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Question 1
Correct
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A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in a night club. His friends who accompanied him admit that, of recent, he has been using increasing amounts of cocaine. Which among the following is commonly associated with cocaine overdose?
Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Metabolic acidosis is associated with cocaine overdose.
In overdose, cocaine leads to agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, sweating, hallucinations, and finally convulsions.
Metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, and ventricular arrhythmias also occur.
Chronic use may be associated with premature coronary artery disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, and increased risk of cerebral haemorrhage.
There are 3 stages for acute cocaine toxicity:
Stage I: CNS symptoms of headache, vertigo, pseudo hallucinations, hyperthermia, hypertension.
Stage II: increased deep tendon reflexes, tachypnoea, irregular breathing, hypertension.
Stage III: Areflexia, coma, fixed and dilated pupils, hypotension, ventricular fibrillation, apnoea, and respiratory failure.Treatment:
– Airway, breathing, and circulation to be secured. The patient’s fever should be managed, and one should rule out hypoglycaemia as a cause of the neuropsychiatric symptoms.
– Cardiovascular toxicity and agitation are best-treated first-line with benzodiazepines to decrease CNS sympathetic outflow.
– The mixed beta/alpha blocker labetalol is safe and effective for treating concomitant cocaine-induced hypertension and tachycardia.
– Non-dihydropyridine calcium channels blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil have been shown to reduce hypertension reliably, but not tachycardia.
– Dihydropyridine agents such as nifedipine should be avoided, as reflex tachycardia may occur.
– The alpha-blocker phentolamine has been recommended but only treats alpha-mediated hypertension and not tachycardia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following is FALSE with regards to vitiligo?
Your Answer: A positive family history is not a risk factor
Explanation:The cause of Vitiligo is typically unknown. It is believed to be due to genetic susceptibility that is triggered by an environmental factor such that an autoimmune disease occurs. This results in the destruction of skin pigment cells. Risk factors include a family history of the condition or other autoimmune diseases, such as hyperthyroidism, alopecia areata, and pernicious anaemia. Vitiligo is classified into two main types: segmental and non-segmental. Most cases are non-segmental meaning they affect both sides and typically get worse with time. The prevalence of vitiligo is 0.5-1% of populations worldwide. Typical sites include backs of hands, wrists, knees, neck and around body orifices. The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma. This occurs in vitiligo secondary to scratching.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric pain. Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of peptic ulceration rather than chronic pancreatitis?
Your Answer: Relieved by food
Explanation:Relief of symptoms with food suggests duodenal ulceration, for which the pain gets worse on an empty stomach. In chronic pancreatitis, you would expect worsening of symptoms with food.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 85 yr. old male with a history of hypertension presented with a couple of pre-syncopal episodes. He describes these episodes as him having felt as if he was going to faint and he has had to sit down. There were no precipitating factors, associated chest pain or palpitations. He doesn't have chest pain, shortness of breath on exertion, orthopnoea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. On examination he looked well. Blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 78 bpm which was irregular. His lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. ECG showed sinus rhythm with occasional ventricular ectopic beats. Which of the following is an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?
Your Answer: Second-degree block associated with symptoms
Explanation:Indications for permanent pacemaker implantation
-Sinus node dysfunction
-Acquired Atrioventricular(AV) block (Complete third-degree AV block with or without symptoms, Symptomatic second degree AV block, Mobitz type I and II, Exercise-induced second or third degree AV block in the absence of myocardial infarction, Mobitz II with widened QRS complex)
-Chronic bifascicular block
-After acute phase of myocardial infarction
-Neurocardiogenic syncope and hypersensitive carotid sinus syndrome
-Post cardiac transplantation
-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
-Pacing to detect and terminate tachycardia
-Cardiac resynchronization therapy in patients with severe systolic heart failure
-Patients with congenital heart disease -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 70 year old male complained of poor vision at night which has gradually worsened with time. He has changed his glasses several times but there has been no improvement. On examination his pupils and cornea were normal. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cataract
Explanation:Senile cataract is an age-related, vision-impairing disease characterized by gradual progressive clouding and thickening of the lens of the eye. Patients with senile cataracts often present with a history of gradual progressive visual deterioration and disturbance in night and near vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms, lethargy and jaundiced sclerae and an inability to eat due to a sore throat. He remembered that his father may have suffered from a liver condition. On further questioning a history of intravenous drug use on two occasions is identified. Investigations reveal: Alanine transaminase (ALT) 23 U/l, Aspartate transaminase (AST) 28 U/l, Bilirubin 78 μmol/L, Albumin 41g/l. Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer: Crigler–Najjar syndrome
Correct Answer: Gilbert’s syndrome
Explanation:When a patient presents with an illness (unrelated to the liver) or a stressful event on the body, and develops asymptomatic jaundice, think Gilbert’s syndrome. It is autosomal dominant. It is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia from impaired glucuronyl transferase. Classically, Crigler-Najjar would be in infants, and it would be symptomatic. It is also an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old woman presents with 'funny spots' affecting her vision. Over the past week she has noticed a number of flashes and floaters in the visual field of the right eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment
Explanation:Posterior vitreous detachment is thought to occur in up to 50-75% of the population over 65 years and is the most likely diagnosis here. Patients should be reviewed by an ophthalmologist to assess the risk of progressing to retinal detachment. Flashes of light (photopsia) occur in the peripheral field of vision while floaters often occur on the temporal side of the central vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?
Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Correct Answer: Lupus vulgaris
Explanation:The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow up. He is on metformin 2 g per day and gliclazide 160 mg per day. His recent HbA1c was 8.4% and his blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Eye examination reveals dot and blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. None are close to the macula. Which of the following defines his eye condition?
Your Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Patients with diabetes often develop ophthalmic complications, the most common and potentially most blinding of these complications is diabetic retinopathy.
The following are the 5 stages in the progression of diabetic retinopathy:
1. Dilation of the retinal venules and formation of retinal capillary microaneurysms.
2. Increased vascular permeability.
3. Vascular occlusion and retinal ischemia.
4. Proliferation of new blood vessels on the surface of the retina.
5. Vitreous haemorrhage and contraction of the fibrovascular proliferation.
The first 2 stages of diabetic retinopathy are known as background or nonproliferative retinopathy. Initially, the retinal venules dilate, then microaneurysms (tiny red dots on the retina that cause no visual impairment) appear. As the microaneurysms or retinal capillaries become more permeable, hard exudates appear, reflecting the leakage of plasma.Mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) or background diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of at least 1 microaneurysm, while neovascularization is the hallmark of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy presented with a history of palpitations, which are fast and regular. She doesn't complain of any episodes of collapse. On examination she was well, pulse rate was 102 bpm, which was regular and her blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg. Her JVP was not elevated. Heart sounds were normal. ECH showed sinus tachycardia. Which of the following can be expected because of the physiological changes which occur in the boy during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Reduced stroke volume
Correct Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:The cardiovascular alterations which occur during pregnancy are for the optimal growth and development of the foetus and help to protect the mother from the risks of delivery, such as haemorrhage. The changes are characterized by an increased vascular volume, cardiac output, and heart rate, with a marked fall in vascular resistance and reduction in blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and working long hours. After 10 years of follow-up and for the 1050 individuals working less than 40 hours per week, 1000 patients had normal blood pressure and 50 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. For the 660 patients working more than 40 hours per week, 600 patients had normal blood pressure and 60 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. If you work more than 40 hours per week, what is the odds ratio of developing hypertension compared to the individuals working less than 40 hours per week?
Your Answer: 50/60
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of the association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Where
a = Number of exposed cases
b = Number of exposed non-cases
c = Number of unexposed cases
d = Number of unexposed non-cases
OR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman experiences weakness of her left hand. Clinical examination reveals wasting of the hypothenar eminence and weakness of finger abduction and thumb adduction. The lesion is most probably located at:
Your Answer: C7
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:Patients with compressive neuropathy of the ulnar nerve typically describe numbness and tingling of the ulnar-sided digits of the hand, classically in the small finger and ulnar aspect of the ring finger. Among the general population, symptoms usually begin intermittently and are often worse at night, particularly if the elbow is flexed while sleeping. As the disease progresses, paraesthesia may occur more frequently and during the daytime.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Correct
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A 54 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute chest pain for 3 hrs which associated with excessive sweating and vomiting. His past medical history was unremarkable but his father has passed away due to a heart attack at the age of 50. Examination findings were normal and ECG was also normal. He was pain free after 12 hours from admission. What is the most appropriate investigation that cab be done at this moment?
Your Answer: Troponin T
Explanation:The positive family history and the smoking make him an ideal candidate for a myocardial infarction. The chest pain is also a suggestive symptom. So troponin is needed to rule out MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?
Your Answer: Dermatomyositis
Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria
Explanation:Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:
– Psoriasis
– Atopic eczema
– Erythema multiforme
– Seborrheic dermatitis
– Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)
– Mycosis fungoides
– Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome
– Porphyria cutanea tarda
Also, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:
– Systemic lupus erythematosus
– Sjögren’s syndrome
– Sinear Usher syndrome
– Rosacea
– Dermatomyositis
– Darier’s disease
– Kindler-Weary syndrome
Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65 yr. old previously well man was referred due to an abnormal heart sound which was detected during a medical check up. On examination he looked well. His blood pressure was 120/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 68 bpm which was regular. His jugular venous pressure was not elevated and he didn't have ankle oedema. He had an early diastolic murmur, best heard at the left sternal edge, which was more clear in expiration when the patient leant forward. His lungs were clear. His FBC, Urea and electrolytes, LFTs and lipid profile were normal. His ECG showed sinus rhythm. His chest X-ray was normal. Echocardiography showed mild to moderate aortic regurgitation with normal left ventricular size and normal function. Which of the following is the most appropriate way of managing this patient?
Your Answer: Discharge him from the clinic
Correct Answer: Start him on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Explanation:Although this patient’s left ventricular function is normal at the time of examination, there is chance of deterioration of it due to aortic regurgitation. It is found that ACE inhibitors slow the development of left ventricular dysfunction. So this patient should be started on an ACE inhibitor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his small phallus. He also has difficulty becoming aroused. On examination, he is slim and has gynecomastia. There is a general paucity of body hair, his penis and testes are small. Which diagnosis fits best with this history and examination?
Your Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome
Explanation:The patient most likely has Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Klinefelter syndrome (KS) refers to a group of chromosomal disorders in which the normal male karyotype, 46,XY, has at least one extra X chromosome. XXY aneuploidy, the most common human sex chromosome disorder. It is also the most common chromosomal disorder associated with male hypogonadism and infertility.
Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia), gynecomastia in late puberty, hyalinization and fibrosis of the seminiferous tubules, elevated urinary gonadotropin levels, and behavioural concerns. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?
Your Answer: It is compatible in infusion with aminophylline
Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism
Explanation:The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.
Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.
Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:
Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Mydriasis occurs
Explanation:Anticholinergic syndrome occurs following overdose with drugs that have prominent anticholinergic activity including tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines and atropine. Features include dry, warm, flushed skin, urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis (dilated pupils) and agitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents with polyuria and is passing 4 litres of urine per day. She was recently started on a new medication. Results show: Serum sodium 144 mmol/L (137-144) Plasma osmolality 299 mosmol/L (275-290) Urine osmolality 210 mosmol/L (350-1000) Which of the following drugs was prescribed?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:The patient’s presentation is consistent with diabetes insipidus: eunatreaemia, high serum osmolality, and inappropriately dilute urine, which leads to the suspicion of lithium-induced diabetes insipidus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Choose the karyotype associated with short stature:
Your Answer: 46,XO
Correct Answer: 45,XO
Explanation:Turner syndrome (TS) is one of the most common genetic disorders; occurs with an incidence of I: 2,500 female live births. It results from complete or partial chromosome X monosomy. TS is associated with abnormalities of the X chromosome and characteristic clinical features of short stature, gonadal dysgenesis, sexual developmental deficiencies, cardiac and/or renal defects, webbed neck, low-set ears, skeletal deformities including cubitus valgus, a propensity to ear infections and hearing deficits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An iv-drug abuser sustains an open head injury and is admitted overnight for observation. The next morning she is ok and is discharged. A week later she is re-admitted with fluctuating hard neurological signs. Blood results show neutrophilia and raised C-reactive protein (CRP). Which of the following is the best initial treatment step?
Your Answer: Dexamethasone iv
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast
Explanation:Increased WBC count and CRP suggest infection. But with the fluctuating hard neurological signs, there is suspicion of the presence of a cerebral mass, which is an indication for requesting for a CT scan with contrast, to rule out an abscess or haematoma. The lumbar puncture can be considered after the CT scan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 60 year old man who has been complaining of increasing shortness of breath had a post-bronchodilator spirometry done. FEV1/FVC 0. 63 FEV1% predicted 63% What is the best interpretation of these results?
Your Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)
Explanation:Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a complex and progressive chronic lung disease. Typically, COPD includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. COPD is characterized by the restriction of airflow into and out of the lungs. The obstruction of airflow makes breathing difficult. The causes of COPD include smoking, long-term exposure to air pollutants and a rare genetic disorder.
The Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) developed the GOLD Staging System. In the GOLD System, the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) measurement from a pulmonary function test is used to place COPD into stages. Often, doctors also consider your COPD symptoms.
COPD has four stages. The stages of COPD range from mild to very severe. COPD affects everyone differently. Because COPD is a progressive lung disease, it will worsen over time.
The Stages of COPD:
Mild COPD or Stage 1—Mild COPD with a FEV1 about 80 percent or more of normal.
Moderate COPD or Stage 2—Moderate COPD with a FEV1 between 50 and 80 percent of normal.
Severe COPD or Stage 3—Severe emphysema with a FEV1 between 30 and 50 percent of normal.
Very Severe COPD or Stage 4—Very severe or End-Stage COPD with a lower FEV1 than Stage 3, or people with low blood oxygen levels and a Stage 3 FEV1.This patient has a FEV1 percent of 63 which falls within the stage 2 or moderate COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old architect presents with weakness of the right hand. You note global wasting of the small hand muscles. There is also sensory loss over the medial border of the forearm around the elbow. Which of the following nerve roots is damaged?
Your Answer: C7
Correct Answer: T1
Explanation:This patient has Klumpke’s paralysis due to damage to the T1 nerve root. This root eventually supplies the median and ulnar nerves. The ulnar nerve supplies all of the intrinsic hand muscles except for those of the thenar eminence and the first and second lumbricals, which are innervated by the median nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A study was developed to assess a new oral antithrombotic drug on the chance of stroke in high-risk patients, compared to warfarin. The total number of patients receiving the new drug were 200 compared to 600 who were receiving warfarin. From the ones receiving the new drug, 10 patients had a stroke within 3 years, compared to 12 patients who were receiving warfarin and had a stroke. What is the relative risk of having a stroke within 3 years for patients receiving the new drug?
Your Answer: Cannot calculate from above data
Correct Answer: 2.5
Explanation:Relative Risk = (Probability of event in exposed group) / (Probability of event in not exposed group)
Experimental event rate, EER = 10 / 200 = 0.05Control event rate, CER = 12 / 600 = 0.02
Therefore the relative risk = EER / CER = 0.05 / 0.02 = 2.5
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old teacher with multiple sclerosis complains that her vision becomes blurred during a hot bath. Which of the following explain this?
Your Answer: Lambert's sign
Correct Answer: Uhthoff's phenomenon
Explanation:Uhthoff’s phenomenon is worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature.
Lhermitte’s sign describes paraesthesia in the limbs on neck flexion.
Oppenheim’s sign is seen when scratching of the inner side of leg leads to extension of the toes. It is a sign of cerebral irritation and is not related to multiple sclerosis.
Werdnig-Hoffman’s disease is also known as spinal muscular atrophy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with malaise, anorexia, and weight loss. Screening blood samples reveals urea of 50.1 mmol/l and serum creatinine of 690 μmol/l. Her past history includes frequent headaches, but nothing else of note. She has, however, failed to attend her routine ‘well-woman’ appointments. Ultrasound reveals bilateral hydronephrosis and a suspicion of a central pelvic mass. What diagnosis is most likely to be responsible for this woman’s hydronephrosis?
Your Answer: Ovarian carcinoma
Correct Answer: Cervical carcinoma
Explanation:The patient’s history of recent weight loss and malaise, paired with enlarged kidneys and renal failure, as well as a suspected central pelvic mass on ultrasound, gives a suspicion of cervical carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 46-year-old plumber develops chronic, severe pain after sustaining a brachial plexus injury as a result of a motorbike accident. He has had no benefit from paracetamol or ibuprofen. In addition, he has had an unsuccessful trial of amitriptyline. Following recent NICE guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate medication to consider?
Your Answer: Pregabalin
Explanation:Neuropathic pain may be defined as pain which arises following damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is often difficult to treat and responds poorly to standard analgesia.
The most recent update to the NICE guidelines for management of neuropathic pain occurred in 2013: first-line treatment* includes amitriptyline. If the first-line drug treatment does not work then move on to one of the other 3 drugs: duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin. Tramadol may be used as ‘rescue therapy’ for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may be used for localised neuropathic pain (e.g. post-herpetic neuralgia). Pain management clinics may be useful in patients with resistant problems.*please note that for some specific conditions the guidance may vary. For example carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 63 year old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the A&E Department with an exacerbation. Which therapy represents the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Nebulised ipratropium bromide
Correct Answer: Oral glucocorticoids
Explanation:Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.
Treatment of ABPA aims to control inflammation and prevent further injury to your lungs. ABPA is a hypersensitivity reaction that requires treatment with oral corticosteroids. Inhaled steroids are not effective. ABPA is usually treated with a combination of oral corticosteroids and anti-fungal medications. The corticosteroid is used to treat inflammation and blocks the allergic reaction. Examples
of corticosteroids include: prednisone, prednisolone or methylprednisolone. Inhaled corticosteroids alone – such as used for asthma treatment – are not effective in treating ABPA. Usually treatment with an oral corticosteroid is needed for months.The second type of therapy used is an anti-fungal medication, like itraconazole and voriconazole. These medicines help kill Aspergillus so that it no longer colonizes the airway. Usually one of these drugs is given for at least 3 to 6 months. However, even this treatment is not curative and can have side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A woman is being seen at the clinic. Her clinic notes are missing and the only results available are lung function tests. Her date of birth is also missing from the report. FEV1 0.4 (1.2–2.9 predicted) Total lung capacity 7.3 (4.4–6.8 predicted) Corrected transfer factor 3.3 (4.2–8.8 predicted) Which disease can be suspected From these results?
Your Answer: Non-specific interstitial pneumonitis
Correct Answer: Moderate COPD
Explanation:The Stages of COPD:
Mild COPD or Stage 1—Mild COPD with a FEV1 about 80 percent or more of normal.
Moderate COPD or Stage 2—Moderate COPD with a FEV1 between 50 and 80 percent of normal.
Severe COPD or Stage 3—Severe emphysema with a FEV1 between 30 and 50 percent of normal.
Very Severe COPD or Stage 4—Very severe or End-Stage COPD with a lower FEV1 than Stage 3, or people with low blood oxygen levels and a Stage 3 FEV1.This patient has a FEV1 percent of 40 which falls within the stage 2 or moderate COP
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness in her right knee. Her medical history is significant for osteoarthritis affecting her hand joints and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. On examination, the right knee is swollen, erythematous and tender. Which of the following tests would be most useful in the diagnosis of this case?
Your Answer: Serum uric acid level
Correct Answer: Aspiration and examination of the synovial fluid
Explanation:Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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