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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient visits the genitourinary medicine clinic seeking treatment for recurring genital warts. Which virus is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Human papilloma virus 13 & 17
Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus 6 & 11
Explanation:Understanding Genital Warts
Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common culprits. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.
The warts themselves are small, fleshy protrusions that are typically 2-5mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can cause discomfort, itching, and even bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is often used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
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A 30-year-old teacher who recently returned after completing a 3-month assignment in Thailand presented to the Emergency Department with fever, headache, confusion and vomiting in the last two days. She was suspected of having meningitis and underwent a lumbar puncture (LP). The LP findings are as follows:
Normal opening pressure, clear cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Investigation Result Normal value
CSF white blood cell count (WBC) 400 cells/”l, 70% lymphocytes < 5 cells/”l
CSF protein 0.5 g/l 0.15â0.4 g/l
CSF glucose 3.8 mmol/l 2.6â4.5 mmol/l
CSFâplasma-glucose ratio 0.72 â„ 0.66
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE best answer from the list below.
Select ONE option onlyYour Answer: Viral meningitis
Explanation:The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings can help diagnose different types of meningitis. Viral meningitis typically shows clear CSF with a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-1000 cells/”l, mostly lymphocytes), mildly elevated protein levels, and a normal or slightly low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Bacterial meningitis, on the other hand, often presents with turbid CSF, a high white blood cell count (>100 cells/”l, mostly neutrophils), elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Fungal meningitis, such as cryptococcal meningitis, usually shows clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/”l, mostly lymphocytes), elevated protein levels, and a low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents with clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/”l, mostly lymphocytes), significantly elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. A sub-arachnoid hemorrhage, which is not meningitis, typically presents with a sudden, severe headache and signs of increased intracranial pressure. The CSF in this case often shows xanthochromia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
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A 32-year-old man has had > 15 very short relationships in the past year, all of which he thought were the love of his life. He is prone to impulsive behaviour such as excessive spending and binge drinking, and he has experimented with drugs. He also engages in self-harm.
Which of the following personality disorders most accurately describes him?Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Traits
Personality disorders can be categorized into three main clusters based on their characteristics. Cluster A includes odd or eccentric personalities such as schizoid and paranoid personality disorder. Schizoid individuals tend to be emotionally detached and struggle with forming close relationships, while paranoid individuals are suspicious and distrustful of others.
Cluster B includes dramatic, erratic, or emotional personalities such as borderline and histrionic personality disorder. Borderline individuals often have intense and unstable relationships, exhibit impulsive behavior, and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts. Histrionic individuals are attention-seeking, manipulative, and tend to be overly dramatic.
Cluster C includes anxious personalities such as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals tend to be perfectionists, controlling, and overly cautious.
Understanding the different clusters and traits associated with personality disorders can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment for themselves or loved ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28 year-old carpenter complains of itchy and painful skin on his hands and wrists. He suspects that it might be due to something he is exposed to at work. What test would be most appropriate to investigate this hypothesis?
Your Answer: Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
Correct Answer: Patch testing
Explanation:When there is a suspicion of allergic contact dermatitis, patch testing is the preferred method of investigation. This condition can be caused by either irritants or allergens. The patient’s back is exposed to different allergens, including standard batteries and any substances that the patient suspects. The skin is then evaluated for any reaction after 48 hours and 7 days.
Understanding Contact Dermatitis
Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare. The second type is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.
Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to properly diagnose and treat the condition. Proper treatment can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child is brought to the Paediatric department by his grandmother. He has developed a very high fever and is breathing with a high-pitched sound. His grandmother is very worried as she has tried to get him to drink some water and take paracetamol this morning, but he is drooling and refuses to take anything orally. The child is Spanish speaking, however, his grandmother translates that he feels too hot and his chest hurts.
What is the most suitable initial step in managing this child's condition?Your Answer: Humified oxygen
Correct Answer: Call anaesthetics
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is characterized by the sudden onset of fever, drooling, and stridor in a child. It is important to immediately call anaesthetics as there is a high risk of airway obstruction if the child becomes upset. The Hib vaccination is widely available and subsidized in many countries, including Poland where it has been available since the 1990s.
Humidified oxygen is commonly used to manage bronchiolitis, but it should be avoided in patients with suspected epiglottitis as it may cause distress and worsen the airway obstruction. IV hydrocortisone is not a first-line treatment for epiglottitis and cannulating a patient before securing their airway or having anaesthetics present is not recommended.
Nebulized salbutamol is useful for treating viral wheezing or asthma exacerbations, which present with an expiratory wheeze and fever, but not drooling. However, it should not be administered to a child with suspected epiglottitis until their airway is secured by anaesthetics to prevent further complications.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
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A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria, left flank pain and fatigue. Physical examination reveals a mass in the left flank. Blood tests show hypochromic anaemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Explanation:Common Kidney Disorders and Their Symptoms
Renal cell carcinoma (RCC), renal tract calculi, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), renal amyloidosis, and reflux nephropathy are some of the common kidney disorders. RCC is the most prevalent type of kidney cancer in adults, and it may remain asymptomatic for most of its course. Renal tract calculi cause sudden onset of severe pain in the flank and radiating inferiorly and anteriorly. ADPKD is a multisystemic disorder characterised by cyst formation and enlargement in the kidney and other organs. Renal amyloidosis is caused by extracellular and/or intracellular deposition of insoluble abnormal amyloid fibrils that alter the normal function of tissues. Reflux nephropathy is characterised by renal damage due to the backflow of urine from the bladder towards the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe throbbing headache on the left side of his head. He has been experiencing this pain for approximately 5-6 days without any apparent cause. He denies any visual disturbances or weakness in his limbs. Upon examination, there are no notable neurological findings. The left side of his head is sensitive to touch, but he cannot recall any falls. What is the crucial first step in managing this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Arrange an urgent CT head
Correct Answer: Give high-dose oral prednisolone
Explanation:Understanding Temporal Arteritis
Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). It is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. This condition typically affects individuals who are over 60 years old and has a rapid onset, usually occurring in less than a month. The most common symptoms include headache and jaw claudication, while vision testing is a crucial investigation for all patients.
Temporal arteritis can lead to various ocular complications, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common. This results from the occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Patients may experience temporary visual loss or even permanent visual loss, which is the most feared complication of this condition. Other symptoms may include diplopia, tender and palpable temporal artery, and features of PMR such as aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers such as an ESR of over 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to check for skip lesions. Urgent high-dose glucocorticoids should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected, and an ophthalmologist should review patients with visual symptoms on the same day. Treatment may also involve bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.
In summary, temporal arteritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible visual damage. Patients who experience symptoms such as headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances should seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
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A 25-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presents for a check-up. She is experiencing a resurgence of her chronic acne and is interested in finding a solution. What should she steer clear of?
Your Answer: Topical isotretinoin
Explanation:Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.
The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is experiencing heavy menstrual bleeding but refuses an intrauterine system due to negative mood effects from hormonal therapies in the past. What alternative treatment should be considered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tranexamic acid or NSAID
Explanation:If the woman does not approve of hormonal treatments, alternatives such as tranexamic acid or NSAIDs can be utilized according to NICE CG44.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.
[Insert flowchart here]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious on the street with a syringe and used pack of oxycodone and alprazolam nearby. Upon examination, he is lethargic with pinpoint pupils, reduced bowel sounds, and fresh needle marks on his right arm. His vital signs are: blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 55/min, oxygen saturation of 95% on room air, temperature 36ÂșC, and respiratory rate of 5 breaths per minute. His blood glucose level is 8 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:The individual displays classic symptoms of acute opioid overdose, including slow breathing, constricted pupils, and changes in consciousness.
The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal is recommended if ingested within an hour, followed by N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation if necessary. Salicylate overdose can be managed with urinary alkalinization using IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose can be treated with flumazenil in severe cases. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, but class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics should be avoided. Lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis in severe cases. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose can be treated with protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be managed with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning can be treated with the same. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose can be treated with digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose can be managed with desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning can be treated with dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be managed with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning can be treated with hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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