocular lubricants
Explanation:Understanding Pterygium: A Fibrovascular Tissue Extension
Pterygium is a condition where fibrovascular tissue extends from the conjunctiva onto the cornea. While the exact cause is unknown, spending a lot of time outdoors is a known risk factor. When left untreated, pterygium can cause dry eyes and a gritty sensation. However, if it is not encroaching on the visual axis, symptomatic relief can be achieved through the use of ocular lubricants. In cases where the pterygium appears inflamed, a short course of mild ocular topical steroid may be added. However, if the pterygium is near the visual axis, it is important to seek prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for removal. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for pterygium can help individuals manage this condition and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has developed diplopia.
Which finding would suggest a third nerve palsy?Your Answer: Constricted pupil
Correct Answer: Pupil unreactive to light
Explanation:Common Symptoms of Nerve Palsies
A nerve palsy is a condition that affects the function of a specific nerve. There are different types of nerve palsies, each with their own set of symptoms. Here are some common symptoms associated with different types of nerve palsies:
Third Nerve Palsy: This type of palsy is characterized by ptosis (drooping of the eyelid), a dilated and unreactive pupil, and downward and outward displacement of the eyeball. The affected eye may also have a divergent squint.
Seventh Nerve Palsy: In this type of palsy, increased lacrimation (tearing) may be seen. The affected eye may also have difficulty closing, resulting in dryness and irritation.
Horner’s Syndrome: This type of palsy is characterized by enophthalmos (sunken appearance of the eye) and miosis (constriction of the pupil). Other symptoms may include ptosis and decreased sweating on one side of the face.
By understanding the common symptoms associated with different types of nerve palsies, individuals can seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 34
Correct
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Which of the following can cause a small pupil?
Your Answer: Pontine haemorrhage
Explanation:Causes of Pupil Size Changes
Small pupils can be caused by a variety of factors, including Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, drugs, and poisons such as opiates and organophosphates. On the other hand, dilated pupils can be caused by Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, drugs, and poisons such as atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. It is important to identify the cause of pupil size changes as it can provide valuable information for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, nausea and vomiting, and blurred vision that have been going on for two days.
She has been wearing glasses since she was a child due to her long-sightedness. She has a history of severe migraines and was recently prescribed a prophylactic medication by her GP.
During the examination, both of her eyes appear red, and her pupils are mid-dilated and unreactive in both eyes.
What is the probable medication responsible for this presentation?Your Answer: Sumatriptan
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations
Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.
Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.
Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A patient in her 60s with a diagnosis of sicca syndrome is requesting her repeat prescription. She is otherwise well.
Which prescription is most likely to belong to her?Your Answer: Timolol 0.5% eye drops
Correct Answer: Hypromellose 0.3% eye drops
Explanation:Treatment Options for Sicca Syndrome
Sicca syndrome, also known as Sjogren syndrome, is a condition that results in reduced lacrimal and salivary gland excretion. This can lead to dry eye, or keratoconjunctivitis sicca. The most common treatment for this condition is an ocular lubricant, such as Hypromellose 0.3%.
Other eye drops, such as Dexamethasone 0.1%, are typically used for inflammatory eye disorders or postoperative care after cataract surgery. Oxybuprocaine 0.4% is a local anesthetic that may be used for tonometry or foreign body removal. Timolol 0.5% is a beta blocker used to treat ocular hypertension and glaucoma. Tropicamide 0.5% is a mydriatic agent used to dilate the pupil for more comprehensive fundus examination.
In summary, while there are various eye drops available for different eye conditions, the most appropriate treatment for Sicca syndrome is an ocular lubricant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 37
Correct
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A 59-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a lump on her upper eyelid that she has noticed recently. The lump is not causing any discomfort. Upon examination, a 6mm firm lump is observed that distorts the eyelid margin and causes loss of eyelashes. The lump appears to be slightly ulcerated. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Arrange a 2 week referral
Explanation:A possible meibomian cyst is suggested by the patient’s history. These cysts typically develop slowly over several weeks, resulting in a firm, localized swelling of the eyelid. While there may be initial discomfort, pain and tenderness are usually absent. Meibomian cysts are most commonly found on the upper eyelid and are typically 2-8 mm in diameter.
When the eyelid is turned inside out, a meibomian cyst appears as a distinct, immobile, circular, yellowish lump (lipogranuloma). In the acute phase, it may appear inflamed, tender, and red. The skin overlying the cyst is usually normal and freely movable, while the meibomian cyst itself adheres to the tarsal plate. There should be no associated ulceration, bleeding, telangiectasia, or discharge.
Warm compresses and massage are the first-line treatments for meibomian cysts. Topical or oral antibiotics should not be used.
If a malignant eyelid tumor is suspected, such as if the meibomian cyst has an unusual appearance (such as distortion of the eyelid margin, loss of eyelashes, ulceration, or bleeding) or if a suspected meibomian cyst recurs in the same location, NICE recommends arranging a 2-week wait referral. As a result, the correct answer is a 2-week referral.
Source: CKS
According to the April 2016 feedback report, candidates should be familiar with the presentation and management of common eye conditions, as well as less common eye conditions that require urgent attention.
Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues such as blepharitis, styes, chalazions, entropion, and ectropion. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Styes are infections that occur in the glands of the eyelids, with external styes affecting the sebum-producing glands and internal styes affecting the Meibomian glands. Chalazions, also known as Meibomian cysts, are retention cysts that present as painless lumps in the eyelid. While most cases of chalazions resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.
When it comes to managing styes, there are different types to consider. External styes are usually caused by a staphylococcal infection in the glands of Zeis or Moll, while internal styes are caused by an infection in the Meibomian glands. Treatment typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only recommended if there is an associated conjunctivitis.
Overall, eyelid problems can be uncomfortable and even painful, but with proper management and treatment, they can be resolved effectively. It’s important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of blurred vision on his right side for several days. He reports seeing a cobweb-like opacity that moves around. When he closes his right eye, the opacity disappears. His visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes, and he has not experienced any visual field loss. Upon examination with an ophthalmoscope after dilatation, his retina appears normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cataract
Correct Answer: Vitreous detachment
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Vitreous Detachment: This condition is characterized by flashing lights and a mobile opacity in the visual field of one eye. A slit-lamp examination can reveal the opacity, which may be a sign of a retinal tear. Urgent referral to Eye Casualty is necessary to evaluate the retina and prevent retinal detachment.
Cataract: Cataracts cause a stable reduction in vision and appear as grey, white, or yellow-brown opacities in the lens.
Corneal Erosion: Often caused by trauma, a corneal erosion is painful and can be detected with fluorescein stain.
Macular Degeneration: This condition causes distortion of the central visual field and is visible on an Amsler chart. It is slowly progressive over months or years.
Retinal Detachment: Symptoms include photopsia, floaters, and a curtain descending over the field of vision. Macular involvement results in severe reduction in visual acuity. An obvious detachment appears as an elevation of the retina, which appears grey with dark blood vessels that may lie in folds. Comparing the suspected area with an adjacent normal area can help detect any change in retinal transparency. Vitreous haemorrhage may also occur.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 39
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of headaches. These are worse in the morning and have been associated with some nausea. Until recently, this was her only problem; however, now she has had episodes of transient blurred vision, particularly on stooping. Her body mass index (BMI) is 32.5 kg/m2. Examination of her fundi reveals papilloedema.
What is the most appropriate management in this situation?
Your Answer: Urgent medical admission
Explanation:Urgent Management of Papilloedema: Importance of Diagnosis and Treatment
Papilloedema, characterized by raised swollen optic discs, is often associated with raised intracranial pressure and can have multiple causes, including space-occupying lesions, meningitis, intracerebral haemorrhage, venous sinus thrombosis, and benign intracranial hypertension. While a young and obese patient may present with typical symptoms of benign intracranial hypertension, it is crucial to rule out other potential causes through immediate imaging.
Weight management may be a part of the treatment plan for benign intracranial hypertension, but it is essential to confirm the diagnosis and exclude life-threatening conditions before initiating treatment. Steroids like prednisolone may be used to treat benign intracranial pressure or cerebral oedema associated with a space-occupying lesion, but the cause of raised intracranial pressure must be identified before starting treatment.
While a neurologist may be appropriate to manage the condition once imaging has been performed and the cause of raised intracranial pressure is known, routine referral to neurology or ophthalmology is not recommended as it may delay diagnosis and treatment, potentially impacting the patient’s prognosis. Urgent management and diagnosis are crucial in cases of papilloedema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of primary open-angle glaucoma?
Your Answer: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Hypermetropia
Explanation:Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle closure glaucoma, while myopia is linked to primary open-angle glaucoma.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris doesn’t cover the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals, with up to 10% of those over 80 years of age affected. Genetics, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, myopia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and corticosteroid use are all risk factors for POAG. POAG may present with peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping, which can be detected during routine optometry appointments.
Fundoscopy signs of POAG include optic disc cupping, optic disc pallor, bayonetting of vessels, and cup notching. Optic disc cupping occurs when the cup-to-disc ratio is greater than 0.7, indicating a loss of disc substance. Optic disc pallor indicates optic atrophy, while bayonetting of vessels occurs when vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and reappear at the base. Cup notching usually occurs inferiorly where vessels enter the disc, and disc haemorrhages may also be present.
The diagnosis of POAG is made through a series of investigations, including automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy. If POAG is suspected, referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for further evaluation and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents to you with sudden loss of vision in her left eye while shopping. She reports two similar episodes in the past month that resolved within minutes. She has no other symptoms and is generally healthy, with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her vision is reduced to counting fingers. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax
Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Explanation:Visual Disturbances: Causes and Management
Visual disturbances can be caused by various conditions, including retinal transient ischaemic attack (TIA), central retinal artery occlusion, retinal vein occlusion, middle cerebral artery infarct, and migraine. Amaurosis fugax, or transient monocular blindness, may precede a central retinal artery occlusion or a stroke. Urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary within the first 24 hours, and methods such as anterior chamber paracentesis, intravenous Diamox®, ocular massage, and breathing into a paper bag may help restore vision. Retinal vein occlusion causes sudden painless unilateral loss of vision, while middle cerebral artery infarct produces a wide variety of neurological deficits, including visual consequences such as gaze preference towards the side of the lesion and contralateral homonymous hemianopia. Migraine visual aura consists of an area that is not well seen, surrounded by shimmering zig-zag lines, that gradually enlarges and then breaks up over a period of 15-30 minutes. Proper management and investigation are necessary to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 42
Correct
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You come across a 20-year-old art student who complains of a painful, red right eye. The symptoms started four days ago with a sensation of something being stuck in her eye, but she cannot see anything. Her eyelids are now slightly swollen, and her eye is watering. She experiences blurred vision and sensitivity to light. She is generally healthy and wears contact lenses daily, with no history of cold sores.
Upon examination, you observe a diffusely red right eye. Her pupil reaction is normal, but her visual acuity is slightly reduced. Staining reveals a small, circular area on the cornea that takes up the dye.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Corneal ulcer
Explanation:When a patient who wears contact lenses experiences a foreign body sensation in their eye, along with a red eye and an ulcer on staining, it is a classic presentation of a corneal ulcer. However, it is important to rule out herpes simplex keratitis as a differential diagnosis, especially if the patient has a history of herpes. Anterior uveitis, episcleritis, and scleritis would not show any abnormalities on staining the eye.
A corneal ulcer is a condition where there is a defect in the cornea, usually caused by an infection. This is different from a corneal abrasion, which is a defect in the cornea caused by physical trauma. Risk factors for corneal ulcers include using contact lenses and having a vitamin A deficiency, which is more common in developing countries.
The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can be caused by bacterial, fungal, viral, or Acanthamoeba infections. Bacterial keratitis, fungal keratitis, and viral keratitis (such as herpes simplex or herpes zoster) can lead to a dendritic ulcer. Acanthamoeba keratitis is often associated with contact lens use.
Symptoms of a corneal ulcer include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and watering of the eye. The cornea may also show focal fluorescein staining.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 43
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with a painful and red right eye that started 10 days ago. He complains of a foreign body sensation but cannot recall any incident of something entering his eye. His eye is swollen and tearing, and he experiences blurred vision and light sensitivity. Despite washing his eye with water daily, there has been no improvement. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and hypertension and wears contact lenses regularly. He denies having a history of cold sores.
During the examination, the patient's right eye appears diffusely red, and his visual acuity is slightly reduced. The pupil reaction is normal, but there is a small, circular area on the cornea that takes up the dye.
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Urgent, same day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms and signs that are consistent with a corneal ulcer, the most appropriate course of action is to urgently refer them to an ophthalmologist for assessment on the same day. Typically, a corneal ulcer is seen in patients who wear contact lenses and experience a foreign body sensation in the eye, along with a red eye and an ulcer on staining. While ophthalmic herpes may present similarly, the ulcer would be dendritic, and the patient would have a history of facial herpes. In such cases, the treatment involves aciclovir and topical ganciclovir, along with same-day ophthalmology assessment.
A corneal ulcer is a condition where there is a defect in the cornea, usually caused by an infection. This is different from a corneal abrasion, which is a defect in the cornea caused by physical trauma. Risk factors for corneal ulcers include using contact lenses and having a vitamin A deficiency, which is more common in developing countries.
The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can be caused by bacterial, fungal, viral, or Acanthamoeba infections. Bacterial keratitis, fungal keratitis, and viral keratitis (such as herpes simplex or herpes zoster) can lead to a dendritic ulcer. Acanthamoeba keratitis is often associated with contact lens use.
Symptoms of a corneal ulcer include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and watering of the eye. The cornea may also show focal fluorescein staining.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man contacts his GP reporting visual alterations in his left eye. He has been observing flashes/floaters and spider webs for the last 48 hours, and now there is some darkening on the periphery of vision. Additionally, he has noticed that straight lines appear somewhat jagged. There is no associated pain or injury. The patient is in good health and has no chronic medical conditions.
What is the probable diagnosis for the aforementioned symptoms?Your Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:If you experience peripheral vision loss accompanied by spider webs and flashing lights, it could be a sign of retinal detachment. This condition is often described as a curtain coming down over your vision and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Additionally, you may notice floaters or string-like shapes, and straight lines may appear distorted due to the retina detaching from the choroid.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, but it can be caused by a variety of factors. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, temporary loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues, vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, can be caused by a wide range of factors such as thrombosis, embolism, temporal arteritis, and hypoperfusion. It may also represent a form of transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and should be treated similarly with aspirin 300 mg. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries.
Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, and hypertension. Severe retinal haemorrhages are usually seen on fundoscopy. Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is due to thromboembolism or arteritis and features include afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, and anticoagulants. Features may include sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also symptoms of posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between these conditions can be done by observing the specific symptoms such as a veil or curtain over the field of vision, straight lines appearing curved, and central visual loss. Large bleeds can cause sudden visual loss, while small bleeds may cause floaters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has newly diagnosed diabetes. You examine her retina.
Which of the following represents the earliest sign of diabetic retinopathy?Your Answer: New blood vessels on the optic disc
Correct Answer: Dot haemorrhage
Explanation:Understanding the Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of individuals with diabetes. While the exact mechanism behind its development is not fully understood, it is known that microvascular occlusion leads to retinal ischaemia, which in turn causes arteriovenous shunts and neovascularisation. This process results in the characteristic features seen at various stages of diabetic retinopathy.
The earliest lesions to be detected in diabetic retinopathy are usually dot haemorrhages, which are capillary microaneurysms. Cotton-wool spots and hard exudates usually appear later than microaneurysms. Cotton-wool spots are due to a build-up of axonal debris, while hard exudates are precipitates of lipoproteins and other proteins leaking from retinal blood vessels that form well-defined yellow patches.
New blood vessels on the optic disc characterise proliferative retinopathy. They are an attempt by the residual healthy retina to re-vascularise hypoxic retinal tissue. However, these vessels are poorly and hastily built, and they bleed spontaneously or with minimal trauma. Advanced disease then follows with pre-retinal haemorrhage, vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, macular oedema, and ischaemic maculopathy.
Venous loops and venous beading frequently occur adjacent to areas of non-perfusion. They indicate increasing retinal ischaemia, and their occurrence is a significant predictor of progression to proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
Understanding the stages of diabetic retinopathy is crucial for early detection and treatment. Regular eye exams are recommended for individuals with diabetes to monitor their eye health and prevent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 46
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful and red left eye. She denies any recent trauma to the eye but reports seeing floaters and experiencing discomfort when moving her eye. She also notes blurred vision. This is the fourth time she has experienced these symptoms.
Upon examination, the left eye appears red and the pupil is irregular. The patient's visual acuity is slightly worse in the left eye compared to the right. Corneal staining reveals no abnormalities, but there are some cells present in the anterior chamber.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, and what is the recommended management plan?Your Answer: Arrange same day assessment in eye casualty
Explanation:If a patient displays symptoms consistent with anterior uveitis, such as a red and painful eye with reduced vision and flashes/floaters, urgent referral for assessment by an ophthalmologist on the same day is the most appropriate course of action. Anterior uveitis is characterized by inflammation in the anterior segment of the eye, with the presence of cells in the aqueous humour and an abnormally shaped or differently sized pupil compared to the unaffected eye. While the pain is not as severe as scleritis, prompt evaluation by a specialist is crucial for proper treatment.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman has been recently diagnosed with chronic open-angle glaucoma. The Ophthalmologist also comments that she has mild bilateral cataracts. When light from a pen torch is shone into the left eye, both pupils constrict. When the torch is moved to the right eye, both pupils appear to be more dilated.
Which of the following most correctly identifies the significance of this finding?Your Answer: This is the effect of pilocarpine
Correct Answer: There is already optic nerve damage in the right eye
Explanation:Understanding the Afferent Pupillary Defect in Glaucoma
The afferent pupillary defect is a key diagnostic tool in glaucoma. It refers to differences in the afferent pathway between the two eyes, indicating retinal or optic nerve disease. This defect can be detected even if visual field testing is not positive, making it a valuable tool in diagnosing glaucoma.
Contrary to popular belief, the presence of neurosyphilis doesn’t necessarily indicate an afferent pupillary defect. Instead, the Argyll Robertson pupils, which are small, irregular pupils that constrict during accommodation but not in response to light, are a hallmark of neurosyphilis.
It is also important to note that the density of a cataract or intraocular pressure doesn’t affect the presence of an afferent pupillary defect. Even with a dense cataract or corneal scar, a positive test can still be obtained as long as the retina and optic nerve are healthy.
Finally, while miotic drugs like pilocarpine can be used to treat glaucoma, they do not cause an afferent pupillary defect. This defect is a result of underlying retinal or optic nerve disease and should be carefully evaluated by a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 48
Correct
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A 6-month-old boy has recurrent sticky eyes and has twice had a course of topical antibiotics. A bead of pus is visible at the medial canthus of both eyes. The eyes are not red. He is afebrile and otherwise well.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer: Advice about nasolacrimal duct massage
Explanation:Managing Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Children: Advice on Massage and Referral
Nasolacrimal duct obstruction, also known as dacryostenosis, is a common condition in neonates, affecting up to 70% of infants. However, only a small percentage of these infants exhibit symptoms. In most cases, the condition resolves spontaneously by the age of 12 months. In the meantime, parents can help manage the condition by cleaning the lids regularly and performing nasolacrimal duct massage.
Nasolacrimal duct massage involves applying gentle pressure with a finger over the common canaliculus, located medial to the eye, and stroking downwards firmly to raise the pressure in the lacrimal sac and encourage opening of the valve. This can help clear excess tears and promote the development of the duct.
If the obstruction persists beyond one year of age, referral for nasolacrimal duct probing may be necessary. However, this patient is too young for this procedure.
Systemic antibiotics may be necessary if the obstruction leads to dacryocystitis, which is characterized by fever and a red, tender swelling over the duct and around the orbit. Topical antibiotics may be used for episodes of associated conjunctivitis, but this is not currently indicated in this patient.
In summary, nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition in infants that usually resolves spontaneously. Parents can help manage the condition by performing nasolacrimal duct massage, and referral for probing may be necessary if the obstruction persists beyond one year of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A six-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a two-day history of red eyes. There was no known injury to her eyes. She has clear discharge from both eyes and no symptoms of a cold. Upon examination, her visual acuity is normal, but both upper eyelids are swollen and the conjunctiva is red bilaterally. There is no lymphadenopathy and she is not running a fever. You suspect she has acute infective conjunctivitis.
What is the best course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Prescribe chloramphenicol ointment QDS for 7 days
Correct Answer: Advise his symptoms should improve within 7 days without treatment
Explanation:Antimicrobial treatment is often unnecessary for most cases of infective conjunctivitis, regardless of whether it is caused by a virus or bacteria. It can be challenging to differentiate between the two, although bacterial conjunctivitis may present with purulent discharge instead of watery discharge. Patients can alleviate symptoms with self-care measures such as cold compresses and ocular lubricants. If symptoms persist after seven days, patients should seek further medical attention. In severe cases of suspected bacterial conjunctivitis, chloramphenicol ointment can be purchased over the counter, while fusidic acid may be used as a second-line antimicrobial. Herpetic conjunctivitis, which causes a painful red eye with vesicular eyelid lesions, can be treated with aciclovir. Swabs are not useful in diagnosing conjunctivitis.
Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 5-week-old girl presents to your clinic with a three-day history of mild yellow discharge from her right eye and a 9 mm erythematous swelling inferior to the medial canthus of the right eye. Her mother reports that her eyes have always been watery. Upon examination, she has a temperature of 38.3°c. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: External Hordeolum
Correct Answer: Dacryocystitis
Explanation:Eye Infections and Obstructions: Understanding the Differences
Dacryocystitis is an inflammation of the nasolacrimal sac caused by an infection resulting from an obstruction in the nasolacrimal duct. This obstruction leads to the stagnation of tears and can cause systemic illness in infants. If left untreated, the infection can spread and cause orbital cellulitis.
A chalazion, also known as a meibomian cyst, occurs when the small oil glands around the eyelashes become blocked due to inflammation. This blockage leads to the formation of a small, tender swelling within the eyelid. Chalazions can occur on either the inferior or superior eyelids.
An external hordeolum, commonly known as a stye, is a localized infection or inflammation of the eyelash follicle. This type of infection is usually caused by a staphylococcal infection.
While nasolacrimal duct obstruction can contribute to the development of dacryocystitis in infants, it should not cause inflammation and illness on its own. It is important to note that congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction is common in infants and typically resolves within 12 months.
Ophthalmia neonatorum caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae typically occurs within the first five days of birth and is characterized by bilateral purulent discharge. When caused by chlamydial infection, the conjunctivitis may occur after three days but can arise as late as two weeks after birth.
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- Eyes And Vision
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