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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman is moderately disabled by multiple sclerosis. She can use a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is moderately disabled by multiple sclerosis. She can use a wheelchair to move around the house. She has been troubled by urinary incontinence and has a palpable enlarged bladder. Testing indicates sensory loss in the 2nd-4th sacral dermatome areas.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer: Intermittent self-catheterisation

      Explanation:

      Intermittent Self-Catheterisation: A Safe and Effective Way to Manage Urinary Retention and Incontinence

      Intermittent self-catheterisation is a safe and effective method for managing urinary retention or incontinence caused by a neuropathic or hypotonic bladder. This technique provides patients with freedom from urinary collection systems. Although it may not be feasible for some patients, severe disability is not a contra-indication. Patients in wheelchairs have successfully mastered the technique despite various physical and mental challenges.

      Single-use catheters are sterile and come with either a hydrophilic or gel coating. The former requires immersion in water for 30 seconds to activate, while the latter doesn’t require any preparation before use. Reusable catheters are made of polyvinyl chloride and can be washed and reused for up to a week.

      While other types of catheterisation are available, intermittent self-catheterisation is typically the first choice. Oxybutynin, an anticholinergic medication, is used to relieve urinary difficulties, including frequent urination and urge incontinence, by decreasing muscle spasms of the bladder. However, in patients with overflow incontinence due to diabetes or neurological diseases like multiple sclerosis or spinal cord trauma, oxybutynin can worsen overflow incontinence because the fundamental problem is the bladder not contracting. The same is true for imipramine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of red discolouration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of red discolouration of his urine. He was diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis two months ago and has been taking warfarin since then. His most recent INR test, done two days ago, shows a reading of 2.7. During the examination, no abnormalities are found, but his dipstick urine test shows +++ of blood and + protein. A MSU test shows no growth. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and monitor INR and warfarin dose closely

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Unexplained Haematuria and Previous DVT

      This patient presents with unexplained haematuria and a history of previous DVT. It is important to consider the possibility of underlying occult neoplasia of the renal tract. Therefore, an urgent referral to the urologists is the most appropriate course of action.

      It is important to note that in cases where the patient is on therapeutic INR with warfarin, the haematuria should not be attributed to the medication. Warfarin may unmask a potential neoplasm, and it is crucial to investigate the underlying cause of the haematuria. Early detection and treatment of neoplasia can significantly improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been bothering him for two months. He has been in good health but noticed tenderness and swelling in the right breast during a basketball game. Upon examination, breast tissue is palpable in both breasts, and the right breast is tender. Additionally, a non-tender lump of 3 cm in diameter is found in the right testicle, which does not transilluminate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Testicular Lesions and Gynaecomastia in Young Males

      This young male is presenting with tender gynaecomastia and a suspicious testicular lesion. The most likely diagnosis in this age group is a teratoma, as seminoma tends to be more common in older individuals. Gynaecomastia can be a presenting feature of testicular tumours, as the tumour may secrete betaHCG. Other tumour markers of teratoma include alphafetoprotein (AFP). It is important to note that testicular lymphoma typically presents in individuals over the age of 40 and is not associated with gynaecomastia. Early detection and treatment of testicular lesions is crucial for optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 27 year-old female patient, who is not pregnant, reports experiencing dysuria, urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year-old female patient, who is not pregnant, reports experiencing dysuria, urinary frequency, and low abdominal pain for the past two days. She denies having a fever or loin pain and is not currently menstruating. Upon conducting a urine dip, it was discovered that she has 3+ leucocytes, nitrites, and 2+ blood. The patient has no prior history of UTI. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send a urine sample for culture and treat with oral antibiotics for 3 days

      Explanation:

      For women with haematuria and suspected UTI, NICE recommends urine culture and sensitivity to confirm infection. Treatment with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 3 days is recommended, which may be extended to 5-10 days in certain cases. After treatment, urine should be re-tested for blood. Persistent haematuria requires urgent referral to exclude urological cancer. For non-visible haematuria in women under 50, urine albumin/creatinine ratio and serum creatinine levels should be measured. Referral to a renal physician is necessary if there is proteinuria or declining eGFR, and referral to a urologist is needed if eGFR is normal and there is no proteinuria.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis. What is the most common long-term complication for patients receiving haemodialysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Disease and Other Complications in End-Stage Renal Disease Patients

      End-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients are at high risk for cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Atherosclerosis is present in all long-term dialysis patients, and premature cardiac death occurs at a much higher rate than in the general population. Hypertension is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease and is often poorly controlled in ESRD patients.

      In addition to cardiovascular disease, ESRD patients may also develop β2 microglobulin amyloidosis, which can cause physical handicaps and even life-threatening cervical spinal cord compression. This condition typically appears after 5 years or more of hemodialysis and can affect any joint, but is especially common in the sternoclavicular joint and hips. Clinical features include periarthritis of the shoulders, carpal tunnel syndrome, and spondyloarthropathy.

      Kidney transplant recipients may also face complications, including an increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and skin cancers due to prolonged immunosuppressive therapy. However, there is no known increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy in patients on long-term dialysis.

      Overall, ESRD patients require careful monitoring and management to prevent and address these potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis.
      Select from the list the single most important item that should be regularly monitored.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal function

      Explanation:

      Renal Adverse Drug Reactions Associated with NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they come with a relatively high incidence of renal adverse drug reactions. These reactions are caused by changes in renal haemodynamics, which are usually mediated by prostaglandins that are affected by NSAIDs. Patients with renal impairment should avoid these drugs if possible, or use them with caution. It is important to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible duration and monitor renal function. NSAIDs may cause sodium and water retention, leading to deterioration of renal function and possibly renal failure. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential renal adverse drug reactions associated with NSAIDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 7 - A retired 65-year-old man returns for review. He presented recently requesting a prostate-specific...

    Incorrect

    • A retired 65-year-old man returns for review. He presented recently requesting a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test as a friend of his had been diagnosed with prostate cancer and this had prompted some concern. He has no lower urinary tract symptoms and he feels completely well. He is otherwise fit and well and plays tennis three times a week. He takes no regular medication.

      You can see that a colleague saw him just over six weeks ago and discussed his concerns and the role of PSA testing. Despite having no signs or symptoms the patient was keen to have the test and so a digital rectal examination was performed and a PSA blood test requested. You can see in the notes the rectal examination is recorded as normal.

      One week later the patient had the PSA blood test which came back at 4.3 ng/ml.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the PSA test in one to three months

      Explanation:

      PSA Blood Test Results and Referral for Further Assessment

      In this scenario, a man without any symptoms has requested a PSA blood test. However, it is crucial to inform him about the limitations of the test and what a positive or negative result means for him. The man’s PSA level was slightly above the age-specific range at 4.3 ng/ml. According to NICE’s Clinical Knowledge Summaries, a normal PSA level ranges from 0-4 nanograms/mL, but the upper level of normal may vary according to age and race, and the PSA test is not diagnostic.

      If a man’s PSA level is elevated, further investigation may be necessary, such as a biopsy. For men aged 50-69 years, if the PSA level is 3.0 nanogram/mL or higher, they should be referred urgently using a suspected cancer pathway referral to a specialist. If the PSA level is within the normal range, there is a low risk of prostate cancer, and referral is only necessary if there are other concerns, such as an abnormal digital rectal examination or factors that increase the risk of prostate cancer.

      In this case, as the man’s PSA has increased and there are two readings above the age-specific range, he should be referred urgently to a urologist for further assessment. Clinical judgment should be used to manage symptomatic men and those aged under 50 who are considered to have a higher risk for prostate cancer. It is essential to inform patients about the limitations of the PSA test and the implications of a positive or negative result to ensure appropriate referral and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 8 - A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain. Her family are refugees and she was born in a refugee camp in Greece. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows an enlarged, irregular cystic kidney on the left side. A renal biopsy has shown dysplasia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multicystic dysplastic kidney

      Explanation:

      Renal Abnormalities: Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney, Hypospadias, Infantile Polycystic Kidney Disease, Potter Syndrome, and Renal Fusion

      Renal abnormalities can present in various forms, each with its own unique characteristics. One such abnormality is multicystic dysplastic kidney, which is identified by the presence of multiple non-communicating cysts of varying sizes in the absence of a normal pelvicalyceal system. Unilateral disease is usually asymptomatic and can remain undetected into adulthood. Hypospadias, on the other hand, is a condition where the urethral opening is not at the usual location on the head of the penis, but below it. It is diagnosed on clinical examination.

      Infantile polycystic kidney disease is always bilateral and is characterised by both renal and hepatobiliary disease, which can be severe. Potter syndrome, which usually has a very poor prognosis, is diagnosed at birth and occurs when there is antenatal oligohydramnios secondary to renal disease, usually bilateral renal agenesis. Lastly, renal fusion, also known as horseshoe kidney, is formed by fusion across the midline of two distinct functioning kidneys, one on each side of the midline. Ultrasound scanning can identify various findings, such as a curved configuration of the lower poles, elongation of the lower poles, and poorly defined lower poles, which suggest the presence of horseshoe kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of dysuria, urinary frequency, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of dysuria, urinary frequency, and lower abdominal pain that has been going on for 24 hours. Upon examination, his vital signs are stable with a temperature of 37.5ºC, heart rate of 70/min, and blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. He experiences tenderness in the suprapubic region, and his urine dip shows positive results for nitrites and leucocytes but negative for blood.

      What is the next most appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 day course of empirical antibiotics for UTI

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, men who exhibit symptoms of a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics like trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 7 days, without the need for referral to urology unless the infection is recurrent. Waiting for the results of urinary microscopy culture and sensitivity is not recommended, as prompt treatment is necessary to prevent further complications. Intravenous antibiotics are not usually required unless the patient shows signs of fever, riggers, chills, vomiting, or confusion. In this case, the patient’s borderline temperature doesn’t warrant hospital admission, and empirical antibiotics should be administered. While it is important to rule out sexually transmitted infections, the patient’s symptoms suggest a UTI, and there is no indication of an STI in his medical history.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 10 - A 76-year-old man has been experiencing widespread aches and pains in his chest,...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man has been experiencing widespread aches and pains in his chest, back, and hips for several months. He also reports difficulty with urinary flow and frequent nighttime urination. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer and Prostatism: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Patients with prostatism who experience bony pain should be evaluated for prostate cancer, as it often metastasizes to bone. A digital rectal examination should be performed after taking blood for PSA, as the prostate will typically feel hard and irregular in cases of prostate cancer. While chronic urinary retention and urinary infection may be present, investigations should focus on identifying the underlying cause rather than providing symptomatic treatment with an α-blocker. Without a confirmed diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia, finasteride should not be prescribed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some recent results. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 25 ml/min/1.73 m2.
      Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia

      Explanation:

      Managing Calcium and Phosphate Metabolism in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate metabolism, particularly in moderate to severe cases (stage 4 and 5). Patients with stage 4 CKD (eGFR 15-29 ml/minute/1.73 m2) should be referred for specialist assessment.

      In stage 3+ CKD, the goal is to maintain normal calcium levels, serum phosphate at or below 1.8 mmol/l (reference range 0.7-1.4 mmol/l), and parathormone (PTH) below twice (to three times) the upper limit of normal. Low-normal or low calcium levels are common in renal failure, and high PTH levels are a physiological response to the low serum calcium and phosphate retention.

      Dietary advice to reduce phosphate intake and phosphate binders taken with food may be necessary to keep phosphate levels within acceptable limits. Vitamin D derivatives (alfacalcidol, calcitriol) can correct hypocalcaemia resulting from reduced renal activation of vitamin D and suppress PTH secretion. However, initiation of these agents should be on the advice of specialists.

      Hypercalcaemia in a patient with kidney disease may indicate that the cause of the renal problem is related to the hypercalcaemia or its underlying cause, such as oral calcium and vitamin D treatment or tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Advanced CKD may also present with anaemia and hyperkalaemia.

      In summary, managing calcium and phosphate metabolism is crucial in CKD, and referral to specialists may be necessary for severe disturbances in these levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he should undergo a digital rectal examination to assess his prostate.
      For which of the following would it be most appropriate to conduct a digital rectal examination (DRE) to assess prostate size and consistency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In a patient with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing: Important Considerations

      In patients with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), it is important to consider the possibility of locally advanced prostate cancer causing obstructive LUTS. Therefore, a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test and digital rectal exam (DRE) should be offered to men with obstructive symptoms.

      While family history is a significant risk factor for prostate cancer, a grandfather’s history of the disease may not be as significant as a first-degree relative’s (father or brother) history.

      If a man presents with symptoms of urinary tract infection, it is important to investigate and treat the infection before considering any PSA testing. Prostate cancer typically doesn’t cause symptoms of urinary tract infection.

      Currently, there is no formal screening program for prostate cancer. However, men may choose to request a PSA test after being informed of the potential benefits and risks. It is important to note that DRE alone should not be used for screening.

      Prior to testing for PSA, it is recommended to perform DRE at least a week prior as it can falsely elevate PSA levels.

      Key Considerations for Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 13 - You review a 65-year-old man who complains of a 2-day history of pain...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 65-year-old man who complains of a 2-day history of pain when passing urine. He also reports going to the toilet more often with the desire to pass urine immediately. He reports having a good urinary stream without hesitancy. He denies any other pain and otherwise feels well in himself. He is not sexually active. He has never had any similar episodes previously and has no significant past medical history.

      You complete an examination, which is normal.

      Observations:
      Blood pressure 134/87 mmHg
      Heart rate 78 bpm
      Temperature 37.4º

      Urine dipstick:
      Nitrites ++
      Leucocytes trace
      Protein -
      Blood -

      You send a midstream urine for culture and sensitivity.

      What would be the best management at this stage, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 day course of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      For men with lower UTIs, the recommended treatment options are trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, unless there is suspicion of prostatitis. In this case, a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is the appropriate choice for an uncomplicated UTI. Follow-up should be arranged after 48 hours to monitor the response to treatment and urine culture results. Delaying antibiotic prescribing based on culture and sensitivity results is not recommended in this scenario, as the clinical findings and urine dipstick are indicative of a UTI. A 3-day course of nitrofurantoin would not be sufficient for this patient, and a 7-day course of ciprofloxacin is not appropriate as the patient doesn’t exhibit symptoms of acute pyelonephritis.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 14 - Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with...

    Incorrect

    • Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with prostate cancer from the given options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate-specific antigen

      Explanation:

      The Controversy Surrounding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      The introduction of the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test has led to increased awareness and earlier diagnosis of prostate cancer. However, the use of PSA testing for screening purposes remains controversial. While PSA is currently the best method for detecting localized prostate cancer and monitoring treatment response, it lacks specificity as it is also increased in patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy. Additionally, the effectiveness and cost-effectiveness of treating localized cancer is still uncertain.

      Bone scans at diagnosis are likely unnecessary for patients with a PSA below 20 ng/ml, as bone metastases are unlikely at this level. Repeated bone scans during treatment are also unnecessary unless there are clinical indications, as repeated PSA tests are just as effective and more cost-effective. Biopsies under transrectal-ultrasound control are now commonly used for diagnosing prostate cancer, with a PSA exceeding 4 ng/ml being the usual indication for biopsy.

      PSA is a protease produced exclusively by epithelial prostatic cells, both benign and malignant. It breaks down the high molecular weight protein of the seminal coagulum, resulting in more liquid semen. PSA testing is also useful for monitoring therapy in patients with prostate cancer.

      Overall, the lack of specificity of the PSA test, combined with a lack of knowledge about the epidemiology and natural history of prostate cancer, are reasons against instituting a national screening program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency. She is in good health otherwise and doesn't show any signs of sepsis. During a urine dip test at the doctor's office, blood, leukocytes, protein, and nitrites are detected. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which is treated with salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers, hypertension, which is treated with amlodipine 10 mg daily and ramipril 5mg daily, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease.

      Which antibiotic should be avoided when treating this patient's urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Patients with CKD stage 3 or higher should avoid taking nitrofurantoin due to the risk of treatment failure and side effects caused by drug accumulation. Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic that requires adequate renal filtration to be effective in treating urinary tract infections. However, in patients with an eGFR of less than 40-60 ml/min, the drug is ineffective and can accumulate, leading to potential toxicity. Nitrofurantoin can also cause side effects such as peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, and pulmonary reactions. Amoxicillin and co-amoxiclav are safer options for treating urinary tract infections in patients with renal impairment, while ciprofloxacin may require dose reduction from an eGFR of 30-60 ml/min to avoid crystalluria. Patients taking nitrofurantoin should be aware that it can discolour urine and is safe to use during pregnancy except at full term.

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      Prescribing medication for patients with renal failure can be challenging. It is important to know which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin should be avoided in patients with renal failure. These drugs can cause further damage to the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs require dose adjustment in patients with chronic kidney disease. Antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, and furosemide, are among the drugs that require dose adjustment. Opioids should also be used with caution in patients with renal failure.

      There are also drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the drugs’ potential effects on the kidneys and the need for dose adjustment. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure safe and effective medication management for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks' pregnant attends for a routine antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks' pregnant attends for a routine antenatal check-up. Routine urine dipstick reveals blood and protein and urine culture is positive for Escherichia coli. She has no symptoms of urinary tract infection. A second specimen confirms the positive culture.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Management of Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Pregnancy

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in pregnant women and can lead to complications such as pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, anaemia, and premature birth. Therefore, it is important to screen for and treat positive cultures in pregnant women. Tetracyclines, sulphonamides, and quinolones should be avoided, but alternatives such as amoxicillin, ampicillin, nitrofurantoin, and oral cephalosporins may be considered. Nitrofurantoin should be avoided near term due to the risk of haemolysis in the newborn. Repeat urine samples should be sent to ensure eradication. Referral to a specialist is not necessary unless there are other indications for specialist-led care. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester due to the risk of teratogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 17 - A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with periorbital and pedal oedema and ‘frothy urine'. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.
      Which of the following is the most characteristic finding you could expect from a blood test in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased serum cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormal Lab Results in Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema. Abnormal lipid metabolism is common in patients with renal disease, particularly in nephrotic syndrome. This can result in marked elevations in the plasma levels of cholesterol, LDL, triglycerides, and lipoprotein A. However, fibrinogen levels tend to be increased rather than decreased in nephrotic syndrome. Hypocalcemia is also more common in patients with nephrotic syndrome due to loss of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in the urine. The ESR is typically elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome or end-stage renal disease. It is important to understand these abnormal lab results in order to properly diagnose and manage nephrotic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of recurrent loin-to-groin pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of recurrent loin-to-groin pain and frank haematuria. A CT scan of his KUB shows a renal calculus located at the left vesico-ureteric junction. What is the most accurate understanding of this man's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent proteus urinary tract infections (UTIs) are associated with renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Understanding Renal Calculi and Recurrent Proteus Urinary Tract Infections

      Recurrent Proteus urinary tract infections (UTIs) are often associated with renal calculi, which can be detected through persistently alkaline urine and a finding of Proteus on culture. This is because Proteus organisms produce urease, which converts urea into ammonia and alkalinizes the urine, leading to the formation of organic and inorganic compounds that contribute to calculi formation.

      The severity of symptoms related to renal calculi is directly proportional to the size of the stone. Smaller stones usually cause severe pain as they pass into the ureter, while larger stones such as staghorn calculi often remain asymptomatic in the kidney. A moving stone is usually more painful than a static stone.

      Contrary to popular belief, most symptomatic urinary calculi originate in the upper renal tract, with the location and composition varying for different types of stones. While gallstones are composed of bile salts, renal stones are usually composed of calcium, oxalate, or uric acid.

      About 75% of renal calculi are radio-opaque, meaning they can be detected through conventional KUB X-rays. However, urate and xanthine stones are radiolucent and may be too small to be detected through this method. Understanding the relationship between recurrent Proteus UTIs and renal calculi can help prompt early detection and treatment.

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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following statements regarding the assessment of proteinuria in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the assessment of proteinuria in elderly patients with chronic kidney disease is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An ACR sample is collected over 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old man who has type II diabetes attends his general practice surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who has type II diabetes attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He takes metformin and gliclazide.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/80 mmHg. There are no signs of retinopathy. He feels well.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 53 mmol/mol < 43 mmol/mol
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 55 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
      Albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) 5.4 mg/mmol (up from 3.0 mg/mmol three months ago) < 1.0 mg/mmol
      What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Managing Chronic Kidney Disease in a Patient with Diabetes: Treatment Options

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common complication of diabetes, and early management is crucial to slow progression. In a patient with diabetic nephropathy and stage 3a CKD, the following treatment options are available:

      1. Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor: This is the most appropriate first-line treatment to reduce the risk of all-cause mortality in patients with diabetic kidney disease.

      2. Refer him to a Nephrologist: Management of CKD requires specialized care to slow progression.

      3. Optimise his diabetic control and repeat the test in six months: While important, diabetic control should not be the focus of immediate management in this patient.

      4. Start a direct renin inhibitor: This treatment is not a priority as the patient’s blood pressure is already below the target.

      5. Start a low-protein diet and repeat urinalysis in six months: Dietary protein restriction is not recommended in early-stage CKD, but high-protein intake should be avoided in stage 4 CKD under the guidance of a dietitian.

      In conclusion, early management of CKD in patients with diabetes is crucial to slow progression and reduce the risk of mortality. Treatment options should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and managed by a specialist.

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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man returned from holiday to Greece a few days ago. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man returned from holiday to Greece a few days ago. He is complaining of unilateral, posterior, left, scrotal swelling, dysuria, and a purulent discharge from his penis. He admits to having unprotected sex with a number of different women during the week's holiday.

      On examination there is left scrotal swelling and tenderness, and a purulent discharge from the urethra. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gonorrhoea

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is characterized by purulent urethral discharge and epididymitis. To diagnose gonorrhoea, a Gram stain of the urethral discharge fluid is performed. It is important to trace partners where possible to prevent further spread of the infection.

      The treatment of choice for gonorrhoea is Ceftriaxone IM due to increased resistance to fluoroquinolones. Azithromycin 1G orally as a single dose is also recommended. Other combinations are available as alternatives. It is crucial to screen the patient for other sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      In summary, gonorrhoea is a common sexually transmitted infection that can be easily diagnosed and treated. Early detection and treatment are essential to prevent complications and further spread of the infection.

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  • Question 22 - A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating from his left flank down to his groin. The pain is severe, comes in waves and the patient looks visibly restless. He has not taken any analgesia.
      He has a past medical history of hypertension and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate initial analgesia to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Appropriate Analgesia for a Patient with Renal/Ureteric Colic

      When treating a patient with renal or ureteric colic, it is important to consider their medical history and current condition before prescribing analgesia. In this case, the patient has severe kidney disease, which rules out the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as they can cause further harm to the kidneys.

      The most appropriate initial analgesia for this patient is IV paracetamol. While opioids such as IV morphine can be considered, they should be reserved as a third-line option. Oral codeine may also be used, but only after NSAIDs and IV paracetamol have been ruled out.

      It is important to note that NSAIDs such as oral naproxen and per rectal diclofenac are typically the first-line analgesics for renal/ureteric colic. However, they are contraindicated in this patient due to their severe kidney disease.

      In summary, when choosing the appropriate analgesia for a patient with renal/ureteric colic, it is crucial to consider their medical history and current condition. In this case, IV paracetamol is the most appropriate initial option due to the patient’s severe kidney disease.

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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of severe pain in the left flank and left lower abdomen with radiation to the left testicle. He reports that he woke up with the pain, but was “fine last night”. The clinician suspects uncomplicated renal colic.
      What feature would best support this diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haematuria

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Renal Colic

      Renal colic is a condition characterized by sudden and severe pain caused by stones in the urinary tract. The pain typically starts in the loin and moves to the groin, with tenderness in the renal angle. Patients with renal colic may experience periods of relief or dull aches before the pain returns. Other symptoms include microscopic haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Unlike patients with peritoneal irritation, those with renal colic may writhe around in agony and have increased bowel sounds. Apyrexia is common in uncomplicated cases, while pyrexia suggests infection. It’s important to note that although there may be severe pain in the testis, the testis itself should not be tender. Understanding these symptoms can help with the diagnosis and management of renal colic.

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  • Question 24 - You assess a 60-year-old man who is undergoing surgery. He has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 60-year-old man who is undergoing surgery. He has been diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy for 3 years and is currently taking tamsulosin and finasteride to manage his symptoms. However, he has been experiencing worsening symptoms of poor flow, hesitancy, nocturia, weight loss, and back pain for the past 2 months. You order a prostate-specific antigen test, which returns a result of 2.5ng/mL - within the normal range for his age. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from prostate cancer. Despite having well-controlled BPH with medication, he has developed new lower urinary tract symptoms along with red flag features such as weight loss and back pain. Although his PSA levels are normal, it should be noted that he is taking finasteride which can lower PSA levels. The duration of symptoms and weight loss over a period of 3 months are not indicative of a urinary tract infection. It is also unlikely that the patient is suffering from treatment-resistant BPH after successfully managing the condition for 5 years. While spinal cord compression can cause urinary symptoms, it is unlikely to cause nocturia or flow issues.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old male presents with a testicular mass.

    On examination the mass is painless,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with a testicular mass.

      On examination the mass is painless, approximately 2 cm in diameter, hard, with an irregular surface and doesn't transilluminate.

      What is the most likely cause of the lump?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Tumour Diagnosis Based on Lump Characteristics

      The lump’s characteristics suggest that it is a tumour, specifically due to its hard and irregular nature. However, the patient’s age is a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour. Teratomas are more commonly found in patients aged 20-30, while seminomas are prevalent in those aged 30-50. Teratomas are gonadal tumours that originate from multipotent cells present in the ovaries.

      In summary, the characteristics of a lump can provide valuable information in diagnosing a tumour. However, age is also a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour, as different types of tumours are more prevalent in certain age groups.

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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old woman is experiencing persistent urge incontinence despite undergoing a two-month course...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is experiencing persistent urge incontinence despite undergoing a two-month course of bladder training. Drug therapy is now being considered as a treatment option. What is the recommended first-line medication for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolterodine (immediate release)

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests using oxybutynin (immediate release), tolterodine (immediate release), or darifenacin (once daily preparation) to manage urge incontinence pharmacologically. However, immediate release oxybutynin is not recommended for frail older women. Stress incontinence is better managed with pelvic floor exercises.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old man presents with unprovoked, painless, macroscopic haematuria. Dipstick testing confirms the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with unprovoked, painless, macroscopic haematuria. Dipstick testing confirms the presence of blood but no leukocytes or nitrites.
      Select the most likely cause of these symptoms.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder tumour

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Macroscopic Haematuria by Age

      Macroscopic haematuria, or visible blood in the urine, can be a concerning symptom that may indicate a serious underlying condition. The causes of macroscopic haematuria can vary depending on the age and gender of the patient. In general, painless macroscopic haematuria in an adult should be considered a potential sign of renal tract cancer until proven otherwise.

      For patients under 20 years old, glomerulopathies (especially IgA nephropathy), thin basement membrane disease, urinary infection, congenital malformation, hereditary nephritis (Alport’s Syndrome), and sickle cell disease are the most likely causes.

      For patients between 20 and 60 years old, urinary infection, nephrolithiasis, endometriosis, bladder, prostate, and renal cancers are the most common causes. The risk of cancer increases significantly after the age of 35-50.

      For patients over 60 years old, the most likely causes of macroscopic haematuria differ by gender. In males, cancer and prostatitis are the most common causes, while in females, cancer and urinary infection are the most common causes.

      It is important to note that while these age-related trends can be helpful in guiding diagnostic testing and treatment, almost any disease can affect anyone at any age. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the underlying cause of macroscopic haematuria.

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  • Question 28 - A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half of his left testicle for the past 2 weeks. What is the most appropriate course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testicular ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Testicular Cancer: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that typically affects young men in their third or fourth decade of life. The most common symptom is a painless, unilateral mass in the scrotum, but in about 20% of cases, scrotal pain may be the first symptom. Unfortunately, in about 10% of cases, a testicular tumor can be mistaken for epididymo orchitis, leading to a delay in the correct diagnosis.

      Diagnostic ultrasound is the most effective way to confirm the presence of a testicular mass and explore the contralateral testis. It has a sensitivity of almost 100% in detecting a testicular tumor and can determine whether a mass is intra- or extratesticular. Even if a testicular tumor is clinically evident, an ultrasound should still be performed as it is an inexpensive test.

      Serum tumor markers, including αfetoprotein, HCG, and LDH, are important prognostic factors and contribute to diagnosis and staging. In about half of all cases of testicular cancer, markers are increased, but there is variation between different cancers and different markers.

      In conclusion, early detection and diagnosis of testicular cancer are crucial for successful treatment and a positive prognosis. Men should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their testicles.

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  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old woman who is 38+6 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 38+6 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining of a burning sensation while urinating. She denies experiencing any vaginal bleeding or discharge and reports no contractions. She has no known allergies to medications. Urinalysis reveals the presence of nitrates and 3+ leucocytes, indicating a possible urinary tract infection.

      What is the next best course of action in primary care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral cefalexin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure

      Explanation:

      When treating a suspected urinary tract infection in pregnant women, it is important to follow NICE CKS guidance. This includes sending urine for culture and sensitivity before and after treatment, and starting treatment before awaiting culture results. Local antibiotic prescribing guidelines should be followed, but nitrofurantoin should be avoided at term due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. Cefalexin is a safe alternative. The recommended course of antibiotics is seven days.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with acute retention of urine. He has a palpable bladder up to his umbilicus and is in significant discomfort. His GP sends him to the emergency department where he is catheterised and blood is taken to test his renal function. His serum creatinine concentration is 520 µmol/l (normal range 60–120 µmol/l).
      Which of the following additional results would be most suggestive that his renal failure was chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Markers for Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be classified as acute or chronic based on the duration and severity of the condition. Biochemical markers can help distinguish between the two types of renal failure.

      Hypocalcaemia is a common feature of chronic renal failure and occurs due to the gradual increase of phosphorus in the bloodstream. Low serum bicarbonate concentration is indicative of acute kidney injury and can lead to metabolic acidosis. Hyperkalaemia and hyperuricaemia can occur in both acute and chronic renal failure, while mild hyponatraemia is relatively common in both types of renal failure.

      Overall, while these biochemical markers can provide some insight into the type of renal failure, they are not definitive and should be considered in conjunction with other clinical factors.

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  • Question 31 - A 50-year-old man has long-standing treated hypertension. He has had his estimated glomerular...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has long-standing treated hypertension. He has had his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) measured on an annual basis. Last year, his eGFR was estimated at 56 ml/minute/1.73 m². This year, he has an unexplained fall in eGFR to 41 ml/minute/1.73 m². This is confirmed by a second blood sample. He feels otherwise well.
      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine outpatient referral to the renal team

      Explanation:

      Referral and Management of Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common condition that requires appropriate management to prevent progression and complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines on when to refer CKD patients for specialist assessment. Patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m2, albumin creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, sustained decrease in GFR, poorly controlled hypertension, rare or genetic causes of CKD, or suspected renal artery stenosis should be referred for review by a renal team.

      In addition to referral, patients with CKD may require further investigations such as renal ultrasound. An ultrasound is indicated in patients with rapid deterioration of eGFR, visible or persistent microscopic haematuria, symptoms of urinary tract obstruction, family history of polycystic kidney disease, or GFR drops to under 30. However, the results of an ultrasound should not determine referral.

      Patients with CKD require regular monitoring, but the frequency of monitoring depends on the stage and progression of the disease. Patients with a rapid drop in eGFR, like the patient in this case, require specialist input and should not continue with annual monitoring. However, urgent medical review is only necessary in cases of severe complications such as hyperkalaemia, severe uraemia, acidosis, or fluid overload.

      In summary, appropriate referral and management of CKD patients can prevent complications and improve outcomes. NICE guidelines provide clear indications for referral and investigations, and regular monitoring is necessary to track disease progression.

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  • Question 32 - A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic for a new patient medical evaluation....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic for a new patient medical evaluation. During his assessment, his urine dipstick test reveals the presence of blood+ and protein+. He reports no lower urinary tract symptoms or history of visible haematuria, and has no significant medical history. His blood pressure measures 140/92 mmHg. Over the course of the next two weeks, he submits two additional urine samples, both of which continue to show blood+ and protein+. A blood test reveals mildly elevated creatinine levels within the normal range and an eGFR of 60 ml/min. What is the most appropriate management approach for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a urologist

      Explanation:

      Microscopic Haematuria and Proteinuria: Clinical Relevance and Referral

      Here we have an incidental finding of microscopic haematuria and proteinuria. Microscopic haematuria is considered clinically relevant if present on at least two out of three samples tested at weekly intervals. A dipstick showing ‘trace’ blood should be considered negative, while blood 1+ or more is significant. Additionally, this patient has persistent proteinuria 1+ in all samples.

      If there had been no proteinuria, a non-urgent referral to a urologist would have been the best approach given the patient’s age. However, with the presence of proteinuria, referral to a renal physician is indicated as per NICE guidance. It is important to consider these findings and take appropriate action to ensure the best possible patient outcomes.

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  • Question 33 - A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has been experiencing difficulty urinating. Upon further questioning, he describes urinary hesitancy, a weak stream, occasional dribbling, and a sensation of incomplete emptying. These symptoms are causing him distress to the point where he avoids going out in public. Upon examination, you note a smooth enlarged prostate and decide to send blood for PSA testing and a urine specimen for culture. The results come back clear, and his PSA level is 3.8 ng/ml (normal age-adjusted range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An alpha-blocker is the first-line treatment in this patient group

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Here are some common treatment options and their effectiveness:

      Alpha-blockers: These medications, such as tamsulosin, relax smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms.

      Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP): Surgery is reserved for patients with bladder outflow obstruction or in those in whom medical therapy fails.

      Finasteride: This medication shrinks the prostate, but the benefit is seen over weeks to months.

      Prostate biopsy: This should be considered in the investigation of prostate cancer, but is not necessary in this patient with normal PSA and examination findings.

      Saw palmetto: This herbal remedy is not more effective than placebo and is not recommended by NICE.

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  • Question 34 - A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for routine blood tests. She is currently following a low-phosphate diet and taking calcitriol. The results are as follows:

      Hb 130 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 190 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 5 mg/L (< 5)
      Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 2.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 90 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.55 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 50 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the most appropriate course of action to address these blood test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sevelamer

      Explanation:

      Managing Mineral Bone Disease in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) leads to low vitamin D and high phosphate levels due to the kidneys’ inability to perform their normal functions. This results in osteomalacia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and low calcium levels. To manage mineral bone disease in CKD, the aim is to reduce phosphate and parathyroid hormone levels.

      Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management, followed by the use of phosphate binders. Aluminium-based binders are less commonly used now, and calcium-based binders may cause hypercalcemia and vascular calcification. Sevelamer, a non-calcium based binder, is increasingly used as it binds to dietary phosphate and prevents its absorption. It also has other beneficial effects, such as reducing uric acid levels and improving lipid profiles in patients with CKD.

      In some cases, vitamin D supplementation with alfacalcidol or calcitriol may be necessary. Parathyroidectomy may also be needed to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Proper management of mineral bone disease in CKD is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 35 - A 60-year-old man complains of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination, a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus is observed. His blood tests reveal a PSA level of 1.3 ng/ml.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia involves the use of alpha-1 antagonists.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

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  • Question 36 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic for a consultation. He is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic for a consultation. He is worried about his recent visit to the renal clinic, where he was informed that he has bilateral renal artery stenosis. He is seeking advice on available treatments. Additionally, his blood pressure was found to be elevated.
      What is the initial management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antihypertensive medication and lifestyle modification

      Explanation:

      Managing Renovascular Disease: Treatment Options and Lifestyle Modifications

      Renovascular disease, caused by atherosclerosis or fibromuscular dysplasia, can lead to resistant hypertension and ischaemic nephropathy, particularly in older individuals with diffuse atherosclerosis. Lifestyle modifications, such as smoking cessation, diabetes control, statins, aspirin, and adequate antihypertensive therapy, are crucial in reducing vascular risk. However, some patients may not tolerate ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor antagonists, which are commonly used to preserve GFR.

      Oral anticoagulants are not recommended as a first-line measure. Instead, medication for blood pressure control, with or without intervention, is necessary to prevent or limit the progression of chronic kidney disease and alleviate other symptoms, such as refractory pulmonary oedema and angina. Percutaneous renal artery balloon angioplasty may be considered in patients with difficult-to-control hypertension or rapidly declining kidney function. Renal artery stenting is generally the first-line intervention for flash pulmonary oedema and severe hypertension. Surgical reconstruction of the renal arteries is reserved for patients with concomitant vascular disease, such as abdominal aortic aneurysm.

      In summary, managing renovascular disease requires a combination of lifestyle modifications and appropriate medical interventions to reduce vascular risk and alleviate symptoms.

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  • Question 37 - A 57-year-old man is found to have an average blood pressure of 163/101...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is found to have an average blood pressure of 163/101 mmHg on home monitoring. Baseline bloods show a creatinine (Cr) of 95 µmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l) and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 80 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min). His urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.8 (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
      He is commenced on ramipril 2.5 mg once daily. He tolerates this well and returns to his General Practice Surgery for blood tests two weeks later, which show a Cr level of 125 µmol/l and an eGFR level of 62 mg/mmol.
      What is the most likely cause for the change in this man’s renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis (RAS)

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of acute kidney injury after starting ACE inhibitors

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure, but they can also cause a decline in renal function, especially in patients with renal artery stenosis (RAS). Therefore, it is important to monitor renal function before and after initiating or adjusting ACE inhibitors, especially in patients with risk factors for RAS. In this case, a patient who started ramipril developed a reduction in estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which was consistent with underlying RAS.

      Other potential causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) in this patient include dehydration, progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD), hypertensive nephropathy, and concomitant use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). However, the absence of relevant history or laboratory findings makes these diagnoses less likely. Dehydration can cause AKI, but there is no evidence of volume depletion or electrolyte imbalance. CKD is unlikely given the normal urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) and lack of prior renal dysfunction. Hypertensive nephropathy is a chronic condition that typically manifests as proteinuria and gradual decline in renal function, rather than an acute response to antihypertensive treatment. NSAIDs can exacerbate renal impairment in patients with preexisting renal insufficiency, but there is no indication that the patient was taking any NSAIDs.

      Therefore, the most likely explanation for the AKI in this patient is the use of ACE inhibitors, which can reduce intraglomerular pressure and renal perfusion in patients with RAS. This highlights the importance of considering the differential diagnosis of AKI in patients who start or change antihypertensive medications, especially ACE inhibitors, and monitoring renal function accordingly.

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  • Question 38 - A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue after...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue after experiencing a bout of gastroenteritis last week. She reports no other symptoms and no longer has diarrhea or vomiting. Upon examination, her blood pressure is normal at 128/72 mmHg and her pulse is 92 beats per minute. The following investigations are conducted:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) - 129 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
      Sodium (Na+) - 143 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+) - 5.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      Creatinine (Cr) - 80 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
      Urea - 9.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mild dehydration

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Mild Dehydration

      A patient presents with a slightly raised urea level and normal creatinine (Cr) level, along with mild fatigue. The most likely diagnosis is mild dehydration, which could be caused by gastroenteritis. No further treatment may be necessary, but the patient should ensure adequate nutrition and hydration in the next few days/weeks.

      Other possible diagnoses include acute gastrointestinal bleeding, acute kidney injury, chronic kidney disease, and malnutrition due to gastroenteritis. However, the patient’s normal hemoglobin level makes acute GI bleeding unlikely, while the absence of an elevated Cr level rules out acute kidney injury and CKD. Malnutrition is also unlikely given the short duration of gastroenteritis symptoms and lack of other indications.

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  • Question 39 - A 72-year-old man presents with lower urinary tract symptoms that have been progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with lower urinary tract symptoms that have been progressively worsening over the years. He complains of weak urinary stream, prolonged voiding, straining, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. He denies any visible haematuria or erectile dysfunction and is not taking any regular medication. His urine dipstick test is normal, and blood tests reveal a PSA level of 3.2 ng/mL. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is about the size of a clementine (approximately 65 cc). He reports having received lifestyle advice in the past regarding his fluid intake, but his symptoms remain bothersome, with an IPSS score of 27 and a self-reported quality of life as terrible. What is the most appropriate pharmacological approach at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finasteride 5 mg OD and tamsulosin 400 mcgs OD

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms (LUTS) in men with an enlarged prostate

      Digital rectal examination reveals a prostate about the size of a clementine (approx 65 cc). For bothersome LUTS, NICE advises drug treatment if conservative measures are unsuccessful or inappropriate. An alpha-blocker (such as tamsulosin) should be offered for moderate to severe LUTS. If LUTS are accompanied by an enlarged prostate (>30 g) or a PSA >1.4 ng/mL, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor (such as finasteride) should also be prescribed. Anticholinergic drugs (such as oxybutynin) can be used to manage storage symptoms/overactive bladder symptoms. In this case, an elderly gentleman with severe obstructive LUTS, an enlarged prostate, and a PSA >1.4 ng/mL would benefit from both an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor. The patient should be reviewed regularly to monitor progress and adjust treatment as necessary.

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  • Question 40 - A 55-year-old man who recently moved to the United Kingdom (UK) from India...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man who recently moved to the United Kingdom (UK) from India visits his General Practitioner complaining of a painless penile ulcer that has been gradually increasing in size over the past year. Upon examination, the doctor observes a solitary ulcer on the glans and painless inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Penile cancer is a rare condition in the UK, but more common in Asia and Africa, particularly in India. The most common type of penile cancer is squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC), which typically presents as a non-healing ulcer in men in their sixth decade. Behçet’s disease is a multisystem disorder that presents with recurrent painful oral and genital ulcers, along with other symptoms such as malaise, myopathy, headaches, and fevers. Adenocarcinoma is a less common type of penile cancer that tends to appear flatter and scalier than SCC. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) and syphilis are both sexually transmitted infections that can cause genital ulceration, but they present with different symptoms and require different treatments. HSV causes painful ulceration and tender lymphadenopathy, while syphilis presents with a painless chancre and painless inguinal lymphadenopathy.

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  • Question 41 - What is the ethnic group with the highest incidence of prostate cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the ethnic group with the highest incidence of prostate cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asian

      Explanation:

      Factors to Consider in Prostate Cancer

      Ethnicity is a significant factor to consider when discussing prostate cancer. The incidence of prostate cancer varies geographically, with the highest rates found in men of black ethnic group and the lowest rates in Chinese men. Age is another important factor, as prostate cancer is rare in men under 50 years old, with the majority of diagnoses made in patients over 65. Family history is also a risk factor, particularly in younger men. Prostate cancer can cluster within families, and having a first-degree relative under 70 with prostate cancer can double a patient’s relative risk of developing the disease. Finally, diet is another factor to consider, as a diet rich in red meat and dairy products has been linked to an increased risk of prostate cancer. By taking these factors into account, healthcare professionals can better assess a patient’s risk of developing prostate cancer and provide appropriate screening and treatment.

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  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old man presents with flu-like symptoms and subsequently develops haematuria. His urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with flu-like symptoms and subsequently develops haematuria. His urine dipstick is positive for blood and protein, and a urine culture is sent. He is prescribed trimethoprim but later reports feeling ill and coughing up blood. Urine microscopy reveals red cell casts. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goodpasture syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Goodpasture Syndrome: A Rare Autoimmune Disease with Pulmonary and Renal Complications

      Goodpasture syndrome is a rare autoimmune disease that typically occurs after an influenza infection. It is caused by a type II antigen-antibody reaction, resulting in circulating anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies. This disease primarily affects young men, and smokers are at a higher risk of developing severe pulmonary complications. Pulmonary haemorrhage can be massive and lead to respiratory failure. Additionally, it causes rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which has a poor prognosis if left untreated. Urine microscopy shows casts, and blood testing is positive for anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies. Chest X-ray typically shows blotchy shadowing. Treatment involves steroids and plasmapheresis.

      While other diseases can cause pulmonary and renal symptoms, they are unlikely to present in combination. Collagen diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis, idiopathic rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, microscopic polyarteritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and essential mixed cryoglobulinaemia can also cause pulmonary haemorrhage with renal failure. However, acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, resulting from an antecedent infection of the skin or throat caused by nephritogenic strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, doesn’t present with pulmonary haemorrhage. Symptoms of this disease include odema, gross haematuria, malaise, lethargy, anorexia, fever, abdominal pain, and headache. Red blood cell casts are commonly found in the urine.

      In conclusion, understanding Goodpasture syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. This rare autoimmune disease can cause severe pulmonary and renal complications, and prompt intervention is necessary to improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 43 - A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic with his partner seeking evaluation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic with his partner seeking evaluation for infertility. He gives a specimen that shows azoospermia. He has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicocoele

      Explanation:

      Retrograde Ejaculation as a Cause of Infertility

      Retrograde ejaculation is a condition that can lead to infertility in men. It may occur after surgery for benign prostatic hyperplasia or due to chronic urethral scarring caused by recurrent infections. In retrograde ejaculation, semen is redirected to the bladder instead of being expelled through the penis during ejaculation. This can make it difficult or impossible for sperm to reach the female reproductive system and fertilize an egg, leading to infertility. It is important to note that there are no other known causes of infertility in this case, based on the patient’s history and examination findings.

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  • Question 44 - A 25-year-old woman presents with peripheral oedema and polyuria. Her pulse is 90/min...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with peripheral oedema and polyuria. Her pulse is 90/min and regular and her blood pressure is 130/80. A full blood count, liver function tests and urea and electrolytes are normal. Her serum albumin is 23 g/l (35 - 50 g/l).
      Select the single most appropriate NEXT investigation that should be performed.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dipstick

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Nephrotic Syndrome: The Importance of Proteinuria and Renal Biopsy

      Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria (>3g/24 hours), hypoalbuminaemia (<30g/l), and oedema. To quantify proteinuria, a urine ACR or PCR or 24-hour urine collection is required. However, heavy proteinuria on urine dipstick is sufficient to confirm the need for a renal biopsy. Before a renal biopsy, a renal ultrasound is necessary to ensure the presence of two kidneys and confirm kidney size and position. Autoantibodies aid in diagnosis, but the initial confirmatory investigation is the dipstick. In children and young adults, minimal change glomerulonephritis is the most likely renal biopsy finding, which may be steroid responsive and has a good prognosis.

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  • Question 45 - A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin is red and he seems to be tender posteriorly. He has a temperature of 38.3°C and feels like he has the flu. The testicle and scrotum are of normal size. During the examination, he reports that the testicle feels better when lifted.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute epididymo-orchitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Acute epididymo-orchitis is a condition characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, with or without inflammation of the testes. This condition is commonly caused by infections that spread from the urethra or bladder. While orchitis, which is an infection limited to the testis, is less common, epididymitis usually presents with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling of relatively acute onset.

      Aside from the symptoms of urethritis or a urinary infection, tenderness and swelling of the epididymis may start at the tail at the lower pole of the testis and spread towards the head at the upper pole of the testis, with or without involvement of the testis. There may also be a secondary hydrocele, erythema, and/or edema of the scrotum on the affected side, as well as pyrexia.

      To diagnose epididymo-orchitis, Prehn’s sign is often used, which is indicative of epididymitis. Scrotal elevation relieves pain in epididymitis but not torsion. However, if there is any doubt, urgent referral is indicated, as torsion is the most important differential diagnosis. Torsion is more likely if the onset of pain is more acute and the pain is severe.

      It is important to note that a painful swollen testicle in an adolescent boy or a young man should be regarded as torsion until proven otherwise. In this case, the testis is said to be normal in size. Testicular cancer, on the other hand, is usually painless, and there is usually swelling of the testis. Hydrocele causes scrotal swelling.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of acute epididymo-orchitis is crucial in providing appropriate and timely medical care.

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  • Question 46 - A 50-year-old man presents with a two day history of a gradual onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a two day history of a gradual onset painful, unilateral, red, tender testicle. He is not in a new relationship.

      Which one of these statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common urinary tract organisms are the most likely cause of infection in this case

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis: Causes and Treatment

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition that affects the testicles and epididymis, which are the tubes that carry sperm. It is more commonly seen in older men and can be caused by either chlamydia or gonorrhoea, or by common urinary tract organisms.

      To diagnose the condition, urine testing for MSU and chlamydia or gonorrhoea can be done. However, due to the gradual onset of symptoms, empirical treatment should not be delayed. A 10-14 day course of quinolone is recommended as the first-line treatment.

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  • Question 47 - You are seeing a 60-year-old woman in your afternoon clinic for her annual...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 60-year-old woman in your afternoon clinic for her annual review. She feels well, although over the last 6 months she has been more tired than usual. She puts this down to starting a new job with increased hours.

      Her past medical history includes hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine 5mg once a day. She was diagnosed with mild chronic kidney disease (CKD) last year. She is a non-smoker and drinks 5-10 units of alcohol a week.

      Her blood pressure today is 130/82 mmHg. A respiratory and cardiovascular examination are both normal. A urine dip is also normal.

      Her blood results today show an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 57 mL/min/1.73 m2. An early morning albumin: creatinine ratio is 25 mg/mmol. The rest of her blood test results are as follows:


      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9mmol/l
      Urea 6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 µmol/l

      Looking back through her notes, her eGFR was 77 mL/min/1.73 m2 12 months ago and >90 mL/min/1.73 m2 2 years ago.

      What would be a correct next step for this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrology referral

      Explanation:

      Referral to a nephrologist is necessary if there is a sustained decrease in eGFR of 15 mL/min/1.73 m2 or more within 12 months. However, in the case of this patient with a normal urine dip, a urology referral would not be necessary. According to NICE guidelines, treatment for hypertension should be followed if the patient has an ACR of <30 mg/mmol, and ACE-i can be started in non-diabetic patients. Aspirin is not recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

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  • Question 48 - A 49-year-old patient sees you as part of a health check-up.
    He asks you...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old patient sees you as part of a health check-up.
      He asks you your views about whether he should have a PSA (prostate-specific antigen) check.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient should be dissuaded from a PSA check as there is no evidence that screening for prostate cancer improves mortality rates from the disease

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing and Prostate Cancer Screening

      Current advice from the Department of Health states that patients should not be refused a PSA test if they request one. However, patients should be informed about the implications of the test. While there is no clear evidence to support mass prostate cancer screening, studies have shown that diagnosing patients through case presentation has led to improved cancer mortality rates in the USA. It is important to note that many patients with prostate cancer do not experience symptoms, and urinary symptoms are not always indicative of the disease. Additionally, prostate cancer can develop in patients as young as their fifth decade of life.

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  • Question 49 - A 58-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with painless macroscopic haematuria. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with painless macroscopic haematuria. He works in an industrial paint plant. He is normally fit and well and takes no regular medications. He is a smoker.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the bladder

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Haematuria: A Brief Overview

      Haematuria, or blood in the urine, can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. It can be a sign of a variety of conditions, ranging from benign to potentially life-threatening. Here, we will discuss some of the common causes of haematuria.

      Carcinoma of the bladder is a type of cancer that commonly presents with painless haematuria in those over the age of 60. Occupational exposure to aromatic amines is a risk factor for this condition.

      Renal-cell carcinoma is another type of cancer that can cause haematuria. It is associated with smoking and obesity and typically presents with vague symptoms such as fatigue or weight loss.

      Membranous nephropathy is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome, but it is rarely associated with haematuria.

      Renal stones can cause painful haematuria, along with other symptoms such as loin pain, dysuria, and nausea.

      Urinary tract infections can also cause haematuria, but they are typically associated with urinary frequency, dysuria, and abdominal pain.

      It is important to note that haematuria should always be evaluated by a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 50 - A 27-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presents with dysuria. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presents with dysuria. She is in good health with no fever or back pain. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is not experiencing contractions. Her antenatal course has been uncomplicated and she is receiving midwife-led care. She has no known allergies to medications. Urinalysis shows positive nitrites and 2+ leukocytes, indicating a possible urinary tract infection.

      What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and immediately treat with a short course of oral antibiotics as per local prescribing guidelines. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure

      Explanation:

      For women with suspected urinary tract infections accompanied by visible or non-visible haematuria, it is recommended to send a midstream urine sample. According to current NICE CKS guidelines, this should be done before starting antibiotics and again seven days after completing treatment to confirm cure. Treatment should be initiated promptly if a UTI is suspected, without waiting for culture results. Referral to the maternity assessment unit is not necessary if there are no indications of early labour. However, if group B streptococcus is identified in the culture, it is important to inform the antenatal care service so that prophylactic antibiotics can be administered during labour and delivery.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 51 - A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal but urine dipstick testing shows blood ++. Her mother had also been hypertensive and had died prematurely aged 37 years of a cerebral haemorrhage.
      Select the single most likely cause of this patient’s hypertension.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypertension with Renal Involvement

      Hypertension with renal involvement has various causes, with renal impairment being the most common identifiable cause. Dipstick haematuria is a strong indicator of glomerulonephritis, particularly IgA nephropathy. However, if there is a family history and cerebral haemorrhage, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a likely cause. ADPKD is the most common inherited cause of serious renal disease and often presents with hypertension and microscopic haematuria. Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal arteries, which is autosomal dominant, may also cause hypertension but doesn’t present with haematuria. Renovascular atherosclerosis, on the other hand, causes hypertension but doesn’t show abnormal dipstick testing. A bruit may be audible in both fibromuscular dysplasia and renovascular atherosclerosis.

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  • Question 52 - A 55-year-old builder presents to the clinic with persistent hypertension despite optimal medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old builder presents to the clinic with persistent hypertension despite optimal medical management. The patient is well and has no other medical conditions. The hypertension was initially detected coincidentally during a well man check. As the patient remains hypertensive, investigation for secondary causes is considered.
      Which feature is most suggestive of renovascular hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A rise of serum creatinine of ≥ 20% on starting an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Renovascular hypertension can have various presentations and is often asymptomatic. However, certain features may suggest the diagnosis, such as abrupt onset of hypertension in middle-aged or older patients, severe hypertension, hypertension developing in a patient with other evidence of vascular disease, hypertension in the absence of a family history of hypertension, renal impairment occurring during treatment with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, hypertension with hypokalaemia, recurrent episodes of acute pulmonary oedema, and an abdominal bruit best heard over the flank. Renovascular hypertension occurs when stenosed renal arteries prevent afferent flow, and angiotensin II becomes the only mechanism by which the kidney can increase filtration. ACE inhibitors remove this regulatory mechanism and reduce perfusion pressure. Therefore, renal impairment following initiation of an ACE inhibitor would be more indicative of a renovascular problem than refractory hypertension with two Antihypertensive agents.

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  • Question 53 - A 10-year-old girl has been passing dark brown urine for two days. Worried,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl has been passing dark brown urine for two days. Worried, she visits her family doctor with her father.
      During examination, her face appears swollen and her blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Urine dipstick testing shows a strong presence of blood and moderate protein. Her father mentions that she had a fever and cough about a week ago.
      What is the best course of action for the doctor to take at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent paediatric/nephrology admission

      Explanation:

      Urgent Admission for a Patient with Acute Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with nephritic syndrome, including haematuria, oliguria, hypertension, and oedema, is likely suffering from acute glomerulonephritis, possibly post-streptococcal. This condition can lead to acute kidney injury and requires urgent investigation. Therefore, routine referral to paediatric nephrologists or urologists is not appropriate in this case. Instead, the patient needs to be admitted to the hospital for urgent investigation and management. While follow-up with paediatric nephrologists may be necessary, the acute presentation with hypertension and oedema requires immediate attention. A two-week rule referral for suspected malignancy is not indicated in this case.

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  • Question 54 - You observe a 20-year-old male with a left-sided varicocele that has been present...

    Incorrect

    • You observe a 20-year-old male with a left-sided varicocele that has been present for a few months. The varicocele is not causing him any discomfort and has not increased in size, measuring about 2 cm in diameter. During examination, the varicocele is only noticeable when the patient performs the Valsalva manoeuvre. The patient expresses concern about his future fertility, despite not having any immediate plans for children.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Men should not be offered surgery for varicoceles as a form of fertility treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 55 - A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum on one side. He mentioned experiencing dysuria and frequency last week, but it went away on its own. Upon examination, there was a tender swelling at the back of his left testicle. The patient is in good health otherwise and has normal vital signs.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicocele

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for Testicular Pain

      The most probable diagnosis for testicular pain in this scenario is epididymo-orchitis. This condition is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis and testes, often following a UTI or sexually transmitted infection. While testicular torsion is also a possibility, the patient’s age, recent UTI, and mild pain make it less likely. However, if the patient experiences severe pain, testicular torsion should be considered and referred to emergency care. Other potential differentials exist, but epididymo-orchitis is the most likely diagnosis.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 56 - Which of the following factors is most likely to render the use of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is most likely to render the use of the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation inappropriate for calculating an individual's eGFR, assuming the patient is 65 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, GFR typically experiences an increase, although this may not be reflected in the eGFR.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

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  • Question 57 - A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). He is feeling unwell and has had mild generalised abdominal pain for 2 days and a cloudy effluent.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send effluent fluid for cell count, microscopy and microbiological culture

      Explanation:

      Peritonitis in CAPD Patients: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Peritonitis is a common complication in patients undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD), occurring once per patient-year on average. Symptoms include generalized abdominal pain and cloudy effluent. Localized pain and tenderness may indicate a local process, while severe peritonitis may be due to a perforated organ. Fever is often absent.

      To diagnose peritonitis, a sample of the dialysate effluent should be obtained for laboratory evaluation, including a cell count with differential, Gram stain, and culture. An elevated dialysate count of white blood cells (WBC) of more than 100/mm3, of which at least 50% are neutrophils, supports the diagnosis of microbial-induced peritonitis and requires immediate antimicrobial therapy. In asymptomatic patients with only cloudy fluid, therapy may be delayed until test results are available.

      Empiric antibiotic treatment should cover both gram-negative and gram-positive organisms, including Staphylococcus epidermidis or Staphylococcus aureus, which are common causes of peritonitis. Candida albicans may also be the cause in rare cases. Antibiotics can be administered intraperitoneally by adding them to the dialysis fluid. Hospital admission is not usually necessary for this complication.

      In summary, CAPD patients should be aware of the symptoms of peritonitis and seek prompt medical attention if they occur. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 58 - A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. A colleague at work was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer which has prompted him to make this appointment.

      He reports no problems passing urine and detailed questioning reveals no lower urinary tract symptoms and no history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He is currently well with no other specific complaints. He has one brother who is 65 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer.

      He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed as his work colleague's diagnosis has made him anxious.

      Which of the following is appropriate advice to give the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and only if abnormal be offered PSA testing

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men: Pros and Cons

      PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity, as well as the inability to distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, are major points of debate.

      Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, it should be offered to men who present with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction. For asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer, it is important to discuss the pros and cons of the test and allow the patient to make their own decision.

      Digital rectal examination (DRE) should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities. If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA test should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.

      Family history of prostate cancer is an important factor to consider, with the risk of prostate cancer being higher in men with a family history of the disease. The patient should be counselled about the relevance of family history as part of their decision to have a PSA test. Overall, the decision to undergo PSA testing should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the potential benefits and risks.

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  • Question 59 - You are examining test results of a 23-year-old woman who is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining test results of a 23-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant. The midstream specimen of urine (MSU) indicates bacteriuria. During the discussion with the patient, she reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or fever. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics should be administered promptly to pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 60 - You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is in their 60s. The patient is currently taking simvastatin 20 mg, metformin 1g twice daily, and gliclazide 80 mg twice daily. The patient's latest renal function results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 141 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 3.9 mmol/l
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 115 µmol/l

      What is the creatinine threshold at which NICE recommends considering a change in metformin dosage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: > 130 µmol/l

      Explanation:

      If the creatinine level is above 130 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 45 ml/min), NICE suggests that the dosage of metformin should be reevaluated. Additionally, if the creatinine level is above 150 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 30 ml/min), NICE recommends that metformin should be discontinued.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 61 - You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his erections. He is generally healthy, a non-smoker, and consumes 8-10 units of alcohol per week. He has been in a relationship for 3 years, and this issue is beginning to impact their intimacy.

      After conducting a thorough psychosexual history, which findings from the following list would indicate an organic cause rather than a psychogenic cause for his issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A normal libido

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, mixed, or drug-induced.

      Symptoms that indicate a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset of the condition, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems, major life events, and psychological issues.

      On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset of the condition, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), risk factors in medical history such as cardiovascular, endocrine or neurological conditions, previous operations, radiotherapy, or trauma to the pelvis or scrotum, current use of drugs known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, and use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.

      Therefore, having a normal libido is indicative of an organic cause of ED.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 62 - A 56-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner concerned about his recent diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner concerned about his recent diagnosis of membranous glomerulonephritis. He inquires if there is any other health condition that could be associated with this diagnosis.
      What is a possible condition that can lead to membranous glomerulonephritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Membranous Glomerulonephritis

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease that often presents with a mixed nephrotic and nephritic picture. The condition is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, and its cause is often unknown. However, certain factors have been linked to the development of membranous glomerulonephritis, including cancers of the lung and bowel, infections such as hepatitis and malaria, and drugs like penicillamine and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      One of the most significant risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is malignancy, which is responsible for approximately 5-10% of cases. Patients over the age of 60 are at higher risk, and effective treatment of the underlying malignancy can sometimes lead to improvement in renal symptoms. However, spontaneous recovery occurs in about one-third of patients, while one-third remain with membranous nephropathy and one-third progress to end-stage renal failure.

      Other conditions, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hepatic fibrosis, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension, can also impact renal function but do not directly cause membranous glomerulonephritis. COPD, for example, can induce microvascular damage, albuminuria, and a worsening of renal function, while hepatic fibrosis can lead to hepatorenal syndrome. Chronic hypertension can also lead to hardening of the arteries and a reduction in renal function. However, understanding the specific causes and risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 63 - A 55-year-old Asian man who has lived in the United Kingdom for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old Asian man who has lived in the United Kingdom for the past 10 years presents with painless haematuria. He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day.

      Investigations reveal a haemoglobin of 110 g/L (120-160), urinalysis shows ++ blood and PA chest x ray shows small flecks of white opacifications in the upper lobe of the left lung.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Risk Factors for Haematuria and Anaemia in a Middle-Aged Male

      The most likely diagnosis for a middle-aged male presenting with haematuria and anaemia is carcinoma of the bladder. This is supported by the patient’s history of smoking, which is a known risk factor for bladder cancer. Although renal TB is a possibility, the absence of systemic symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss makes it less likely. The opacifications in the lung are consistent with previous primary TB. It is important to note that renal TB can present without systemic symptoms, but bladder cancer is more common in this scenario. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial in cases of haematuria and anaemia, and further investigations should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

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  • Question 64 - A 74-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of penile pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of penile pain. He has an indwelling catheter that has recently been changed. During examination, the preputial skin is retracted, swollen and forms a tight constricting band behind the glans penis. The glans penis is swollen and congested, while the shaft of the penis appears normal. What is the most suitable initial management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ice packs and manual compression

      Explanation:

      Paraphimosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Paraphimosis is a medical condition that occurs when the foreskin of the penis becomes trapped behind the head of the penis, leading to swelling and pain. This condition is considered a medical emergency as it can cause serious complications if left untreated. In this article, we will discuss the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for paraphimosis.

      Causes:
      Paraphimosis can occur due to a variety of reasons, including:

      – Trauma to the penis
      – Infection
      – Poor hygiene
      – Sexual activity
      – Medical procedures, such as catheterization

      Symptoms:
      The symptoms of paraphimosis include:

      – Swelling and pain in the penis
      – Inability to retract the foreskin
      – Discoloration of the penis
      – Difficulty urinating

      Treatment Options:
      The treatment for paraphimosis depends on the severity of the condition. In mild cases, the swelling can be reduced using gentle compression, ice, or osmosis. Topical lidocaine gel may also be used to reduce pain and discomfort.

      In more severe cases, multiple punctures or injections of hyaluronidase may be required. In some cases, a dorsal incision may be necessary to release the trapped foreskin. A general anesthetic may be required for these procedures.

      If a catheter is present, it should be removed temporarily until the paraphimosis has resolved.

      In conclusion, paraphimosis is a serious medical condition that requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. If you experience any symptoms of paraphimosis, seek medical attention immediately.

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  • Question 65 - Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin and LH levels should be measured

      Explanation:

      Important Information about Erectile Dysfunction

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the population, with prevalence estimates ranging from 32 to 52%. It is important to measure both lipids and glucose in all patients, as early detection of ED may precede cardiovascular disease (CVD) symptoms by up to three years. While the causes of ED are multifactorial, it is recommended to only measure pituitary hormones if testosterone levels are low. Additionally, it is important to note that recreational drugs such as cocaine and heroin can also cause ED. Overall, it is crucial to be aware of the potential risk factors and causes of ED in order to properly diagnose and treat this condition.

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  • Question 66 - A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General Hospital dies suddenly. On reviewing her regular medications, you note that she was taking aspirin, a statin and three antihypertensive agents. She had also been receiving erythropoietin injections.
      What is the most likely cause of sudden death in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiovascular disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Sudden Death in Patients Undergoing Renal Dialysis

      Patients undergoing renal dialysis are at a high risk of cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Chronic renal failure leads to several risk factors, such as abnormal lipid levels and hypertension, that contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Statins and antihypertensive medications are commonly prescribed to manage these risk factors. Aspirin may also be prescribed to prevent vascular events, although it increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Although patients on dialysis are also at an increased risk of malignancies and pulmonary embolism, sudden death due to these causes is less common than sudden death due to cardiovascular failure. Occult malignancy and overwhelming sepsis are usually preceded by symptoms of illness, whereas sudden death is unexpected. Pulmonary embolism may occur in patients with multiple risk factors, but cardiovascular disease is a more likely cause of death in this context.

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  • Question 67 - A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a thiazide, a beta blocker and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for hypertension. Her General Practitioner has recently increased some of her medication and has asked her to return to the surgery for a repeat blood pressure measurement and blood test to check for renal function and electrolytes.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Serum potassium concentration 3.1 mmol/l 3.5-5.0 mmol/l
      Blood pressure 156/94 mmHg <140/90 mmHg
      Serum creatinine concentration 115 µmol/l 70-120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the single most likely cause of her hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The thiazide diuretic

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypokalaemia: Understanding the Factors that Lower Potassium Levels

      Hypokalaemia, or low potassium levels, can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is the use of thiazide diuretics, which inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. This can lead to excess potassium loss via urine, especially in patients with underlying renal impairment. However, the use of a potassium-sparing diuretic can help offset this problem.

      Another possible cause of hypokalaemia is primary aldosteronism, also known as Conn syndrome. This condition can cause hypertension and hypokalaemia, but it only accounts for a small percentage of hypertension cases.

      Low dietary potassium intake is also a factor that can contribute to hypokalaemia, although it is less common in people who are eating normally. Potassium depletion is more likely to occur in cases of starvation.

      Renal tubular acidosis type 4, which is often seen in patients with diabetes, is associated with hyperkalaemia rather than hypokalaemia. On the other hand, renal tubular acidosis types 1 and 2 are linked to hypokalaemia.

      Lastly, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors tend to raise the plasma potassium concentration rather than decrease it, due to their action on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

      Understanding the various causes of hypokalaemia is important in identifying and treating the underlying condition.

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  • Question 68 - A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He has been lethargic and anorexic. He describes his urine is frothy. Dipstick testing of urine reveals a trace of blood but is strongly positive for protein. His blood pressure is 140/85. There are no other abnormal physical signs. He takes no medication apart from ibuprofen for intermittent backache.
      Select the single most likely cause for this.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome: Causes and Mechanisms

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. The primary causes of nephrotic syndrome include minimal-change nephropathy, focal glomerulosclerosis, and membranous nephropathy, while secondary causes include systemic diseases and drugs. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults.

      The glomerular structural changes that may cause proteinuria involve damage to the endothelial surface, the glomerular basement membrane, or the podocytes. In membranous glomerulonephritis, immune complexes localize between the outer aspects of the basement membrane and the podocytes.

      If left untreated, nephrotic syndrome can progress to end-stage renal failure in 30-50% of patients. However, some patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy may experience complete or partial spontaneous remission of nephrotic syndrome with stable renal function.

      It is important to differentiate nephrotic syndrome from other kidney conditions such as diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, acute tubular necrosis, and acute interstitial nephritis. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of nephrotic syndrome can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 69 - A 70-year-old man comes to see you after his recent prostatectomy for localised...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to see you after his recent prostatectomy for localised prostate cancer. He was diagnosed after presenting with minimal symptoms and as such he is worried about relapse and recurrence of his prostate cancer.

      He tells you that his specialist mentioned that he would have a PSA blood test performed periodically as a means of monitoring for recurrence. How often should he have his PSA checked?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At six weeks, then at least six monthly for two years, then at least annually thereafter

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Prostate Cancer Patients

      Patients who have had prostate cancer require regular monitoring to check for any signs of recurrence or progression. This is usually done through PSA blood tests, which can be done at the GP surgery. However, it is important to note that patients should be under the direction of a specialist for monitoring and follow-up appointments.

      As a GP, it is important to have an understanding of the monitoring process so that you can effectively counsel and advise patients who may have concerns about recurrence. Fear of recurrence is a common issue amongst cancer survivors, and they may feel more comfortable discussing this with their GP.

      NICE has provided guidance on active surveillance and monitoring post-treatment, which can help inform your consultations with patients. By understanding the necessary monitoring, you can provide better support and care for patients who have been affected by prostate cancer.

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  • Question 70 - A 65-year-old man presents with a 72-hour history of lower abdominal pain, dysuria,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a 72-hour history of lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and frequent urination. He has no prior history of urinary issues and no significant medical history. Upon urine dipstick testing, leucocytes and nitrites are positive while blood and protein are negative. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotics

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, men with symptoms of a lower UTI should receive oral antibiotics such as trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, based on local microbiology protocols. This patient’s dipstick test is positive for nitrites, indicating a UTI, and he should be treated accordingly.

      Intravenous antibiotics are not typically necessary for UTI treatment unless the patient experiences rigors, chills, vomiting, or confusion. Therefore, this option is not appropriate for this patient.

      Men with UTIs should not be routinely referred to urology unless the infection is recurrent. The two-week rule pathway should be followed for patients aged 45 and over with unexplained visible haematuria or aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test.

      While it may be important to rule out a sexually transmitted infection, this patient’s symptoms suggest a UTI, and there is no indication of an STI in his medical history. Therefore, empirical antibiotics should be administered initially.

      Although it is important to perform a urinary MC+S test to assess for resistant bacteria, antibiotic treatment should not be delayed while waiting for the results. In this case, prompt treatment is necessary to prevent the infection from spreading or causing sepsis.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 71 - A 12-year-old boy presents with dark discolouration of his urine. There is a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with dark discolouration of his urine. There is a history of upper respiratory tract infection with severe pharyngitis two weeks earlier. He was previously fit and well. On examination he has a puffy face with periorbital oedema. His blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which complication would be most likely to occur in the acute illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Complications

      Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN) is a type of nephritic syndrome that causes widespread hypercellularity in the kidneys. The condition is often caused by post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which can lead to dark urine and haemolysis of red blood cells. While DPGN is rare in developed countries, it remains common in the developing world and can also be associated with systemic lupus erythematosus.

      Symptoms of DPGN include hypertension, oedema, and nephrotic-range proteinuria. While most children will recover without treatment, a small proportion of adults may develop renal impairment that can progress to end-stage renal failure requiring dialysis. Acute cardiac failure is unlikely in patients with normal cardiovascular systems, but can be a cause of death in elderly patients.

      It is important to differentiate DPGN from other types of nephritic and nephrotic syndromes, such as IgA nephropathy, lupus nephritis, and minimal change disease. Complications such as acute rheumatic fever are rare but can occur in some patients. Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and potential complications of DPGN is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 72 - A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to inquire about the results of her urine culture that was taken during her first antenatal visit. She reports no symptoms and has no known allergies to medications.

      The urine culture report indicates:

      Significant growth of Escherichia coli

      Trimethoprim Sensitive
      Nitrofurantoin Sensitive
      Cefalexin Sensitive

      What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin (7 day course)

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 73 - A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
      Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.

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  • Question 74 - A 50-year-old man is to have a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test performed.
    Select...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is to have a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test performed.
      Select from the list the option that would allow you to do the test immediately rather than defer it to a later date.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He says his last ejaculation was 4 days ago

      Explanation:

      PSA levels can be affected by various factors such as digital rectal examination, urinary or prostatic infections, prostate biopsies, urinary catheterization, prostate or bladder surgery, prolonged exercise, and ejaculation. It is advisable to defer DRE for a week, but if necessary, a gentle examination is unlikely to significantly increase PSA levels. PSA levels may remain elevated for several months after infections, and testing should be delayed for at least three months after biopsies or surgeries. Prolonged exercise and ejaculation may raise PSA levels for up to 48 hours.

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  • Question 75 - A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of urgency of urine and urinary incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of urgency of urine and urinary incontinence. He denies any voiding symptoms or post-micturition symptoms. There is no evidence of haematuria.

      On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender with no evidence of a distended bladder and his prostate feels normal. Blood tests for renal function, fasting glucose and PSA were all normal. Urinalysis is also reported as normal as well as MSU.

      He was sent for bladder training which didn't help his symptoms and tolterodine and darifenacin haven't helped his symptoms. He became confused with oxybutynin.

      Which of the following options would you offer next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to urology

      Explanation:

      Management of Overactive Bladder in Frail Older Men

      When dealing with an overactive bladder in frail older men, it is important to rule out other diagnoses and try bladder training before considering medication. Oxybutynin is not recommended due to potential risks, while solifenacin is unlikely to work. Duloxetine is not recommended for overactive bladder in men, but may be used for stress incontinence in women. Desmopressin has no role in overactive bladder in men. Urology referral may be an option, but mirabegron can be used prior to referral and its effectiveness can be reviewed at 4-6 weeks. It is important to note that mirabegron is a ‘black triangle’ drug and is subject to intensive post-marketing safety surveillance. For more information on managing overactive bladder in men, visit the link provided.

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  • Question 76 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at her gynecologist appointment. She is asymptomatic but has had a history of post-coital cystitis in the past. Sarah is currently 8 weeks pregnant.

      The urine culture comes back showing the growth of Escherichia coli.

      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with 7 days of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have a UTI should be treated promptly, regardless of whether they have symptoms or not. This is because leaving a UTI untreated can increase the risk of pyelonephritis and premature delivery. Therefore, doing nothing is not an option.

      The recommended treatment for a UTI in pregnant women is a 7-day course of antibiotics. The choice of antibiotics depends on the trimester of pregnancy.

      Trimethoprim is not recommended during the first trimester due to its effect on folate metabolism. However, it is safe to use during the second and third trimesters.

      Nitrofurantoin is often the first-line treatment and is safe to use during pregnancy. However, it should be avoided at term (40 weeks) due to the small risk of neonatal haemolysis.

      In this case, since the patient is in her first trimester, a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is the recommended treatment.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 77 - A 49-year-old man presents with left loin pain which has been present for...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents with left loin pain which has been present for the last four to six weeks. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications.

      The pain doesn't radiate from the left loin and it is not mechanical in nature. It is constant and has started to disturb his sleep at night. He reports that he is opening his bowels normally and denies any lower urinary tract symptoms. Systems review reveals he has lost just over half a stone in weight over the last two months. He tells you he also feels more tired over the last few months.

      On examination there is no tenderness on palpation of the lower back at the site of pain. The overlying skin is normal and no masses are felt. Truncal movements and walking do not exacerbate the pain. Abdominal examination is normal. There are no groin abnormalities palpated. A left sided varicocoele is noted. His blood pressure is elevated at 178/98 mmHg.

      What is the next best course of action in primary care to aid in establishing a diagnosis for this 49-year-old man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal occult blood testing

      Explanation:

      Signs and Symptoms of Renal Carcinoma

      This patient is displaying signs and symptoms that suggest a possible renal carcinoma. The presence of non-mechanical back pain, weight loss, tiredness, hypertension, and left sided varicocoele should alert the clinician to consider a renal cause. It is important to rule out musculoskeletal causes for the back pain and to check for the presence of blood in the urine through a dipstick test.

      Renal tumours are often picked up by ultrasound, with haematuria and PUO being more common presentations than pain. It is worth noting that renal and retroperitoneal tumours may cause obstruction of the left testicular vein, leading to a left-sided varicocoele. Therefore, if a varicocoele is found on testicular imaging, the kidneys should also be scanned for any masses. Overall, it is crucial to consider a renal aetiology when presented with these symptoms.

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  • Question 78 - You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day history of dysuria and frequency of urination. There is no reported visible haematuria. He has no history of urinary tract infections, however, he does report longstanding problems with poor urinary stream, hesitancy of urination, and nocturia.

      Clinical examination of his abdomen and loins is unremarkable and he has no fever or systemic upset.

      Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites positive
      leucocytes ++
      protein ++
      blood ++.

      You diagnose a urinary tract infection, send a urine sample to the laboratory for analysis, and treat him with a course of antibiotics.

      You go on to chat about his more longstanding lower urinary tract symptoms. Following this discussion, he is keen to have a rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. Digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign feeling prostate.

      Two days later, the laboratory urine results return confirming a urinary tract infection.

      When is the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The test can be performed any time from now

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test

      The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, or ejaculation.

      It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if the person has recently ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the past 48 hours, the test should also be postponed. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, studies have shown that rectal examination has minimal impact on PSA levels.

      In summary, several factors can affect the results of the PSA blood test, and it is crucial to consider these factors before interpreting the test results accurately.

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  • Question 79 - You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has been experiencing difficulties with achieving and maintaining erections for the past year, with a gradual worsening of symptoms. He infrequently seeks medical attention and has no prior medical history.

      What is the predominant organic etiology for this particular symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vascular causes

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual activity. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, and mixed, with certain medications also contributing to the condition.

      Organic causes of ED include vasculogenic, neurogenic, structural, and hormonal factors. Among these, vasculogenic causes are the most common and are often linked to cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, and major pelvic surgery.

      The risk factors for ED are similar to those for cardiovascular disease and include obesity, diabetes, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, hypertension, endothelial dysfunction, and lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking. Therefore, when evaluating a man with ED, it is important to screen for cardiovascular disease and obtain a thorough psychosexual history.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 80 - A 25-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of dysuria, visible haematuria,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of dysuria, visible haematuria, and feeling generally unwell for the past 24 hours. She also has a fever. The patient has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications. During the examination, the patient's abdomen is soft with slight suprapubic tenderness. There is no renal angle tenderness, and bowel sounds are normal.

      What is the appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral antibiotics and mid-stream urine (MSU)

      Explanation:

      For women with suspected UTI accompanied by visible or non-visible haematuria, it is necessary to send an MSU along with oral antibiotics. Admission for suspected pyelonephritis is not required, but safety netting should be done. Encouraging hydration and reviewing in 24-48h is not appropriate for this case. Oral antibiotics without any investigations are not recommended. An MSU is essential in the presence of haematuria. Delaying antibiotics could lead to pyelonephritis, so a delayed prescription could be considered for less unwell patients.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 81 - A 32-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a 2-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency, and urgency. She appears to be in good health and is only taking folic acid. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. A urine dip test reveals positive results for leucocytes and nitrates but negative for ketones and glucose. As the healthcare provider, you decide to initiate antibiotic therapy. What is the most suitable duration of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      For pregnant women with a UTI, a 7-day course of antibiotics is necessary. During the first trimester, nitrofurantoin is the preferred antibiotic, given as 100 mg modified-release twice a day for the entire duration. However, it should be avoided during the term as it may cause neonatal haemolysis. Uncomplicated UTIs in non-pregnant patients can be treated with a 3-day course of antibiotics. For simple lower respiratory tract infections or skin infections, a 5-day course of antibiotics is recommended. Previously, men with UTIs were advised to undergo a 10-14 day treatment, but the latest NICE guidance in 2018 recommends a 7-day course of either trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for suspected lower urinary tract infections in men.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 82 - A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.

      She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.

      She has tried pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months but still finds the symptoms very debilitating. She denies feeling depressed. She is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.

      Urinalysis is unremarkable. On vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.

      What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries are an alternative non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the patient only presents with stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary under the 2-week-wait pathway. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the patient’s symptoms persist after 6 months of trying this approach, it is not advisable to continue with the same strategy.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 83 - A 50-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a painful, persistent erection...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a painful, persistent erection that has lasted for six hours and doesn't subside. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Priapism: Causes and Types

      Priapism is a medical condition characterized by prolonged and painful erections that can last for several hours. There are two types of priapism: low-flow (ischaemic) and high-flow (arterial). Low-flow priapism is the most common type and is often associated with sickle cell disease, leukaemia, thalassemia, and other medical conditions. It is caused by the inadequate return of blood from the penis, resulting in a rigid erection. High-flow priapism, on the other hand, is less common and is usually caused by a ruptured artery from a blunt injury to the penis or perineum.

      Stuttering priapism is a distinct condition that is characterized by repetitive and painful episodes of prolonged erections. It is a type of low-flow priapism and is often associated with sickle cell disease. The duration of the erectile episodes in stuttering priapism is generally shorter than in the low-flow ischaemic type.

      Other medical conditions that can cause priapism include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, Fabry’s disease, neurologic disorders, such as spinal cord lesions and spinal cord trauma, and neoplastic diseases, such as prostate, bladder, testicular, and renal cancer and myeloma. Many drugs can also cause priapism, but nearly 50% of cases are idiopathic.

      In conclusion, priapism is a serious medical condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the causes and types of priapism can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

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  • Question 84 - A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a progressively diminishing urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a progressively diminishing urinary stream, dysuria and urinary frequency. He denies any possibility of a sexually transmitted disease. He feels quite unwell. On examination, he has temperature of 38.7°C and digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a very tender and slightly enlarged prostate.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Dysuria and a Tender Prostate on DRE in Men

      When a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on digital rectal examination (DRE), several conditions may be considered. Acute prostatitis is a likely diagnosis, especially if the patient also has lower urinary tract symptoms and fever. The cause is often a urinary tract infection, with Escherichia coli being the most common culprit. In sexually active men under 35, Neisseria gonorrhoeae should also be considered.

      Prostate cancer is less likely to present with acute symptoms and is more commonly associated with a gradual onset of symptoms or urinary retention. Cystitis is rare in men and would not explain the tender prostate on examination. Urethritis may cause dysuria and urinary frequency but is not typically associated with a tender prostate on DRE. Prostatic abscess should be suspected if symptoms worsen despite treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis or if a fluctuant mass is palpable in the prostate gland.

      In summary, when a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on DRE, acute prostatitis is the most likely diagnosis, but other conditions should also be considered based on the patient’s history and clinical presentation.

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  • Question 85 - A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites+
      leucocytes++
      blood++

      She has had four urinary tract infections in the last six months, with each episode confirmed by laboratory testing. On each occasion, urine dipstick testing has shown microscopic blood as well as nitrite and leucocyte positivity. After treatment with antibiotics, the infections have settled, but on the last occasion, she experienced visible haematuria.

      The patient asks if there is anything she can do to prevent these infections. She had only one previous UTI about six years ago. What is the best approach in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her to a urologist as urgent suspected cancer at this point in time

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Recurrent UTI with Non-Visible Haematuria

      Recurrent UTI is defined as three or more episodes in a year. In the case of a woman with her fourth episode in the last six months, it is important to investigate further. If visible or non-visible haematuria is present on dipstick testing when a UTI is suspected, a urine sample should be sent to the laboratory for mc+s testing in all patients. If infection is confirmed, a urine sample should be dipstick tested for blood after antibiotic treatment has been completed. If haematuria persists, further investigation is warranted.

      According to NICE guidelines, urgent referral is necessary for bladder cancer if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. For renal cancer, urgent referral is necessary if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection.

      In the case of a woman with recurrent UTIs associated with non-visible haematuria each time, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer.

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  • Question 86 - You assess a 78-year-old woman who has a history of type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 78-year-old woman who has a history of type 2 diabetes and mild cognitive impairment. During a previous visit, you referred her for bladder retraining due to urge incontinence. However, she reports that her symptoms have not improved and the incontinence is becoming increasingly bothersome and embarrassing. She is interested in exploring other treatment options, but expresses concerns about potential medication side effects on her memory. What would be the most suitable next step in managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirabegron

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing urge incontinence, anticholinergics like solifenacin and oxybutynin can cause confusion in elderly patients, making them less suitable for those with cognitive impairment. Instead, mirabegron, a beta-3 adrenergic agonist, is a better alternative that can effectively treat urge incontinence without the risk of anticholinergic side effects. Long-term catheterisation and fluid restriction should not be considered as viable options for managing incontinence.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 87 - A 63-year-old male came to the urologists complaining of urinary hesitancy and dribbling....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male came to the urologists complaining of urinary hesitancy and dribbling. The diagnosis was benign prostatic hyperplasia and he was prescribed finasteride. What is the mechanism of action of finasteride?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LHRH antagonist

      Explanation:

      Finasteride: A 5-alpha-reductase Inhibitor

      Finasteride is a medication that inhibits the enzyme 5-alpha-reductase, which is responsible for converting testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). By blocking this conversion, finasteride opposes the effects of testosterone, leading to common side effects such as gynaecomastia and reduced libido.

      In addition to its use as a treatment for these side effects, finasteride is also prescribed orally as Propecia to treat male pattern hair loss. Despite its potential side effects, finasteride has been shown to be an effective treatment for hair loss in many men.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 88 - A 45-year-old woman with stage 3a chronic kidney disease visits her primary care...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with stage 3a chronic kidney disease visits her primary care physician to receive the results of her yearly eGFR test. The following are her eGFR results from the past three years:

      Date 10/31/17 10/31/18 10/31/19
      eGFR (ml/min/1.73m²) 59 51 35

      What would be the most suitable course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to nephrologist

      Explanation:

      CKD is diagnosed when there is evidence of kidney damage or a decrease in kidney function for at least three months. This can be determined by a persistent eGFR of less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 or a change in GFR category or sustained decrease in eGFR of 15 mL/min/1.73 m2 or more within 12 months. Additionally, a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless proteinuria is known to be associated with diabetes mellitus and is managed appropriately, or a urinary ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more together with persistent haematuria, after exclusion of a urinary tract infection (UTI), can also indicate CKD. Other indications include hypertension that remains uncontrolled despite the use of at least four antihypertensive drugs at therapeutic doses, a suspected or confirmed rare or genetic cause of CKD, such as polycystic kidney disease, suspected renal artery stenosis, or a suspected complication of CKD.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 89 - A 63-year-old man attends for diabetic annual review. His current medication consists of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man attends for diabetic annual review. His current medication consists of metformin 500 mg TDS, pioglitazone 30 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and atorvastatin 20 mg ON. His latest HbA1c blood test result is 66 mmol/mol. His renal function shows an eGFR of >90 ml/min.

      As part of his review his urine is dipstick tested and shows blood+. It is negative for glucose, protein, leucocytes, nitrites and ketones.

      The patient feels well and denies any urinary symptoms or frank haematuria. His blood pressure is 126/82 mmHg.

      You provide him with two urine containers and ask him to submit further samples in one and two weeks time for repeat testing. You also send a urine sample to the laboratory for microalbuminuria testing.

      The repeat tests show persisting blood+ only. His urine albumin:creatinine ratio is 1.9 and there is a leucocytosis on blood testing.

      What is the most appropriate approach in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review his medications and refer urgently to a urologist

      Explanation:

      Managing Microscopic Haematuria

      Persistent microscopic haematuria should be considered clinically relevant if present on at least two out of three samples tested at weekly intervals. A dipstick showing ‘trace’ blood should be considered negative. Blood 1+ or more is significant. If a patient is aged 60 and over and has unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, referral to a Urologist as an urgent suspected cancer is advised according to NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer.

      It is important to note that certain medications, such as clopidogrel, aspirin, and warfarin, should not be attributed to microscopic haematuria. Additionally, if the sample is painless, it must have 1+ of blood or more on at least 2 out of 3 occasions to be considered abnormal.

      If a patient is on pioglitazone, which carries a small but significant increased risk of bladder cancer, it would be prudent to stop the medication at least until the microscopic haematuria has been investigated.

      In summary, managing microscopic haematuria involves careful consideration of the frequency and amount of blood present in the sample, as well as referral to a specialist for further investigation in certain cases.

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  • Question 90 - A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of frequent urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of frequent urine leakage. What is the initial method to evaluate urinary incontinence or overactive bladder in women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of therapy

      Explanation:

      Importance of a Bladder Diary in Assessing Urinary Incontinence

      A bladder diary is a crucial tool in the initial assessment of urinary incontinence or overactive bladder syndrome in women. It helps to identify patterns and triggers of urinary symptoms, which can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of the condition. Women should be encouraged to complete a minimum of three days of the diary to cover variations of their usual activities, including work and leisure time.

      By keeping track of their urinary habits, women can provide their healthcare provider with valuable information about their symptoms, such as frequency, urgency, and leakage. This information can help the provider to determine the type and severity of the condition and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Therefore, it is essential for women to use a bladder diary when experiencing urinary incontinence or overactive bladder syndrome.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 91 - A 61-year-old man with hypertension attends the General Practice Surgery for his annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man with hypertension attends the General Practice Surgery for his annual review. He currently takes a combination of 5 mg ramipril and 5 mg amlodipine once a day.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 136/82 mmHg.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Creatinine (Cr) 142 µmol/l 59–104 µmol/l
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 63 ml/min < 90 ml/min
      Urine albumin : creatine (ACR) ratio 80 mg/mmol < 3.0 mg/mmol
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A BP treatment goal of < 130/80 mmHg is indicated for patients with proteinuria (ACR > 70 mg/mmol)

      Explanation:

      For patients with proteinuria (ACR > 70 mg/mmol), the goal for blood pressure treatment is to keep it below 130/80 mmHg. In cases of chronic kidney disease (CKD), where the patient has a high Cr level and ACR, the aim is to keep systolic BP below 140 mmHg and diastolic BP below 90 mmHg. However, for patients with CKD and diabetes, or an ACR of > 70 mg/mmol, the target is slightly lower, with systolic BP below 130 mmHg and diastolic BP below 80 mmHg.

      Contrary to popular belief, ACE inhibitors are not contraindicated for patients with only one kidney. In fact, patients with a single kidney are more prone to renal impairment and should be considered for ACE-inhibitor treatment.

      While it was previously recommended that patients with proteinuria consume a high-protein diet to replace urinary losses, recent studies have shown that a low-protein diet can reduce the death rate in those with CKD. However, a prescribed/modified protein intake of 0.75 g/kg ideal-bodyweight/day for patients with stage 4–5 CKD not on dialysis, and 1.2 g/kg ideal-bodyweight/day for patients treated with dialysis, is now suggested.

      It is important to note that the result measured by laboratories is an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which assumes standard body surface area and race. Patients who have had amputations or other physical differences could receive inaccurate results. Additionally, an eGFR level of between 60 and 89 ml/min can signify kidney disease if proteinuria is also present, as is the case with this patient who has an ACR level of > 70 mg/mol. Therefore, it would be inappropriate to suggest that an eGFR level above 60 ml/minute per 1.73 m2 indicates the absence of renal impairment.

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  • Question 92 - A 65-year-old man of Mediterranean origin with chronic kidney disease presents for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man of Mediterranean origin with chronic kidney disease presents for his annual check-up. His most recent eGFR is 50 mL/min/1.73m2 and his urine albumin creatinine ratio is 42 mg/mmol. He reports feeling well and adhering to the aspirin and atorvastatin prescribed to him last year. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home and provides a week's worth of readings, which indicate an average blood pressure of 143/95 mmHg.

      What recommendations would you make for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      For patients with chronic kidney disease, the urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) is an important measure of protein loss in the urine. If the ACR is 30 or more, the first line of treatment should be an ACE inhibitor, as it can reduce proteinuria and provide renal protection beyond its use as an antihypertensive. However, if the ACR is less than 30, current NICE guidelines on hypertension should be followed for treatment.

      In the case of this patient, an ACE inhibitor should be considered as the first line of treatment since their ACR is greater than 30. Thiazide-like diuretics are a suitable alternative to calcium channel blockers for non-diabetic patients with hypertension and can be used as a second line option. Beta blockers are not a first line option for blood pressure control in non-diabetic patients and are only recommended as a step 4 treatment for hypertension.

      If there is doubt about the validity of the patient’s home readings or if they prefer lifestyle management, monitoring without medication changes may be a viable option. However, tight blood pressure control is essential to slow the rate of deterioration of chronic kidney disease and reduce cardiovascular risk.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

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  • Question 93 - A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history asks for a PSA test...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history asks for a PSA test after hearing about a friend of his father who was diagnosed with prostate cancer. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give him a patient information leaflet with details of the PSA test and allow him to make the choice

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.

      The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.

      PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 94 - A 65-year-old Caucasian man visits his GP for a routine health check-up. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Caucasian man visits his GP for a routine health check-up. During the examination, his clinic blood pressure is found to be elevated. Further ambulatory monitoring reveals a daytime average measurement of 160/96 mmHg. His blood and urine tests show the following results:

      - Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Creatinine 136 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 56 ml/min/1.73 m² (>90)
      - HbA1c 39 mmol/mol (<42)
      - Urinary albumin: creatinine ratio 45 mg/mmol (<3)

      The patient confirms that the urine sample was produced in the early morning, and his eGFR is unchanged from last year. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence ramipril

      Explanation:

      Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of >30 mg/mmol should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor or an ARB, regardless of age or ethnicity, to reduce the progression of kidney damage. In the case of a man with stage 2 hypertension and chronic kidney disease G3aA3, commencing ramipril is the correct choice. His blood pressure target should be less than 140/90 mmHg. Amlodipine is not recommended for patients with chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of >30 mg/mmol. Dapagliflozin is not appropriate for this man as he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes. Referring him to a nephrologist is not necessary at this time as he doesn’t meet the criteria for specialist referral. While lifestyle modifications should be advised, pharmacological treatment is necessary for this man given the severity of his condition.

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

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  • Question 95 - A 63-year-old lady presents to your clinic with complaints of urine leakage when...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old lady presents to your clinic with complaints of urine leakage when she sneezes and coughs. She denies dysuria but reports seeing blood in her urine. She has no gastrointestinal symptoms. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urinalysis reveals the presence of blood, and an MSU shows RBC>100/mm3. She has no known allergies. What would be your approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to urology

      Explanation:

      Managing Urinary Incontinence and Haematuria in Women

      Stress urinary incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as fluid and caffeine intake reduction, and pelvic floor muscle training. If medical or surgical treatment is preferred, duloxetine can be used as a second-line option. However, trimethoprim is not appropriate in the absence of urinary infection. Routine referral to urology may be necessary for surgical management, but only if there are no red flags.

      On the other hand, nephrology referral is indicated for women under 50 years old with microscopic haematuria, proteinuria, or decreased eGFR. In this case, an urgent urology referral is necessary due to the patient’s macroscopic haematuria without urinary tract infection and unexplained microscopic haematuria at her age.

      Managing urinary incontinence and haematuria in women requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Proper diagnosis and referral to the appropriate specialist can help ensure effective treatment and management of these conditions.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 96 - What is the correct statement about measuring the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about measuring the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It doesn't need to be adjusted for different racial groups

      Explanation:

      Understanding Renal Function: Estimating Glomerular Filtration Rate

      Renal function is a crucial aspect of overall health, and it is typically measured by estimating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). There are various equations available to calculate GFR, but the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) creatinine equation is recommended by NICE. This equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and race.

      It is important to note that laboratories often assume a standard body surface area, which can lead to inaccurate results in individuals with extreme muscle mass. For example, bodybuilders, amputees, and those with muscle wasting disorders may have an overestimated or underestimated GFR.

      Additionally, certain factors can affect serum creatinine levels and thus impact the accuracy of eGFR results. For instance, consuming a cooked meat meal can temporarily increase serum creatinine concentration, leading to a falsely lowered eGFR. Conversely, strict and long-term vegetarians may have a reduced baseline eGFR.

      If an eGFR result is less than 60 ml/min/1.73m2 in someone who has not been previously tested, it is recommended to confirm the result by repeating the test in two weeks.

      Finally, it is worth noting that creatinine clearance is sometimes used as a rough measurement of GFR, but it has limitations. This method involves a 24-hour urine collection and a serum creatinine measurement during that time period. However, accurate urine collection can be challenging, and this method tends to overestimate GFR and is time-consuming.

      Overall, understanding how to estimate GFR and interpret the results is crucial for assessing renal function and identifying potential health concerns.

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  • Question 97 - You are evaluating a 54-year-old male patient who you initiated on 2.5mg of...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 54-year-old male patient who you initiated on 2.5mg of ramipril two weeks ago for stage 2 hypertension. He has a history of mild chronic kidney disease (CKD) diagnosed two years ago. He is not taking any other medications and has no significant past medical history. On a previous assessment, you noted some pulmonary oedema, and an echo revealed normal left-ventricular function. A urine dip was unremarkable. He remains hypertensive today, but apart from shortness of breath on exertion, he is asymptomatic. There is no notable family history.

      Two weeks ago, his blood tests showed an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 67 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his blood results were:

      - Na+ 139 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      - Urea 6.5 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 110 µmol/l

      This week, his blood tests show an eGFR of 65 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his renal function showed:

      - Na+ 141 mmol/l
      - K+ 5.0 mmol/l
      - Urea 6.9 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 140 µmol/l

      What is the likely underlying diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences an increase in serum creatinine after starting an ACE-inhibitor like ramipril, it may indicate renal artery stenosis. Other signs of this condition include refractory hypertension and recurrent pulmonary edema with normal left ventricular function. A normal urine dip makes options 1, 2, and 3 unlikely, and there are no symptoms of cancer, infection, or diabetes. While polycystic kidney disease is a possibility, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and typically presents with hypertension, kidney stones, haematuria, or an abdominal mass. However, given the patient’s history and lack of family history of renal disease, renal artery stenosis is the more likely diagnosis.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

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  • Question 98 - A 52-year-old lady presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old lady presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She denies any dysuria or haematuria and reports no gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and urinalysis is unremarkable. She reports drinking 7 glasses of water daily and abstaining from caffeinated beverages. Her BMI is 23.5, and she is a non-smoker. You decide to refer her to a physiotherapist for pelvic floor exercises. How long should she continue these exercises before seeing a benefit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Referral for Pelvic Floor Exercises

      Referral for supervised pelvic floor exercises is recommended for women who experience urinary stress incontinence after making lifestyle changes. This referral can be made to a continence advisor, specialist nurse, or physiotherapist. The program is tailored to the individual’s needs and lasts for at least three months, with the option to continue if benefits are observed. Patients are advised to perform a minimum of eight pelvic floor muscle contractions three times a day.

      It is important to be aware of the evidence-based approach to inform patients of what they may expect in secondary care. For more information on pelvic floor exercises, visit pogp.csp.org.uk.

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  • Question 99 - A 50-year-old man has renal impairment. His eGFR has been measured at 32...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has renal impairment. His eGFR has been measured at 32 ml/min/1.73 m2. He has developed anaemia. He has a normocytic anaemia with a haemoglobin concentration of 98 g/l (normal 130 – 180g/l). His ferritin level is low.
      Select from the list the single correct option concerning anaemia in chronic kidney disease.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment of his anaemia should aim to maintain his haemoglobin between 100g/l and 120g/l

      Explanation:

      Managing Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      Anaemia is a common occurrence in patients with severe renal impairment. The kidneys’ reduced ability to produce erythropoietin leads to normochromic, normocytic anaemia. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends investigating and managing anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) if their haemoglobin level falls to 110g/l or less (105g/l if less than 2 years) or if they develop symptoms of anaemia.

      Iron deficiency is a common issue in people with CKD, which may be due to poor dietary intake, occult bleeding, or functional imbalance between the iron requirements of the erythroid marrow and the actual iron supply. It is important to manage iron deficiency before starting erythropoetic stimulating agent therapy. The aspirational haemoglobin range is typically between 100 and 120g/l (95 to 115g/l if less than 2 years to reflect lower normal range in that age group).

      It is not recommended to prescribe vitamin C supplements as adjuvants specifically for the anaemia of CKD. Overall, managing anaemia in CKD patients requires careful attention to iron levels and haemoglobin ranges.

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  • Question 100 - A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of 7.5 ng/ml (normal range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate conclusion to make from this information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It could be explained by prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding PSA Levels in Prostate Health: What You Need to Know

      PSA levels can be a useful indicator of prostate health, but they are not always straightforward to interpret. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      – PSA has a low specificity: prostatitis and acute urinary retention can both result in increased serum PSA concentrations. As the patient is known to have prostatism, this could well account for a raised PSA; however, further investigation to exclude a malignancy may be warranted.
      – It is diagnostic of malignancy: Although this level is certainly compatible with malignancy; it is not diagnostic of it. Further investigations, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scanning and/or prostatic biopsies, are needed to confirm a diagnosis of prostate cancer.
      – It is invalidated if he underwent a digital rectal examination 8 days before the blood sample was taken: Although DRE is known to increase PSA levels, it is a minor and only transient effect. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme says that the test should be postponed for a week following DRE.
      – It is prognostically highly significant: In general, the higher the PSA, the greater the likelihood of malignancy, but some patients with malignancy have normal levels (often taken as = 4 ng/ml but are actually age dependent). The absolute PSA concentration correlates poorly with prognosis in prostatic cancer. Other factors such as the tumour staging and Gleason score need to be considered.
      – It is unremarkable in a man of this age: Although PSA does increase with age, the British Association of Urological Surgeons gives a maximum level of 7.2 ng/ml in those aged 70–75 years (although it acknowledges that there is no ‘safe “maximum” level’). Therefore, this level can still indicate malignancy, regardless of symptoms.

      In summary, PSA levels can provide important information about prostate health, but they should always be interpreted in the context of other factors and confirmed with further testing if necessary.

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  • Question 101 - An 81-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with increasing oedema and ascites....

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with increasing oedema and ascites. He reports shortness of breath during exercise. Past medical history reveals that he has a history of hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine, and that he drinks two cans of stout on Friday and Saturday nights. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. His chest X-ray (CXR) reveals a normal heart size and no signs of cardiac failure. Urine dipstick doesn't detect haematuria.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Serum albumin 230 g/l 350–500 g/l
      Haemoglobin 12.5 g/dl 13.5–17.5 g/dl
      Mean cell volume (MCV) 92 fl 80–100 fl
      Total cholesterol 7.8 mmol/l < 5 mmol/l
      24-hour urinary protein excretion 5g/24 hours < 0.15g/24 hours
      What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Oedema and Abnormal Lab Results

      Upon examination of a patient displaying oedema and abnormal lab results, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s low serum albumin, abnormal cholesterol, and increased urinary protein excretion suggest nephrotic syndrome, which is characterized by urinary protein excretion above 3.5 g/24 hours. This excessive protein loss leads to hypoalbuminaemia and subsequent oedema, which may cause breathlessness due to pleural effusion or ascites.

      However, cardiac failure can also cause oedema, but a normal ECG and CXR without signs of cardiomegaly, pleural effusions, or pulmonary venous congestion make this diagnosis less likely. Amlodipine treatment can also cause oedema, but the patient’s other symptoms do not align with the side effects of this medication.

      Cirrhosis is unlikely as the patient’s alcohol consumption doesn’t exceed safe limits, and there are no indications of any other cause of cirrhosis. Nephritic syndrome, which is characterized by haematuria and reduced urine output, is also unlikely as the patient doesn’t display these symptoms and his urinary protein excretion is above the threshold for this diagnosis.

      In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and lab results suggest nephrotic syndrome as the most likely diagnosis, but other potential causes should also be considered and ruled out through further testing and examination.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 102 - A 4-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of poor urinary stream...

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    • A 4-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of poor urinary stream and dribbling. He has had four urinary tract infections (UTIs) diagnosed in the last eight months. He is otherwise developmentally normal.
      What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valve

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Poor Urinary Stream in Boys

      Poor urinary stream in boys can be a sign of urinary-tract obstruction, which is often caused by posterior urethral valves. While this condition is usually diagnosed before birth, delayed presentation can be due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Other possible causes of poor urinary stream include urethral stricture, bladder calculi, and neurogenic bladder. However, these conditions are less common and may be associated with other developmental or neurological issues. Vesicoureteric reflux, which occurs when urine flows back from the bladder up the ureters, may also be a result of urinary tract obstruction but is not likely to be the primary cause of poor urinary stream and terminal dribbling.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 103 - A 25-year-old man presents to the surgery having noticed fresh blood in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the surgery having noticed fresh blood in his semen yesterday evening. This has not occurred previously and he is otherwise fit and well. He is married and has never changed sexual partner.

      On examination, blood pressure is 110/70; abdominal, testicular, and digital rectal examination are normal. His urine culture result returns with no significant growth.

      What is the next most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scrotal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Haematospermia: Causes and Referral Guidelines

      Haematospermia, or blood in semen, is usually a benign and self-limiting condition. In men under 40, infection is the most common cause. If no underlying cause is found for a single episode of haematospermia, it is likely to resolve on its own. Referral to haematology is not necessary unless there are other signs of a bleeding disorder, leukaemia, or lymphoma. However, urgent referral to Urology may be necessary for patients over 40 or those with signs of prostate cancer, such as an elevated PSA or abnormal digital rectal examination. Scrotal ultrasound may be useful if there is testicular swelling. Ciprofloxacin may be used to treat prostatitis, but it is not typically indicated for haematospermia.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 104 - A 25-year-old man comes in with an inflamed glans and prepuce of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes in with an inflamed glans and prepuce of his penis. He has not been sexually active for six months and denies any discharge. He reports cleaning the area twice a day. He has no history of joint problems or skin conditions. Which of the following statements is accurate in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is likely this is an allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Balanitis: Causes and Management

      Balanitis is a common condition that presents in general practice. It can have various causes, but the most likely cause in many cases is an irritant reaction from excessive washing and use of soaps. Other common causes include Candida, psoriasis, and other skin conditions. If there is any discharge, swabbing should be done. If ulceration is present, herpes simplex virus (HSV) should be considered. In older men with persistent symptoms, Premalignant conditions and possible biopsy may be considered.

      The management of balanitis involves advice, reassurance, and a topical steroid as the initial treatment. Testing for glycosuria should be considered to rule out Candida. If the symptoms persist, further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause. It is important to identify the cause of balanitis to ensure appropriate management and prevent recurrence. By understanding the causes and management of balanitis, healthcare professionals can provide effective care to patients with this condition.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 105 - Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has...

    Incorrect

    • Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has a medical history of well-controlled osteoarthritis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Currently, she takes Symbicort (budesonide with formoterol) 200/6, salbutamol, and uses senna and naproxen tablets as required.

      Her recent urine sample indicates an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 87 mg/mmol, which is higher than the previous sample taken 6 months ago, showing an ACR of 79 mg/mmol. Additionally, her serum urea and creatinine results have mildly deteriorated over the last 6 months.

      During her clinic visit, her blood pressure measures 129/76 mmHg.

      What medication changes would you suggest for Evelyn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start ramipril and atorvastatin, consider alternatives to naproxen

      Explanation:

      Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, all patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of cardiovascular disease. In the case of a patient experiencing a decline in renal function, it may be advisable to discontinue the use of naproxen, although this decision should be made in consideration of the patient’s symptoms and functional impairment. The recommended course of action would be to start the patient on ramipril and atorvastatin while exploring alternative treatments for osteoarthritis. The second option is only partially correct, as ramipril is advised regardless of blood pressure in CKD patients with this level of proteinuria. The third option doesn’t include ramipril or atorvastatin, while the fourth and fifth options do not include atorvastatin. Ultimately, the decision to discontinue naproxen use will depend on the healthcare professional’s clinical judgement, the patient’s preferences, and the frequency of use.

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology